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Biology Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the four key ideas of the theory of cells?

A
  1. the cell is the basic functional unit of life
  2. cells arise only from other cells
  3. cells pass on genetic information (DNA)
  4. all living things are made of cells
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2
Q

What is the main difference between prokaryotic an eukaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotic cells have a true nucleus enclosed by a membrane

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3
Q

Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have their DNA wound around histone proteins?

A

Eukaryotes

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4
Q

Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have DNA transcription and translation occur simultaneously?

A

Prokaryotes

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5
Q

Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have an absence of non-coding DNA?

A

Prokaryotes

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6
Q

Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have lysosomes and peroxisomes?

A

Eukaryotes

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7
Q

What part of the cell allows for the diffusion of substances around the inside of the cell?

A

The Cytosol (Cytoplasm)

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8
Q

What part of the nucleus allows for the selective exchange of materials?

A

Nuclear Pores

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9
Q

Where is rRNA synthesized in the cell?

A

Nucleolus

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10
Q

What are the numerous folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane called?

A

Cristae

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11
Q

How is the matrix of a mitochondria different from its intermembrane space?

A

The matrix is the space enclosed by the inner membrane while the intermembrane space is between the outer and inner membranes

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12
Q

What is the process by which mitochondria replicate there own genes and undergo binary fission?

A

Cytoplasmic (extranuclear) inheritance

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13
Q

The release of chemicals from what cell organelles can lead to apoptosis?

A

Mitochondria
and
Lysosomes

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14
Q

What organelles break down many substances inside the cell by combining with endosomes?

A

Lysosomes

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15
Q

Is the endoplasmic reticulum apart of the nuclear envelope?

A

Yes; it is an extension of it

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16
Q

How do rough and smooth ER function differently?

A

Rough- site of ribosome production, makes and stores proteins mainly

Smooth- no ribosomes, makes and stores lipids mainly, also used in detoxification

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17
Q

What cell organelle modifies and packages cellular materials?

A

Golgi Apparatus

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18
Q

What cell organelles breakdown fatty acids and help synthesize phospholipids?

A

Peroxisomes

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19
Q

What are the 3 components of the cell’s cytoskeleton?

A
  1. Microtubules
  2. Intermediate Filaments
  3. Microfilaments
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20
Q

What component of the cytoskeleton is responsible for the cleavage furrow formation during cytokinesis?

A

Microfilaments (made of actin)

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21
Q

What component of the cytoskeleton is responsible for the formation of cilia and flagella as well as the mitotic pulling done by centrioles during mitosis?

A

Microtubules

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22
Q

What component of the cytoskeleton is responsible for the rigidity and other random cellular works?

A

Intermediate Filaments

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23
Q

What are the four tissue types?

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Connective
  3. Nervous
  4. Muscle
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24
Q

What is the difference between a tissues parenchyma and stroma?

A

Parenchyma is the functional part of the organ while the stroma is everything else

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25
Q

Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have circular DNA?

A

Prokaryotes

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26
Q

What are the two domains that contain only prokaryotes?

A
  1. Bacteria
    and
  2. Archaea
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27
Q

What domain of prokaryotes are considered extremophiles for there ability to live in a wide variety of environments?

A

Archaea

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28
Q

Which group is more similar, Archaea and Eukaryotes or Bacteria and Eukaryotes?

A

Archaea and Eukaryotes

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29
Q

What are the 3 classifications of bacteria by shape?

A
  1. Cocci (spherical)
  2. Bacilli (rod)
  3. Spirilli (spiral)
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30
Q

What is the difference between obligate aerobes, obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerotolerant anaerobes?

A

Obligate Aerobes- bacteria that require oxygen for metabolism

Obligate anaerobes- cannot survive in environments with oxygen

Facultative anaerobes- can switch between using oxygen and other sources for metabolism

Aerotolerant anaerobes- cannot use oxygen for metabolism but can still survive

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31
Q

What is the difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria?

A

Gram Positive bacteria- contain a thick cell wall with a lot of peptidoglycan for added protection

Gram Negative bacteria- contain peptidoglycan but in small amounts

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32
Q

What part of bacteria trigger and immune response by a human?

A

Components of the cell wall

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33
Q

Where do prokaryotic organisms carryout energy production?

A

They use the plasma membrane for the ETC

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34
Q

By what mechanism do prokaryotic cells divide?

A

Binary Fission

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35
Q

Where do bacteria carry extrachromosomal information as well as information that is beneficial to the bacteria such as antibiotic resistance?

A

Plasmids

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36
Q

What are the 3 methods that bacteria can increase genetic diversity?

A
  1. Transformation- integrating genetic material that is spilled out from nearby bacteria
  2. Conjugation- similar to sex for bacteria
  3. Transduction- is when a virus carries genetic material between bacterial cells
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37
Q

What are the 4 phases of bacterial growth?

A
  1. Lag phase- bacteria adapt to new environment
  2. exponential phase- high growth
  3. stationary phase- reduction of growth resources
  4. death phase- bacteria have used all resources
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38
Q

What is the protein coating that surrounds a virus?

A

Capsid

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39
Q

What are the viral progeny that a virus creates by hacking the replication process of bacteria?

A

Virions

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40
Q

In bacteriophages, what part of their composition acts like a syringe that injects genetic information into the bacteria?

A

Tail Sheath

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41
Q

In bacteriophages, what part of their composition acts like hands that hold the virus in place on the bacteria and recognize the correct bacteria?

A

Tail Fibers

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42
Q

How are retroviruses different from regular viruses in terms of their replication?

A

Retroviruses synthesize DNA from RNA and then this DNA is inserted into the host cells genome and replicated to create Virions

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43
Q

What is the difference between a bacteriophages lytic and lysogenic cycles?

A

Lytic- the virus creates so many virions inside the host cell that the cell lyses (burst)

Lysogenic- the virus does not burst the host cell but merely lives inside and produces virions

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44
Q

What subviral particles are highly dangerous to humans as they are infectious proteins that effect the function of proteins in the body?

A

Prions

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45
Q

What is the difference between Diploid (2n) and Haploid (n)?

A

Diploid Cells- are autosomal cells that have a two copies of each chromosome (n represents number of each chromosome. Thus diploid cells will have one chromosome 17 from dad and one from mom

Haploid Cells- are germ (sperm or egg) cells that have one copy of a chromosome. Thus haploid cells will have one chromosome 17

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46
Q

What are the 3 stages that occur during interphase of the cell life cycle?

A
  1. G1- growth in size and create more organelles, passage to next phase is governed by a restriction point
  2. S- cell replicates is genetic material (chromosomes now have 2 sister chromatids, thus there are four sets of DNA for each chromosome)
  3. G2- cell goes through quality control to make sure all organelles replicated correctly
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47
Q

How many chromatid are present for one chromosome during the G1 compared to the S phase of the cell cycle?

A

During G1 phase each cell chromosome will have 2 chromatid (one from each parent cell)

During S phase each cell chromosome will have 4 chromatid (2 sets of sister chromatid)

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48
Q

What protein plays a major role in the check point between the G1 and S phase as well as the G2 and M phase?

A

p53 protein

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49
Q

What two molecules are responsible for activating transcription factors to allow for cell growth and division?

A

Cyclins activate Cyclin-dependent Kinases which activate transcription factors

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50
Q

What are the stages of mitosis in order?

A
  1. Prophase
  2. Metaphase
  3. Anaphase
  4. Telophase
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51
Q

What happens during prophase of mitosis?

A
  • DNA condenses into tightly bound chromosomes

- centrosomes relocate to either side of the cell and start sending out spindle fibers from the centrioles

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52
Q

What happens during metaphase of mitosis?

A
  • the chromosomes (consisting of sister chromatid) are pulled into alignment in the center of the cell
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53
Q

What happens during anaphase of mitosis?

A
  • the sister chromatid from each chromosome are pulled a part
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54
Q

What happens during telophase of mitosis?

A
  • a nuclear membrane forms around the chromosomes

- cytokinesis breaks the two daughter cells apart

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55
Q

List 3 differences between mitosis and meiosis

A
  1. In meiosis, the result is 4 genetically different daughter cells due to 2 rounds of division
  2. In meiosis, the first metaphase is the alignment of homologous chromosomes in a tetrad
  3. In meiosis, the lining up of tetrads allows for recombination and genetic diversity
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56
Q

How many chromosomes do humans have? How many homologous pairs?

A

Humans have 46 chromosomes total due to having 23 pairs of the same chromosome

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57
Q

What is the pathway of sperm through the male reproductive system? What is the mnemonic for this?

A

The mnemonic is when a guy is hard he is SEVEN UP
S- seminiferous tubules (sperm creation)
E- epididymis (sperm storage and motility gain site)
V- vas deferens
E- ejaculatory duct
N- (nothing)

U- urethra
P- penis

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58
Q

Where do sperm gain their motility?

A

The Epdidymis

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59
Q

What are the components of semen?

A
  1. sperm
  2. fructose (produced in the seminal vesicle)
  3. alkaline properties (produced in seminal vesicles and prostate gland)
  4. clear viscous fluid (produced in the bulbourethral gland)
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60
Q

What is the difference between spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes, spermatids, and spermatozoa?

A

Spermatogonia- sperm stem cells
Primary Spermatocytes- diploid sperm cells
Secondary Spermatocytes- haploid sperm cells
Spermatids- un-maturated spermatozoa
Spermatozoa- mature sperm cells

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61
Q

What are the 3 main parts of a sperm cell?

A
  1. Head- capped with an acrosome, designed to penetrate the ovum of egg cells
  2. Midpiece-filled with mitochondria for energy production
  3. Tail- powers the motion of the sperm cell
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62
Q

How do women store the eggs that they are born with?

A

They are stored in the multi-layered sacs known as follicles in the ovaries of the reproductive tract

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63
Q

What is the process by which one egg per month is moved from the ovaries to the uterus?

A

Ovulation

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64
Q

What is the route an egg takes for ovulation?

A

Travels from the ovaries into the fallopian tubes (oviduct) then the uterus

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65
Q

What triggers meiosis II in secondary oocytes?

A

The penetration of a sperm cell into the egg

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66
Q

What are the two layers that surround an oocyte?

A
  1. Corona Radiata (outer)

2. Zona Pellucida (inner)

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67
Q

How do FSH and LH effect sexual development in men?

A

FSH increases the production of sperm

LH increases the production of testosterone

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68
Q

How do FSH and LH effect sexual development in women?

A

FSH increases the release of estrogens

LH increases the release of progesterone

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69
Q

How do Estrogens and Progesterone effect the endometrium during pregnancy or ovulation?

A

Estrogens increase the thickness of the endometrium

Progesterone helps maintain and develop the endometrium

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70
Q

What are the four phases of ovulation?

A
  1. Follicular- begins when menstrual flow (from the last cycle) begins, is the thickening of the endometrium in preparation for an egg
  2. Ovulation- a spike in LH causes ovulation or the movement of an egg into the uterus
  3. Luteal Phase- progesterone starts to be secreted at high rates
  4. Menstruation- if no implantation occurs, progesterone levels decline and the uterine lining is sloughed off

Mnemonic- Fear Of Losing Menses

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71
Q

What occurs when the acrosome of a sperm cell is able to penetrate an oocyte?

A

The sperm and egg form an acrosomal apparatus and eventually form a fused plasma membrane. This is the start of a diploid zygote

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72
Q

After dividing several times, what is the zygote referred as?

A

A Morula

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73
Q

During embryonic development, what does the morula become? What is the memory phrase for this?

A

A Blastula

The morula has its inside blasted out

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74
Q

In a Blastula, what is the difference between the inner cell mass and the trophoblast?

A

Inner cell mass- contains cells that grow and differentiate into the organism itself

Trophoblast- contains cells that become the chorion, placenta and other fetus-protecting tissues

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75
Q

How are the cells nourished during embryonic development before the umbilical cord can be attached?

A

The Yolk Sac (eventually becomes the cord itslef)

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76
Q

What occurs in the embryonic development process of implantation?

A

The blastula attaches to the endometrium

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77
Q

After implantation, the blastula is able to develop three distinct cell layers in a process called what?

A

Gastrulation

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78
Q

In Humans and other deuterostomes, what does the blastopore of the gastrula develop into?

A

The Anus

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79
Q

What are the three layers present in a gastrula?

A
  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Endoderm
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80
Q

From what primary germ layer of the gastrula would the cells of the hair, skin, eye lens, mouth, and nervous system come from? What is the phrase to remember this?

A

The Ectoderm

Remember that the ectoderm is the attract-o-derm and that we get nervous when we see someone attractive

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81
Q

From what primary germ layer of the gastrula would the cells of the musculoskeletal, circulatory, excretory, and gonads come from? What is the phrase to remember this?

A

The Mesoderm
Remember that the mesoderm is the move-o-derm that gives rise to cells that allow for movement both internally and externally

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82
Q

From what primary germ layer of the gastrula would the cells of the digestive tract, respiratory tract, lungs, pancreas, thyroid, and bladder?

A

The Endoderm

Remember that the endoderm is the endernal-o-derm and creates cells that line the internal passages

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83
Q

From what primary germ layer of the gastrula would the cells of the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla come from? Why?

A

Adrenal Cortex- the mesoderm because it is an internal organ

Adrenal Medulla- the ectoderm because it is technically nervous tissue

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84
Q

What process allows cells to differentiate?

A

Selective Transcription

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85
Q

Describe what happens in the process of neurulation.

A
  1. A rod of mesodermal cells form a rod that will become the spine
  2. A group of ectodermal cells push together until the form two peaks known as the neural groove. These neural groove peaks grow together to form a neural tube which will become the CNS
  3. At the tips of the neural grooves are neural crest which eventually spread out and become the PNS
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86
Q

What are chemicals, compounds, or other harmful substances that interfere with embryonic development?

A

Teratogens

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87
Q

In development, what is the difference between specification and differenitiation?

A

Specification- the cell is reversibly designated as a specific cell type

Differentiation- the cell commits to a specific cell type

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88
Q

What is the difference between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent stem cells?

A

Totipotent- can turn into any cell type and are what embryonic stem cells are

Pluripotent- can turn into any cell type except for the placental structures

Multipotent- can turn into any cell type within a certain group such as blood cells

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89
Q

What are cells that signal other cells to differentiate called?

A

Inducers

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90
Q

How is fetal hemoglobin different from regular hemoglobin?

A

Fetal Hemoglobin has a way higher affinity for oxygen so that it can pick up oxygen from its mother’s hemoglobin

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91
Q

What are the two arteries that carry deoxygenated blood in humans?

A
  1. Pulmonary Arteries

2. Umbilical Arteries

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92
Q

Where does blood oxygenation occur for a fetus?

A

In the placenta where blood oxygen diffuses across it

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93
Q

A fetus would be harmed if it sent blood to the lungs or the liver. What are the names of the shunts created to prevent this?

A

Lungs- foramen ovale AND ductus arteriosus

Liver- ductus venosus

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94
Q

How long does human gestation last?

A

280 days

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95
Q

What is another word for vaginal birth?

A

Parturition

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96
Q

Where is an action potential first generated in a neuron

A

Axon Hillock

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97
Q

What cells produce myelin in the CNS? What cells in the PNS?

A

CNS- myelin is produced by Oligodendrocytes

PNS- myelin is produced by Schwann Cells

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98
Q

What are the gaps in the myelin sheathing where the action potential is regenerated along the axon?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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99
Q

What is another name for the axon terminal?

A

Synaptic Bouton

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100
Q

What is a bundle of neurons called?

A

Nerve

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101
Q

What is the difference between a tract and a nerve?

A

Nerve- a bundle of neurons carrying information in either direction and are located in the PNS

Tracts- a bundle of neurons carrying information in one direction and are located in the CNS

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102
Q

What are the four types of glial cells in the CNS?

A
  1. Oligodendrocyte- produce myelin
  2. Astrocyte- create the blood-brain barrier as well as nourish the neurons with nutrient
  3. Ependymal Cells- produce cerebrospinal fluid
  4. Microglia- macrophage activity
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103
Q

What is the resting membrane potential in most neurons?

A

-70mv

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104
Q

What 3 channels are responsible for creating resting membrane potential and which direction do ions flow through these when the neuron is at rest?

A
  1. Na+/K ATPase pump that brings two K+ ions in and three Na+ ions out
  2. K+ leak channels that allow the membrane to be more permeable to K+ at rest and allow K+ to flow out of the cell
  3. Na+ leak channels that allow some Na+ to flow into the cell
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105
Q

What are the equilibrium potentials for Na+ and K+?

A

Na+ is around 60 mv

K+ is around -90 mv

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106
Q

What is the typical threshold potential for neurons?

A

-55 to -40 mv

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107
Q

What is the difference between temporal and spatial summation that reaches the axon hillock in a neuron?

A

Temporal- a graded potential is created by the same pre-synaptic neuron in rapid succession

Spatial- a graded potential is created by different pre-synaptic neurons at the same time

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108
Q

What is the difference between the relative and absolute refractory periods?

A

Absolute- an action potential cannot be generated

Relative- a greater than normal stimulation must occur because the membrane is hyperpolarized

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109
Q

Describe what type of neuron would transmit the fastest possible signal

A

A neuron that is:

  • myelinated (allowing for saltatory conduction)
  • short (preventing increased resistance)
  • large radius (preventing increased resistance
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110
Q

What ion is essential in the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft?

A

Ca2+

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111
Q

What are the 3 main ways that neurotransmitters are removed from the synaptic cleft?

A
  1. Broken down by enzymes
  2. Reuptake- brought back into the presynaptic neuron by reuptake carriers
  3. Diffusion away from the synaptic cleft (mainly gases)
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112
Q

What is the difference between white and grey matter in the CNS?

A

Gray- Cell bodies and dendrites

White- myelinated axons

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113
Q

What is another name for efferent neurons?

A

Motor Neurons

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114
Q

Where do afferent (sensory) neurons enter the spinal cord?

A

Dorsal Roots

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115
Q

Where do efferent (motor) neurons exit the spinal cord?

A

Ventral Roots

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116
Q

How many neurons are used to signal an effector in the autonomic nervous system? How about the somatic?

A

Autonomic- uses two neurons that are separated by a ganglion

Somatic- uses one neuron (usually with a long axon)

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117
Q

What is the neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

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118
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter used by the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

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119
Q

What part of the autonomic nervous system is also known as the craniosacral division?

A

Parasympathetic

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120
Q

What part of the autonomic nervous system is also known as the thoracolumbar division?

A

Sympathetic

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121
Q

What division of the autonomic nervous system would cause an increase in heart rate?

A

Sympathetic

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122
Q

What division of the autonomic nervous system would cause the bronchi to relax?

A

Sympathetic (this would allow for more oxygen exchange)

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123
Q

What division of the autonomic nervous system would cause the pupils to constrict?

A

Parasympathetic (not as alarmed)

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124
Q

What division of the autonomic nervous system would cause an increase in the blood glucose levels?

A

Sympathetic

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125
Q

What is the difference between a monosynaptic and a polysynaptic reflex

A

Monosynaptic- there is a single synapse between sensory neuron that receives the stimulus and the motor neuron that responds to it

Polysynaptic- there is at least one interneuron between the two

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126
Q

Would the K+ voltage gated channels be open or closed during a depolarization? What about during a repolarization?

A

Depolarization- K+ channels would be closed

Repolarization- K+ channels would be opening

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127
Q

What are the 3 types of hormones?

A
  1. Steroid
  2. Amine
  3. Peptide/Protein
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128
Q

Which of the 3 types of hormones are water soluble?

A

Peptide/Protein hormones are water soluble
AND
Catecholamines of the amine hormones

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129
Q

Which of the 3 types of hormones are not water soluble?

A

Steroid hormones
AND
Thyroid hormones

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130
Q

By which mechanism do protein hormones and catecholamines signal cells?

A

They are not lipid-soluble thus they use a messenger pathway that changes transcription factors or enzymes

131
Q

What are some common second messengers?

A
  • cAMP

- IP3

132
Q

Will the effects of water soluble hormones be slower or faster than lipid-soluble hormones?

A

Faster but will last shorter time period

133
Q

What type of hormones are progesterone, testosterone, and estrogen?

A

They are all steroid hormones

134
Q

What type of hormone is aldoesterone?

A

Steroid hormone

135
Q

What type of hormones are insulin, glucagon, and prolactin?

A

They are all protein hormones

136
Q

What type of hormones are the Thyroid hormones and epinephrine?

A

They are both amine hormones

137
Q

What type of hormones does the hypothalamus release?

A

Hypophysiotropic hormones to the anterior pituitary
AND
hormones to the posterior pituitary

138
Q

Does the posterior pituitary produce hormones?

A

No; it releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus

139
Q

What hormones does the posterior pituitary release and what are there effects?

A
  1. Oxytocin- causes uterine contractions during labor, influences lactation, influences bonding behavior
  2. Antidiuretic Hormone (Vasopressin)- increases reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts of the kidneys
140
Q

What posterior pituitary hormone is released via a positive feedback loop during labor?

A

Oxytocin

141
Q

What are the hormones released by the anterior pituitary and what hormones released by the hypothalamus trigger this release? What is the mnemonic to remember this?

A

The Mnemonic is FLAT PEG
F: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (triggered by GnRH)
L: Luteinizing Hormone (triggered by GnRH)
A: Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (triggered by CRF)
T: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (triggered by TRH)

P: Prolactin (triggered by a DECREASE in dopamine)
E: Endorphins
G: Growth Hormone (triggered by GHRH)

142
Q

What effect on the body do the hormones released by the signaling of Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone?

A

FSH- stimulates follicle stimulation in females and spermatogenesis in males

LH- stimulates ovulation in females and testosterone synthesis in males

143
Q

Where is Adrenocorticotropic hormone released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the anterior pituitary and stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids

144
Q

Where is Thyroid Stimulating Hormone released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the anterior pituitary and stimulates the thyroid to produce thyroid hormones (T3/T4)

145
Q

Where is the hormone prolactin released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the anterior pituitary and stimulates milk production in the mammary glands

146
Q

Where is growth hormone released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the anterior pituitary and stimulates bone and muscle growth and raises blood glucose levels

147
Q

Where is Antidiuretic hormone synthesized and released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Synthesized in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary.
Stimulates water reabsorption in the kidneys by increasing permeability of collecting duct

148
Q

Where are the Thyroid hormones released and what are there effects on the body?

A

Released from the thyroid gland and stimulate metabolic activity

149
Q

Where is the hormone calcitonin released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the thyroid glands and it decreases blood calcium concentrations

150
Q

Where is parathyroid hormone released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released form the parathyroid glands and it increases blood calcium concentrations

151
Q

Where is cortisol and cortisone released and what are there effects on the body?

A

These glucocorticoids are released from the adrenal cortex and increase blood glucose and decrease immune response

152
Q

Where is aldosterone released and what are its effects in the body?

A

This mineralocorticoid is released from the adrenal cortex and it increases water reabsorption in the kidneys by increasing sodium reabsorption, it also promotes K+ and H+ excretion

153
Q

Where are epinephrine and norepinephrine released and what are there effects on the body?

A

Released from the adrenal medulla and they increase blood glucose, increase heart rate, and dilate bronchi

154
Q

Where is insulin released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the pancreatic beta cells and causes a decrease in the blood glucose levels

155
Q

Where is glucagon released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the pancreatic alpha cells and causes an increase in blood glucose levels

156
Q

Where is somatostatin released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the pancreatic delta cells and suppresses the release of glucagon or insulin

157
Q

Where are estrogen and progesterone released and what are there respective effects on the body?

A

They are released from the Ovary and placenta
Estrogen- induces and maintains female reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics

Progesterone- maintains endometrium

158
Q

Where is the hormone erythropoietin released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released from the kidneys and it causes an increase in red blood cell production (erythropoiesis) in red bone marrow

159
Q

Where is atrial natriuretic peptide released and what are its effects on the body?

A

Released by the atriums of the heart and causes an increase in salt and water excretion

160
Q

Where is the hormone thymosin released and what are its effects on the human body?

A

Released by the thymus and stimulates T-cell development

161
Q

What is the difference between Type I and Type II diabetes?

A

Type I- is caused by the autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas thus the body does not secrete insulin

Type II- is caused by the receptors of insulin building up resistance due to consistently high carbohydrate intake

162
Q

Describe the flow of air from the nose to the capillaries in the lungs

A
  1. Air enters the external nares of the nose
  2. flows down the nasal cavity lined with hairs (vibrissae)
  3. flows into the pharynx
  4. flows past the epiglottis into the larynx
  5. flows into the cartilaginous trache
  6. flows into one of two bronchi
  7. flows into the bronchioles in each lunch
  8. ends in the alveoli sac in the lungs
163
Q

What is the difference between the parietal and visceral pleura of the lungs and what do they do?

A

Visceral- sac attached to the lungs themselves

Parietal- sac on the outside of the visceral sac

Both of these form the surfaces against which the lungs expand

164
Q

When it is relaxed, what is the shape of the diaphragm?

A

Curved like a hill pushing on the lungs

165
Q

What physics principle allows for the process of breathing?

A

The pressure differential between the intrapleural space and the lungs

166
Q

During the process of inhalation what is the diaphragm doing?

A

The diaphragm is contracted which increases the volume of the intrapleural space

167
Q

Why does contraction of the diaphragm allow for inhalation of air?

A

Because contraction of diaphragm causes and increase in the volume of the intrapleural space which also causes a decrease in pressure. Since the lungs are at a higher pressure they will expand and this expansion decreases the pressure inside them and draws air in

168
Q

During the process of exhalation what is the diaphragm doing?

A

It is relaxed and pushing up against the lungs

169
Q

Why does relaxation of the diaphragm allow for exhalation?

A

Because as it is relaxed, the diaphragm is pushing into the intrapleural space and causing a decrease in volume thus and increase in pressure. This increased pressure will push on the lungs forcing air out

170
Q

What device measures lung capcities?

A

Spirometer

171
Q

What is the difference between total lung capacity (TLC) and vital capacity (VC)?

A

TLC- the maximum volume of air in lungs when someone inhales completely

VC- the highest volume of air that can be exhaled from the lungs

172
Q

What is residual volume (RV) in the lungs?

A

RV- is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after exhaling completely

173
Q

What is the tidal volume measured by a spirometer?

A

TV- the volume of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breath

174
Q

What is the difference between inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume?

A

IRV- the volume of air that can be forcibly inhaled following a normal inhalation

ERV- the volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled following a normal exhalation

175
Q

What is the function of lysozyme in the nasal passages?

A

It is a enzyme that attacks gram-positive bacteria

176
Q

Draw out the equation for the bicarbonate buffering system

A

Look it up sweatheart

177
Q

How will the respiratory system respond during a period of alkalemia?

A

The bodies breathing will slow down to push the bicarbonate buffering system to the right and increase the blood’s acidity

178
Q

What is the complete path of blood through the cardiovascular system?

A
  1. Right Atrium
  2. Tricuspid valve (right atrioventricular)
  3. Right Ventricle
  4. Pulmonary valve (right semilunar)
  5. Pulmonary Trunk
  6. Pulmonary Arteries
  7. Pulmonary Arterioles
  8. Pulmonary Capillaries
  9. Pulmonary Venules
  10. Pulmonary Veins
  11. Left Atrium
  12. Bicuspid/mitral valve (left atrioventricular)
  13. Left Ventricle
  14. Aortic Valve (left semilunar)
  15. Aorta
  16. Arteries
  17. Arterioles
  18. Capillaries
  19. Venules
  20. Veins
  21. Venae Cava (superior and inferior)
179
Q

What is the difference between pulmonary and systemic circulation?

A

Pulmonary- blood pumped to the lungs

Systemic- blood pumped to the rest of the body

180
Q

Why are the ventricle larger than the atria?

A

They need more muscle to pump blood

181
Q

What is the pathway of electrical signal in the hearts conduction system?

A
  1. Sinoatrial Node (SA)
  2. Internodal Pathway
  3. Atrioventricular Node (AV)
  4. Bundle of His
  5. Bundle Branches
  6. Purkinje Fibers
182
Q

Why are there intercalated disks in the cardiac tissue?

A

To allow for rapid electrical synapse signaling

183
Q

What is the difference between systole and diastole?

A

Systole- occurs with ventricular contraction and blood expulsion

Diastole- occurs with ventricular relaxation and blood filling

184
Q

What does cardiac output measure?

A

The amount of blood volume pumped from either ventricle per a unit of time

185
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

A 
CO = HR x SV
Where:
CO- cardiac output
HR- heart rate
SV- stroke volume
186
Q

What are the actions occurring during the two heart sounds?

A

The first heart sound is associated with the closing of the atrioventricular valves at the start of systole

The second heart sound is associated with the closing of the semilunar valves at the end of systole

187
Q

What are the 3 portal systems of the circulatory system?

A
  1. Hepatic Portal
  2. Hypophyseal Portal
  3. Renal Portal
188
Q

What is the difference between erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets?

A

Erythrocytes- red blood cells, make up almost all of the cells in the blood

leukocytes- white blood cells, small proportion of the blood

Platelets- cell fragments and other things that support clotting

189
Q

What is hemotocrit?

A

The percentage of blood that is erythrocytes

190
Q

What do erythropoietin and thrombopoietin do respectivelly?

A

Erythropoietin- secreted by the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production

Thrombopoietin- secreted by the liver and stimulates platelet development

191
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A surface target/protein that the immune system can respond to

192
Q

What does a sphygmomanometer measure?

A

The gauge pressure in systemic circulation

193
Q

What is blood pressure measured as?

A

Systolic pressure / Diastolic Pressure

194
Q

What drives the circulation of blood through the body?

A

The pressure differential created by the heart

195
Q

What equation (similar to Ohm’s law) can be used to find the pressure differential in circulation?

A 
ΔP = CO x TPR
Where:
ΔP- pressure differential
CO- cardiac output
TPR- total peripheral resistance
196
Q

How is CO2 primarily transported in the blood?

A

Mostly in red blood cells, the rest is transported as bicarbonate

197
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

force per unit area that is exerted on the blood vessels walls

198
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

The pressure differential created by solutes in the blood that seeks to pull water into the bloodstream

199
Q

What is the final proteins that are activated during a clotting response?

A
  1. Prothrombin forms thrombin
  2. Thrombin activates fibrinogen
  3. Fibrinogen forms fibrin
200
Q

What protein breaks down blood clots?

A

Plasmin

201
Q

What is the difference between white and red muscle fibers?

A

White- fast twitch, less myoglobin, more glycolytic enzymes

Red- slow twitch, more myoglobin, more blood vessels for supplying oxygen

202
Q

Which muscle types are striated?

A

Skeletal and Cardiac

203
Q

Define myogenic activity

A

smooth and cardiac muscles can contract without any nervous system input

204
Q

How many nuclei do each of the muscle types have?

A

Skeletal- many
Cardiac- 1 to 2
Smooth- 1

205
Q

What composes thick and thin filaments of muscle?

A

Thick- myosin

Thin- actin, troponin, tropomyosin

206
Q

What does a motor unit consist of?

A

A motor neuron and all the myocytes it activates

207
Q

What are the 3 phases of muscle activity?

A
  1. Latent period- starts when the myocyte receives the action potential to the formation of cross bridges
  2. Contraction period- starts with the power stroke of the cross bridges and ends with the peak of muscle tension
  3. Relaxation- occurs when atp binds to the myosin head causing it to release from binding to actin
208
Q

What energy source is used by the muscle for very short periods of time during high intensity?

A

Creatine Phosphate

209
Q

What are the two divisions of the skeleton and what do they consist of?

A

Axial- skull, vertebrae, rib cage, hyoid bone

Appendicular- bones of the limbs, pectoral girdle, and pelvis

210
Q

What is the difference between red and yellow bone marrow?

A

Red- produces red blood cells and is filled with hematopoietic stem cells

Yellow- composed of fat and is inactive

211
Q

What is the difference between epiphysis, metaphysis, and diaphysis relating to bone structure?

A

Epiphysis- the end of long bones

Metaphysis- the swelling of bone right before reaching epiphysis

Diaphysis- the long and skinny portion of the bones

212
Q

What is the outer most layer of bone?

A

Periosteum- site of muscle attachment and protects bone

213
Q

What are the structural units of bone structure?

A

Osteons

214
Q

Are bones vascular and innervated?

A

Yes; this is why it hurts to break a bone

215
Q

What is the difference between osteoblast and osteoclast?

A

Osteoblast- build bone

Osteoclast- break it down

216
Q

How would the bones respond to high levels of parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and calcitonin?

A

Parathyroid hormone- promotes reabsorption (breaking down) of bone

Vitamin D- promotes reabsorption (breaking down) of bone

Calcitonin- promotes bone formation which lowers blood Ca2+ levels

217
Q

What is the name for the process by which cartilage is solidified into bone?

A

Endochondral Ossification

218
Q

Where are immovable joints found?

A

Skull

219
Q

What joint structures aid in the smooth movement between bones?

A
  1. Synovial fluid
  2. Articular Cartilage
  3. Synovium
220
Q

What is the difference between a flexor, extensor, abductor, and adductor?

A

Flexor- decreases angle across a joint
Extensor- increases angle across a joint

Abductor- move part of body away from the midline
Adductor- moves part of the body toward the midline

221
Q

What is the difference between innate and and adaptive immunity?

A

Innate- defenses that are always active against infection but lack ability to target specific invaders

Adaptive- defenses that target a specific pathogen

222
Q

What type of immunity (specific or nonspecific) would respond to a particular virus such as COVID-19?

A

Specific

223
Q

Where are all leukocytes produced?

A

Bone Marrow

224
Q

Where are B-cells stored?

A

Spleen

225
Q

Where are T-cells stored?

A

Thymus

226
Q

What leukocytes are involved in adaptive immunity?

A

B and T cells

227
Q

What is the purpose of lymph nodes?

A

Provide a location where leukocytes and other immune responses can mount an attack against infection

228
Q

What are the two broad categories of leukocytes?

A
  1. Granulocytes

2. Agranulocytes

229
Q

What is the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes?

A

Granulocytes contain granules that contain toxic enzymes and are effective against bacterial, fungal, and parasitic infections

230
Q

What are the types of cells that belong to the granulocyte category of leukocytes?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
231
Q

What are the types of cells that belong to the agranulocyte category of leukocytes?

A
  1. Lymphocytes

2. Monocytes (macrophages)

232
Q

What division of the specific immunity is driven through the response of B-cells?

A

Humoral Immunity

233
Q

What division of the specific immunity is driven through the response of T-cells?

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity

234
Q

What antibacterial enzymes are present on the skin and provide one of our bodies first barriers to infection?

A

Defensins

235
Q

What branch of immune response does the complement system fall under and what is its mechanism of response?

A

It is a part of the non-specific immune system and is a group of proteins that act as a barrier against bacterial infection

236
Q

What is the difference between the classical and alternative pathway in the complement system?

A

Classical- requires the binding of an antibody to the pathogen

Alternative- does not require antibody binding

237
Q

What is the purpose of interferons and what branch of the immune response do they fall under?

A

Interferons prevent cells that have been infected by viruses from reproducing the viral genome

They fall under the innate immune response

238
Q

How do macrophages work to prevent infection and what branch of the immune response do they fall under?

A

They ingest the invader through endocytosis and then present pieces of the infecting invader on an important protein called Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) placed on other invaders

Macrophages fall under the innate immune branch

239
Q

Why are MHC class II molecules a part of the exogenous pathway?

A

Because they create antigens that arise from extracellular invaders

240
Q

Why are MHC class I molecule a part of the endogenous pathway?

A

Because they create antigens that arise from intracellular proteins that are normal in the cell

The body recognizes a cell is being attacked if it starts creating abnormal MHC I antigens

241
Q

What allows Macrophage cells to recognize invaders?

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors

242
Q

What innate immunity cells are able to recognize the down-regulation of MHC molecules and thus antigens in infected cells, and then respond by inducing apoptosis?

A

Natural Killer Cells

243
Q

Are granulocytes a part of the specific or non-specific branch of the immune system?

A

Non-Specific

244
Q

What is the task of neutrophils in the immune response?

A

They can follow bacteria by chemotaxis and phagocytize them

245
Q

What is the task of eosinophils in the immune response?

A

They release histamines that results in vasodilation and leakiness of blood vessels allowing for more immune cells to move into the tissues (this causes inflammation)

246
Q

What are the tasks of mast cells and basophils in the immune response?

A

They release histamines that results in vasodilation and leakiness of blood vessels allowing for more immune cells to move into the tissues (this causes inflammation)

247
Q

Where do B-cells mature?

A

Bone Marrow

248
Q

What is involved in the process of humoral immunity?

A

The production of antibodies produced by B-cells

249
Q

What is the role of antibodies in the specific immune response?

A

They bind to antigens and:

  1. attract other leukocytes to phagocytize the antigen
  2. cause pathogens to agglutinate (clump)
  3. degranulation of mast cells presenting the viral antigens
250
Q

What is the general structure of an antibody?

A

A Y shape made up of two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains

251
Q

What is at the end of the light chains in an antibody?

A

The antigen binding region known as the variable region

252
Q

What structure of an antibody is mutated to adapt to a new invader?

A

The variable region

253
Q

To what region of an antibody do Natural Killer Cells, Macrophages, monocytes, and eosinophils bind to and initiate the complement cascade?

A

The constant region

254
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary response within humoral immunity?

A

Primary- is the initial response to a new antigen

Secondary- is the secondary response to an antigen (thought process behind vaccines)

255
Q

What are the 3 major types of T-cells?

A
  1. Helper T-cells
  2. Suppressor T-cells
  3. Killer (cytotoxic) T-cells
256
Q

What is the purpose of helper t-cells in the specific immune response?

A

recruit other immune cells after reading MHC class II presenting antigens

257
Q

What is the purpose of cytotoxic t-cells in the specific immune response?

A

directly kill virally infected cells by reading MHC class I presenting antigens

258
Q

What is the purpose of suppressor t-cells in the specific immune response?

A

tone down the immune response once the effect has been sufficiently generated

259
Q

Would a bacteria cells be tagged with a MHC class I or II antigen?

A

Class II because the antigen would be exogenously produced

260
Q

Would cells infected by a virus be tagged with a MHC class I or II antigen?

A

Class I because the antigen originated from within the human cell (endogenous)

261
Q

What is the alimentary canal?

A

The pathway or tube that our food follows to go through extracellular digestion

262
Q

What is the pathway through the alimentary canal?

A
  1. Mouth
  2. Pharynx
  3. Esophagus
  4. Stomach
  5. Small Intestine
  6. Large Intestine
  7. Rectum
263
Q

What branch of the nervous system is responsible for controlling peristalsis in the digestive system?

A

Enteric Nervous System

264
Q

What branch of the nervous system innervates all the glands of the digestive system?

A

Parasympathetic

265
Q

What is a bolus?

A

The clump of chewed up food that our tongue pushes back into our throat

266
Q

What type of muscle is in the top of the esophagus?

A

Skeletal

267
Q

What type of muscle in in the bottom of the esophagus?

A

Smooth

268
Q

What sphincter allows us to swallow?

A

upper esophageal sphincter

269
Q

What sphincter allows food to pass into the stomach?

A

lower esophageal sphincter

270
Q

What type of acid is in the stomach?

A

HCl

271
Q

Why does the stomach have a thick mucosa?

A

To prevent autodigestion

272
Q

What are the folds of the stomach called?

A

Rugae

273
Q

What are the 3 types of gastric gland cells and there actions?

A
  1. Mucous cells- produce bicarbonate rich mucous to protect the stomach lining
  2. Chief cells- produce pepsinogen (zymogen of pepsin) a proteolytic enzyme
  3. Parietal cells- produce HCl which activates the pepsinogen
274
Q

What is secreted by the pyloric glands of the stomach?

A

Gastrin- signals more HCl to be produced and stomach contractions

275
Q

What is the mixture that leaves the stomach called?

A

Chyme

276
Q

Where does the majority of chemical digestion occur in the small intestine?

A

Duodenum

277
Q

What are the 3 segments of the small intestine?

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
278
Q

What sphincter separates the stomach and small intestine?

A

Pyloric Sphincter

279
Q

What are some of the enzymes secreted by the Duodenum is response to Chyme?

A
  1. Disarccharidases (lactase)

2. Peptidases

280
Q

What digestive organ secretes pancreatic juices into the duodenum?

A

Pancreas

281
Q

What can bile salts be compared to?

A

Soaps as they emulsify fats

282
Q

Why is Cholecystokinin secreted by the duodenum?

A

CCK is a hormone that stimulates the release of bile salts and pancreatic juices

283
Q

Why is secretin secreted by the duodenum during digestion?

A

Secretin is a hormone that stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes as well as help increase the pH of the small intestine (to activate enzymes)

284
Q

What cells of the pancreas are responsible for its exocrine abilities?

A

Acinar Cells

285
Q

What organ is responsible for the production of bile? What about the storage of bile?

A

The liver produces bile which is stored in the gallbladder

286
Q

Why does jaundice occur?

A

The liver cannot effectively dispose of the byproduct of Hb breakdown (bilirubin) and thus the yellow tint appears

287
Q

What are many of the enzymes secreted by the pancreas useful for?

A

The chemical digestion of proteins

288
Q

Explain how the anatomy of the jejunum and ileum aid in the absorption of compounds from food

A

The walls of these segments are lined with tiny projections called villi which are then lined with their own projections called microvilli

289
Q

What part of the villi absorbs and transports lipids?

A

Lacteals

290
Q

What is the primary purpose of the large intestine?

A

To reabsorb secreted water

291
Q

What are some of the functions of the excretory system?

A
  1. Maintains Blood Pressure
  2. Maintains Blood Osmolarity
  3. Maintains Acid/Base Balance
  4. Removal of Nitrogenous Wastes
292
Q

Where do the renal pelvis, renal artery, and renal vein enter the kidney?

A

Through a deep slit known as the renal hilum

293
Q

What is the difference between the internal and external urethral sphincter?

A

Internal- consists of smooth muscle and is contracted normally

External- consist of skeletal muscle

294
Q

Where does blood get filtered to leave behind plasma in the tubules of the kidneys?

A

It is filtered in the renal corpuscle (Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus)

295
Q

What is the name for the fluid left over after being separated from the blood into bowman’s space?

A

Filtrate

296
Q

What forces govern if filtrate will move into bowman’s space from the blood? What is the name for these forces?

A

The Hydrostatic (fluid) pressure of the blood in the afferent capillaries creates a pressure differential that is higher than the pressure created by the osmotic (oncotic) pressure of the afferent capillary blood having more solutes. This drive filtrate into bowman’s space.

These forces are known as Starling Forces

297
Q

If proteins are found in the urine, with what area of the nephron does this indicate a problem with?

A

The glomerulus

298
Q

How does the body deal with high amounts amount NH3 following protein rich meals?

A

The body wants to avoid the basic effects of NH3 and thus creates Urea out of NH3 and transports this to the kidneys where it is secreted into the tubule (combining with urine)

299
Q

What are the main waste products excreted in the urine? What is the mnemonic for this?

A

H+
Urea
NH3
K+

The Kidneys dump the HUNK

300
Q

What is the path that urine follows after leaving bowman’s space?

A
  1. Proximal Convoluted Loop
  2. Loop of Henle
  3. Distal Convoluted Loop
  4. Collecting Duct
301
Q

What is the primary purpose of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

It functions to reabsorb amino acids, glucose, Na+ ions, and water

It also secretes HUNK

302
Q

What happens to substances reabsorbed by any segment of the tubule portion of nephrons?

A

These substances are picked up by the vasa recta and returned to normal blood

303
Q

How does the body adjust the water levels that it has in terms of the loop of Henle?

A

The body adjust the osmolarity of the interstitium (changing the amount of ions or proteins in the area surrounding the loop of Henle tubule segment)

304
Q

What is the primary purpose of the distal convoluted tubule?

A

responds to aldosterone to control Na+ and water reabsorption

It also secretes HUNK

305
Q

What are the two segments of the tubule section of a nephron that aldosterone act on? What are its effects?

A

Aldosterone acts on the Distal Convoluted Tubule and the Collecting Duct

It increases these areas permeability to Na+ allowing for more reabsorption which also increase reabsorption of water (concentrates the urine)

306
Q

What is the primary purpose of the collecting duct?

A

The collecting duct largely determines the concentration (amount of water) in the urine

It responds to both Aldosterone and Anti-diuretic Hormone to control this reabsorption

307
Q

How does Vasopressin (ADH) work in the collecting duct of the nephrons?

A

It increases the amount of aquaporins (water channels) present in the collecting duct’s membrane which increases the reabsorption of water

308
Q

What are the 3 layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis (outside)
Dermis
Hyperdermis

309
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the layers of the epidermis?

A 
Come Let's Get Sun Burned
1. Corneum
2. Lucidum
3. Granulosum
4 Spinosum
5. Basale
310
Q

What are genes?

A

DNA sequences that code for heritable traits and are found on specific areas of chromosomes

311
Q

What is a genes location on a chromosome called?

A

Its locus

312
Q

How many alleles for a specific gene due hemizygous people have?

A

One allele (such as males X chromosome)

313
Q

What is the difference between penetrance and expressivity?

A

Penetrance- the percentage of people that have a particular genotype that have the phenotype in question (ex. some individuals with dominant polydactyly allele do not show the expected phenotype thus this disease has incomplete penetrance)

Expressivity- the various phenotypes that can arise from one genotype (ex. variable expressivity would mean that despite having the same genes, two people can be different manifestations of a disease)

314
Q

What two laws created by Mendel show why sexual reproduction increases the genetic diversity of a population?

A
  1. Law of Segregation- an organism will receive only 1 allele from each parent
  2. Law of Independent Assortment- inheritance of one gene does not influence the inheritance of another
315
Q

What is the effect of transposons?

A

They insert themselves into DNA and cause mutations

316
Q

What is the difference between nucleotide level mutations and chromosomal mutations?

A

Nucleotide Level- occur at the level of the individual nucleotides used for gene coding

Chromosomal Level- occur at the level of chromosomes and cause large changes in DNA

317
Q

If only one nucleotide of a segment of mRNA is replaced what type of mutation has occurred?

A

Point Mutation

318
Q

What are the 3 types of point mutations and what are there effects?

A
  1. Silent Mutation- change of one nucleotide causes no change in the final protein created because it encodes for the same amino acid
  2. Missense Mutation- change of one nucleotide causes a substitution of one amino acid in the final protein which has effects on the protein created
  3. Nonsense Mutation- change of one nucleotide causes a stop codon amino acid which terminates the production of the rest of the protein
319
Q

What occurs in a frameshift mutation?

A

Nucleotides are added or deleted from the mRNA which shifts the reading frame translation into amino acids

320
Q

What is the difference between insertion and translocation mutations at the chromosomal level?

A

Insertion- occur when a segment of DNA from one chromosome is inserted into another

Translocation- occur when chromosomes exchange segments of DNA

321
Q

If two genes are far apart then what is more likely to occurr?

A

Crossing Over (higher recombination frequency)

322
Q

If two genes are 25 map units (centimorgans) apart the how likely is it for them to cross over?

A

25%

323
Q

What are the two hardy Weinberg equations?

A

p + q = 1

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

MCAT (8 decks)

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