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Psychopathology > PSYCHOPATHOLOGY Final (after midterm 2) > Flashcards

PSYCHOPATHOLOGY Final (after midterm 2) Flashcards

1
Q

Worldwide prevalence of EDs has been estimated as ______

A

7.8%

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2
Q

Eating disorders occur typically in _______

A

adolescence

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3
Q

Primary characteristic related to anorexia and bulimia nervosa is_______

A

The drive to be thin

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4
Q

What is the % of people with anorexia who die?

A

20%

5% after 10 years

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5
Q

Females living with AN are _____ more
likely to die by suicide between the age of 15-34 than the general population

A

18x

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6
Q

Which psychological disorder is most known on university and college campuses?

A

Bulimia

average onset is age 16

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7
Q

What are the purging techniques?

A

￭ Self-induced vomiting
￭ Fasting
￭ Laxatives or diuretics
￭ Excessive exercise (57% of people)

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8
Q

What are the two subtypes of Bulimia Nervosa?

A

BN Purging Type (BNP)
BN Non-Purging Type (BNNP)

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9
Q

What behaviors are associated with BN Purging Type (BNP)?

A

Vomiting
Use of laxatives
Use of diuretics

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10
Q

At what age do people living with BNP typically experience the onset of an eating disorder (ED)?

A

Younger ED onset

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11
Q

List the comorbid mental health disorders often found in individuals with BNP.

A

Depression
Anxiety
Alcohol Use
OCD (Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder)

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12
Q

How does the BN Non-Purging Type (BNNP) compensate for food intake?

A

Exercise
Fasting

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13
Q

What percentage of people with BNNP exhibit the behavior?

A

6-8%

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14
Q

What additional risk is noted for people with BNP?

A

Higher rates of sexual harm at a younger age

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15
Q

How long does the bulimia have to last?

A

At least once a week for 3 months

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16
Q

How long does the binging have to last?

A

Within a 2 hour period

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17
Q

What are health problems from bulimia?

A
  • Salivary gland enlargement from repeated vomiting
  • Repeated vomiting can erode the dental enamel of teeth
  • Frequent purging can also disturb the chemical balance of bodily
    fluids (e.g., electrolyte imbalance = sodium & potassium levels)
  • Cardiac arrhythmia
  • Kidney failure
  • Increased body fat for their age
  • Intestinal problems from laxative misuse
  • Constipation
  • Permanent colon damage
  • Calluses on fingers or back of hands from stimulating the gag reflex
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18
Q

Why do ppl with bulimia seek help really late?

A

They are ashamed of their difficulties and lack of control

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19
Q

Bulimia nervosa is often accompanied by other mental health disorders, which most commonly are __________ and _____________

A

Anxiety and mood-related disorders

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20
Q

What is the average onset of anorexia?

A

Age 15

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21
Q

What is anorexia nervosa Restricting type (ANR) ?

A

Involves restricting caloric intake

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22
Q

What is anorexia nervosa binge-eating purging type (ANBP)

A

Involves purging

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23
Q

What is the health consequence of Anorexia nervosa?

A

“Significantly low weight” is required for DSM-5-TR but it is important to note many do not seek treatment until BMI reaches approx. 16 (“severely underweight”)

  • no more peripd
  • kidney problems

etc

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24
Q

What types of disorders commonly co-occur with Anorexia Nervosa (AN)?

A

Anxiety and mood disorders

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25
Q

Which disorder frequently accompanies AN?

A

OCD

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26
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of OCD in those with eating disorders?

A

13.9%

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27
Q

Which subtype of AN is most associated with comorbid OCD?

A

AN Binge-Eating Purging Type (ANBP).

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28
Q

How is OCD typically associated with AN?

A

Through intrusive thoughts about weight gain and ritualistic compensatory purging behaviors.

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29
Q

Are there more genetic markers associated with OCD in those with AN or BN?

A

There are more genetic markers associated with OCD in those with AN than in those with BN.

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30
Q

Which other disorders have strong associations with AN?

A

Bipolar disorder and alcohol use disorder.

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31
Q

Do individuals with Binge Eating Disorder engage in compensatory behaviors?

A

No

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32
Q

Which demographic has a greater risk of developing Binge Eating Disorder?

A

Males

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33
Q

At what stage in life does Binge Eating Disorder typically present?

A

It has a later age of onset compared to other eating disorders.

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34
Q

What is the prognosis for Binge Eating Disorder with treatment?

A

There is an increased likelihood of remission with a good response to treatment.

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35
Q

Where are individuals with Binge Eating Disorder commonly found?

A

In weight-control programs in the community

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36
Q

What percentage of individuals in weight-control programs meet the DSM criteria for BED?

A

15-30%

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37
Q
  • Approximately _____% among bariatric surgery candidates meet BED criteria
A

50%

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38
Q

How often must binge eating occur for it to be considered BED according to the DSM-5-TR?

A

At least once a week for 3 months.

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39
Q

What percentage of Canadians over the age of 15 live with an eating disorder?

A

0.4%

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39
Q

How is the current severity of BED specified?

A

Mild: 1-3 episodes per week.
Moderate: 4-7 episodes per week.
Severe: 8-13 episodes per week.
Extreme: 14 or more episodes per week.

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40
Q

What characteristic is reported at greater levels among men living with eating disorders?

A

Greater levels of perfectionism.

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41
Q

Which groups of men are at increased risk for eating disorders?

A

Men who self-identify as gay or bisexual and male athletes in sports that require weight regulation.

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42
Q

How do mortality rates for people with eating disorders in Ontario compare to the general public?

A

Mortality rates are 5 times greater for people with eating disorders than for the general public.

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43
Q

In the context of eating disorders, which gender has a significantly higher incidence rate?

A

Boys and men have a significantly greater incidence than girls and women.

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44
Q

What percentage of individuals with bulimia nervosa are women?

A

90-95%.

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45
Q

Is the experience of bulimia symptoms similar between men and women?

A

Yes

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46
Q

Which demographic reports more eating-related difficulties, especially in university samples?

A

White people.

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47
Q

How does the risk of developing eating disorders change for immigrants to Western countries?

A

It increases.

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48
Q

What cultural phenomenon is largely associated with the risk of developing eating disorders?

A

A “North American” phenomenon.

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49
Q

In terms of body dissatisfaction, what areas do Canadian women typically focus on compared to other cultures?

A

Canadian women report body dissatisfaction with the weight of the abdomen, hips, thighs, and legs, whereas other cultures tend to focus on the face, neck, and chest areas.

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50
Q

What are some of the risk factors associated with eating disorders regardless of cultural group?

A

Being overweight, higher social class, and acculturating to the Western majority.

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51
Q

How do beauty ideals differ between some cultures and Western standards?

A

Some cultures do not value thinness, with beauty ideals being more face-focused than body-focused.

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52
Q

What are considered the most culturally specific psychological disorders according to the slide?

A

Anorexia and bulimia.

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53
Q

In competitive environments related to EDs, what are self-worth, happiness, and success often determined by?

A

Body measurements and percentage of body fat.

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54
Q

What is the risk for someone developing an ED after dieting

A

Most people who diet do not develop an ED but are at an 8 times greater risk for developing one 1 year later.

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55
Q

How are families of individuals with anorexia typically characterized?

A

Successful, driven, concerned about appearances, and eager to maintain harmony.

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56
Q

How do families of people with anorexia often attribute problems?

A

They attribute problems to other people.

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57
Q

What expressed desires are commonly found in mothers of families where eating disorders are present?

A

Desires for daughters to be thin.

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58
Q

What is the increased likelihood of relatives of persons with eating disorders developing an ED themselves?

A

Relatives of persons with eating disorders are 4-5 times more likely to experience an eating disorder themselves.

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59
Q

Which personality traits have been predicted as driving factors for EDs due to inheritability?

A

Emotional instability and poor impulse control.

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60
Q

Which neurochemical activity is often associated with EDs and impulsivity?

A

Low levels of serotonergic activity

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61
Q

What type of eating disorder is often associated with impulsivity?

A

Binge-eating disorder (BED).

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62
Q

What hormonal associations are found in women prone to binge-eating episodes?

A

A strong associations between ovarian hormones and dysregulated or impulsive eating.

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63
Q

How can exercise influence anorexia?

A

Exercise can maintain anorexia whereby excessive physical activity can cause a loss of appetite, also known as “activity anorexia”

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64
Q

What psychological state is often diminished in individuals with eating disorders?

A

A diminished sense of personal control and self-confidence.

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65
Q

What emotional difficulty might people with EDs have that leads to behaviors such as binge eating or self-induced vomiting?

A

Difficulty tolerating any negative emotion.

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66
Q

What is the goal of behaviors such as self-induced vomiting or intense exercise in the context of EDs?

A

The goal of these behaviors is to reduce anxiety or distress by doing something they think will help them avoid weight gain.

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67
Q

According to the diagram, what does the biological influence encompass?

A

Inherited vulnerability (unstable or excessive neurobiological response to stress associated with impulsive eating).

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68
Q

What psychological factors are shown to influence eating disorders?

A

Anxiety focused on appearance and presentation to others and distorted body image.

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69
Q

What social influences are mentioned in the diagram as contributing to eating disorders?

A

Cultural pressure to be thin and family interactions/pressures regarding social presentation.

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70
Q

Have psychopharmacological treatments been effective for
treatment of anorexia?

A

No

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71
Q

Use of antidepressant medications (e.g.., Prozac) led to
average reduction of _____-_____% of binge-purge cycles

A

47-65%

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72
Q

What does CBT-Enhanced (CBT-E) focus on?

A

CBT-E focuses on transdiagnostic factors that are common to all eating disorders.

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73
Q

What is the main focus of psychosocial treatments for EDs?

A

The distorted evaluation of body shape and weight, and harmful attempts to control weight in the form of strict dieting, possibly accompanied by binge eating, and methods to compensate for overeating

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74
Q

What are some of the outcomes of CBT for Bulimia according to the slide?

A

CBT for Bulimia shows positive reductions in purging (79%) and complete cessation of bingeing purging for 57% of people.

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75
Q

What % of people will be able to gain weight after psychosocial treatment for ED?

A

Almost 85 %

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76
Q

Is initial weight gain a poor or strong predictor of long-term outcome in anorexia?

A

Poor

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77
Q

Is weight watchers or CBT better for those dealing with eating disorders?

A

CBT

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78
Q

What is often the first treatment offered for BED, and why might this be the case?

A

Self-help is often the first treatment offered for BED before engaging in more expensive and time-consuming therapist-led treatments, considering factors like personal preference, accessibility, and mental health comorbidity.

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79
Q

What is the estimated global prevalence of eating disorders in men?

A

1: 2.2%

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80
Q

What are the two types of eating disorders mentioned on the slide and their prevalence rates?

A

Anorexia: 0.3%, Bulimia: more than 1%

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81
Q

List some risk factors for eating disorders (EDs) in boys and men.

A

Identifying as gay, bisexual, asexual, transgender, or questioning

Previous experience with obesity or dieting

Involvement in professional sports or training focused on fitness and body shape

Obsessive or compulsive exercise
Past experiences of bullying, adverse childhood experiences, trauma

Comorbidity with other disorders such as alcohol use disorder or a diagnosis with chronic illness

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82
Q

What is pica?

A

Pica is an eating disorder that involves eating items that are not typically thought of as food and that do not contain significant nutritional value

** 1 month

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83
Q

What is the DSM criteria for Pica?

A

A. Persistent eating of nonnutritive, nonfood substances over the period of at least 1 month.

B. The eating of nonnutritive, nonfood substances the inappropriate to the developmental level of the individual.

C. The eating behaviour is not part of a culturally supported or socially normative practice.

D. If the eating behaviour occurs in the context of another mental disorder (e.g.. intellectual disability, autism spectrum disorder) or medical condition (e.g.. pregnancy), it is sufficiently severe to warrant additional clinical attention.

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84
Q

What is rumination disorder?

A

Rumination disorder is an eating disorder characterized by the repeated regurgitation of food after eating. This means that individuals with this disorder bring food back up from their stomach into their mouth without the apparent effort, nausea, or disgust that typically accompanies vomiting. After regurgitating the food, they may re-chew it, re-swallow it, or spit it out.

*** 1 month

85
Q

What is Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder

A

A feeding or eating disturbance (e.g.. lack of apparent interest in eating food; avoidance based on the sensory characteristics of food; concern about aversive consequences of eating) as manifested by persistent failure to meet appropriate nutritional and/or energy needs

** they don’t have a distorted image of their body or a fear of gaining weight

86
Q

What are DSM-5-TR Other Specified Feeding & Eating Disorders?

A

They are feeding or eating disorders that cause clinical distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning but do not meet the full criteria for any of the disorders in the feeding and eating disorders diagnostic class.

87
Q

What is atypical anorexia nervosa

A

all of the criteria for anorexia nervosa are met, except that despite significant weight loss, the individual’s weight is
within or above the normal range.

88
Q

What characterizes Bulimia Nervosa of low frequency and/or limited duration under the DSM-5-TR?

A

It is characterized by all the criteria for bulimia nervosa being met, except the binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors occur, on average, less than once a week and/or for less than 3 months.

89
Q

How is Binge-eating disorder of low frequency and/or limited duration defined?

A

It meets all the criteria for binge-eating disorder except that the binge occurs, on average, less than once a week and/or for less than 3 months.

90
Q

What is Purging Disorder according to the DSM-5-TR?

A

Purging Disorder involves recurrent purging behavior to influence weight or shape (e.g., self-induced vomiting; misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications) in the absence of binge eating.

91
Q

Describe Night Eating Syndrome as mentioned in the DSM-5-TR.

A

Night Eating Syndrome is characterized by recurrent episodes of night eating, either after awakening from sleep or by excessive food consumption after the evening meal. There is awareness and recall of the eating, and the night eating causes significant distress and/or impairment in functioning.

92
Q

Changes in sleep are related to what mental health symptoms?

A

○ Major Depressive Disorder (sleeping too much or little)

○ Bipolar Disorder (sleeping too little)

○ PTSD (nightmares)

○ Generalized anxiety disorder (difficulty falling or staying asleep, or restless, unsatisfying
sleep)

93
Q

Sleep problems affect what physical health issues?

A

○ Obesity
○ Cardiovascular disease
○ Immune functioning
○ Accidents and death

94
Q

What are the 2 broad types of sleep?

A

1) non-rapid eye movement
2) rapid eye movement

95
Q

What are the 4 stages of NREM?

A

1) falling asleep
2) light sleep
3) deeper sleep
4) deepest sleep

96
Q

What is our internal clock

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus within
the hypothalamus

97
Q

What is our sleep drive used for?

A

It includes the steady build up of the chemical adenosine, increasing how long we’re awake for

98
Q

What is the homeostatic Process (Sleep Drive)?

A

This is indicated by the solid line that increases and decreases.

It represents sleep pressure or the drive for sleep, which builds up the longer we are awake and dissipates during sleep. It suggests that the need for sleep is accumulating throughout the day and is then relieved by sleeping.

99
Q

What is the circadian Process (Wake Drive) ?

A

Shown by the dotted line

This represents our internal biological clock that cycles approximately every 24 hours. It governs our wakefulness, with dips occurring during the night (making us feel sleepy) and peaks during the day (helping us feel awake).

100
Q

What is the sleep Cycle (Ultradian Rhythm)?

A

The series of bars above the graph represent the stages of a typical sleep cycle throughout the night.

We cycle through various stages of sleep: REM (Rapid Eye Movement sleep, where dreaming usually occurs), and non-REM stages 1, 2, 3, and 4 (which include the progression from light to deep sleep).

Non-REM stages 3 and 4 are also known as slow-wave or delta sleep and are the deepest, most restorative phases.

101
Q

What are dyssomnias?

A

Trouble falling asleep/ staying asleep

102
Q

What are parasomnias?

A

Nightmare, sleep walking

103
Q

What are different examples of dyssomnias?

A
  • Insomnia
  • Breathing related sleep disorders
  • Hypersomnolence
  • Narcolepsy
  • Circadian rythm disorders
104
Q

What is the example of parasomnias?

A

Nightmare disorder

105
Q

What is the DSM criteria for insomnia?

A
  • dissatisfied sleep quantity or quality
  • 3 nights per week
  • 3 months
106
Q

______% of Canadians report
insomnia symptoms that have lasted at least a year

A

24

107
Q

What is the 3p model of insomnia?

A

Predisposing
Precipitating
Perpetuating

108
Q

What are predisposing factors?

A

Complex bio-psycho-social factors that
make some individuals more at risk

109
Q

What are precipitating factors?

A

Triggers in the environment (e.g.
life stress)

110
Q

What are perpetuating factors?

A

Thoughts/behaviours that continue the
cycle of insomnia

111
Q

What are the three possibilities of treatment for insomnia?

A
  • medications
  • environmental
  • psychological
112
Q

What % of people with insomnia use sleeping medications?

A

29%

113
Q

What are commonly prescribed medications for insomnia?

A
  • Benzodiazepines (ativan) only for short term use
  • “Z” drugs are less addictive, more often used (Zolpidem)
  • melatonin
114
Q

What % of people use alcohol to cope with their sleeping issues?

A

5%

115
Q

What do sleep diaries do ?

A

gather diagnostic info and track treatment outcomes

116
Q

What does stimulus control do?

A
  • Cues in the bedroom have become associated with non-sleep
    activities
  • Stimulus control uses classical conditioning principles to re-form
    the association between the bedroom and sleeping
  • General procedure:
    1. If the client is unable to fall asleep within 10-15 minutes, they
    are instructed to get up
    2. Go do something quiet/not-to-exciting and return to bed only
    when they are sleepy
    3. Repeat as necessary
117
Q

What does sleep restriction do?

A

Somewhat paradoxical approach: deliberately limit the amount
of time spent sleeping

Sleep restriction and stimulus control are equally efficacious in
reducing insomnia symptoms

General procedure
○ Setting a specific bedtime
○ Setting a specific wake up time (and waking up regardless of
how much the client much sleeps)
○ No daytime naps (unless necessary for safety concerns

118
Q

What is cognitive restructuring?

A

changing negative thoughts to decrease stress

“omg i wont sleep enough and ill be tired tmr”

change it to

“i will sleep now to have as much sleep as possible”

119
Q

What is hypersomnolence?

A
  • Excessive sleepiness despite adequate hours of sleep
  • Poorly understood disorder
  • Must rule out insomnia, sleep apnea, or other medical reason for daytime sleepiness
  • Some evidence that viral infections put people at risk: mononucleosis, hepatitis, and viral pneumonia
120
Q

What frequency of symptoms is required for a narcolepsy diagnosis according to the DSM-5 TR?

A

Recurrent periods of an irrepressible need to sleep, lapsing into sleep, or napping occurring within the same day, at least three times per week over the past 3 months.

121
Q

What is cataplexy, and how often must it occur for a narcolepsy diagnosis?

A

Cataplexy is episodes of sudden bilateral loss of muscle tone with maintained consciousness triggered by emotions like laughter or joking. It must occur at least a few times per month.

122
Q

What is a sign of narcolepsy in children or individuals within 6 months of onset that does not involve emotional triggers?

A

Spontaneous grimaces or jaw-opening episodes with tongue thrusting or a global hypotonia, without any obvious emotional triggers

123
Q

What biochemical deficiency is associated with narcolepsy?

A

Hypocretin deficiency

124
Q

What is hypocretin deficiency

A

Low levels of hypocretin as indicated by cerebrospinal fluid testing

125
Q

What are hypnagogic hallucinations

A

They happen as you are falling asleep

126
Q

Hympnopomic hallucinations

A

They happen as you are waking up

127
Q

What is one cause of narcolepsy?

A

Hypocretin deficiency

(hypocretin is a neurotransmitter that impacts wakefullness)

128
Q

What is one drug that increases hypocretin?

A

Modafinil

129
Q

What is sleep apnea

A

Periods where breathing
becomes laboured or stops during sleep

6% if canadians have it

2x more in men

130
Q

What medication helps with nightmares?

A

Prazosin

131
Q

What are the 4 subtypes of OCD?

A
  • symmetry
  • forbiden thoughts
  • cleaning/contamination
  • hoarding
132
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of OCD?

A

1.6% - 2.3%

133
Q

Religious obsessions are higher in countries such as ______ and ______

A

Saudi Arabia and Egypt

134
Q

What is psychosurgery ?

A

a small lesion to cingulate bundle of neurons can benefit up to 30% of extreme cases.. Is done RARELY

135
Q

what are 2 compulsive pulling disorders?

A

Excoriation disorder
(skin-picking)

Trichotillomania
(compulsive hair-pulling)

136
Q

What is the College of Psychologists of Ontario

A

Health Psychology is the application of psychological knowledge and skills to the promotion and maintenance of health, the prevention and
treatment of illness, and the identification of determinants of
health and illness.

137
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A
  • One or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant
    disruption of daily life
  • Although any one somatic symptom may not be continuously present, the state of
    being symptomatic is persistent (typically more than 6 months)
138
Q

What is illness anxiety disorder?

(also known as hypochondriac)

A

When there is a high level of anxiety about health, and the individual is easily alarmed
about personal health status

139
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A
  • One or more somatic
    symptoms that are distressing
    or result in significant
    disruption of daily life.
  • The symptoms may or may
    not be associated with
    another medical condition
140
Q

What is an illness anxiety disorder?

A

Somatic symptoms are not present or, if present, are only mild in intensity. The individual performs excessive health-related behaviors (e.g., repeatedly checks his or her body for signs of illness) or exhibits maladaptive avoidance (e.g., avoids doctor)

141
Q

What are “unexplainable” medical symptoms?

A
  • conversion disorder
  • malingering
  • factitious disorder
142
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

Also known as functional neurological symptom disorder, is a condition where a person experiences neurological symptoms that are inconsistent with or cannot be fully explained by medical or neurological conditions. These symptoms can include:

Motor Symptoms: Weakness or paralysis, abnormal movements, tremors, or difficulty walking.

Sensory Symptoms: Loss of vision, hearing, or feeling, often with no identifiable physical cause.

Seizures or Convulsions: Which are not attributable to epilepsy or other known seizure disorders.

Speech Symptoms: Difficulty speaking, slurred speech, or loss of speech.

143
Q

What is malingering?

A

faking symptoms for personal gain

NOT a mental disorder

(for financial compensation)

they are aware of what they’re doing

144
Q

What is factitious disorder?

A

Previously known as Munchausen syndrome, is a mental disorder in which a person deliberately and consciously acts as if they have a physical or mental illness when they are not really sick

these people are aware of what they are doing

no external rewards

pattern of hospitalizations

a mental disorder that requires a diagnosis

145
Q

What are the 3 types of assessments?

A

Clinical interviews

Medical examination

Psychophysiological assessment (e.g. penile
strain gauge)

146
Q

What is the penile strain gauge

A

a device used to measure changes in penile circumference, typically as an indicator of sexual arousal. It’s often used in research settings to objectively assess physiological sexual response in men

147
Q

What are the 4 stages of sexual dysfunction?

A
  1. sexual desire disorders
  2. sexual arousal disorders
  3. orgasm disorders
  4. sexual pain disorders
148
Q

What are the 2 sexual desire disorders?

A
  • male hypoactive sexual desire disorder
  • female interest/arousal disorder

** must be present for 6 months

149
Q

What is asexuality?

A

no desire to be sexual

**are not diagnosed with a sexual desire disorder

150
Q

What is a sexual arousal disorder?

A

Erectile disorder

Difficulty obtaining or maintaining rigid
erections for at least 6 months
(and that causes distress)

151
Q

What are orgasm disorders?

A
  • premature ejaculation (more common, affects 9% of men)
  • delayed ejaculation
  • female orgasmic disorder (11% of women) only 50% of women during intercourse, and equal in all ages
152
Q

What are the sexual pain disorders?

A

Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

symptoms for 6 months

153
Q

What is paraphilias?

A

Paraphilias are a group of sexual interests that involve intense and persistent sexual desires or behaviors that typically involve:

Non-human objects
The suffering or humiliation of oneself or one’s partner
Non-consenting persons
Children (pedophilia)

154
Q

What is fetishistic disorder?

(a type of paraphilic disorder)

A

when someone has a strong sexual interest in objects (like shoes) or parts of the body that are not sexual (like feet), and this interest causes them problems

155
Q

What is exhibitionistic disorder?

A

Exhibitionistic Disorder involves a person’s intense urge to expose their genitals to an unsuspecting stranger. The critical aspect of this disorder is the seeking of sexual arousal from the shock or surprise on the stranger’s face, not necessarily from a direct physical interaction

155
Q

What is voyeuristic disorders?

A

Voyeuristic Disorder is when someone has a strong desire to watch others when they are naked, getting dressed, or engaging in sexual activities without their knowledge or consent

156
Q

What is transvestic disorder?

A

This is characterized by a strong desire to dress in clothes of the opposite gender, not for the purpose of emotional or sexual arousal by itself, but which causes significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning for the individual

157
Q

What is sexual sadism disorder?

A

characterized by deriving sexual pleasure from inflicting pain, suffering, or humiliation on another person

158
Q

What is sexual masochism disorder

A

involves obtaining sexual pleasure from being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer

159
Q

What is frotteuristic disorder?

A

characterized by a strong sexual urge or behavior involving touching or rubbing against a non-consenting person

**6 months

160
Q

What are paraphilic disorders treatments?

A
  • Covert sensitization (imagining consequences of certain
    behaviors repeatedly)
  • Orgasmic reconditioning (re-pairing pleasurable orgasms
    with other stimuli)
  • Relapse prevention programs (similar to substance use
    programs)
  • Drug interventions (e.g., antiandrogens which is
    effectively chemical castration
161
Q

What % of people attempt suicide after their gender reassignment surgery?

A

2%

162
Q

When do ASD and ADHD symptoms show up?

A

Childhood or earlier

163
Q

What do the levels of autism mean?

A

Higher level, more support needed

164
Q

Families with a child with ASD have about ____% chance of having another child with ASD

A

20%

(studies show that it relates to oxytocin, the bonding hormone)

165
Q

What are treatments for autism?

A
  • ABA
  • speech therapy/occupational therapy
166
Q

What % of kids worldwide have ADHD?

A

5%

more common in boys

167
Q

What are the most overdiagnosed disorders?

A
  1. ADHD
  2. Autism
168
Q

In the US, only about _____% of
psychologists are
geropsychologists

A

3%

169
Q

Why do many neurocognitive disorders develop later in life?

A

Possible reasons include gradual cognitive deterioration, increased chances of injury or harm, increased exposure to toxins, and slow accumulation of plaque.

170
Q

What are the two classes of neurocognitive disorders listed in the DSM 5 TR?

A

Delirium and Mild/Major Neurocognitive Disorders.

171
Q

What is delirium characterized by according to the DSM 5 TR?

A

Delirium is typically characterized by temporary or transient confusion or disorientation symptoms.

172
Q

How do Mild/Major Neurocognitive Disorders progress according to the DSM 5 TR?

A

They are characterized by progressive, gradual, and irreversible deterioration of cognitive abilities.

(judgement, memory, language)

173
Q

What does “organic” imply in the context of mental disorders according to earlier classifications?

A

“Organic” implies brain damage.

174
Q

What historical significance does delirium have in medical literature?

A

It is one of the first mental disorders ever written about.

175
Q

Who first referred to a condition similar to delirium and what did he call it?

A

Hippocrates referred to a similar condition as “phrenitis” in 500 BC.

176
Q

What symptoms were associated with “phrenitis” according to Hippocrates?

A

Phrenitis was a type of fever or head trauma that caused mental problems

177
Q

How did Celsus contribute to the understanding of delirium around 100 AD?

A

Celsus used the term “Delirium” to describe mental disorders related to fevers or head trauma.

178
Q

What are the potential roots of the word “delirium” and what do they mean?

A

“To wander,” “to leave home,” and “silly talk” are all potential roots of the word.

179
Q

Translate the Latin phrase “Raro sed aliquando tamex ex metu delirium nascitunatura” to English.

A

The Latin phrase requires translation (The phrase is a mock Latin and doesn’t have a direct translation; it appears to be an attempt to say something along the lines of “Rare but sometimes also from fear comes a delirium by nature”).

180
Q

Who was Najab ud din Unhammad and what was his classification of delirium?

A

Najab ud din Unhammad was a scholar who classified delirium as a type of pathology in the Middle East in the 8th century

181
Q

What 4 features is delirium classified as?

A
  • disturbance of consciousness
  • disturbance of cognition
  • limited course
  • external causation

40-50% of people who experience delirium die within
one year

182
Q

What is the DSM-5 criteria of delirium?

A
  • disturbance in attention
  • reduce awareness of environment
  • disturbance in cognition

** More common in seniors

183
Q

Which medication might be prescribed for delirium caused by substance withdrawal?

A

Haloperidol, an antipsychotic medication, might be prescribed

184
Q

What medications may be prescribed when the cause of delirium is unknown?

A

Haloperidol and olanzapine, which are antipsychotics, may be prescribed.

185
Q

Why was mild/major neurocognitive disorder created?

A

To focus attention on the early stages of cognitive decline and thus refer
to changes that are often less severe and do not interfere with their lives (little functional impairment

186
Q

What are different CAUSES of Mild and major neurocognitive disorder?

A
  • Alzheimer’s
  • Vascular disease
  • Traumatic brain injury
  • substance abuse
  • HIV
  • Prion disease
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • Huntington’s disease
187
Q

Some neurocognitive researchers and
clinicians may use the _____ Test to
help understand a client’s memory
and visuo-spatial reasoning skills

A

Clock test

188
Q

What is the cerebral reserve hypothesis?

A

The cerebral reserve hypothesis is the idea that the brain can cope with damage by using its extra capacity

189
Q

What is vascular neurocognitive disorder?

A
  • vascular” here refers to blood vessels
    which can get blocked or damage in the
    brain
  • Marked by decline in processing speed and executive function
  • Onset more sudden than Alzheimer’s
  • While strokes are a common cause of
    death among seniors, surviving often
    involves significant cognitive impairment
190
Q

What is Lewy body disease?

A
  • Small microscopic deposits of protein that damage brain cells
  • Marked by decline in alertness and attention, hallucinations, and motor impairment
191
Q

What is parkinson’s’ disease?

A
  • Degenerative brain disorder affecting 1/1000
  • Includes motor problems such as stooped posture, slow body movements, tremors. Also
    affects voice (slow monotone)
  • Marked by damage to dopamine pathways and increased Lewy bodies
192
Q

What is frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder?

A
  • Damage to those areas
  • Marked by decline in inappropriate
    behaviours (laugh when sad, poor
    judgement, etc)
193
Q

What is huntington’s disease?

A
  • Genetic disorder affecting motor movements caused by
    ONE specific gene
  • Chorea = involuntary limb movements
  • Typically results in death within 20 years of first signs
  • About 43% of people with Huntington’s may
    eventually develop Mild ND
194
Q

What is prion disease?

A
  • Prions are proteins that reproduce and damage brain cells
  • No treatment available as the protein lacks DNA/RNA
    and thus always leads to death
  • Hard to contract (must either eat another person or
    tainted blood transfusions)
195
Q

What is the timeline for substance use disorder?

A

2 of the symptoms for a 12 month period

3 parts:
control cravings
consequences
physiological changes

196
Q

What are the 4 drug classes?

A
  • Depressants
  • Stimulants
  • Opioids
  • Hallucinogens
197
Q

What are the 4 depressants?

A

alcohol

anxiolytics

sedatives

hypnotics

198
Q

What is the prevalance of alcohol?

A

○ 23% of Canadians exceeded low-risk drinking guidelines

○ Global variability in alcohol consumption, highest in Europe and the Americas

○ 9% of Canadians experience some problem with alcohol; up to 3% are
alcohol dependen

199
Q

What are long term health consequences of alcohol?

A
  • Dementia
  • Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome results in confusion, loss
    of muscle coordination, and unintelligible speech
    caused by deficiency of thiamine, a vitamin metabolized
    poorly by heavy drinkers
  • Liver disease, pancreatitis, cardiovascular disease
200
Q

When discussing these “Sedatives, Anxiolytics, Hypnotics” which is the most common drug?

A

Benzodiazepines

201
Q

What is the date rape drug?

A

Rohypnol

202
Q

What are the 4 stimulants?

A
  • Amphetamines
  • Cocaine
  • Tobacco
  • caffeine
203
Q

How do emphatemines work?

A

Amphetamines stimulate the central nervous system by enhancing the activity of norepinephrine and
dopamine

204
Q

What do opioids induce?

A

euphoria, drowsiness, slowed breathing, and reduce pain

** a lot of deaths from fentanyl (75% of deaths)

205
Q

What are the 3 hallucinagens?

A

Cannabis

Psilocybin

LSD

206
Q

What % of people used cannabis in 2019?

A

15%

207
Q

What are the 4 treatments for substance use?

A
  • biological treatments
  • education/prevention
  • harm reduction
  • psychosocial treatments
208
Q

What are the 3 rulers of someone trying to quit addiction?

A
  • willingness ruler
  • confidence ruler
  • readiness ruler

Psychopathology (3 decks)

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