Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology

Question 1

According to the __________ theory of emotion, all emotions are essentially the same in terms of physiological arousal and people experience a particular emotion only after they experience physiological arousal and then assign a cognitive label to that arousal.

A. James-Lange
B. Sperry-Gazzaniga
C. Cannon-Bard
D. Schachter-Singer

Answer 1

D. Schachter-Singer

According to Schachter and Singer’s (1962) two-factor theory, emotions are the consequence of physiological arousal plus cognitive interpretation of that arousal. An important assumption of their theory is that the physiological responses associated with different emotions are essentially the same and what differs is the cognitive interpretation of those responses.

Pretest

Question 2

The effects of damage to the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex depend on the specific location of the damage, but damage to the right hemisphere is most likely to produce:

A. inappropriate indifference or euphoria.
B. depression or emotional volatility.
C. unprovoked rage and hostility.
D. unrealistic confidence and optimism.

Answer 2

A. inappropriate indifference or euphoria.

Negative emotions are processed primarily in the right hemisphere, and damage to this hemisphere can produce inappropriate indifference or euphoria. In contrast, positive emotions are processed primarily in the left hemisphere, and damage to this hemisphere can produce depression or emotional volatility.

Pretest

Question 3

Which of the following drugs slows the cognitive decline associated with Alzheimer’s disease by blocking the effects of glutamate rather than by increasing cholinergic activity?

A. galantamine.
B. memantine.
C. rivastigmine.
D. donepezil.

Answer 3

B. memantine.

All four drugs listed in the answers to this question are used to slow the cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease. Galantamine (Razadyne), rivastigmine (Exelon), and donepezil (Aricept) do so by increasing cholinergic activity (i.e., by preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine), while memantine (Namenda) does so by regulating glutamate activity.

Pretest

Question 4

Damage to which of the following areas of the brain is responsible for the memory impairment associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A. hypothalamus and suprachiasmatic nucleus
B. hypothalamus and cingulate gyrus
C. thalamus and suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. thalamus and mammillary bodies

Answer 4

D. thalamus and mammillary bodies

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome has been linked to a thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency that’s usually caused by the long-term abuse of alcohol. The amnesia associated with this disorder is due to damage to the thalamus and mammillary bodies.

Question 5

A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery that affects a patient’s non-dominant hemisphere is most likely to produce which of the following symptoms?

A. contralateral hemiparesis, mutism, apathy, confusion, and impaired judgment
B. contralateral homonymous hemianopia, unilateral cortical blindness, visual agnosia, and memory loss
C. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, dysarthria, and aphasia
D. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, apraxia, and sensory neglect

Answer 5

D. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, apraxia, and sensory neglect

The symptoms listed in this answer are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and affects the non-dominant hemisphere. The symptoms listed in answer C are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and affects the dominant hemisphere; the symptoms listed in answer A are caused by a stroke involving the anterior cerebral artery; and the symptoms listed in answer B are caused by a stroke involving the posterior cerebral artery.

Pretest

Question 6

Conduction aphasia involves which of the following symptoms?

A. fluent spontaneous speech with many errors, intact comprehension, and impaired speech repetition.
B. fluent spontaneous speech with many errors, impaired comprehension, and normal speech repetition.
C. nonfluent spontaneous speech, intact comprehension, and normal speech repetition.
D. nonfluent spontaneous speech, impaired comprehension, and impaired speech repetition.

Answer 6

A. fluent spontaneous speech with many errors, intact comprehension, and impaired speech repetition.

Conduction aphasia is a rare type of aphasia that’s usually caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which is the bundle of fibers that connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas. People with this type of aphasia have relatively intact comprehension, fluent (but paraphasic) speech, and impaired ability to repeat phrases, especially lengthy and complex phrases.

Question 7

Functional neuroimaging techniques include all of the following except:
A. CT.
B. fMRI.
C. PET.
D. SPECT.

Answer 7

A. CT.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-035 Answer A is correct. Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are structural neuroimaging techniques that provide information on the brain’s physical structure, while functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), positron-emission tomography (PET), and single proton emission computed tomography (SPECT) are functional techniques that provide information on brain activity.

Question 8

A young man taking a conventional antipsychotic as a treatment for schizophrenia develops tardive dyskinesia. Of the following, which would be the best course of action in this situation?
A. increase the dose of the conventional antipsychotic
B. replace the conventional antipsychotic with an atypical antipsychotic
C. immediately discontinue the conventional antipsychotic
D. have the patient take a low dose of a dopamine antagonist

Answer 8

B. replace the conventional antipsychotic with an atypical antipsychotic

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-201 Answer B is correct. The atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia and, if a patient’s symptoms require continued treatment with an antipsychotic drug, switching to an atypical drug is an option. The actions described in the other answers would increase the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. (Withdrawing the conventional antipsychotic is also an option but gradual withdrawal is preferred because symptoms may worsen if the drug is abruptly withdrawn.)

Question 9

A young man with synesthesia is most likely to say he:
A. experiences different sounds as different colors.
B. never experiences strong emotions.
C. feels numbness and tingling in his hands and feet.
D. can’t distinguish between hot and cold.

Answer 9

A. experiences different sounds as different colors.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-130 Answer A is correct. Synesthesia is a rare neurological phenomenon in which one type of external sensory input simultaneously stimulates another type of sensory input – e.g., an auditory stimulus is not only perceived as a sound but also as a color.

Question 10

An advanced sleep phase is most characteristic of:
A. adults deprived of REM sleep.
B. individuals who are blind.
C. older adults.
D. infants.

Answer 10

C. older adults.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-165 Answer C is correct. Advanced sleep phase is also known as circadian phase advance and refers to a shift in the sleep-wake cycle that involves falling asleep and waking up earlier than at the conventional times. Many older adults experience an advanced sleep phase.

Question 11

A 41-year-old woman says she feels cold and tired all the time, has been having trouble remembering things, is constipated, has unusually dry skin, and has gained weight even though she’s eating less. The woman’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following endocrine disorders?
A. Grave’s disease
B. Addison’s disease
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypothyroidism

Answer 11

D. hypothyroidism

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-189 Answer D is correct. Hypothyroidism is caused by a low level of thyroxine, the primary hormone secreted by the thyroid gland. The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of this disorder.

Question 12

Which of the following best describes the premise underlying the James-Lange theory of emotion?
A. A stimulus is perceived, the stimulus is interpreted, and bodily arousal, behavior, and emotion then occur simultaneously.
B. A stimulus is perceived, bodily arousal and a label for that arousal occur, and behavior and emotion then occur simultaneously.
C. A stimulus is perceived, bodily arousal and behavior occur, and emotion is then experienced.
D. A stimulus is perceived, the stimulus is interpreted, emotion is experienced, and behavior then occurs.

Answer 12

C. A stimulus is perceived, bodily arousal and behavior occur, and emotion is then experienced.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Emotions and Stress-153 Answer C is correct. The James-Lange theory replaces the idea that “we run because we’re afraid” with the idea that “we’re afraid because we run.” In other words, according to this theory, we perceive a stimulus, we respond to the stimulus with arousal and behavior, and we then experience an emotion as we become aware of our bodily reactions.

Question 13

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes degeneration of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ receptors at neuromuscular junctions, resulting in severe muscle weakness and fatigue.
A. acetylcholine
B. glutamate
C. GABA
D. norepinephrine

Answer 13

A. acetylcholine

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-002 Answer A is correct. Acetylcholine (ACh) is important for the control of the skeletal (voluntary) muscles, and disruption of ACh activity at neuromuscular junctions has been linked to myasthenia gravis and several other disorders. ACh also plays a role in learning, memory, attention, and mood.

Question 14

When lithium has not reduced the symptoms of mania for an individual who has received a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, an alternative is:
A. disulfiram.
B. carbamazepine.
C. propranolol.
D. guanfacine.

Answer 14

B. carbamazepine.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-207 Answer B is correct. Anticonvulsant drugs are often prescribed for individuals with bipolar disorder who have not responded to lithium or cannot tolerate its side effects. Carbamazepine is one of the anticonvulsant drugs that has been found useful for treating mania.

Question 15

After a skateboarding accident, 17-year-old Cody exhibits clumsiness, slurred speech, and other symptoms associated with alcohol intoxication. Which area of Cody’s brain was most likely affected by the accident?
A. thalamus
B. cerebellum
C. reticular formation
D. parietal lobe

Answer 15

B. cerebellum

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-046 Answer B is correct. The cerebellum is involved in the coordination of movement and is responsible for regulating muscle tone, posture, and balance. Damage produces symptoms associated with alcohol intoxication, including ataxia (uncoordinated, clumsy movements), slurred speech, reduced muscle tone and reflexes, and nystagmus (jerky eye movements).

Question 16

The effects of damage to the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex depend on the specific location of the damage but, with regard to emotions, damage to the left hemisphere is most likely to produce:
A. inappropriate indifference or euphoria.
B. depression or emotional volatility.
C. unprovoked rage and hostility.
D. unrealistic confidence and optimism.

Answer 16

B. depression or emotional volatility.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Emotions and Stress-159 Answer B is correct. Positive emotions are processed primarily in the left hemisphere, and damage to this hemisphere can produce depression or emotional volatility (which is described by some authors as a catastrophic reaction). Negative emotions are processed primarily in the right hemisphere, and damage can produce inappropriate indifference or euphoria.

Question 17

Which of the following is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?
A. motion parallax
B. interposition of objects
C. retinal disparity
D. linear perspective

Answer 17

C. retinal disparity

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-139 Answer C is correct. Retinal disparity refers to differences in retinal images in the left and right eyes and is responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance. In contrast, motion parallax (the quicker movement of closer objects across the visual field), interposition (overlap) of objects, and linear perspective are responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a greater distance.

Question 18

The factor that distinguishes primary hypertension from secondary hypertension is:
A. whether or not the cause of the disorder is known.
B. whether or not the disorder responds to medication.
C. the age at onset of the disorder.
D. the severity of the disorder’s symptoms.

Answer 18

A. whether or not the cause of the disorder is known.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-183 Answer A is correct. There are two types of hypertension. The most common type is primary hypertension, which is also known as essential hypertension and is diagnosed when the cause of elevated blood pressure is unknown. In contrast, secondary hypertension is diagnosed when the cause is known.

Question 19

Huntington’s disease is a progressive autosomal dominant disorder that has been linked to GABA and glutamate abnormalities in the:
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B. basal ganglia.
C. hypothalamus.
D. brainstem.

Answer 19

B. basal ganglia.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-177 Answer B is correct. The basal ganglia are responsible for voluntary motor control, and the motor symptoms of Huntington’s disease have been linked to GABA and glutamate abnormalities in the basal ganglia, especially the caudate nucleus and putamen.