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MCAT > Psychology and Sociology > Flashcards

Psychology and Sociology Flashcards

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1
Q

Who developed the study of phrenology?

A

Franz Gall

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2
Q

What did Pierre Flourens do to brains?

A

He studied brain function by cutting out portions of the brain (ablation/ extirpation).

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3
Q

Where would efferent neurons send signals to?

A

From the brain and spinal cord to muscle and gland tissues

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4
Q

Where would afferent neurons send signals to?

A

From receptors to the brain and spinal cord

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5
Q

What neurons are responsible for reflexive behavior?

A

Interneurons- found predominantly in the CNS and allow for reflex arcs to occur

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6
Q

What part of the autonomic nervous system would constrict the pupils and slow heartbeat?

A

Parasympathetic

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7
Q

What part of the autonomic nervous system would relax bronchi and accelerate heartbeat?

A

Sympathetic

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8
Q

What layers of the skull help reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid and protect the brain?

A

The 3 meninges (dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater)

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9
Q

What division of the brain is the Cerebral cortex in and what are its functions?

A

Forebrain; complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes.

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10
Q

What division of the brain is the Basal Ganglia in and what are its functions?

A

Forebrain; controls smooth movement

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11
Q

What division of the brain is the Limbic System in and what are its functions?

A

Forebrain; responsible for emotion and memory

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12
Q

What division of the brain is the Thalamus in and what are its functions?

A

Forebrain; serves as a relay center for sensory information (except for smell)

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13
Q

What division of the brain is the Hypothalamus in and what are its functions?

A

Forebrain; autonomic responses to hunger, thirst, temperature

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14
Q

What division of the brain is the Inferior/Superior Colliculi in and what are its functions?

A

Midbrain; involuntary responses to visual or auditory stimuli

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15
Q

What division of the brain is the Cerebellum in and what are its functions?

A

Hindbrain; maintains refined body movements (impaired by alcohol)

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16
Q

What division of the brain is the Medulla Oblongata in and what are its functions?

A

Hindbrain; vital reflexes (breathing, heartbeat)

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17
Q

What division of the brain is the Reticular Formation in and what are its functions?

A

Hindbrain; plays a role in arousal and alertness

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18
Q

What division of the brain is the Pons in and what are its functions?

A

Hindbrain; serves as a pathway between the cerebral cortex and the medulla oblongata, important for breathing

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19
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus, if injured, would cause someone to lose the desire to eat?

A

Lateral Hypothalamus injury causes someone to Lack Hunger

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20
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus, if injured, would cause someone to never get satisfied from eating?

A

Ventromedial Hypothalamus injury causes someone to be Very Hungry

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21
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus, if injured, would cause someone to hump everything?

A

Anterior Hypothalamus injury causes someone to Ass Hunt

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22
Q

The jerky movement of Parkinson’s disease show that there is injury to what part of the brain?

A

Basal Ganglia

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23
Q

Stimulation of this part of the brain is extremally pleasurable?

A

The Septal Nuclei

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24
Q

When exhibiting defensive/ aggressive behaviors you are using what part of the Limbic System?

A

Amygdala

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25
Q

Damage to which part of the brain would impact learning and memory?

A

Hippocampus

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26
Q

What type of memory loss prevents the creation of new long-term memories?

A

Anterograde Amnesia

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27
Q

What type of memory loss prevents the recall of events before an injury occured?

A

Retrograde Amnesia

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28
Q

What part of the limbic system is connected to the Cerebral Cortex and helps regulate impulse control?

A

The Anterior Cingulate Cortex

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29
Q

What are the valleys in the brain called and what are the bumps called?

A

Sulci- valleys (sulky and sad and low)

Gyri- bumps

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30
Q

What are the four lobes of the Cerebral Cortex?

A

Frontal- executive functioning, Broca’s area
Parietal- sensing of touch, pressure, pain
Occipital- visual/striate cortex for vision
Temporal- auditory cortex, Wernicke’s area

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31
Q

What would damage to Broca’s area cause?

A

An inability to generate words

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32
Q

What would damage to Wernicke’s area cause?

A

An inability to comprehend language

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33
Q

What is the difference between an association area and a projection area?

A

An association area combines diverse inputs from all over the brain (ex. making plans). Projection areas only focus on one rudimentary task (ex. sending muscle impulses)

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34
Q

What side of the brain would control movement of the left side of the body and what laterality is this?

A

The right side of the brain would control the left side of the body; it would control it controlaterally

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35
Q

What side of the brain would sense a sound on the left side of the body and what laterality is this?

A

The left side of the brain would sense a sound on the left side of the body; hearing is communicated ipsilaterally

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36
Q

What is the difference between the dominant and non-dominant hemispheres?

A

The dominant hemisphere is associated with analytic function such as details and contains Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. The non-dominant hemisphere is associated with creativity.

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37
Q

Is it more common or less common to have the right side of your brain as the dominant hemisphere?

A

Less common

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38
Q

What would a drug that mimics the action of GABA in the brain be called?

A

An agonist

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39
Q

What would a drug that blocks the action of Acetylcholine be called?

A

An antagonist

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40
Q

Low levels of Acetylcholine in the peripheral and central nervous systems would cause what?

A

Peripheral- lethargy, weakness

Central- Alzheimer’s, memory loss

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41
Q

What is the difference between epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

Norepinephrine- Neurotransmitter

Epinephrine- systematic hormone

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42
Q

Why are high levels of dopamine found in the Basal Ganglia?

A

Dopamine is associated with controlling posture and movement which is a major function of the Basal Ganglia

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43
Q

What do high and low levels of Serotonin cause respectively?

A

High Serotonin- manic states

Low Serotonin- depression

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44
Q

What is the role of GABA in the brain?

A

It reduces the activity of neurons in the brain

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45
Q

What two amino acids serve as neurotransmitters?

A

Glycine- reduces activity of neurons

Glutamate- excites neurons

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46
Q

When you listen to music, you feels less pain. This can be attributed to?

A

The production of endorphins and enkephalins in the brain which are natural pain-killers

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47
Q

What connects the nervous and endocrine systems?

A

The Hypophyseal Portal connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland

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48
Q

In development what do the neural tube and neural crest become?

A

Neural tube- CNS

Neural crest- PNS

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49
Q

How are the Moro and Babinski reflex different?

A

Moro- baby extends arms in response to falling

Babinski- baby extends big toe and fans others

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50
Q

How are the rooting and grasping reflex different?

A

Rooting- baby turns head to stimulus

Grasping- infant grabs stimulus

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51
Q

Give an example of sensation and an example of perception?

A

Sensation- your body feeling the ambient heat from the air

Perception- your body realizing its hot outside

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52
Q

What is the difference between proximal and distal stimuli?

A

Distal stimuli often produce proximal stimuli (ex. a bonfire produces photons, soundwaves, and energetic particles as heat)

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53
Q

What type of threshold would not be reached from an extremally high pitched sound?

A

The absolute threshold

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54
Q

What type of threshold would not be reached from a sound that is sensed but does not reach higher order brain areas that control consciousness and attention?

A

The threshold of conscious perception

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55
Q

What threshold would be reached if two sounds are played and the listener is able to detect that they are different?

A

The difference threshold (Just-noticeable difference)

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56
Q

What type of testing is performed to find the difference threshold?

A

Discrimination testing (ex. researchers play one sound and then play another sound at a higher volume until the subject is able to detect a difference)

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57
Q

What law states that it is more accurate to state difference thresholds as percentages?

A

Weber’s law

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58
Q

What is the white of the eye?

A

Sclera

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59
Q

What is the first thing that light passes through when it reaches the eye?

A

Cornea

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60
Q

What is the anterior chamber behind the cornea filled with?

A

Aqueous humor

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61
Q

What part of the eye focuses light onto the macula in the retina?

A

The lens

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62
Q

What two fluids support the structure of the eye?

A

Vitreous and aqueous humor

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63
Q

How would the eye respond to change its focus onto a distant object? What is this called?

A

The parasympathetic nervous system would signal the ciliary muscle to contract and pull on the suspensory ligaments thus changing the shape of the lens. This process is called accommodation

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64
Q

What is the mnemonic for the photoreceptors found in the retina?

A

Cones are for COLOR vision while Rods are for RODUCED light

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65
Q

Damage to the fovea in the eye would cause what?

A

Decreased ability to see colors because cones are concentrated here

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66
Q

Describe the pathway of light from sensation to perception

A
  1. light hits the cornea and passes through the lens and vitreous humor
  2. light reaches either rods or cones
  3. a signal is sent to bipolar cells
  4. a signal is sent to ganglion cells (optic nerve)
  5. the signal is sharpened by amacrine and horizontal cells
  6. the signal is sent down the optic nerve to the optic chiasm
  7. the signal follows the optic tract and either reaches the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus which travel to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe
    OR
    the signal is sent directly to the superior colliculus which responds to light reflexively (ducking your head)
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67
Q

The right field of vision is influenced by which eye?

A

It is influenced by both eyes as the right field of vision is a combination of the nasal retina of the right eye and the temporal retina of the left eye

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68
Q

What is detected by parvocellular cells in the LGN?

A

form

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69
Q

What is detected by magnocellular cells in the LGN?

A

motion

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70
Q

What is detected by binocular cells in the LGN?

A

depth

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71
Q

When on a rollercoaster what sense is responsible for detecting the loopedy loops?

A

Vestibular sense

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72
Q

When someone says “you have big ears” what are they most likely referring to

A

The Pinna (auricle)

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73
Q

If the tympanic membrane oscillates back and form at a quick rate what type of sound is processed?

A

A high pitch sound

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74
Q

If the eardrum oscillates back and forth with a low frequency but a large amplitude what type of sound is processed?

A

A loud low pitch sound (subwoofer)

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75
Q

As the eardrum vibrates back and forth what 3 bones are activated that further transmit the sound into the inner ear?

A

The Tympanic membrane vibrates the Malleus (hammer) which interacts with the Incus (anvil) which interacts with the Stapes (stirrup) which rest on the Oval Window of the Cochlea

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76
Q

What does the bony labyrinth of the inner ear refer to?

A

The hollowed out portion of the temporal bone filled with Perilymph fluid that the inner ear sits in

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77
Q

What does the membranous labyrinth of the inner ear refer to?

A

The collection of tubes and chambers that are filled with Endolymph

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78
Q

What part of the membranous labyrinth contains the receptors for hearing?

A

The Cochlea

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79
Q

What structures in the inner ear are responsible for detecting linear acceleration?

A

The Vestibule contains the Utricle and the Saccule which contain hairs that resist changes in motion and signal the nerves they are attached to in the presence of motion

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80
Q

What structures in the inner ear is responsible for detecting angular acceleration?

A

The Semicircular Canals each contain Ampulla where hairs for detecting this motion are located

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81
Q

After reaching the Cochlea, how does sound reach perception?

A

The Cochlea triggers the Vestibulocochlear nerve to signal the Brain Stem where it ascends to the Medial Geniculate Nucleus of the Thalamus. From there nerves extend into the Auditory Complex in the Temporal Lobe for processing. Some nerve impulses are sent to the Superior Olive (to tell where sound is coming from) and the Inferior Colliculus (to initiate startle reflexes).

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82
Q

How are humans able to detect varying pitches in sound?

A

The hairs in the endolymph are Tonotopically organized (different hairs for different frequencies)

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83
Q

What is the pathway of smell to perception?

A

Olfactory Receptors in the nasal passages send signals down Olfactory Nerves to the Olfactory Bulb which relays the signals via the Olfactory Tract to higher order regions of the brain

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84
Q

What is the pathway of taste to perception?

A

Taste receptors in the Papillae in the tongue send signals to the Brainstem which then ascend to the Taste Center in the Thalamus before traveling to higher order regions of the brain

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85
Q

What do Pacinian Corpuscles respond to?

A

deep pressure and vibration

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86
Q

What do Meissner Corpuscle respond to?

A

light touch

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87
Q

What do Merkel Cells responds to?

A

deep pressure and texture

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88
Q

What do Ruffini Endings respond to?

A

to streching

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89
Q

What do Free Nerve Endings respond to?

A

pain and temperature

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90
Q

What is the temperature at which objects feel cold?

A

Objects feel cold if they are below physiological zero or the normal temperature of the skin

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91
Q

Why do things feel less painful if you are being touched all over your body?

A

This is the premise of the Gate Theory of Pain

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92
Q

What is the ability to tell where your body is in space?

A

Proprioception

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93
Q

What type of processing refers to using feature detection, parallel processing, and individual sensory stimuli to make an “image”

A

Bottom up processing

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94
Q

What type of processing refers to using memories and expectations to recognize an object?

A

Top down processing

remember that the details- hieroglyphics-are at the bottom of a pyramid

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95
Q

What is the process of creating a complete image or idea by combining Bottom-up and Top-down processing?

A

Perceptual Organization

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96
Q

What are some of the Monocular (one eye required) cues and their definitions?

A

Relative Size- objects appear larger the closer they are
Interposition- when two objects overlap the front one is bigger
Linear Perspective- parallel lines converge in the distance
Motion Parallax- objects closer to us seem to move faster

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97
Q

What are some the Binocular (two eyes required) cues and their definitions?

A

Retinal Disparity- difference in images projected by either retina
Convergence- the brain detects the angle between the two eyes required to bring an object into focus

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98
Q

What is Gestalts Law of Proximity?

A

objects close together tend to be perceived as a unit (ex. four squares making one bigger square)

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99
Q

What is Gestalts Law of Similarity?

A

objects that are similar tend to be grouped together

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100
Q

What is Gestalts Law of Good Continuation?

A

objects that seem to follow the same pathway tend to be grouped together

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101
Q

What is Gestalts Law of Subjective Contours?

A

finding shapes in the absence of that shape

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102
Q

What is Gestalts Law of Closure?

A

when a space in enclosed by a contour, our brain tends to complete the contour as a shape

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103
Q

A person usually gets sick at the site of blood, however when they get a finger pricked they do not get sick. This is an example of what kind of stimulus?

A

a Subthreshold Stimulus

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104
Q

You are driving down the road. At some point you stop paying attention to all the lights from other cars, the street signs, and the music you are listening to. This is an example of what? You then snap back into reality when you hear a police siren. This is an example of what?

A

The point at which you stop paying attention to all the stimuli is called Habituation and the point when you start paying attention again is called Dishabituation

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105
Q

What are two types of associative learning?

A

Operant and Classical Conditioning

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106
Q

Dogs normally salivate when smelling meat. Pavlov rung a dinner bell right before feeding his dogs meat. After a couple weeks of doing this each night the Dogs now salivate whenever Pavlov rings the dinner bell. Identify the following from this experiment: unconditioned stimulus, unconditioned response, neutral stimulus, conditioned stimulus, and conditioned response.

A

Unconditioned Stimulus- smell of meat
Unconditioned Response- salivation
Neutral Stimulus- dinner bell ringing

Conditioned Stimulus- dinner bell ringing
Conditioned Response- salivation

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107
Q

What refers to the process of learning a conditioned response and what refers to losing this conditioned response?

A

Acquisition- learning conditioned response

Extinction- losing conditioned response

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108
Q

What is the process by which a conditioned response that had become extinct, now suddenly reappears with gusto?

A

Spontaneous Recovery

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109
Q

If a conditioned response starts to occur for more or various types of the conditioned stimulus, this is an example of what?

A

Generalization

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110
Q

If someone with conditioned response distinguishing between the details of a conditioned stimulus this is an example of what?

A

Stimulus Discrimination

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111
Q

In operant conditioning the process of adding an incentive to increase the likelihood of a certain behavior is called what?

A

Positive Reinforcement

ex. five guys after yard work

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112
Q

In operant conditioning the process of removing something that is bad to increase the likelihood of a certain behavior is called what?

A 
Negative Reinforcement
(ex. you don't have to do the dishes if you do your homework now)
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113
Q

In operant conditioning the process of adding an unpleasant consequence to decrease the likelihood of a certain behavior is called what?

A

Positive Punishment AKA Aversive Conditioning

ex. getting spanked for back talking

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114
Q

In operant conditioning the process of taking away a good stimulus in order to decrease to likelihood of a certain behavior is called what?

A 
Negative Punishment
(ex. not getting desert when I don't finish my veggies)
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115
Q

What is the difference between avoidance learning and escape learning as they relate to negative reinforcement?

A

Escape learning- the animal subject experiences the unpleasant stimulus and then does the behavior that will cause the stimulus to be taken away

Avoidance learning- the subject predicts the unpleasant stimulus and does the behavior to prevent the stimulus from ever happening

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116
Q

A dolphin trainer feeds a dolphin a fish every time they do a triple backflip. The trainer also uses a remote that emits a high frequency sound right before feeding the dolphin the juicy fish. Eventually the dolphin performs tricks whenever the trainer is close by, expecting a tasty fish. Identify the following terms: primary reinforcer, secondary reinforcer, conditioned reinforcer, and discriminative reinforcer.

A

Primary Reinforcer- fish
Secondary Reinforcer/Conditioned Reinforcer- sound
Discriminative Reinforcer- trainer

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117
Q

What is the difference between a fixed ratio reinforcement schedule and a variable ratio reinforcement schedule?

A

Fixed Ratio- reinforce behavior after a specific number of performances of a behavior

Variable Ratio- reinforce behavior after varying number of performances of a behavior

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118
Q

What is the difference between a fixed interval reinforcement schedule and a variable interval reinforcement schedule?

A

Fixed Interval- reinforce first instance of a behavior after a specific time period has elapsed

Variable Interval- reinforce first instance of a behavior after randomized time periods have elapsed

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119
Q

The process of getting subjects to do highly specific and detailed task by slowly changing the desired response is called?

A

Shaping (operant conditioning)

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120
Q

What is the definition of latent learning?

A

Associative learning that occurs regardless of a stimulus

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121
Q

When a reward in operant conditioning loosely matches the already instinctually expected reward for an animal this is an example of what?

A

Preparedness

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122
Q

What is it called when an animal that has been trained revert back to instinctual behaviors?

A

Instinctive Drift

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123
Q

What neurons fire repeatedly when an individual observes another person performing an action?

A

Mirror Neurons in the Cerebral Cortex

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124
Q

The type of observational learning that occurs as children are developing behaviors by watching others is called what?

A

Modeling

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125
Q

A persons brain is putting new information into memory which is an example of what?

A

Encoding

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126
Q

A student is actively studying material by writing notes in the margins of books and answering questions in a focused manner. This is an example of what type of processing?

A

Controlled (Effortful) Processing

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127
Q

A student best memorizes MCAT Biochemistry material by relating the definitions into events in his own life. This is an example of what effect?

A

Self-reference Effect

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128
Q

A boy used a dope pickup line and was able to get a girls number, unfortunately he didn’t have anything to write it down and thus kept repeating her number out loud until he could write it down. This is an example of what?

A

Maintenance rehearsal

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129
Q

What type of memory last for a very short duration of time and includes information from all our senses?

A

Sensory Memory

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130
Q

What is the difference between ionic and echoic sensory memory?

A

Ionic- visual stimuli

Echoic- auditory stimuli

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131
Q

What is the average person’s memory capacity for short term memory?

A

Around 7 things

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132
Q

What type of memory involves combining short term memory, attention, and executive function?

A

Working Memory (ex. solving math problems in your head)

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133
Q

What is the difference between maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal?

A

Maintenance- keeps information in the forefront of our consciousness (ex. repeating a phone number)

Elaborative- relates new information to things already stored in long-term memory in order to store the new information in long-term

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134
Q

What are the two types of long-term memory?

A

Implicit (procedural) memories that we do not know we have

Explicit (Declarative) memories we are conscious of

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135
Q

What are the two types of Explicit (Declarative) memory?

A

Episodic- events and experiences (ex. riding a bike with your child hood friend)
Semantic- facts and concepts (ex. names of the parts of a bike)

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136
Q

What is the name given to the type of memory that includes our explicit memories about our lives as well as our semantic memories that relate to our personal traits?

A

Autobiographical Memory

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137
Q

The process of identifying a previously learned thing is called what?

A

Recognition

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138
Q

The process of being able to learn a previously learned thing quicker is called what?

A

Relearning

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139
Q

The process of the brain grouping similar things together for better encoding is called what?

A

Chunking

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140
Q

The process of spreading activation is the reason why what type of cue can trigger previously learned things?

A

Recall Cue

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141
Q

What is the difference between source monitoring and context effect?

A

Context Effect- memory is aided by being in the location where encoding took place

Source Monitoring- the process of distinguishing whether a memory is from a real life event or not

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142
Q

How is state-dependent effect similar to the context effect?

A

They are both retrieval tools but state-dependent is being in the same mood as when encoding took place while context effect is being in the same location as the encoding took place

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143
Q

How are serial-position, primacy, and recency effect different?

A

They all relate to being able to memorize items in a list however:
Serial Position- relates to being able to recall items on a list based off what number in the list they are
Primacy- better at memorizing items at the beginning of the list
Recency- better at memorizing items at the ends of the list

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144
Q

A man remembers the 20 amino acids but can’t remember how the heck he learned them all. This is an example of what?

A

Source Amnesia

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145
Q

What causes the development of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

The loss of acetylcholine in neurons that link to the hippocampus

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146
Q

In an microscopic study of an Alzheimer’s patient’s brain one would predict to find what?

A

1) Neurofibrillary tangles

2) Beta-amyloid plaques

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147
Q

A patient has severe memory loss, has clear “memories” that didn’t actually happen (confabulation), and is lacking in thiamine. What is the diagnosis doc?

A

Korsakoff’s Syndrome

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148
Q

What is the loss of ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds?

A

Agnosia

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149
Q

What is the difference between Proactive and Retroactive Interference in terms of memory loss?

A

Proactive- old information is interfering with learning new

Retroactive- new information is causing the loss of old memories

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150
Q

What is the memory associated with performing a task in the future?

A

Prospective Memory

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151
Q

Someone believes that whatever someone says they remembered under oath is exactly what the truth is. This person believes humans have what kind of memory?

A

Reproductive Memory

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152
Q

What theory of memory says that a person’s memory is effected by many factors including: imagination, semantic memories, and perception?

A

Reconstructive Memory Theory

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153
Q

What is the effect generated when outside information causes someone’s memory recall to be less accurate?

A

Misinformation Effect

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154
Q

What is the difference between and intrusion error and the misinformation effect?

A

Misinformation Effect- memory recall is less accurate due to outside information (ex. hearing a garbled sound and then guessing what it is but then someone telling you to listen for a specific sound)

Intrusion Error- memory recall is less accurate due to linking with preexisting memories (ex. trying to remember what a button is)

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155
Q

What is the term that describes the process of the brain breaking weak neural connections and improving strong neural connections?

A

Synaptic Pruning

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156
Q

Neurons in a person’s brain that help store piano playing skills are becoming stronger and stronger everyday the person plays. This is an example of what?

A

Long-Term Potentiation

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157
Q

What is the difference between cognition and memory?

A

Memory is the storage of things that we learned while Cognition is how our brains process and react to the information that could be stored in memory

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158
Q

What theory am I using to study when I both read and watch Khan academy videos on a subject?

A

Dual-Encoding Theory

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159
Q

Annie shows behaviors such as pushing toys off her high chair and reacting every time you play peek-a-boo with her. What stage of Piaget’s Cognitive Development is she in?

A

The Sensorimotor stage

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160
Q

A child repeatedly pushes toys off her high chair. This is an example of what reaction found in Piaget’s Sensorimotor stage?

A

A Secondary Circular Reaction

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161
Q

A child repeatedly sucks her thumb before going to bed. This is an example of what reaction found in Piaget’s Sensorimotor stage?

A

A Primary Circular Reaction

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162
Q

What is the difference between assimilation and accommodation in Piaget’s theory of Cognitive development?

A

Assimilation- the process of classifying new information into existing schemata (a group of behaviors or concepts)

Accommodation- modifying an existing schemata to make room for new information

(ex. a child seeing a cat for the first time may think it is a dog (assimilation into concept of 4-legged animal) but then when they discover that cats are separate than dogs they make a new schemata in their brain for this (accommodation)

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163
Q

What milestone ends Piaget’s Sensorimotor stage?

A

Object Permanence- knowing an object is still existing even if it is not visible

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164
Q

What is a child’s ability to create mental representations of external objects?

A

Representational thought

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165
Q

Annie starts to think a lot about how to make herself happy by playing dress-up as a fairy princess. What stage of Piaget’s Cognitive development is she likely in?

A

Preoperational

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166
Q

error

A

error

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167
Q

A kid is in Piaget’s Preoperational stage and gets mad when their sister has two smaller pieces of pizza while they only have one big piece. What concept is the kid having a hard time grasping?

A

Conservation- that physical amounts of things stay the same even if they are different sizes

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168
Q

The brain’s process of only focusing on one aspect of a phenomenon is called what?

A

Centration- (ex. focusing only on the number of pizza slices and not the sizes of the individual slices)
- This is usually found in children in the preoperational stage of Piaget’s cognitive development

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169
Q

Annie starts to think about what her friends may like to do and is able to engage in logical thought as long as she is holding the object she is thinking about. Annie is likely in what stage of Piaget’s Cognitive development?

A

Concrete Operational Stage

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170
Q

Annie is now 11 years old and is starting to be able to solve hypothetical problems posed by Jack the dunce. Annie is likely in what stage of Piaget’s Cognitive development? This problem solving of hypotheticals is called what?

A

Formal Operational Stage where a child has the ability of Hypothetical Reasoning

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171
Q

Brendan is very good at using his acquired knowledge to solve general chemistry problems. However he completely sucks at solving new problems that he has never experienced. What type of intelligence does Brendan demonstrate and what type does he not demonstrate?

A

Brendan has very good Crystallized intelligence but lacks in his Fluid Intelligence

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172
Q

What is the definition of Delerium?

A

Rapid changes in cognitive function that is reversible and caused by medical issues

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173
Q

When solving a problem, a person thinks back to the various ways they have solved a similar problem in the past. This tendency to approach the new problem with these old solutions in mind is called what?

A

Mental Set

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174
Q

Annie only sees a pencil as a writing utensil. This is an example of what?

A

Functional Fixedness

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175
Q

How is inductive reasoning different from deductive reasoning?

A

Inductive- starts with the details and seeks to make a theory from them

Deductive- starts with a theory an then seeks to find details from that

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176
Q

What is a Heuristic?

A

A simplified principle that is used to make decisions

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177
Q

A person makes the decision to not swim after watching several shows about sharks. This is an example of what type of heuristic?

A

Availability Heuristic- what first comes to mind is deemed significant

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178
Q

A person watches a coin get flipped an land on heads 10 times in a row and is then asked the probability that it will land on heads again to which they answer a higher chance for heads. This is an example of what type of heuristic?

A

Representativeness Heuristic- using stereotypes to make decisions

More specifically (since this situation is related to actual numerical information) this is an example of Base Rate Fallacy

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179
Q

What is the difference between disconfirmation principle and confirmation bias?

A

Disconfirmation Principle- a potential solution is discarded after it fails during testing

Confirmation Bias- a person only focuses on the information found during testing that boasters their beliefs

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180
Q

A person is asked a question that they do not know but when they are told the answer they claim to have known all along. This is an example of what?

A

Hindsight Bias

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181
Q

Someone still chooses to vote for Biden despite several incriminating reports that he is inferior to Trump. This person has very strong what?

A

Belief Perserverance

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182
Q

What is the definition of Intuition?

A

The ability to act on perceptions that may not be supported by available evidence (ex. Sherlock Freaking Holmes)

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183
Q

Using intuition to make quick decisions is called what?

A

Recognition-Primed decision model

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184
Q

Brendan got hit in the head with a dumbbell and is in a coma. What part of his brain is likely injured?

A

Reticular Formation- controls alertness

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185
Q

What is the difference between Alertness and Physiological Arousal?

A

Alertness- a state of consciousness where we are awake and able to think

Physiological Arousal- the bodies response to alertness that includes increased heart rate and cortisol levels

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186
Q

Characterize the stages of sleep a what waves would be found on an electroencephalogram

A

Alertness- presence of Beta Waves (high frequency low amplitude)

Relaxing- presence of Alpha Waves (high frequency high amplitude and slower)

Stage 1 Sleep- presence of Theta Waves (irregular wavelengths and low frequency)

Stage 2 Sleep- presence of Theta Waves, Sleep Spindles (high frequency burst), and K Complexes (singular high amplitude waves)

Stage 3 (Slow Wave Sleep)- presence of Delta Waves (very slow waves)

Non-REM Sleep- show physiological signs of wakefulness (beta waves)

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187
Q

When the Pineal Gland releases high amounts of Melatonin what does this trigger?

A

Sleep

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188
Q

What are the 3 theories for the purpose of dreams?

A
  1. Activation-Synthesis Theory: widespread neuronal activity that mimics sensory information causes dreams
  2. Problem Solving Theory: dreams aren’t tethered by real world rules and thus help us solve problems
  3. Cognitive Process Theory: dreams are the sleeping equivalent of stream of consciousness
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189
Q

What is the difference between Dyssomnias and Parasomnias?

A

Dyssomnias- related to issues with falling or staying asleep

Parasomnias- related to issues with abnormal behaviors during sleep

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190
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember Hypnagogic vs Hypnopompic Hallucinations?

A

HypnGOgic hallucinations occur when GOing to bed while HypnoPOmpic hallucinations occur when POpping out of bed

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191
Q

What is the process of getting more REM sleep after a period of sleep deprivation?

A

REM Rebound

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192
Q

What effect does alcohol have on GABA receptors in the brain and what does this cause?

A

It increases the activity (permissive effect) on GABA receptors causing diminished arousal and lack of self-control (disinhibition)

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193
Q

On of the long-term effects of alcohol consumption is Wernicke-Korsakoff’s Syndrome. Describe this illness.

A

Characterized by a thiamine deficiency that causes memory impairment and loss of motor skills

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194
Q

What are two types of Sedatives and how are they similar to alcohol?

A

Barbiturates and Benzodiazepines both have a permissive effect on GABA receptors in the brain

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195
Q

What are 3 types of stimulants?

A
  1. Amphetamines
  2. Cocaine
  3. Ecstasy
196
Q

Brendan slowly becomes dependent on Cocaine. What pathway in his brain is being activated when he has Cocaine?

A

Mesolimbic Reward Pathway

197
Q

Someone says “Thanks” but I think they said “Hanes” what is this effect called?

A

Cocktail Party Effect

198
Q

What are the 5 aspects of language?

A 
Phonology- sound of speech
Morphology- building blocks of words
Semantics- meaning of words
Syntax- how words are put together
Pragmatics- language delivery
199
Q

What is the difference between the Nativist (Biological) Theory of language of and the Learning (Behaviorist) Theory of language?

A

Nativist- explains the learning of language occurring through a pathway known as the language acquisition device (LAD)

Learning- explains the learning of language being controlled by operant conditioning from parents

200
Q

Someone believes that due to the the Eskimos having 100 words for snow then they perceive snow very different than Americans do. This person would believes in what theory?

A

The Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis

201
Q

What connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s area?

A

The Arcuate Fasciculus of damage to which would cause Conduction Aphasia (the inability to repeat words heard despite being able to comprehend the words and say other words)

202
Q

What is the definition of Appetite in the Psychological sense?

A

to fulfill a physical need

203
Q

What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation?

A

Intrinsic Motivation- driven by interest or enjoyment of a task (ex. I play COD because it is a fun video game)

Extrinsic Motivation- driven by external reward or avoiding punishment (ex. I am a writing center tutor because I get paid and it helps for Medical School)

204
Q

A person believes that people are motivated by their natural behaviors that they were born with (ex. our motivation to run from a wolf is a built in response). What theory of motivation would this person agree with?

A

Instinct Theory

205
Q

A person believes that people are motivated to maintain the ideas of the Yerkes-Dodson Law. What theory of motivation would this person agree with?

A

Arousal Theory- people seek to maintain their optimal levels of arousal

206
Q

A person believes that people are best motivated when they have to reduce the things in their life that are uncomfortable both internally and externally. What theory of motivation would this person agree with?

A

Drive Reduction Theory

207
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary drives in Drive Reduction Theory?

A

Primary- related to maintaining homeostasis in the body (ex. drive to find water)

Secondary- stem from learning and are usually external and goal oriented (ex. drive to get into medical school)

208
Q

A person believes that people are motivated to fill certain needs in their lives such as earning respect, maintaining health, and socializing. What theory of motivation would this person agree with?

A

Need Based Theories of Motivation

ex. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

209
Q

What are the 5 levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A
  1. Physiological (food, water, homeostasis)
  2. Safety (security of body, employment, family)
  3. Love and Belonging (sexual intimacy, friendship)
  4. Esteem (confidence, respect from others)
  5. Self Actualization (problem solving, creativity, morality)
210
Q

What are the 3 needs in Self Determination Theory of Motivation?

A
  1. Autonomy
  2. Competence
  3. Relatedness
211
Q

What is the difference between Incentive motivation theory and expectancy-value theory?

A

Incentive Theory- behavior is motivated by desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishment

Expectancy Value Theory- adds together how much someone values the success of the goal to how much a person values that goal

212
Q

What theory of motivation explains drug addiction?

A

Opponent-Process Theory

213
Q

What are the 3 elements of an emotional response?

A
  1. Physiological Response- stimulation of autonomic nervous system such as increased heart rate when feeling afraid
  2. Behavioral Response- includes facial expressions and body language to emotion
  3. Cognitive Response- the interpretation of the feeling that you are experiencing causing emotion such as remembering getting attacked at night thus connecting the dark to being afraid
214
Q

What are the 3 theories of emotional response?

A
  1. James-Lange theory: nervous system arousal causes you to be aware of an emotion
  2. Cannon-Bard Theory: nervous system arousal and emotion happen at the same time and cause an action
  3. Schachter-Singer Theory: nervous system arousal and the internal appraisal of the situation causes you to be aware of an emotion
215
Q

A scientist is studying emotion and postulates that when a person sees a snake they instinctively start sweating and breathing heavy and then they become aware that they are afraid. What theory of emotion would this example support?

A

The James-Lange theory

216
Q

A scientist is studying emotion and postulates that when a person sees a snake they start sweating and breathing heavy and also become aware of how they feel thus leading them to become aware that they are afraid. What theory of emotion would this example support?

A

The Schachter-Singer theory

217
Q

A scientist is studying emotion and postulates that when a person sees a snake they will start sweating and become aware that they are afraid at the same time. What theory of emotion would this example support?

A

The Cannon-Bard theory

218
Q

Where would a memory of you and Lauren really happy together be stored and what type of memory is this?

A

This Emotional Memory would be stored in the Hippocampus and Amygdala

219
Q

What is the difference between the two stages of cognitive stress appraisal?

A

Primary Appraisal- classifies the stress as either benign, harmful, or beneficial

Secondary Appraisal- determines how or if the organism can cope with the stress

220
Q

What is the difference between distress and eustress?

A

Distress- a stressor that is perceived as harmful (ex. an airplane engine going out in flight)

Eustress- a stressor that is perceived as beneficial (ex. the stress associated with getting into medical school)

A stress is classified as either eustress, distress, or neither in the primary cognitive appraisal

221
Q

What is a scale used to determined how impactful a stressful life event is?

A

The Social Readjustment Rating Scale

222
Q

A person sees zombies and starts running away. What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome are they likely in?

A

Stage One is the Alarm stage where a persons sympathetic nervous system is preparing their body for action

223
Q

A person is running from zombies and they feel a heightened sense of energy like never before. What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome are they likely in?

A

Stage Two is the Resistance stage where the hormones and other responses from the alarm stage are helping a person effectively respond to a stressor

224
Q

A person has been running from zombies for a while and they suddenly feel fatigued and can no longer run thus they are eaten alive. What stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome are they likely in?

A

Stage Three is the Exhaustion stage where the bodies responses to the stressor can no longer be maintained and thus a negative impact occurs

225
Q

What is the difference between self-concept, self-schema and identity?

A

Self Concept- our awareness of who we are

Self Schema- self given labels within our self concept (ex. athlete)

Identity- parts of our self concept related to the groups we belong to (ex. strong because I am an athlete)

226
Q

A student writing down things about her identity in a class of all girls is less likely to include her gender compared to completing the same task for a mixed-gender room. What theory related to identity does this demonstrate?

A

Hierarchy of Salience

227
Q

What types of “self” make up our self-esteem levels?

A

The better our actual self (they way we see ourselves), ought self (who we think we should be), and ideal self (who we want to be) align the higher our self-esteem is

228
Q

A person thinks that they have a really good chance of throwing a spear and killing a wild boar. This person has a high what for this activity

A

Self-Efficacy

229
Q

What does a consistent external locus of control in a situation lead to?

A

Learned Helplessness- often occurs after a series of several failures

230
Q

A person takes ownership in all situations both good or bad. What type of locus of control is this?

A

Internal Locus of Control

231
Q

What are the five stages of Freud’s crazy theory psychosexual development?

A
  1. Oral- libido energy focused in the mouth explaining breast feeding; fixation can cause dependency
  2. Anal- energy focus explains toilet training, fixation causes anal-retentiveness
  3. Phallic- energy focuses on resolving the Opedipal Conflict (Guys) and Electra Conflict (Girls) where you are attracted to the other sex parent and jealous and the same sex parent. Uses libido energy elsewhere such as school
  4. Latency stage- sublimation of libido energy
  5. Genital Stage- begins in puberty, healthy heterosexual life
232
Q

What are the 8 stages of Erikson’s Psychosocial Development?

A
  1. Trust Vs. Mistrust- learn to trust parents or not
  2. Autonomy Vs. Shame- children learn to explore their environment or are too controlled and feel shame
  3. Initiative Vs. Guilt- learns to manipulate environment purposefully or becomes to scared of punishment to do so
  4. Industry Vs. Inferiority- pre-teens learn if they feel competent or not
  5. Identity Vs. Confusion- teenagers see their purpose in the world or feel like they don’t fit in
  6. Intimacy Vs. Isolation- adults focus on finding partners or become isolated
  7. Generativity Vs. Stagnation- older people either advance society or stop contributing to it
  8. Integrity Vs. Despair- older people either focus on wisdom or find they had no meaning in life
233
Q

A person chooses to not commit a crime because they know they will get killed. What stage of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning are they in?

A

Preconventional:

Stage 1) Obedience

234
Q

A person chooses to not commit a crime because they could report their partners and get a big cash prize What stage of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning are they in?

A

Preconventional:

Stage 2) Self-Interest

235
Q

A person chooses to not do drugs because only the bad kids do drugs? What stage of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning are they in?

A

Conventional:

Stage 3) Conformity

236
Q

A person chooses to not do drugs because they think if everyone did drugs then no one would be able to work and maintain society. What stage of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning are they in?

A

Conventional:

Stage 4) Law and Order

237
Q

A person chooses to not commit a crime because they reason that they are a member of society were everyone has agreed to a set system of order. What stage of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning are they in?

A

Postconventional:

Stage 5) Social Contract

238
Q

A person chooses not to do drugs because they see the effects of drugs as removing oneself from reality and that being in reality is a important aspect of life. What stage of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning are they in?

A

Postconventional:

Stage 6) Universal Human Ethics

239
Q

A person argues that they need to help their child get on their bike and show them how to ride it but then let their child figure it out from there. How is the parent helping their child develop?

A

They are putting their child in the Zone of Proximal Development (Vygotsky)

240
Q

What is the term that is similar to the idea of empathy where you can interpret how someone is experiencing your actions?

A

Theory of Mind which leads to the Looking Glass Self

241
Q

A man is in the upper middle class of society, however, since all his friends are in the same category he doesn’t feel wealthy. His friends are an example of what?

A

A Reference Group

242
Q

What is the difference between identity and personality?

A

Identity is more a way we DEFINE ourselves while personality is the thought, feelings, and actions that we enact regardless of time and place

243
Q

What is the Id’s urge to fill primal desires and to obtain immediate gratification called?

A

Pleasure Principle

244
Q

What is the Id’s response to inability to obtain the Pleasure Principle called?

A

Primary Process

245
Q

When someone daydreams and thinks about how fun it would be to have money or sex, what is this an example of what the Id is doing?

A

Wish Fulfillment via daydreaming

246
Q

A person gets stuck in traffic and they start honking their horn at people until they feel guilty for being annoying. They then decide they need to calm down and listen to relaxing radio music. Identify the actions of Superego, Ego, and Id in the example.

A

Superego- creates feelings of guilt

Ego- decision to listen to relaxing music and calm down

Id- getting frustrated and honking horn

247
Q

What is the method by which the Ego makes decisions to postpone immediate gratification from the Id?

A

Reality Principle which is referred to as the Secondary Process

248
Q

Using the theory of the defense mechanism of Projection a therapist has his client draw out shape on a piece of paper to try and analyze his feelings. What test is the therapist using?

A

Rorschach Inkblot Test

249
Q

Using the theory of the defense mechanism of a therapist gives his client several words and has them make a story for each word. What test is the therapist using?

A

Thematic Apperception Test

250
Q

How do defense mechanisms solve tension between the Id and Superego?

A

They distort reality without us knowing they are occurring

251
Q

What defense mechanism is being used by a man who cannot recall any of the traumatic events that happened in the war he fought in?

A

Repression- unconscious removal of thought/feeling

252
Q

What defense mechanism is being used by a girl who ignores the fact she has cancer to have fun at a cousins wedding?

A

Suppression- conscious removal of thought/feeling

253
Q

What defense mechanism is being used if someone sucks their thumb as an adult when they are scared?

A

Regression- returning to earlier stage of development for comfort

254
Q

What defense mechanism is being used by a guy who flirts with a girl by punching her?

A

Reaction Formation- acting one way to hide the exact opposite

255
Q

What defense mechanism is being used by a someone who commits a crime but also thinks that the officers have committed a crime as well?

A

Projection- placing your own behaviors/thoughts/feelings on someone else

256
Q

What defense mechanism is being used by someone who claims that their murder victim deserved to be killed because they were annoying?

A

Rationalization

257
Q

What defense mechanism was I using when I made a bad grade on my AP Human Geography test and so I went home and punched a boxing bag for a while?

A

Displacement- changing the target (vent) of an emotion while the feelings remain the same

258
Q

What defense mechanism is being used by a boss who is attracted to an employee so they give them a raise in salary?

A

Sublimation- channeling unacceptable impulses into acceptable ones

259
Q

How are Freud and Jung’s theories of personality similar?

A

They both recognized the presence of an Ego as the conscious mind

260
Q

How is Jung’s theory of personality different than Freud’s?

A

Jung divided the unconscious mind into the Personal (individual) and Collective (species) Unconscious while Freud had it divided into the Superego and Id

261
Q

What is the difference between the Personal and Collective Unconscious mind in Jung’s theory of personality?

A

Personal Unconscious- focused on making primal decisions of instant gratification (similar to Freud’s ego)

Collective Unconscious- shared among all humans, pictures and memories of experiences called archetypes (such as Godly figure)

262
Q

What Jungian archetype is related to the “inner woman” of a man?

A

The Anima

263
Q

What Jungian archetype is related to the “inner man” of a woman?

A

The Animus

264
Q

What Jungian archetype is related to the aspect of our personality we show the world?

A

The Persona

265
Q

What Jungian archetype is related to the socially weird thought that we have but don’t share?

A

The Shadow

266
Q

How is Word Association Testing different from Thematic Apperception Test?

A

Word Association testing only requires the subject to answer the words given with one word

267
Q

In Adler’s theory of Personality what is the difference between the Creative Self and the Style of Life?

A

Creative Self- how people shape their uniqueness

Style of Life- is the action of the creative self to achieve superiority

268
Q

A person is motivated to become a doctor because they want money and power. This person doesn’t consider, however, that they haven’t reacted well to the sight of blood in the past. This is an example of what from Adler’s theory of personality?

A

Fictional Finalism

269
Q

What is the Object Relations Theory of personality?

A

Our representations of parents based on subjective experiences persist into adulthood and shape our actions (part of psychoanalytic theory)

270
Q

What theories of personality focus more on the individuals as a whole?

A

Humanistic (Phenomenological) Theories

271
Q

A therapist is using humanistic perspective on a patient and tries to analyze them as a whole of their interactions? What type of therapy are they using?

A

Gestalt Therapy

272
Q

What theory of personality sees people as scientist who are trying to analyze and predict the variable of their social environment?

A

Personal Construct Theory

273
Q

A person is experiencing delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized thought. What general psychological disorder do they seem to have?

A

A Psychotic Disorder

274
Q

A person with a psychotic disorder has symptoms including hallucinations, disorganized speech, and delusions. What type of symptoms are these?

A

Positive (added in) Symptoms

275
Q

A person with a psychotic disorder stops experiencing emotion (Affect) and stops trying to achieve goals (Avolition)

A

Negative (taken away) Symptoms

276
Q

A person presents with sadness, insomnia, and guilt. What general psychotic disorder will they be classified as having?

A

A Depressive Disorder

277
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the symptoms of Depressive disorders?

A 
The uSS IGE CAPS is a sad battleship
S- sadness
S- sleep issues
I- interest (loss of)
G- guilt
E- energy (loss of)
C- concentration (loss of)
A- appetite (increase or decrease
P- psychomotor issues
S- suicidal thoughts
278
Q

If a patient is presenting symptoms of a Depressive Disorder for periods longer than 2 weeks. What disorder does this patient have?

A

Major Depressive Disorder- experiences major depressive episodes

279
Q

If a patient experiences symptoms of a Depressive Disorder for more than 2 years without having Major Depressive Episodes what would this patient be diagnosed with?

A

Persistent Depressive Disorder

280
Q

A person is having repeated elevated mood swings. What general psychotic disorder does this classify as?

A

A Bipolar Disorder

281
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the symptoms associated with a Bipolar Disorder?

A 
people that are Bipolar freak out and DIG FAST
D- distractibility
I- irresponsibility
G- grandiosity (in terms of self-esteem)
F- flight of thought (racing thoughts)
A- agitation
S- sleep issues
T- talkative
282
Q

A person is presenting 3 symptoms of a Bipolar Disorder for more than 4 days (a hypomanic episode) as well as symptoms of a major depressive episode. What would be their diagnosis?

A

Bipolar II Disorder- one hypomanic and one major depressive

283
Q

A person is presenting with 3 symptoms of a Bipolar Disorder for more than 7 days (manic episode) these symptoms disrupt their daily life. What would be their diagnosis?

A

Bipolar I Disorder- at least one manic episode

284
Q

A person presents with symptoms of a Bipolar Disorder that are not severe enough to interfere with daily life but have been occurring for at least two years. What would their diagnosis be?

A

Cyclothymic Disorder

285
Q

A person becomes scared in normal everyday interactions. What is the general psychotic disorder category that they would fit into?

A

An Anxiety Disorder

286
Q

A person has an anxiety disorder and more specifically they have trouble speaking when they are expected to such as for a bio lab presentation. What type of anxiety disorder would this be?

A

Selective Mutism Disorder

287
Q

What is the fear that certain places or situations are unescapable?

A

Agoraphobia

288
Q

A person thinks that they have several needs (Obsessions) in their life and so they spend much of their time completing actions (Compulsions) to meet those needs. What general psychotic disorder does this person have?

A

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

289
Q

When a person thinks that their nails are imperfect and so they are constantly trimming and filing them this is an example of what Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder? Also identify the obsessions and compulsions.

A

This person has Body Dysmorphic Disorder where their nails imperfections is their Obsession and the constant trimming/filing is their Compulsion

290
Q

A patient presents with the inability to recall past events and a change in location causes them to take on a new identity. What Dissociative Disorder does this person have?

A

Dissociative Amnesia

291
Q

A patient seems to have two separate personalities that take control of their behavior. What Dissociative Disorder does this person have?

A

Dissociative Identity Disorder

292
Q

A person presents with symptoms including a feeling of separation from reality and their surroundings. What Dissociative Disorder does this person have?

A

Depersonalization Disorder

293
Q

A patient comes into your clinic with extreme fear of death and feelings of sickness after having been told they have cancer. What Disorder does this person have?

A

Somatic Symptom Disorder

294
Q

Someone comes into your clinic presenting with a severe sense of worry about getting the Coronavirus. What Disorder does this person have?

A

Illness Anxiety Disorder

295
Q

Someone comes into your clinic presents with unexplained decrease in motor function that might be related to trauma. What disorder does this person have?

A

Conversion Disorder

296
Q

A person has a series of maladaptive behaviors that effect their cognition, emotions, interpersonal functioning, and impulse control. What general category of disorders does this person fit under?

A

A Personality Disorder

297
Q

What are the three clusters of Personality Disorders and the Disorders within them?

A

Weird:

  1. Paranoid PD
  2. Schizotypal PD
  3. Schizoid PD

Wild:

  1. Antisocial PD
  2. Borderline PD
  3. Histrionic PD
  4. Narcissitic PD

Worrisome:

  1. Avoidant PD
  2. Dependent PD
  3. Obsessive-Compulsive PD
298
Q

A husband and wife have been married for 20 years and they notice that they have slowly sculpted each other through support into each of their ideal selves. This process is an example of what?

A

The Michelangelo Effect

299
Q

A person’s behavior is effected because other people are around, and they are concerned about how they will perceive them. What is this an example of?

A

Social Action

300
Q

Whenever Lauren comes to my lacrosse games I tend to score a triple hat-trick and truck everyone in sight. What is this an example of?

A

Social Facilitation

301
Q

How does the Yerkes-Dodson Law apply to social facilitation?

A

It claims that social facilitation occurs because our arousal is increased to the ideal zone for performance

302
Q

What is the process of losing all or parts of your own identity when becoming a part of a group? (especially groups that are anonymous)

A

Deindividuation

303
Q

A person joined a local gang and loses part of their good student and child identity and starts taking part of violent actions and looting. What are these behaviors called?

A

Antinormative Behaviors

304
Q

Sherlock falls off the building and his dying body draws a large crowd. However, no one calls an ambulance because they think someone else in the group will do it. This is an example of what?

A

Bystander Effect

305
Q

Brendan is in your Physiology group again and when he is in the group he doesn’t try as hard as when he works on projects alone. This is an example of what?

A

Social Loafing

306
Q

In high-school Carson Homnick was a good kid but after hanging out with Carter Deer who made fun of him for not drinking he started to drink and party to fit in. What effect was demonstrated on Carson?

A

The Identity Shift Effect in response to peer pressure

307
Q

In high-school I really wanted to be a cool kid who drank but I also wanted to respect my parents and faith. This internal battle is an example of what? (Not Role Conflict)

A

Cognitive Dissonance

308
Q

As a a group the BLM movement has generated some very extreme decisions that don’t reflect the ideas of the whole group. This is an example of what?

A

Group Polarization

309
Q

What is the difference between Group Polarization and Group Think?

A

Group Polarization is focused more on the group making extreme decisions (to loot and burn) while Group Think is focused on maximizing harmony within the group while rejecting outside ideas

310
Q

What is the difference between Choice Shift and Group Polarization?

A

Choice shift refers to the exact discussions and changes within a group that lead to the Group Polarization experienced

311
Q

A group is encouraging its members to take big risk such as looting buildings and burning them down because they think that the group as a whole will be unaffected. What factor indicative of group think is being displayed?

A

Illusion of Invulnrability

312
Q

A group makes decisions and does not listen to any expressed concerns or warnings about the effects of their decisions. What factor indicative of group think is being displayed?

A

Collective Rationalization

313
Q

A group believes that it is morally right to kill all Jews because it is better for them not to exist. What factor indicative of group think is being displayed?

A

Illusion of Morality- individuals are losing their own sense of moral right and wrong

314
Q

The BLM movement gets upset when people of outside opinions make claims about the BLM group. Thus the BLM supporters start to claim that those against BLM are all cracked out white rich people. What factor indicative of group think is being displayed?

A

Excessive Stereotyping

315
Q

A person within BLM thinks that is actually wrong to destroy cities to protest the killing of a Black individual. However, they are to scared to go against their own group. What factor indicative of group think is being displayed? If this person decides to not speak up what factor would this indicate?

A

Pressure for Conformity and if she doesn’t speak up Self-Censorship

316
Q

The leaders and strong supporters of BLM believe that everyone within the movement agree completely on everything from looting to policies. What factor indicative of group think is being displayed?

A

Illusion of Unamimity

317
Q

Someone within the BLM movement decides to become the defender of all the ideas of the group. What factor indicative of group think is being displayed?

A

Mindguards

318
Q

The majority of the U.S. population begins to experience something similar to group think where many concerns about the current state of society are raised. This widespread group think is called what?

A

Mass Hysteria

319
Q

What is China-Town in NYC an example of?

A

Ethnic Enclave

320
Q

What is the difference between Assimilation and Multiculturalism and what are examples?

A

Assimilation- merging of cultures (usually unevenly) an example would be the united states

Multiculturalism- even celebration of cultures an example would be England

321
Q

What is the difference between a counter culture and a subculture?

A

A Counter Culture is a type of subculture that goes against the accepted values and norms of a society

322
Q

What is the process of acquiring, developing, and inheriting customs and beliefs of a particular society?

A

Socialization

323
Q

What is the difference between Cultural Diffusion and Cultural Transmission?

A

Diffusion- cultural ideas spread between different cultures

Transmission- cultural ideas are passed down generationally

324
Q

A person is learning a growing their societal skills from their parents and other closely related people. What type of socialization are they undergoing?

A

Primary Socialization

325
Q

A person is acquiring a new set of behaviors and skills in their high-school. This is an example of what type of socialization?

A

Secondary Socialization

326
Q

When I shadow a doctor and learn about how they interact with patients and hold themselves with authority in public I am experiencing what type of socialization for when I become a doctor?

A

Anticipatory Socialization

327
Q

A navy seal is brought in and completely broken down and changed. They talk different. They dress different. They have new senses of humor. What is this discarding of their old ways of presenting themselves in society called?

A

Resocialization

328
Q

What is the difference between a More, Norm, Taboo, and folkway?

A

Norm- rules that define societal boundaries

Folkway- somewhat unaccepted but okay to do (picking your nose)

Mores- unaccepted and if you don’t it will probably carry some punishment (do not stab someone)

Taboo- very unaccepted (public sex with a dead person)

329
Q

Norms allow societies to control the ways that people behave. This control is an example of what?

A

Social Control

330
Q

What is the difference between formal and informal sanctions?

A

Formal- enforced by social institutions (ex. getting fined by campo for climbing arts building)

Informal- enforced by society (ex. getting made fun of for picking your nose)

331
Q

What is any purposeful violation of social norms within a society called?

A

Deviance (ex. jaywalking and murder)

332
Q

What is the extreme disapproval of someone because of perceived differences from society?

A

Social Stigma

333
Q

Someone gets labeled as a bad driver. People then start to see that person as a bad driver but also that person starts to see themselves that way to. This is an example of what theory of behavior?

A

Labeling Theory

334
Q

When an label that a person has been given completely takes over their personality (ex. biker gang member acting like one) what is this called?

A

Role Engulfment

335
Q

What theory explains why children with parents of siblings who have committed crimes have a higher chance of doing the same?

A

Differential Association Theory

336
Q

When a person robs a store and claims its because society is unfair and so they need money what theory of deviance are they using?

A

Strain Theory

337
Q

What is the opposite of Deviance and is when a person’s behaviors match the societal norms?

A

Conformity (Majority Influence)

338
Q

What is the difference between internalization and identification in terms of Conformity?

A

Internalization- changing ones behaviors to fit in while also privately agreeing with the ideas of the group

Identification- changing ones behaviors to fit in BUT NOT agreeing with the ideas of the group

339
Q

What is the difference between compliance and conformity?

A

Compliance- changing behaviors on REQUEST

Conformity- changing behaviors on your own desires

340
Q

Brendan asks me to take out the trash. The next day he ask to clean his room. The next day he ask me to marry him. What is the slow escalation of request an example of?

A

The Foot-In-The-Door technique of Conformity

341
Q

Brendan straight up ask if I can buy him a house. When I say no he asks if I can at least buy him a beer. What conformity technique does this represent?

A

Door-In-The-Face Technique

342
Q

When your boss asks if you can work extra hours and you agree to it but then discover that the work is harder and more difficult you were tricked by what technique?

A

The Lowball Technique

343
Q

In a commercial Mike Lendell offers one my pillow but then offers two free ones included with the purchase. What conformity (persuasive) technique is he using?

A

The That’s-Not-All technique

344
Q

What is the difference between obedience and conformity?

A

Conformity- you want to change behavior

Obedience- you are EXPECTED/FORCED to change behavior

345
Q

What term is used to explain our attitudes towards people and the way that it impacts our behaviors toward them?

A

Social Cognition

346
Q

What is an expression of positive or negative feelings toward someone/something

A

Attitude

347
Q

What are the 3 components of attitude? Think of the alphabet

A

The ABC’s
A- affective (emotions such as scared)
B- Behavioral (actions in response)
C- Cognitive (the way we think about something)

348
Q

What are the four components of the Functional Theory of Attitude?

A

Knowledge- help us predict our behaviors
Ego Expressive- solidify our identity
Adaptive- help us get accepted
Ego Defensive- protect our identity

349
Q

What theory of attitudes claims that they are developed through various routes of processing in the mind?

A

Elaboration Likelihood Model

350
Q

What is the difference between central route processing and peripheral route processing?

A

Both theories of persuasion
Central Route- analyzing the content of persuasive information (ex. scientific paper)

Peripheral Route- focuses on slogans and catchphrases, and credibility (ex. Mike Lendell)

351
Q

What theory of attitudes postulates that they are developed through the observation of other people and their actions (ex. new employees working hard because that’s what everyone is doing)

A

Social Cognitive Theory

352
Q

My status as a son of my parents is an example of what status?

A

Ascribed Status

353
Q

My status as a Daniel Scholar is an example of what status?

A

Achieved Status

354
Q

My status by which I most identify such as my status as a PreMed Student is an example of what type of status?

A

Master Status

355
Q

What are all the activities, values, and norms that come with a status called?

A

Roles (ex. my roles in my status of a student are to try and do well in school)

356
Q

When I carry out the roles of one of my particular statuses It is an example of what performance?

A

Role Performance

357
Q

When two doctors interact they may act different when they are around their patients. What is this an example of in terms of their statuses?

A

They are Role Partners for Eachother

358
Q

What is the difference between role strain, role conflict, and role exit?

A

Strain- tension within one role
Conflict- tension between different roles
Exit- dropping of a role indentity

359
Q

What is the word used to describe groups of two and three people respectively?

A

A Dyad (2) and Triad (3)

360
Q

What is the difference between an in-group and out-group and an example for me for each?

A

In Group- a group to which a person experiences a sense of belonging (Kappa Sigma)

Out Group- a group to which a person experiences no belonging (Wofford Football)

361
Q

What is the difference between a reference, peer, and family group?

A

Reference- a group to which you compare yourself

Peer- self selected group of people with similar interest, age, etc,

Family- are you kidding me mate. Yah fam

362
Q

My family all love and support me and my relationships with them will likely last a long time. What type of group are they an example of?

A

Primary Group

363
Q

My Chem-Activity partners barely know me but we work together to get the job done. What type of group are they example of?

A

Secondary Group

364
Q

What is the difference between Gemeinschaft and Gesellschaft?

A

Gemeinschaft- community (more personal group cause they all mein)

Gesellschaft- society (less personal groups)

365
Q

What is the difference between Immediate Networks and Distant Networks?

A

Immediate- closer ties and stronger connections (close friends)

Distant- looser ties and connections (people I know from class)

366
Q

What does the term The Iron Law of Oligarchy refer to?

A

Democratic or Bureaucratic governments usually shift toward being ruled by a small group of powerful people

367
Q

The idea that many institutions have slowly shifted toward focusing more and more on efficiency, predictability, and being able to control the work environment is called what?

A

McDonaldilization

368
Q

What is the term referring to the way we present ourselves to society?

A

Self-Presentation

369
Q

What does the social construction model of emotion say about how it is developed?

A

It arises with no biological basis (solely from experiences and situational context)

370
Q

The rules that determine how and if it is okay to display certain emotions is called what?

A

Display Rules

371
Q

When I get up in the morning I want to positively effect my self-presentation so I brush my hair and teeth. What is this process of controlling my self presentation called

A

Impression Management

372
Q

What is the explanation of Impression Management in relation to a theatre production called?

A

Dramaturgical Approach

373
Q

Within Dramaturgical Theory what is the front and back stages respectively?

A

Front- how we present ourselves to society

Back- how we hold ourselves when their is no fear of being judged by society

374
Q

What Impression Management strategy am I using when I share facts about myself that are cool (ex. I am a FAA certified drone pilot)

A

Self-Disclosure

375
Q

What Impression Management strategy am I using when I wear really nice clothes to gain attention?

A

Managing Appearances

376
Q

What Impression Management strategy am I using when I use my charming conversation skills and compliments to win over someone?

A

Ingratiation

377
Q

What Impression Management strategy am I using when I say It’s okay for me to drink at a party (and be cool) because I am in college?

A

Aligning Actions- making questionable behavior seem okay through excuses

378
Q

What Impression Management strategy am I using when I tell hunt to come play football with me because that’s what good brothers do?

A

Alter-Casting

379
Q

What is the process of sharing one’s fear, emotions, and dreams with someone else?

A

Self-Disclosure

380
Q

When I found out that Mackenzie liked me and so I started feeling attracted to her this was an example of what phenomenon of attraction?

A

Reciprocal Liking

381
Q

I sometimes find it hard to be attracted to Lauren because she is so far away compared to all the babes on Wofford campus. This is due to what effect that increases our attraction to people?

A

Proximity

382
Q

When I listen to a song once I think it is weird but after listening a couple times I start to like it. This example represents what effect in attraction?

A

Mere Exposure Effect/ Familiarity Effect

383
Q

When I am very hungry I begin to act in a mean manner toward the people around me. What model accounts for my negative feelings being transferred into aggression toward others?

A

Cognitive Neoassociation Model

384
Q

When a child has a consistent caregiver from whom they can go out an explore life but always know they have someone to come back to. This is an example of what type of attachment?

A

Secure Attachment

385
Q

When a child does not have a secure attachment with their parents what are the three types of insecure attachment possible?

A

Avoidant, Ambivalent, and Disorganized

386
Q

What is the difference between Avoidant, Ambivalent, and Disorganized attachment?

A

Avoidant- results from caregiver having little or no response to child’s distress

Ambivalent- results from caregiver having an inconsistent response to child’s distress (sometime good sometimes bad)

Disorganized- results from random responses and response times to a child’s distress

387
Q

What is the perception/ reality that your are cared for by a social network?

A

Social Support

388
Q

What type of social support involves listening and affirming with someone’s feelings?

A

Emotional Support

389
Q

What type of social support involves affirming the skills and qualities of someone?

A

Esteem Support

390
Q

What type of social support involves the contribution of money, food, or other tangible things to someone in need?

A

Material Support

391
Q

What type of social support involves the investment of information such as a diagnosis to someone in need?

A

Informational support

392
Q

What type of social support involves a group giving someone a sense of belonging?

A

Network Support

393
Q

What is the difference between polygyny and polyandry?

A

Polygyny- male has relationship with multiple females

Polyandry- female has relationship with multiple males

394
Q

Within mate choice what is the difference between direct and indirect benefits?

A

Direct- provides benefits for the adult

Indirect- provides benefits for the offspring

395
Q

What mechanism of mate choice involves the physical appearance of a trait that has a evolutionary benefit of a potential mate?

A

Phenotypic Benefits

396
Q

What mechanism of mate choice involves the development of a trait that matches the preexisting preference in a population?

A

Sensory Bias

397
Q

What mechanism of mate choice involves the development of a trait that is physically desirable but offers no evolutionary benefit?

A

Fisherian or Runaway Selection

398
Q

What mechanism of mate choice involves using the non-genetic appearance of a potential mate to make assumptions about that organism overall health?

A

Indicator Traits

399
Q

What mechanism of mate choice involves the degree to which two organisms genes go well together?

A

Genetic Compatability

400
Q

What hypothesis claims that one individual helps another regardless of the cost only when they feel empathy towards that person?

A

Empathy-Altruism Hypothesis

401
Q

What theory of decision making behavior explains human interactions as a constant awareness of the benefits and cost and rules that govern human life?

A

Game Theory

402
Q

What is the difference between altruism, cooperation, spite, and selfishness?

A

Altruism- helping another person and paying a price for it

Cooperation- helping another person and getting rewarded for it

Spite- hurting someone else knowing that you will also get hurt

Selfishness- hurting someone else and getting rewarded for it

403
Q

What are explanations for the cause of a persons behavior?

A

Attributions (ex. we attributed his anger to how little he ate that day)

404
Q

When we judge people based off the the most obvious traits about that person, this is called what?

A

Reliance on Central Traits

405
Q

What is the difference between stereotyping and the implicit personality theory?

A

Implicit personality theory explains WHY stereotyping occurs (we make assumptions about behaviors, traits, types of people, and placing them in a category)

406
Q

When a girl is very attractive she is often also seen as intelligent which is a perfect example of what effect in terms of cognitive bias?

A

Halo Effect

407
Q

What cognitive bias relates to when people view the world as “bad things happen to bad people” such as the idea of Karma?

A

Just-World Hypothesis

408
Q

What cognitive bias refers to the idea that when people do something well they attribute the success to themselves but when they do something bad they blame other?

A

Self-Serving Bias

409
Q

What is the difference between self-enhancement and self-verification in terms of motivational processes?

A

Self Enhancement- refers to our focus on maintaining self worth

Self Verification- refers to our tendency to hang out with people that think the same way about us as we think about ourselves

410
Q

When we try and understand the reason behind peoples behaviors we are using what theory?

A

Attribution Theory

411
Q

In terms of attribution theory, what is the difference between Dispositional and Situational attributions?

A

Dispositional- attributions that are related to the person whose behaviors are being analyzed (personality, beliefs)

Situational- attributions related to surrounding features and there effect on behavior (peer pressure, societal threats, money)

412
Q

When trying to understand someone’s behavior a scientist looks at how many times the behavior is done over time? What type of cue is this?

A

Consistency Cue

413
Q

When trying to understand someone’s behavior a scientist looks at how different someone’s behaviors are from the people around them. If their behavior deviates from the people around them it is likely due to a dispositional attribution. What type of cue was used to find this?

A

Consensus Cue

414
Q

When trying to understand someone’s behavior a scientist analyzes the extent to which someone’s behavior is different in different scenarios. If their behavior shifts frequently in different scenarios it is likely due to a situational attribution. What type of cue was used to find this?

A

Distinctiveness Cue

415
Q

When an individual is trying to solve a complex question but make a judgement based off simpler ideas this is called what?

A

Attribution Substitution

416
Q

What model attempts to classify stereotypes into categories of warm, competent?

A

Stereotype Content Model

417
Q

What are the 4 stereotype groupings in the stereotype content model?

A

Paternalistic- high warmth, low competence (housewives)

Admiration- high warmth, high competence
(In-group)

Contemptuous- low warmth, low competence
(homeless)

Envious- low warmth, high competence
(asians, rich people)

418
Q

When someone is aware of the stereotypes about them and thus they failingly avoid to match these stereotypes this is called what?

A

Self-Fulfilling Propehcy

419
Q

When someone is worried that they are going to confirm a stereotype about them this is called what?

A

Stereotype Threat

420
Q

What is the difference between Self-Fulfilling Prophecy and Stereotype Threat?

A

Self-Fulfilling prophecy is the result of stereotype threat that causes someone to confirm their own stereotypes

421
Q

What is an irrational positive or negative attitude toward a person or group?

A

Predujice

422
Q

What are the three factors that influence predujice?

A

Power- ability to achieve goals

Prestige- level of respect in society

Class- SES

423
Q

My family and I share the belief that all people from the Middle East are crazy and mystic and dangerous because of their religion, their food, their language. What is this an example of ?

A

Ethnocentrism

424
Q

In contrast to Ethnocentrism, what technique focuses on studying cultures on their own terms (ex. such as living and meeting with middle eastern people to realize that they are humans with families and such also)?

A

Cultural Relativism

425
Q

What is the difference between prejudice and discrimination?

A

Discrimination is the acting out of prejudice (ex. staying far away from middle eastern people on the sidewalk to act out the prejudice of thinking they are dangerous)

426
Q

What are the 3 levels to view societies through in terms of sociological methods?

A

Micro- individuals
Meso- organizations, institutions
Macro- national and international systems

427
Q

When a sociologist studies how humans use gestures, logos, and facial expression in relation with each other they are studying through the lens of what theory?

A

Symbolic Interactionism

428
Q

When a sociologist studies how human society has created different ideas that are agreed upon and how these shared ideas effect society they are studying through the lens of what theory?

A

Social Constructionism

429
Q

A sociologist decides to study American society by looking at how individuals make decisions based off a cost/reward analysis whether it be buying a home or talking to a stranger. This sociologist is using what micro-sociological theory?

A

Rational Choice Theory

AKA Social Exchange Theory

430
Q

A sociologist is studying the effects of capitalism on society and looks specifically at who owns the means of production and who doesn’t they are looking through what sociological lens?

A

Conflict Theory

431
Q

When looking at American society a sociologist looks at the systems and institutions and how they serve a purpose to provide stability for the country. This sociologist is using what theory?

A

Structural Functionalism

432
Q

A sociologist recognizes that a school’s primary task is to educate students on important topics. However, the school also helps students socialize and interact with various races, genders, and ethnicities. The school also accidentally provides the space for people to be bullied and made fun of. What are the dysfunctional, manifest, and latent functions of the school?

A

Manifest- education

Latent- socialization (hidden curriculum)

Dysfunctional- the bullying

433
Q

Within Feminist theory, what is the difference between a glass ceiling and glass escalator?

A

Ceiling- prevents women from attaining higher level positions

Escalator- speeds men to the top positions of society

434
Q

While many white Americans only call their parents siblings children their cousins, many black Americans refer to their cousins as anyone that they group up close to. White and black Americans have different what?

A

Patterns of Kinship

435
Q

A teacher that thinks their students will ace a final exam tends to have better results than a teacher who doesn’t think their students are going to do well. This is an example of what phenomenon?

A

Teacher Expectancy

436
Q

Sociologist try and see doctor’s patients as people who take on a role that is exempt from regular societal norms but also is responsible for their own health. What is this new role called?

A

Sick Role

437
Q

Someone tests positive for the RONA but they feel perfectly fine and do not need medical intervention. This person has a very different what from someone who gets infected and is hospitalized?

A

Illness Experiance

438
Q

What are the four key tenets of medical ethics?

A

Beneficence- act in patients best interests

Nonmaleficence- treatment good outweighs potential harm

Respect for Patient Autonomy- the patient is responsible (usually) for making decisions about what medical care they get

Justice- treats all patients the same

439
Q

What is the difference between material and symbolic culture?

A

Material- actual objects that reflect culture (American flag)

Symbolic- represent the ideas and values of culture (the National Anthem)

440
Q

What occurs when symbolic culture (privacy) changes slower than material culture (social media)?

A

Cultural Lag

441
Q

When a physician looks at many of the important events and factors in a person’s life (such as SES, housing, parents, education) they are using what perspective into their overall health?

A

Life Course Perspective

442
Q

What two ratios combine to form the dependency ration?

A

Youth Ratio- children under 15 divided by the number of adults 15-65

Age Dependency Ratio- elderly folks over 65 divided by the number of adults 15-65

443
Q

What social construct determine how someone of a particular gender acts and behaves?

A

Gender Roles

444
Q

What is the gender that a person wishes to portray?

A

Gender Identity

445
Q

What is the difference between gender segregation, gender inequality, and gender stratification?

A

Segregation- separation of perceived genders (bathrooms)

Inequality- empowerment of one gender the detriment of others (women’s bathroom are nicer)

Stratification- gender inequality SPECIFICALLY in access to social resources (men get paid more to build bathrooms)

446
Q

What is the difference between race and ethnicity?

A

Race is related to social groupings based on Phenotypic difference (skin color) whereas Ethnicity is related to social groupings of not solely external factors (language and religion)

447
Q

Brendan has recently confessed that he is a 6 on the Kinsey Scale. What does this mean?

A

He is as homosexual as possible (0-6)

448
Q

When a person experiences several factors (race, ethnicity, age, gender) that effect how they are discriminated it is termed wht?

A

Intersectionality

449
Q

What theory analyzes humans impact on the environment and how long we can sustain our growth?

A

Malthusian Theory

450
Q

The BLM movement thinks that Black people are targeted by police officers more frequently than White people. This perception is an example of what?

A

Relative Deprivation

451
Q

A social movement that resists change is called what? What about one that fights for change?

A

Reactive- resists (Proud Boys ALT Right)

Proactive- fights for (BLM)

452
Q

A group of people in the same Socioeconomic group are called a what?

A

Social Class

453
Q

When two social classes are interacting well with each other they are having good what?

A

Social Cohesion

454
Q

As someone moves up in their socioeconomic status they also experience a positive benefit from the healthcare system. What does this example claim that healthcare has?

A

A Socioeconomic Gradient

455
Q

What is the difference between class consciousness and false consciousness?

A

Class- organization of the working class around shared goals that need political activation

False- misrepresentation of ones actual standing in society

456
Q

What is the word used to describe a lack of social solidarity?

A

Anomie

457
Q

What is the term used to describe the sense of community and social cohesion found in society?

A

Social Solidarity

458
Q

What is the difference between cultural and social captital?

A

Cultural- benefits one receives from knowledge, abilities, and skills (learning things from a textbook)

Social- benefits one receives from other interaction with other people (learning to not buy a textbook because you don’t need it for a class)

459
Q

What is the difference between intergenerational mobility and intragenerational mobility?

A

Inter- SES changes from parents to children

Intra- SES changes within a person’s life

460
Q

What is the difference between a meritocracy and a plutocracy?

A

Meritocracy- intellectual talent and achievement are means to advance social ladder

Plutocracy- system of government where the upper class rules

461
Q

What is the difference between vertical and horizontal mobility in terms of social stratification?

A

Vertical- changing ones SES (ex. janitor to doctor)

Horizontal- remaining within the same SES but changing job or position (ex. janitor to a fast food worker)

462
Q

A sociologist believes that a poverty is passed down from parents to children which is an example of what?

A

Social Reproduction

463
Q

The fact that people that live in the inner cities regions have a lower SES than those that live in the suburbs is an example of what?

A

Spatial Inequality

464
Q

When social inequality increases to the degree to which a person or group feels segregated from society and cannot participate this is called what?

A

Social Exclusion

465
Q

What is the process by which upper middle class people renovate buildings in lower SES areas called?

A

Gentrification

466
Q

In terms of epidemiology what is the difference between Incidence and Prevalence?

A

Incidence- number of new cases of an illness in a population

Prevalence- number of new AND old cases of an illness in a population

467
Q

In terms of epidemiology what is the difference between morbidity and mortality?

A

Morbidity- burden or dree of illness of a given disease

Mortality- deaths caused by a disease

468
Q

When social injustice leads to direct negative effects in a person’s health this is called what?

A

Second Sickness

469
Q

What is the difference between Medicaid and Medicare?

A

Aid- significant financial need

Are- over 65, renal disease, ALS

470
Q

What type of variable is effected by the independent variable and then effects the dependent variable?

A

A Mediating Variable (ex. obesity is caused by diabetes and obesity sometimes causes loss of taste but diabetes does not cause loss of taste)

471
Q

What type of variable is not effected by the independent variable but does effect the dependent variable?

A

A Moderating Variable

472
Q

What is the difference between a confounding, mediating, and moderating variable?

A

Confounding- effects both IV and DV

Mediating- caused by IV and effects DV

Moderating- not caused by IV and effects DV

473
Q

What endocrine gland in the brain releases the bodies natural pain killers?

A

The Anterior Pituitary releases Endorphins

474
Q

A drive-reduction and cognitive theorist would argue that depression is most strongly correlated with a deficiency in which component of fulfillment?

A

Arousal

475
Q

What are the core components of emotion?

A
  1. Subjective Experience
  2. Behavioral Response
  3. Physiological Response
476
Q

What reinforcement schedule is the most resistant to extinction of the conditioned behavior?

A

Variable Ratio

477
Q

What psychological effect is due to the brain confusing congruent and incongruent stimuli? (ex. the names of colors that are different than the color they are)

A

Stroop Effect

478
Q

What type of experimental validity explains how well the experiment measures what it was trying to measure (how well the independent variable measures the dependent variable. i.e. is there a correlation)?

A

Construct Validity

479
Q

What type of experimental validity explains if the experiment is fully representative of what it aims to measure?

A

Content Validity

480
Q

What type of experimental validity explains if the experiment supports what it was trying to measure on the surface?

A

Face Validity

481
Q

What type of experimental validity explains how well the results of an experiment represent things that have happened in the past or will happen in the future?

A

Criterion Validity

482
Q

What is the difference between formal and informal norms?

A

Formal norms- written laws

Informal norms- unspoken rules

483
Q

What type of influence results from an individual or small group causing the majority of the group to start and adopt their idea?

A

Minority Influence

484
Q

In terms of conflict, what do the terms approach and avoidant mean and how are they used to describe different types of conflict?

A

Approach- a desirable outcome
Avoidant- a negative outcome
Can be used to describe the different types of choice that a person can make (ex. approach-approach conflict involves two choices both good outcomes)

485
Q

What is the definition of kinship affinity?

A

kinship created through marriage

486
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary aging?

A

Primary- purely biological

Secondary- everything else

487
Q

What is the definition of social cognitive theory?

A

Our behaviors and learning can be effected by the actions, experiences, and people around us

MCAT (8 decks)

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