Psychopathology Flashcards

1
Q

A DSM-5 diagnosis of gender dysphoria requires the presence of marked incongruence between a person’s experienced/expressed gender and his/her assigned gender for at least:

A. 18 months for children and adolescents and 12 months for adults.
B. 12 months for children and adolescents and 6 months for adults.
C. 9 months for children, adolescents, and adults.
D. 6 months for children, adolescents, and adults.

A

D. 6 months for children, adolescents, and adults.

The symptoms of gender dysphoria differ somewhat for children and for adolescents and adults, but the DSM-5 requires a minimum duration of symptoms of six months for individuals of all ages.

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2
Q

Moffitt (2003) attributes the life-course persistent type of antisocial behavior to which of the following?

A. a “maturity gap”
B. a “coercive family process” and inadequate parental supervision
C. a lack of moral conscience and empathy
D. neuropsychological vulnerabilities and an adverse social environment

A

D. neuropsychological vulnerabilities and an adverse social environment

Moffitt distinguishes between life-course persistent and adolescence-limited antisocial behavior. The life-course persistent type is more serious and is the result of a combination of inherited or acquired neuropsychological vulnerabilities (e.g., deficits in verbal and executive functioning) and an adverse social (criminogenic) environment, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a maturity gap, which is a gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity. See, e.g., T. E. Moffitt, Life-course persistent and adolescence-limited antisocial behavior: A 10-year research review and research agenda, in B. B. Lahey, T. E. Moffitt, and A. Caspi (Eds.), Causes of conduct disorder and juvenile delinquency (pp. 49-75), New York, Guilford Press, 2003.

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3
Q

A revised version of the original dopamine hypothesis proposes that the negative symptoms of schizophrenia are due to:

A. hyperactive dopamine transmission in certain subcortical areas of the brain.
B. hypoactive dopamine transmission in certain subcortical areas of the brain.
C. hyperactive dopamine transmission in certain cortical areas of the brain.
D. hypoactive dopamine transmission in certain cortical areas of the brain.

A

D. hypoactive dopamine transmission in certain cortical areas of the brain.

The research has not provided entirely consistent results but suggests that factors that contribute to the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia differ: One theory is that positive symptoms are due to dopamine hyperactivity in subcortical regions of the brain (especially certain striatal areas), while negative symptoms are due to dopamine hypoactivity in cortical regions (especially the prefrontal cortex). See, e.g., R. Kuepper, M. Skinbjerg, and A. Abi-Dargham, The dopamine dysfunction in schizophrenia revisited: New insights into topography and course, in G. Gross and M. A. Geyer (Eds.), Current antipsychotics (pp. 1-26), New York, Springer, 2012.

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4
Q

According to the DSM-5, about ________ of women have symptoms that are sufficiently severe to meet the criteria for a major depressive episode during pregnancy or the weeks or months after delivery. In contrast, other sources most often report ________ rates.

A. 3 to 6%; lower
B. 3 to 6%; higher
C. 8 to 12%; lower
D. 8 to 12%; higher

A

B. 3 to 6%; higher

Estimates of peripartum depression (major depressive disorder with peripartum onset in the DSM-5) vary somewhat: The DSM-5 states that “between 3% and 6% of women will experience the onset of a major depressive episode during pregnancy or in the weeks or months following delivery.” In contrast, other sources usually report higher rates, often in the 10 to 20% range.

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5
Q

Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) is an evidence-based therapy that’s used to treat:

A. adult survivors of child sexual abuse.
B. children and adolescents who have experienced sexual abuse or other trauma.
C. adolescents and adults with PTSD and a substance use disorder.
D. adults with combat-related PTSD.

A

B. children and adolescents who have experienced sexual abuse or other trauma.

TF-CBT was originally developed for children and adolescents ages 3 to 18 to address problems related to child sexual abuse. It has subsequently been used to treat children and adolescents who have been exposed to other types of traumatic events.

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6
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease ordinarily has a:

A. long latency period followed by a rapid deterioration in functioning.
B. long latency period followed by a gradual deterioration in functioning.
C. short latency period followed by a rapid deterioration in functioning.
D. short latency period followed by a gradual deterioration in functioning.

A

A. long latency period followed by a rapid deterioration in functioning.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in the DSM-5 as a neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. It’s caused by a slow-acting virus that has a long latency period; however, once symptoms appear, deterioration in functioning is rapid.

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7
Q

Drugs that block or reduce __________ activity are the primary pharmacological treatment for Tourette’s disorder.

A. serotonin
B. dopamine
C. glutamate
D. GABA

A

B. dopamine

Knowing that antipsychotic drugs are used to treat Tourette’s disorder and other tic disorders and that they exert their therapeutic effects by blocking dopamine receptors would have helped you identify dopamine as the correct answer to this question.

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8
Q

Which of the following is not one of the core symptoms identified in the DSM-5 for neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies?

A. fluctuating cognition that involves changes in attention and executive functions
B. recurrent and detailed visual hallucinations
C. compulsive/ritualistic behaviors
D. spontaneous features of parkinsonism

A

C. compulsive/ritualistic behaviors

The DSM-5 identifies the symptoms listed in answers A, B, and D as the core diagnostic features of neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Perseverative, stereotyped, or compulsive/ritualistic behavior is a diagnostic criterion for frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder.

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9
Q

Sleep abnormalities are considered to be core features of major depressive disorder, with research linking it to all of the following except:

A. decreased REM density.
B. decreased REM latency.
C. reduced slow-wave sleep.
D. prolonged sleep latency.

A

A. decreased REM density.

Decreased REM latency (shortened latency from sleep onset to REM sleep), reduced slow-wave (stages 3 and 4) sleep, prolonged sleep latency (a longer time to fall asleep), and increased REM density (more rapid eye movements per unit of time) have been linked to major depressive disorder, especially in adults.

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10
Q

Which of the following is not identified in the DSM-5 as a characteristic symptom of a panic attack?

A. feeling detached from oneself.
B. increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli
C. concern about losing control of one’s mental functions
D. numbness or tingling sensations

A

B. increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli

To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to notice that it’s asking which symptom is not included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of a panic attack. The symptoms listed in answers A, C, and D are all included in DSM-5, albeit with slightly different language: depersonalization (being detached from oneself), fear of losing control or “going crazy,” and paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensations). Increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli is not listed as a characteristic symptom of a panic attack.

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11
Q

Schizoaffective disorder is likely to be the appropriate diagnosis for a client if her psychotic symptoms have:
A. always occurred with concurrent mood symptoms.
B. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her psychotic symptoms were absent.
C. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her mood symptoms were absent.
D. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least one month when her mood symptoms were absent.

A

C. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her mood symptoms were absent.

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and a major depressive or manic episode for most of the duration of the illness, but with the presence of delusions or hallucinations for two or more weeks without mood symptoms.

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12
Q

The most likely diagnosis for a client who had auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech for five weeks and odd behaviors and anhedonia for an additional seven months is:
A. major depressive disorder with psychotic features.
B. schizophreniform disorder.
C. schizoaffective disorder.
D. schizophrenia.

A

D. schizophrenia.

EXPLANATION

Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia requires the presence of at least two active-phase symptoms for at least one month with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech plus continuous signs of the disorder (e.g., odd behaviors and avolition) for at least six months.

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13
Q
A poor prognosis for people with schizophrenia is least associated with which of the following?
A. female gender
B. anosognosia
C. early age of onset
D. predominantly negative symptoms
A

A. female gender

EXPLANATION

Answer A is correct. A poorer prognosis for schizophrenia has been linked to several factors, including those listed in answers B, C, and D. In contrast, female gender is associated with a better prognosis.

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14
Q
As reported by I. I. Gottesman (1991), the concordance rate for schizophrenia is about \_\_\_% for monozygotic twins and \_\_\_\_% for dizygotic twins.
A. 50; 30
B. 50; 25
C. 48; 24
D. 48; 17
A

D. 48; 17

EXPLANATION

Answer D is correct. Reported concordance rates vary somewhat. However, this question is asking specifically about the rates reported by I. I. Gottesman, who is frequently cited in the literature. He reported a 48% rate for monozygotic (identical) twins and a 17% rate for dizygotic (fraternal) twins.

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15
Q
A person whose biological mother and father have both received a diagnosis of schizophrenia is about \_\_\_\_\_ times more likely to receive the same diagnosis as a person whose only biological relative with schizophrenia is his or her non-twin sibling.
A. 50
B. 16
C. 5
D. 2
A

C. 5

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that the risk for receiving a diagnosis of schizophrenia is about 46% for a person whose biological mother and father have received the diagnosis, while the risk is about 9% for a person whose biological non-twin sibling is the only relative who has received the diagnosis. Forty-six divided by 9 is 5.1, which means that a person whose biological mother and father have received the diagnosis of schizophrenia is about 5 time more likely to receive the diagnosis than a person whose only relative with schizophrenia is a biological non-twin sibling.

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16
Q
Data from the National Survey on Drug Use and Health (NSDUH) indicate that which of the following age groups most often had the highest rates of depression from 2009 to 2017?
A. 12 to 17
B. 18 to 25
C. 26 to 49
D. 50+
A

A. 12 to 17

EXPLANATION

Answer A is correct. Results of the NSDUH indicate that, from 2009 to 2017, the highest rates of depression (with three exceptions) were for respondents ages 12 to 17 followed by, in order, respondents ages 18 to 25, 26 to 49, and 50+. The exceptions were in 2009, 2010, and 2017: In 2009, respondents ages 12 to 17 and 18 to 25 had a similar rate; in 2010, respondents ages 18 to 25 had a slightly higher rate than those ages 12 to 17; and, in 2017, respondents ages 12 to 17 and 18 to 25 again had similar rates. In 2017, the rates for respondents ages 12 to 17 and 18 to 25 were both slightly above 13%, the rate for respondents ages 26 to 49 was slightly below 8%, and the rate for respondents ages 50+ was slightly below 5%.

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17
Q

Research has found that the experience of depression is associated with:
A. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
B. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hypoactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
C. hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hyperactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
D. hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

A

B. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hypoactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

EXPLANATION

Answer B is correct. Brain imaging studies have found that depression is associated with abnormally high levels of activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC) and abnormally low levels of activity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (dlPFC). Note that a mnemonic for remembering this is to use the “l” in dlPFC to recall that depression is associated with a low level of activity in the dlPFC – and that the opposite (a high level of activity) occurs in the vmPFC.

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18
Q
Which of the following is least likely to be prescribed as a treatment for bipolar I disorder?
A. lithium
B. donepezil
C. risperidone
D. valproate
A

B. donepezil

EXPLANATION

Answer B is correct. If you do not know that donepezil is used to slow the progression of Alzheimer’s disease, you may have been able to identify it as the correct answer using the process of elimination as long as you know that lithium, risperidone (a second-generation antipsychotic), and valproate (an anticonvulsant) are used to treat bipolar I disorder.

19
Q
Your new client, a 29-year-old physician’s assistant, describes experiencing alternating periods of hypomania that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and periods of depression that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode. To assign the diagnosis of cyclothymia, the client must have experienced these symptoms for at least:
A. 6 months.
B. 1 year.
C. 18 months.
D. 2 years.
A

D. 2 years.

EXPLANATION

Answer D is correct. For the exam, you want to remember that the diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder and persistent depressive disorder both require a minimum duration of symptoms of 2 years for adults and 1 year for children and adolescents.

20
Q
A DSM-5 diagnosis of separation anxiety requires a duration of symptoms of at least \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for children and adolescents and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for adults.
A. 2 weeks; one month
B. 4 weeks; three months
C. 4 weeks; six months
D. 6 weeks; four months
A

C. 4 weeks; six months

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. For this diagnosis, the DSM-5 requires symptoms to have a duration of at least four weeks for children and adolescents or six months for adults.

21
Q
Bill has just received a diagnosis of specific phobia, blood-injection-injury type. The most effective treatment for Bill is likely to be exposure and response prevention and:
A. a beta-blocker.
B. an anxiolytic.
C. applied relaxation.
D. applied tension.
A

D. applied tension.

EXPLANATION

Answer D is correct. Exposure and response prevention is the treatment-of-choice for specific phobia. Because people with the blood-injection-injury type tend to faint when confronted with a feared stimulus, applied tension is used during exposure to increase blood pressure and reduce the likelihood of fainting.

22
Q
A six-year-old child of divorced parents experiences abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea whenever she stays with her mother but has no symptoms when she stays with her father or other relative. This situation is most suggestive of:
A. conversion disorder.
B. malingering.
C. factitious disorder.
D. somatic symptom disorder.
A

C. factitious disorder.

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. Since the girl’s symptoms occur only when she’s residing with her mother, the most likely diagnosis of those given in the answers is factitious disorder imposed on another.

23
Q

A DSM-5 diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are:
A. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
B. being intentionally produced, faked, or exaggerated in terms of severity.
C. related to exposure to a traumatic event.
D. incompatible with any known medical condition.

A

A. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

EXPLANATION

Answer A is correct. Somatic symptom disorder involves one or more symptoms that are distressing or cause a significant disruption in daily life and are accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that are related to the symptoms or associated health concerns.

24
Q

Hypnopompic hallucinations are vivid dreams that occur:
A. immediately before an episode of REM sleep.
B. immediately after an episode of REM sleep.
C. just after awakening from sleep.
D. just before falling asleep.

A

C. just after awakening from sleep.

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. Many people with narcolepsy experience hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations which are vivid hallucinations that occur, respectively, just before falling asleep or just after awakening.

25
Q
For a DSM-5 diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, a person must exhibit characteristic symptoms for at least:
A. three weeks.
B. three months.
C. six weeks.
D. six months.
A

B. three months.

EXPLANATION

Answer B is correct. For a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, the DSM-5 requires that the person engage in both binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months.

26
Q

The treatment for a young man who has just received a diagnosis of a paraphilic disorder is most likely to include which of the following?
A. overcorrection and habit reversal training
B. habit reversal training and covert sensitization
C. orgasmic reconditioning and systematic desensitization
D. covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning

A

D. covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning

EXPLANATION

Answer D is correct. Behavioral interventions for paraphilic disorders are based on classical conditioning and include covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning.

27
Q
To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of pedophilic disorder to a client, the client must be at least \_\_\_\_\_ years old.
A. 20
B. 18
C. 16
D. 14
A

C. 16

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. For the diagnosis of pedophilic disorder, the person must be 16 years of age or older and at least five years older than the children he responds to with sexual arousal.

28
Q
The symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder are grouped in DSM-5 into three categories that include all of the following except:
A. argumentative/defiant behavior.
B. vindictiveness.
C. deceitfulness/dishonesty.
D. angry/irritable mood.
A

C. deceitfulness/dishonesty.

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. To identify answer C as the correct answer, you have to know that argumentative/defiant behavior, vindictiveness, and angry/irritable mood are the three categories of symptoms for oppositional defiant disorder. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you recalled that the violation of the basic rights of others or age-appropriate norms (e.g., by being deceitful or dishonest) is more characteristic of conduct disorder.

29
Q

A pattern of emotional dysregulation is characteristic of:
A. oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder.
B. oppositional defiant disorder.
C. conduct disorder.
D. neither oppositional defiant disorder nor conduct disorder.

A

B. oppositional defiant disorder.

EXPLANATION

Answer B is correct. In its description of differential diagnosis for conduct disorder, the DSM-5 notes that conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder both involve conflicts with parents and other authority figures but differ in terms of symptom severity and several other characteristics. For example, only oppositional defiant disorder involves “problems of emotional dysregulation (i.e., angry and irritable mood) that are not included in the definition of conduct disorder” (American Psychiatric Association, 2013, p. 475). You may have been able to identify answer B as the correct answer if you recalled the categories of symptoms for both disorders: argumentative/defiant behavior, vindictiveness, and angry/irritable mood for oppositional defiant disorder and aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violation of rules for conduct disorder.

30
Q
The DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder requires the presence of at least three characteristic symptoms during the last \_\_\_\_\_ months and at least one symptom in the last \_\_\_\_\_ months.
A. 6; 3
B. 12; 3
C. 12; 6
D. 18; 6
A

C. 12; 6

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. This is a straightforward question but, like a few questions you’re likely to encounter on the EPPP, is difficult because it requires you to recall specific details about a disorder. To identify the correct answer, you have to recall that the diagnosis of conduct disorder requires the presence of at least three characteristic behaviors in the past 12 months with at least one characteristic behavior in the past 6 months.

31
Q

A cigarette smoker decides to quit “cold turkey.” Her withdrawal symptoms will most likely include which of the following?
A. autonomic hyperactivity, psychomotor agitation, and insomnia
B. lower blood pressure, cardiac arrhythmias, and confusion
C. irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia
D. insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation

A

C. irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia

EXPLANATION

Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 identifies the following as characteristic symptoms of tobacco withdrawal: irritability, anger or anxiety, impaired concentration, increased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood, insomnia.

32
Q
As described by Marlatt & Gordon (1985), lapses following a period of abstinence are precipitated by which of the following?
A. high-risk situations
B. chronic stress
C. denial
D. lack of impulse control
A

A. high-risk situations

EXPLANATION

Answer A is correct. Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention therapy is based on the assumption that lapses following a period of abstinence are precipitated by high-risk situations (e.g., a negative emotional state, interpersonal conflict, social pressure).

33
Q
The DSM-5 describes the pathological behaviors associated with substance use disorders as representing four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?
A. impaired control
B. cognitive impairment
C. risky use
D. social impairment
A

B. cognitive impairment

EXPLANATION

Answer B is correct. As described in the DSM-5, the symptoms of the substance use disorders represent four categories: impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria (tolerance and withdrawal).

34
Q

Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include which of the following?
A. nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever
B. autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and anxiety
C. irritability, impaired concentration, and increased appetite
D. pupillary dilation, nausea or vomiting, and weight loss

A

A. nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever

EXPLANATION

Answer A is correct. Opioid withdrawal produces flu-like symptoms that include nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, muscle aches, and fever.

35
Q
Identifying the temporal sequence of the onset of motor and cognitive symptoms is most useful for distinguishing between NCD due to Parkinson’s disease and:
A. NCD due to HIV infection.
B. NCD with Lewy bodies.
C. NCD due to prion disease.
D. vascular NCD.
A

B. NCD with Lewy bodies.

EXPLANATION

Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that NCD due to Parkinson’s disease and NCD with Lewy bodies both involve motor and cognitive symptoms but that the temporal sequence of the onset of these symptoms differs: Motor symptoms precede cognitive symptoms in NCD due to Parkinson’s disease, while cognitive symptoms precede (or, in some cases, are concurrent with) motor symptoms in NCD with Lewy bodies.

36
Q
Your new client is Maureen, a 21-year-old college junior, who says she’s ordinarily a shy, calm person who doesn’t have trouble getting things done. However, for the last three weeks, she’s been jumping from one project to another without finishing anything, gets irritated by just about everything, is more talkative than usual, and has a lot of energy even though she’s not getting enough sleep. Maureen says that, because of her symptoms, she hasn’t been able to concentrate while studying and she failed an exam last week for the first time in her life. Maureen’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following?
A. bipolar I disorder
B. bipolar II disorder
C. cyclothymic disorder
D. ADHD
A

A. bipolar I disorder

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-110 Answer A is correct. The nature and duration of Maureen’s symptoms are most suggestive of bipolar I disorder, which is diagnosed when a person has had at least one manic episode that lasted for at least one week. Maureen’s increased energy and talkativeness, distractibility, increased goal activity (jumping from one project to another), decreased need for sleep, and impaired functioning at school because of her symptoms are characteristic of a manic episode. Bipolar II disorder isn’t correct because it requires at least one major depressive disorder, which must include a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure plus other symptoms, and the question doesn’t indicate that Maureen has these symptoms.

37
Q

Moffitt’s (1993) “maturity gap” is most useful for understanding the etiology of which of the following disorders?
A. oppositional defiant disorder
B. late-onset attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
C. intermittent explosive disorder
D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder

A

D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-190 Answer D is correct. T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).

38
Q
Brain imaging studies have linked the negative symptoms of schizophrenia to:
A. an overactive HPA axis.
B. a smaller-than-normal cerebellum.
C. temporal-limbic overactivity.
D. prefrontal underactivity.
A

D. prefrontal underactivity.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-099 Answer D is correct. Prefrontal underactivity is also known as hypofrontality and refers to reduced blood flow to the frontal lobes. It has been linked to the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Temporal-limbic overactivity has been linked to the disorder’s positive symptoms.

39
Q

An assumption of dialectical behavior therapy is that borderline personality disorder is attributable to which of the following?
A. inadequate response-contingent reinforcement
B. split perceptions of self and others into unrealistic extremes
C. emotion dysregulation
D. dysfunctional self-schemas

A

C. emotion dysregulation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Personality Disorders-223 Answer C is correct. M. Linehan’s dialectical behavior therapy is based on the assumption that borderline personality disorder is a disorder of the emotion regulation system that involves high emotional vulnerability coupled with an inability to regulate emotions (Cognitive-behavioral treatment of borderline personality disorder, New York, Guilford Press, 1993).

40
Q
Suicide rates vary somewhat from year to year but, with regard to age and gender, the best conclusion is that, among females, those aged \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ have the highest rate while, among males, those aged \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ have the highest rate.
A. 45 to 64; 75 and over
B. 15 to 24; 45 to 64
C. 45 to 64; 15 to 24
D. 75 and over; 45 to 64
A

A. 45 to 64; 75 and over

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-225 Answer A is correct. Data collected by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention on suicide rates in 1999 and 2014 show that rates increased for most age groups but that the age groups with the highest rates remained the same: In 1999 and 2014, females aged 45 to 64 had the highest rate and males aged 75 and over had the highest rate. See, S. C. Curtin, M. Warner, and H. Hedegaard, Suicide rates for females and males by race and ethnicity: United States, 1999 and 2014, NCHS Health E-Stat. National Center for Health Statistics, April 2016. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/publication/301688054_Suicide_Rates_for_Females_and_Males_by_Race_and_Eth

41
Q
Rates of comorbidity are high for individuals with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. For example, according to the DSM-5, over half of individuals with schizophrenia have which of the following?
A. social anxiety disorder
B. tobacco use disorder
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. acute stress disorder
A

B. tobacco use disorder

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-078 Answer B is correct. The studies have found that about 70 to 85% of individuals with schizophrenia are tobacco users and, according to the DSM-5, over half of individuals with this diagnosis meet the diagnostic criteria for tobacco use disorder. Of the disorders listed in the answers, tobacco use disorder is the most common co-occurring disorder for individuals with schizophrenia.

42
Q

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is characterized by recurrent temper outbursts with:
A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.
B. a persistently manic or hypomanic mood between outbursts.
C. extreme mood lability between outbursts.
D. moderate or severe depression between outbursts.

A

A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-121 Answer A is correct. As described in DSM-5, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder involves severe and recurrent temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation with a persistently irritable or angry mood most of the day and nearly every day between outbursts.

43
Q
Regulated breathing has been found to be an effective treatment for which of the following?
A. childhood-onset fluency disorder
B. dysarthria
C. intermittent explosive disorder
D. central sleep apnea
A

A. childhood-onset fluency disorder

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-012 Answer A is correct. Regulated breathing is a behavioral intervention that has been found to be effective for treating stuttering (childhood-onset fluency disorder). It involves teaching the child to breathe in a way that’s incompatible with stuttering. See, e.g., C. A. Conelea, K. A. Rice, and D. W. Woods, Regulated breathing as a treatment for stuttering: A review of the empirical evidence, Journal of Speech-Language Pathology and Applied Behavior Analysis, 1(2), 94-102, 2006.

44
Q
Autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, transient hallucinations, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures are most suggestive of which of the following?
A. alcohol withdrawal
B. opioid withdrawal
C. stimulant intoxication
D. inhalant intoxication
A

A. alcohol withdrawal

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-196 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal requires the presence of two or more of the following symptoms after cessation or reduction of heavy and prolonged alcohol use: autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, transient hallucinations or illusions, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.