PSYCHOPATHOLOGY Midterm 1 content Flashcards

Psychopathology material from beginning to midterm 1

1
Q

What is psychopathology?

A

the scientific study of psychological/mental disorder

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2
Q

Is psychopathology used more often in scientific literature or clinical practice?

A

Scientific literature

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3
Q

Mental illness

A

often used to when a clear diagnosis has been made and/or when symptoms are severe
some people find this stigmatizing

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4
Q

Is distress alone sufficient for a requirement for a mental disorder?

A

No

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4
Q

What is a dysfunction?

A

When a mental health problem interferes with the ability to complete day-to-day tasks

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5
Q

What is a mental health problem/concern/issue?

A

a general and neutral term that can apply to any context

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6
Q

Mental disorders are defined by thoughts, behaviours, and emotions that:

A
  1. cause dysfunction to daily life
  2. cause personal distress
  3. are atypical or not culturally expected
    (combination is important)
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7
Q

What is a mental disorder?

A

1) a disorder caused by a failure of a mechanisms to do their evolved function
2) the dysfunction causes harm or distress

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8
Q

If you see this, go review the textbook example of a woman experiencing voices “at the wrong time”

A

textbook!

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9
Q

What is the 4th criteria of characterizing some mental disorders?

A

danger

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10
Q

What are the 4 Ds in psychopathology?

A

Dysfunction
Distress
Deviance
Danger

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11
Q

What are some controversies related to defining mental disorders?

A

who decides what is normal or abnormal?

what counts as one single disease, disorder, or syndrome?

Are they even real? (since it’s subjective rather than objective)

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12
Q

What is a College?

A

An organization that overseas and regulates health professionals

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13
Q

What is a protected title?

A

only individuals with certain training credentials legally refer to themselves with a specific title (Dr)

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14
Q

Is therapist a protected title?

A

No

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15
Q

Is psychotherapist a protected title?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Is health care worker a protected title?

A

no

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17
Q

Is medical doctor a protected title?

A

Yes

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18
Q

What is a protected act?

A

only individuals with certain training credentials are permitted to perform certain procedures (delivering a baby)

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19
Q

What can psychologists do?

A
  • Have a PhD or PsyD
  • can assess, diagnose, and treat mental health disorders
  • can NOT prescribe medication
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20
Q

What can psychiatrists do?

A
  • medical doctors
  • can diagnose AND prescribe medication
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21
Q

What can psychotherapists do?

A
  • not a regulated health profession in most provinces, regulated in ontario though
  • do not diagnose or prescribe medication
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22
Q

What is the supernatural tradition?

A

mental health problems were considered to be caused by supernatural forces (like demons and witches)

Evil spirits were “exorcised” out of people through religious rituals

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23
Q

What are asylums?

A

They were formed to recommend rest, sleep, baths, oitments, and a healthy and happy environment

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24
Q

What is the Distress tolerance skills in DBT?

A

Using cold water to change your body chemistry to manage intense emotions

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25
Q

What is hydrotherapy?

A

using cold water to “shock patients back to their senses”

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26
Q

Who is Charles Darwin?

A

In 1859, laid the groundwork for the study of evolution

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27
Q

When was the first human genome sequenced?

A

In the early 2000s

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28
Q

Who is Hippocrates?

A
  • Greek physician considered the “father of medicine”
  • he identified that the brain was important for mental functioning
  • believed in heritable traits
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29
Q

Who is Galen?

A
  • Roman physician
  • Humor theory stated there are bodily fluids that determine emotional balance
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29
Q

What does melancholic mean?

A

The term “melancholic” refers to a state characterized by deep sadness or gloom. It can be used to describe a person’s temperament or mood when they are profoundly pensive, reflecting a sense of despondency or depression. Historically, melancholia was considered one of the four temperaments in pre-modern medicine, associated with a particular imbalance of bodily fluids, believed to cause a predisposition to sadness and depression. In contemporary usage, it often describes a tendency toward sorrowful reflection, without necessarily implying a clinical diagnosis of depression.

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30
Q

What is insulin shock therapy?

A
  • was used to induce convulsions, then sedate people
  • high risk of coma and death
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31
Q

Who pioneered Insulin shock therapy?

A

Manfred Sakel

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32
Q

What are lobotomies?

A

Now abandoned, was conducted on tens of thousands of people, to treat mental illness

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33
Q

Who developed the lobotomy?

A

Antonio Egas Moniz

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34
Q

What is electro-convulsive therapy?

A
  • still used in modern psychiatry
  • often used as a last resort
  • while somewhat effective, clinicians do not know exactly why it works
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34
Q

What is moral therapy?

A

creating separate spaces where people could rest, recover, and live normal lives

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35
Q

Who was the one who started moral therapy?

A

Philipe Pinel

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36
Q

Who pioneered the mental hygiene movement?

A

Dorothea Dix

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37
Q

What is the mental hygiene movement?

A

A backlash against the worsening conditions at asylums

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38
Q

What happened after the mental hygiene movement?

A

It increased the # of patients, making the situation worse
then they started closing down

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39
Q

What is psychoanalysis?

A

-Sigmund Freud

  • It emphasizes the importance of unconscious processes and past experiences in shaping behavior and personality
  • Free association, dream analysis, and transference to explore repressed or unconscious impulses, anxieties, and internal conflicts.
  • Freud emphasized understanding the unconscious mind (ego, superego)

Modern adaptation of psychoanalysis is psychodynamic psychotherapy

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40
Q

What is humanistic psychology?

A

Maslow: Self-actualization and the hierarchy of needs

Rogers: Person-centred therapy, unconditioned positive regard, genuineness as core components of therapy

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41
Q

What is behaviourism?

A

Classical conditioning and operant conditioning

formed the basis of cognitive behavioural therapy, which is one of the most widely used evidence-based treatments today

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42
Q

What is the current psychopathology seeking to understand?

A

From different perspectives together

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43
Q

Who is Robert Sapolsky?

A

Stanford neurobiologist and neuroendocrinologist

Introductory lecture for “Human Behavioural Biology”

Research on the role of hormones and the stress response in baboons

Wrote “Why zebras dont get ulcers” and “behave”

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44
Q

What is a presenting problem?

A

the reason that a person seeks mental health problems

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45
Q

What is a clinical description?

A

Details of the combination behaviours, thoughts, and feelings that an individual experiences that make up a particular disorder

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46
Q

What is etiology?

A

the cause or source of a disorder

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47
Q

What is case conceptualization?

A

a clinician’s hypothesis about the relative contribution of different causal factors (biological, psychological, social)

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48
Q

What is the one-dimensional model of causality?

A

genes: mental disorder

“chemical imbalance”: mental disorder

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49
Q

Name a psychologist who believed in the one-dimensional behavioural model

A

John Watson

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50
Q

Name a psychologist who believed in the one-dimensional neuroscience model

A

Egan Moniz

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51
Q

Who believed in the combination of biological, psychological, and social factors as causes of psychotherapy

A

Adolf Meyer

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52
Q

What model do clinicians use to understand mental disorders?

A

Bio-psycho-social model

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53
Q

What is Karl Popper’s metaphor?

A

Mental health is a cloud problem, not a clock problem

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54
Q

What are emotions?

A

Action tendency elicited by an external event and a feeling state, accompanied by a characteristic physiological response

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55
Q

Emotions are usually ____lived

A

short

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56
Q

Moods are more ____

A

persistent, long-term

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57
Q

Paul Ekman found evidence of 6 universal basic emotions in all cultures worldwide

A

Sadness, fear, anger, surprise, disgust, happiness

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58
Q

Why do we have emotions?

A

Emotions have evolved in humans and other animals to serve important functions

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59
Q

What is the flight-or-flight response?

A

Biological reaction to alarming stressors that musters the body’s resources to resist or flee the threat

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60
Q

What are physiological changes?

A

increased breathing rate, increased heart rate, non-essential tasks are paused

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61
Q

In which areas is schizophrenia more common in?

A

38% higher in men who grew up in cities compared to rural areas

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62
Q

What are factors that contribute to indigenous communities having higher rates of suicide, substance use, and familial violence?

A
  • historical oppression
  • ongoing discrimination
  • poverty and living conditions
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63
Q

How is depression viewed in western cultures?

A

self-centres feelings of personal guilt

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64
Q

How is depression viewed in eastern cultures?

A

less emphasis on these symptoms, more on fatigue

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65
Q

What is Taijin Kyofusho?

A

a subtype of social anxiety in Japan in which people worry about embarassing other people

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66
Q

What is a gene?

A

a stretch of DNA within a chromosome

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67
Q

What do genes contain?

A

The information to produce proteins, which execute important tasks in the body

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68
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

-thread like structure

  • Humans typically have 46 chromosomes in each cell, divided into 23 pairs, with one set of 23 chromosomes inherited from each parent.
  • These include 22 pairs of autosomes (non-sex chromosomes) and one pair of sex chromosomes, which determine an individual’s sex (XX for females and XY for males).
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69
Q

What is the structure of a chromosome?

A

They are arranged in pairs. Each cell has 46 chromosomes (23 each side)

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70
Q

What is an allele?

A

one of two or more alternative forms of a gene

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71
Q

Which allele is expressed depends on whether it is _____ or _____

A

Dominant or recessive

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72
Q

What are polygenic traits?

A

Many genes exert a small effect on traits

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73
Q

What are quantitative genetics?

A

estimating the heritability of traits (intelligence)

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74
Q

What is molecular genetics?

A

Examining the structure and function of genes

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75
Q

How heritable is weight?

A

70%

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76
Q

How heritable is autism?

A

70%

77
Q

How heritable is schizophrenia?

A

50%

78
Q

How heritable is reading disability?

A

60%

79
Q

How heritable is general intelligence?

A

50%

80
Q

What is diathesis?

A

a pre-existing genetic vulnerability

81
Q

What is the diathesis-stress model?

A

people may have the same underlying vulnerability but will only develop a mental disorder if they encounter a particular stressor

82
Q

What is the gene involved in a serotonin transporter that has two alleles?

A

The long allelle (L) and the short allele (S)

83
Q

Which allele is better for coping with stress?

A

long

84
Q

Which allele is worse for coping with stress?

A

short

85
Q

What are epigenetics?

A

Biological factors other than DNA that influence gene expression and the traits passed on to future generations

86
Q

What is the epigenome affected by?

A

Stress, nutrition, health behaviours like smoking

87
Q

If you get to this question, review Dutch Hunger Winter (1944-1945)

A

Children of pregnant women during this time were at increased risk for diabetes, obesity, and heart disease

88
Q

What is gene-environment correlation?

A

People’s genetic predisposition often influence their environments

89
Q

What is passive gene-environment correlation?

A

A passive gene-environment correlation refers to the situation where the biological parents, who provide the genetic makeup of their child, also provide the environment in which the child grows. This means that the home environment is influenced by the parents’ own genes, and as a result, the child’s genetic predispositions are passively reinforced by the environment created by the parents. For example, parents who are naturally talented musicians might not only pass on genes associated with musical ability to their child but are also more likely to create a home environment filled with music. This scenario allows the child’s genetic potential for musical talent to be nurtured passively by the environment provided by the parents.

90
Q

What is reactive gene-environment correlation?

A

A reactive gene-environment correlation occurs when an individual’s genetically influenced behaviors elicit specific responses from their environment. For example, a child’s genetically based temperament might affect how caregivers, peers, and teachers interact with them. This dynamic can shape the child’s development and experiences, creating a feedback loop where the environment responds in a way that reinforces the individual’s innate tendencies.Genes evoke a response from the environment

(children reading example)

91
Q

What is active gene-environment correlation?

A

Genes make us seek out environments

example: extroverted children may be more interested in social activities

92
Q

What do ACEs include (Adverse childhood events)

A

Abuse, household challenges, neglect

93
Q

What is multifinality?

A

refers to the principle that similar initial conditions or causes can lead to different outcomes. In the context of human behavior and psychological development, it suggests that individuals starting from a similar point (e.g., exposure to a traumatic event) can end up with a variety of outcomes depending on a range of factors including personal, social, and environmental influences. For example, not all children exposed to traumatic stress will develop PTSD; some might show resilience, others might develop anxiety disorders, depression, or no psychological issues at all.

94
Q

What is equifinality?

A

a behaviour or disorder may have several different causes

Image: personal loss, life stressor, and genetic predisposition pointing to mental disorder

95
Q

What is the “end of history” illusion?

(Quoidbach)

A

People systematically underestimate how much they will change in future at almost every age

96
Q

What is Erik Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development?

A

Every stage of life has a crisis that must be resolved based on our biological maturity and the unique demands of that time period

97
Q

What does the CNS consist of?

A

brain and spinal cord

98
Q

_____ Are brain cells that transmit information

A

Neurons

99
Q

What is a neurotransmitter?

A

The fundamental unit of communication in the brain

100
Q

What are the parts of a neuron?

A

Dendrite, axon, synaptic cleft

101
Q

What is the dendrite

A

location of receptors

102
Q

What is an axon

A

transmits the signal

103
Q

what is the synaptic cleft?

A

the space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another neuron

104
Q

What does the hindbrain do?

A

regulates many automatic activities, such as breathing, the pumping action of the heart and digestion

105
Q

What does the midbrain do?

A

contributes to processes of arousal and tension, such as whether we are awake or asleep

106
Q

What does the forebrain do?

A

limbic system: helps regulate our emotional experiences and expressions

cerebral cortex: what distinguishes humans from animals, ability to think, reason, and solve problems

107
Q

What does the somatic nervous system do?

A

controls muscles and voluntary movements

108
Q

What does the automatic nervous system do?

A

controls the cardiovascular and endocrine functions

109
Q

What is the sympathetic nervous system?

A

the stress system, flight or fight

110
Q

What is the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

the opposite of the stress response, the rest and digest

111
Q

What are hormones released through?

A

endocrine system produces it

112
Q

What is cortisol?

A

a stress hormone implicated in the fight-or-flight response

113
Q

What is oxytocin?

A

the “cuddle hormone” associated with social bonding

114
Q

What are the 2 most common neurotransmitters in all parts of the brain?

A

Glutamate and GABA

115
Q

What is glutamate

A

an excitatory neurotransmitter (increases the firing of neurons)

116
Q

What is GABA

A

an inhibitory neurotransmitter (decreases the firing of neurons)

alcohol binds to GABA receptors, making you slow at reacting to things

117
Q

What is serotonin?

A

the “liking” neurotransmitter

118
Q

What is dopamine?

A

The “wanting” neurotransmitter

119
Q

What is norepinephrine?

A

Involved in stress response

relates to feelings of alertness and attention

PTSD

120
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

learning through repeatedly pairing unconditioned stimulus and response

121
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

learning through understanding the consequences of a behaviour

122
Q

What is social learning?

A

learning through social observation

bobo doll experiment

123
Q

What is prepared learning?

A

learning that has been wired in us through evolution via natural selection

124
Q

Who started cognitive behavioural therapy

A

Aaron beck

125
Q

What are the different types of clinical assessments?

A
  • Psycho-diagnostic assessments
  • Psycho-educational assessments
  • Neuropsychological assessments
126
Q

What is a psycho-diagnostic assessment used for

A

to identify and diagnose specific mental disorders

127
Q

What is a psycho-educational assessment used for

A

to identify and diagnose specific learning problems, neurodevelopment disabilities, and mental health problems

128
Q

What are neuropsychological assessments used for

A

Assessing and diagnosing the possible contribution to brain damage or dysfunction to the patient’s condition

129
Q

Mental health services are private and confidential EXCEPT under certain circumstances

A
  1. a person is at serious risk of harming themselves or others
  2. a child is being abused or neglected
  3. any info about a regulated health profession committing a sexually innappropriate act
  4. info about a person being neglected in a long-term care home
  5. if a psychologist receives a subpoena from a judge
  6. if the college of psychologists audits a psychologists files
130
Q

What are pros and cons of unstructured interviews?

A

Pro: more natural convo

Con: important information may be missed

131
Q

What are pros and cons of semi-structured interviews?

A

Pro: info can be gathered both systematically and efficiently

Con: can be challenging to balance flexibility and structure

MOST COMMON APPROACH

132
Q

What are pros and cons of structured interviews?

A

Pro: guarantees all relevant info will be collected, specific scoring criteria

Con: may be overly rigid, may negatively affect relationship with client; may be time-consuming

133
Q

What is the book they use for these interviews?

A

SCID-5-CV

134
Q

What do people look at when observing appearance and behaviour?

A

Dress, general appearance, posture, and facial expression

135
Q

What do people look at when observing thought processes?

A

speech rate and coherence, logical and clear

136
Q

What do people look at when observing mood?

A

mood described by the individual and affect (what clinician notices)

137
Q

What do people look at when observing cognitive/intellectual functioning?

A

concerns with ability to pay attention, follow the conversation, remember details

138
Q

What do people look at when observing sensorium?

A

are they oriented to space and time?

139
Q

How are target behaviours measured?

A

objectively (self-harm or outbursts)

140
Q

What is reactivity?

A

the act of measuring a behaviour changes that behaviour

141
Q

What is validity?

A

Does the test measure what it is supposed to measure?

142
Q

What is reliability?

A

Does the test consistently measure the same thing?

143
Q

What are personality inventories?

A

self-report questionnaires that have been administered to thousands of people

144
Q

What are examples of projective tests?

A

Rorscach, thematic apperception test

145
Q

What is the Multiphasis Minnesota Personality Inventory (MMPI-2)

A
  • 567 items
  • if someone scores too high on validity, the whole test is invalid
146
Q

What is the NEO-PI

A

a popular self-assessment tool that measures the Big 5 personality traits

NOT a clinical assessment tool

147
Q

What are the 5 personality traits in the NEO-PI

A

Extroversion

Agreeableness

Openness to experience

Conscientiousness

Neuroticism

148
Q

What are 2 types of intelligence tests?

A

WAIS and WISC

149
Q

What are examples of tests used for neuropsychological testing?

A

Beery-Buktenica Development Test of Visual-Motor Integration (BEERY)

Wide Range Assessment of Memory and Learning, second edition (WRAML)

Comprehensive test of phonological processing (CTOPP)

150
Q

What is outcome monitoring?

A

using self-report measures throughout treatment to measure effectiveness

Found to INCREASE the effectiveness of psychotherapy

151
Q

What are common freely available self-report measures?

A

PHQ-9: measures the symptoms of major depressive disorder

GAD-7: measures symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder

152
Q

Diagnoses are also determined by symptoms:

A

Severity/intensity

Duration

Frequency

153
Q

What are the 3 ways clinicians classify diagnoses?

A

Categorical approach

Dimensional approach

Prototypical approach

154
Q

What are the pros and cons of the categorical approach?

A

Pro: simple

Con: excludes a good amount of ppl (someone needs to have all the symptoms of a disorder to get diagnosed)

155
Q

What are the pros and cons of the dimensional approach?

A

Pro: captures the full range of mental health problems

Con: more challenging to tell when problems become a disorder

156
Q

What are the pros and cons of the prototypical approach?

A

Pro: captures a wide range of problems while also keeping categories distinct

Con: people with depression can present in many different ways

157
Q

What is the categorical approach?

A

mental disorders are clear categories and have a clear physiology and underlying cause

you have it or not

158
Q

What is the dimensional approach?

A

mental disorders exist on a continuum: someone might be mild;y depressed or severely depressed

159
Q

What is the prototypical approach?

A

Contains elements of both the dimensional and categorical approach

you need to have one of the key symptoms

160
Q

What are some pros of diagnosis?

A
  • creates structure and consistency within the healthcare system
  • can give people a sense of relief
161
Q

What are some cons of diagnosis?

A
  • labels can be stigmatizing
  • diagnoses are not entirely objective
  • some labels are persistant, people don’t get “undiagnosed”
162
Q

What is a differential diagnoses?

A

The process of determining which of two or more diseases or
disorders with overlapping symptoms a particular patient has”

163
Q

Tricky situations in differential diagnoses include:

A
  • Equifinality and multifinality (remember the integrative framework…)
  • What is “normal”
  • Understanding overlap across diagnoses
  • Change/onset/symptom progression
164
Q

For a Major depressive disorder, what is a criterion A?

A

A significant depressive symptom

You need at least 2 symptoms

165
Q

For a Major depressive disorder, what is a criterion B?

A

Significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning

166
Q

For a Major depressive disorder, what is a criterion C?

A

The episode is not caused by a medication or a medical condition

167
Q

For a Major depressive disorder, what is a criterion D?

A

Not better explained by another disorder

168
Q

For a Major depressive disorder, what is a criterion E?

A

There has never been a manic or hypomanic episode

169
Q

What is a mental disorder?

A
  1. cause dysfunction to daily life
  2. Cause personal distress
  3. are atypical or not culturally expected
170
Q

What categorizes a depressive disorder?

A
  • 5 or more of the list of symptoms for a period of 2 weeks
  • at least one of the symptoms is either depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure
171
Q

What is severity based on?

A

The # of criterion symptoms, the severity of those symptoms, and the degree of functional disability

172
Q

Up to ___% of single-episode cases later experience a second episode

A

85

173
Q

What is persistent depressive disorder (dysthmia)

A

is a chronic form of depression characterized by a depressed mood for most of the day, more days than not, for at least two years in adults

174
Q

What is double depression?

A

meeting diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive disorder AND Dysthmia

175
Q

What is integrated grief?

A

appropriate sadness that re-emerges around key dates, triggers, in addition to ability to remember positives and
accept the finality of the loss

176
Q

What is complicated grief?

A

debilitating grief that lasts longer than
culturally expected and interferes with functioning

(Prolonged Grief Disorder)

177
Q

When you see this, remind urself what is the example of Queen Victoria who wore black for the last 40 years

A

in the book

178
Q

Who’s more likely to experience mood disorders?

A

Women

179
Q

What is behavioural activation?

A

BA involves identifying and scheduling positive activities, overcoming avoidance behaviors, and making gradual, consistent efforts to change patterns that contribute to depression.

Chat gpt example of Alex painting with his friends

Pleasure activities & Mastery activities

180
Q

What is cognitive restructuring?

A

challenging negative thinking patterns

all-or-nothing thinking
discounting the positive
negative filter
mindreading

181
Q

What is interpersonal psychotherapy?

A

Depression treatment to help people’s social situations (relationships) to alleviate depression symptoms

adapting to new relationships or being single for example

182
Q

What is the most commonly used medication for depression?

A

Selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Prozac, Zoloft, Celexa

183
Q

How do depression medications work?

A

work by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin in the presynaptic neuron, increasing the supply of serotonin

184
Q

What is the DSM-5 criteria for a manic episode?

A
  • abnormal behaviour for 1 week and present most of the day
  • during the week, 3 or more of certain symptoms

examples: inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, more talkative, distractibility, increased in goal-directed activity, and excessive involvement in activities

185
Q

What is bipolar 1?

A

This type is characterized by manic episodes lasting at least 7 days or by manic symptoms that are so severe immediate hospital care is needed. Depressive episodes occur as well, typically lasting at least 2 weeks.

186
Q

What is a hypomanic episode?

A

A hypomanic episode is a period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and increased activity or energy levels that is clearly different from the person’s usual non-depressed mood.

4 days

associated with unequivocal change

187
Q

What is a manic episode?

A

lasts at least 1 week and present most of the day

same symptoms as hypomanic episode

the mood disturbence is sufficient enough to cause marked impairment in social situations

188
Q

What is the main difference between bipolar 1 and 2?

A

Bipolar I Disorder: The manic episodes in Bipolar I can be severe and may lead to hospitalization. Bipolar I may also include episodes of depression, but a depressive episode is not required for the diagnosis.

Bipolar II Disorder: Individuals with this disorder experience one or more major depressive episodes accompanied by at least one hypomanic episode. They do not experience the full-blown manic episodes that are typical of Bipolar I.

189
Q

What is rapid cycling?

A

At least 4 manic or depressive episodes within a year

20%-50% of people with bipolar disorder experience rapid cycling

190
Q

What is cyclothymic disorder?

A

Chronic alteration of mood elevation and depression that does not reach the severity of manic or major depressive episodes

191
Q

Whats the medication for bipolar disorder?

A

Lithium Carbonate
anti-depressants
anti-psychotic
anti-convulsants

192
Q
A