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MCAT > Psychology and Sociology > Flashcards

Psychology and Sociology Flashcards

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MCAT flashcards
1
Q

Biopsychosocial approach

A

illuminates the importance of psychological and sociological study for success in the practice of medicine

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2
Q

Biomedical approach

A

focuses narrowly on the physical aspects of illness

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3
Q

Social constructionism

A

human actors construct or create reality, rather than discovering a reality that has inherent validity; the beliefs and shared understandings of individuals create social realities

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4
Q

Symbolic interactionism

A

focuses on a smaller scale of interaction between individuals and in small groups such as between a patient and a physician; through social interactions, individuals develop shared meanings and labels for various symbols

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5
Q

Symbols

A

terms, concepts, or items that represent specific meanings by accepted convention; ex. drug addict has symbolic meanings ranging from criminal tendencies to clinical mental illness

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6
Q

Functionalism

A

factions of society work together to maintain stability

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7
Q

Conflict theory

A

views society in terms of competing groups that act according to their own self-interests, rather than according to the need for societal equilibrium

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8
Q

Feminist theory

A

a particular type of conflict theory that examines social inequities between men and women

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9
Q

Macrosociology

A

focuses on broad social structures that affect society

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10
Q

Microsociology

A

focuses on smaller scale social interactions between individuals

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11
Q

Rational choice theory

A

assumes that people’s actions are dictated by a rational consideration of alternatives; individuals choose the action that is mot likely to bring some type of profit

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12
Q

Exchange theory

A

argues that behaviors within relationships are determined by individual’s expectations of reward or punishment

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13
Q

Culture

A

all of the beliefs, assumptions, objects, behaviors, and processes that make up a shared way of life

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14
Q

Material culture

A

refers to the objects involved in a certain way of life such as products manufactured, tools used, art made etc.

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15
Q

Non-material culture

A

encompasses the elements of culture that are not physical ie. shared ideas, knowledge, assumptions, values etc.

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16
Q

Social norms

A

expectations that govern what behavior is acceptable within a group

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17
Q

Sanctions

A

social expressions of approval for conforming to norms or disapproval for failing to conform

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18
Q

Folkways

A

norms governing casual interactions, violations have less serious consequences

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19
Q

Mores

A

norms enforcing the moral standards of a society, violations have more serious consequences

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20
Q

Social group

A

a subset of the population that maintains social interactions or a group identity among a set of individuals created by a collection of shared experiences

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21
Q

Symbolic culture

A

type of non-material culture that consists of the elements of culture that only have meaning within the mind ie. thumbs up or a handshake; based on a shared system of collective beliefs in the form of symbols

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22
Q

Rituals

A

formal, ceremonial behaviors with specific purpose and significance

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23
Q

Language

A

the use of symbols to represent ideas

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24
Q

Society

A

defined as two or more individuals living together in a community and/or sharing elements of culture

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25
Q

Social institutions

A

hierarchical systems that bring order to interpersonal interactions, structuring society ie. government, economy, education, religion, family, healthcare etc.

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26
Q

Government

A

provides order to society through the services it provides and the making and enforcement of law

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27
Q

Economy

A

an institution that distributes goods and services to meet the needs of a society

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28
Q

Power

A

allows individuals or groups to exert their will even when they are opposed by others

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29
Q

Authority

A

a type of power that is viewed as legitimate by the population

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30
Q

Capitalism

A

resources and the means to produce goods and services are privately controlled by individuals and organizations; the desire for profit drives commercial activity; more productive and more degree of economic freedom

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31
Q

Socialism

A

a system in which resources and the means of producing goods and services are managed collectively; relies on government regulation to match productive output to the demands of consumers; generate less per capita income but decreased wealth disparity

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32
Q

Education

A

provides a formal structure during childhood and the transition to adulthood and an opportunity to instruct youth on the social norms, expectations for behavior, knowledge, and skills that they will need to operate within a society; transfer of cultural knowledge

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33
Q

Hidden curriculum

A

transmits cultural ideals beyond the stated goals of the institution (in schools)

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34
Q

Teacher expectancy

A

teachers treat students differently according to preconceived ideas about their capabilities; this treatment influences students’ achievements

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35
Q

Educational segregation

A

students in disadvantaged groups receive a lower quality education than more privileged students

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36
Q

Educational stratification

A

refers to the separation of students into groups on the basis of academic achievement

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37
Q

Religion

A

a system of beliefs that affects how people make sense of their experiences and provides a framework for questions about life, death and the purpose of existence

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38
Q

Religiosity

A

the extent to which religion is important to an individual or community

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39
Q

Types of religious organizations

A

church, sect, and cult

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40
Q

Church

A

a religious organization that is well established in the larger society

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41
Q

Sect

A

a more radical group that forms by breaking away from the established norms or beliefs of a mainstream church

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42
Q

Cult

A

has views or practices that situate it outside the traditions of mainstream society and tends to form outside of any pre-existing religion

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43
Q

Secularization

A

decreasing devotion to religious doctrines and practices

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44
Q

Fundamentalism

A

entails a strictly literal interpretation of sacred writings; typically accompanied by a limited tolerance for other religions

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45
Q

Family

A

consists of bonds of kin and marriage

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46
Q

Kinship

A

describes the social bonds that unite individuals into families

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47
Q

Forms of kinship

A

bloodline, marriage, and adoption

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48
Q

Monogamy

A

having just one romantic or sexual partner at a time

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49
Q

Polyamory

A

having more than one romantic or sexual partner at a time

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50
Q

Polygyny

A

more than one woman married to a man

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51
Q

Polandry

A

more than one man married to a woman

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52
Q

Polygamy

A

polygny and polyandry

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53
Q

Violence in the family

A

comes in many forms: emotional, physical, or sexual abuse; victims are usually non-dominant members such as elders, females, or children

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54
Q

Medicalization

A

the effort to describe a type of behavior as a symptom of an underlying illness that should be treated by a doctor

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55
Q

Sick role

A

exhibiting the expected behaviors for an ill person

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56
Q

Illness experience

A

describes how an individual adjusts to interruptions to their health

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57
Q

Illness

A

the definition of health problems in popular consciousness

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58
Q

Disease

A

refers to an expert or medical definition of wellness

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59
Q

Demographics

A

statistics used to examine the nature of a specific population by quantifying subsets of that population ie. age, gender, race, ethnicity, SES

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60
Q

Sex

A

assigned at birth based on the infant’s genitalia

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61
Q

Gender identity

A

an individual’s internal sense of self as male, female, both, or neither

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62
Q

Social construction of gender

A

the development of gender is subject to cultural influences and depends on social interactions

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63
Q

Social construction of race

A

process by which racial categories are created through social forces

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64
Q

Racialization

A

the imposition of a racial identity on a particular group

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65
Q

Racial formation theory

A

states that race is a social construct, with no basis in actual genetic differences and emphasizes how a variety of social factors interact to construct definitions, expectations, and experiences of race

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66
Q

Immigration status

A

may cause barriers to integration, including a lack of knowledge of the new society as well as prevailing negative attitudes of the existing citizenry

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67
Q

Gerentology

A

the study of aging and the life course

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68
Q

Age cohorts

A

groups of people categorized by age range

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69
Q

Social significance of aging

A

emphasizes the idea that aging is more complicated than simply the measured time since birth and despite being affected by the same biological processes, characteristics of the life course can vary from culture to culture

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70
Q

Fertility

A

the production of offspring within a population

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71
Q

Total birth/fertility rate

A

describes the average number of children that one woman is expected to have over her lifetime

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72
Q

Crude birth rate

A

the number of live births in a year for every thousand people

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73
Q

Age-specific birth rate

A

refers to the fertility of women who are a specific age or fall within a range of ages

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74
Q

Mortality

A

the death rate within a population

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75
Q

Crude death rate

A

the number of deaths per year for every 1000 people in a population

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76
Q

Infant mortality rate

A

measures how many people less than one year old die per every thousand live births in a given year

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77
Q

Patterns in fertility and mortality

A

birth rates fall as economy develops; healthcare advances leads to a decline in mortality rates

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78
Q

Population projections

A

predict changes in populations by examining the current data

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79
Q

Population pyramid

A

graphs a population’s sex and age cohorts

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80
Q

Demographic transition

A

change in demographics over time ie. decrease in birth and death rates as a society becomes more industrialized over time

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81
Q

Migration

A

the relocation of people from one place to another

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82
Q

Push factors of migration

A

reasons to leave the location where an individual currently resides ie. natural disaster

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83
Q

Pull factors of migration

A

reasons to move to a specific location ie. job opportunities

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84
Q

Theories of demographic change

A

malthusian theory and demographic transition theory

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85
Q

Malthusian theory

A

starvation is the inevitable result of population growth because the population increases at a geometric rate while food supply can only increase arithmetically

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86
Q

Demographic transition theory

A

preindustrial: high birth, high death; onset of industrialization: high birth, low death; Industrial economy: declining birth, low death; postindustrial economy: low birth, steady death

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87
Q

Social movement

A

a group of people who share an ideology and work together toward a specified set of goals

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88
Q

Relative deprivation

A

the feeling of disadvantage that arises when individuals compare themselves to others of similar status and fell that they possess relatively fewer resources and privileges

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89
Q

Organization of social movements

A
  1. emergence, period of discontent 2. coalescence: leaders come forward and specific strategies are developed 3. bureaucratizaction: meets organization’s needs for coordinating procedures 4. after success or unsuccess, stage of decline
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90
Q

Stragegy

A

general plan describing the goals of the movement

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91
Q

Tactics

A

how the movement implements a strategy

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92
Q

Urbanization

A

the increase in the proportion of people living in specified urban areas

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93
Q

Industrialization and urban growth

A

as the development of industry generates rapid growth, trade with and travel to centralized locations increases and cities grow; demands of large scale manufacturing also encourage urban growth

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94
Q

Suburbanization

A

the process of large-scale movement from cities to suburbs

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95
Q

Suburbanization and urban decline

A

increase in suburbinization leads to a decline in the standard of living in urban areas because as families leave and property values fall in urban areas, less property tax can be collected and the subsequent decline in commerce leads to higher unemployment and crime

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96
Q

Urban renewal

A

attempts to improve urban conditions through the restoration of buildings and public infrastructure

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97
Q

Gentrification

A

a specific urban renewal pattern in which middle and upper class people move to areas of a city with cheap buildings that are in need of restoration; however this causes property values to increase and strains the neighborhood’s poor inhabitants

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98
Q

Globalization

A

the increased contact between individuals on an international scale; enacted through the exchange of ideas, products, services, and information

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99
Q

Factors contributing to globalization

A

communication technologies, and economic interdependence

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100
Q

Perspectives on globalization

A

hyper-globalist perspective, skeptical perspective, transformationalist perspective

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101
Q

Hyper-globalist perspective

A

argues that globalization entails a movement away from individual nations toward a single global society; some think beneficial others problematic

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102
Q

Skeptical perspective of globalization

A

emphasizes that national borders are still important because individual nations are not being equally integrated into the global economy

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103
Q

Transformationalist perspective

A

argues that globalization causes new patterns of interdependent interactions but the outcomes of such interactions cannot be predicted with any certainty

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104
Q

Social changes in globalization

A

terrorism, concentrates wealth into a few hands, civil unrest

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105
Q

Terrorism

A

the use of violence to coerce countries and governments in order to achieve political or ideological ends

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106
Q

Civil unrest

A

disorder caused by a group of people in public, due to a perceived injustice over how resources are distributed

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107
Q

Social inequality

A

the unequal distribution of opportunities or treatment of individuals within a society based on various demographic changes; can exist structurally or through discrimination

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108
Q

Spatial inequality

A

the unequal access to resources and variable quality of life due to the geographical distribution of a population and its resources

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109
Q

Global inequalities

A

disparities between regions and nations such as GDP, natural resources, access to healthcare, and types or amount of work available

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110
Q

Environmental justice

A

the equal treatment of all people with regard to prevention and relief from environmental and health hazards

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111
Q

Residential segregation

A

an instance of social inequality on the local scale where demographic groups are separated into different neighborhoods

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112
Q

Food deserts

A

areas where it is difficult to find affordable, healthy food options

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113
Q

Social class

A

a system of stratification that groups members of society according to similarities in social standing; tied to status, power, and SES

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114
Q

Socioeconomic status (SES)

A

defines the economic and social position of a person in terms of income (assets earned), wealth (assets already owned), education and occupation

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115
Q

Privilige

A

position with advantages of power and opportunity

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116
Q

Prestige

A

the relative value assigned to something within a particular society

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117
Q

Upward mobility

A

moving up the class system through education, marriage, career, or financial success

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118
Q

Downward mobility

A

moving lower within the class system from unemployment, divorce, lack of education, or health issues

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119
Q

Intragenerational mobility

A

class mobility of an individual

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120
Q

Intergenerational mobility

A

class mobility over generations

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121
Q

Meritocracy

A

a society in which advancement is based solely on the abilities and achievements of the individual

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122
Q

Cultural capital

A

the set of non-monetary social factors that contribute to social mobility such as dress, accent, education etc.

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123
Q

Social capital

A

an individual’s social networks and connections that may confer economic and/or personal benefits

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124
Q

Social reproduction

A

transmission of social inequality from one generation to the next

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125
Q

Poverty

A

an insufficiency of material goods, monetary wealth, and access to resources causing those people to face isolation or social exclusion

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126
Q

Absolute poverty

A

a lack of essential resources such as food, shelter, clothing, and hygeine

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127
Q

Relative poverty

A

describes social inequality in which people are relatively poor compared to other members of the society in which they live

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128
Q

Class consciousness

A

a group with shared needs and interests that have a collective awareness; coined by Marx

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129
Q

False consciousness

A

to failure to recognize poverty as the product of an oppressive class system; coined by Marx

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130
Q

Health disparity/inequity

A

differences in health and healthcare that occur between groups of people

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131
Q

Socioeconomic gradient in health

A

the notion that SES can influence health

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132
Q

Social epidemiology

A

considers how social factors affect the health of a population

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133
Q

Behavioral learning

A

an individual determines what behaviors are culturally appropriate and how behavior results in specific outcomes

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134
Q

Associative learning/conditioning

A

learning that involves associations between certain stimuli and specific responses; ie. classical conditioning and operant conditioning

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135
Q

Classical conditioning

A

a test subject develops a response to a previously neutral stimulus by associating the stimulus with another stimulus that already elicited that response

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136
Q

Unconditioned response

A

innate response, taking place without learning

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137
Q

Unconditioned stimulus

A

a stimulus that creates an innate response

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138
Q

Neutral stimulus

A

a stimulus eliciting no response

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139
Q

Conditioned stimulus

A

has been associated with a an unconditioned stimulus

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140
Q

Acquisition

A

the stage of learning over which a conditioned response to a new stimulus is established

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141
Q

Extinction

A

disappearance of the conditioned response

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142
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

the reappearance of the conditioned response after a period of extinction

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143
Q

Stimulus generalization

A

the tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus

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144
Q

Stimulus discrimination

A

the learned lack of response to a stimulus similar to the conditioned stimulus that cues no reward

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145
Q

Operant conditioning

A

an individual becomes more or less likely to carry out a certain behavior based on its consequences ie. skinner box

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146
Q

Reinforcement

A

a consequence that increases the likelihood of a behavior

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147
Q

Punishment

A

a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior

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148
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

adding something to increase a behavior

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149
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

Removing something to increase a behavior

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150
Q

Positive punishment

A

adding something to decrease a behavior

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151
Q

Negative punishment

A

removing something to decrease a behavior

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152
Q

Primary reinforcer or punisher

A

those that relate to a physiological need ie. food

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153
Q

Secondary/ conditioned reinforcers

A

require learning and social context to affect behavioral conditions ie. money, praise

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154
Q

Escape conditioning

A

learned behavior allows the subject to escape an unpleasant stimulus

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155
Q

Avoidance conditioning

A

learned behavior allows the subject to avoid the unpleasant stimulus altogether by employing a specific response

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156
Q

Reinforcement schedule

A

describes how often and under what conditions a behavior is reinforced

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157
Q

Partial/intermittent reinforcement

A

fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed-interval, variable interval

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158
Q

Shaping

A

shaping behavior toward a certain response by reinforcing successive approximations toward the desired behavior ie. teaching a monkey to turn a door knob

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159
Q

Innate behaviors

A

behaviors that are developmentally fixed

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160
Q

Observational learned

A

based on modeling which consists of witnessing another person’s actions, retaining information on that person’s behavior, and later re-enacting what was learned through that observation in one’s own behavior

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161
Q

Behavior

A

the sum coordinated responses of organisms to the internal and external stimuli that they experience

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162
Q

Nonverbal communication

A

consists of all communication between people that does not involve words such as body language, touch, appearance, and facial expressions

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163
Q

Animal signals

A

nonverbal communication such as vocalizations, visual stimuli, touch and smell

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164
Q

Social behavior

A

all the interactions taking place between members of the same species

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165
Q

Attraction

A

factors that draw members of a species together

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166
Q

Aggression

A

conflict and competition between individuals

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167
Q

Attachment

A

forming relationships between individuals

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168
Q

Social support

A

finding help through social connections

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169
Q

Foraging behavior

A

set of behaviors through which animals obtain food

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170
Q

Mating behavior

A

the behavior surrounding propagation of species through reproduction

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171
Q

Mate choice

A

determined by a number of factors, including attempts to judge the genetic qualities, overall health, and potential parenting skills of prospective mates

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172
Q

Altruism

A

consists of behaviors that are disadvantageous to the individual acting but confer benefits to other members of its social group

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173
Q

Inclusive fitness

A

overall fitness by considering not only the individual’s own progeny but also the offspring of its close relatives

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174
Q

Game theory

A

the use of mathematical models to represent complex decision making in which the actions of other group members must be taken into account

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175
Q

Group

A

a set of individuals who interact with each other and share some elements of identity

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176
Q

Dyad

A

two people

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177
Q

Triad

A

three people

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178
Q

Primary group

A

characterized by relatively permanent intimate relationships among a small number of people ie. families and close friends

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179
Q

Secondary group

A

characterized by impersonal relationships among larger groups of people; tend to be more goal-oriented and less permanent ie. sports teams, school project teams

180
Q

Organization

A

a collection of individuals joining together to coordinate their interaction toward a specific purpose

181
Q

Formal organizations

A

organizations with specific rules and guidelines

182
Q

Bureacuracy

A

one type of formal organization that has a particular focus on efficiency and effectiveness to accomplish the goals of the organization

183
Q

Characteristics of ideal bureaucracy

A

aimed at increasing efficiency 1. organized in a clear hierarchy 2. written rules and regulation 3. thorough record keeping 3. impersonal and impartial

184
Q

Perspectives on bureaucracy

A

iron law of oligarchy and McDonaldization

185
Q

Iron law of oligarchy

A

criticizes the hierarchical nature of bureaucracy, stating that people at the top of the hierarchy will inevitable come to value their power over the purpose of the organization

186
Q

McDonaldization

A

homogenization of chains leads to a loss originality and creativity since they are predictable, uniform, efficient, and automated

187
Q

Fad

A

novel social pattern that has a quick rise and fall in popularity

188
Q

Fashion

A

a particular social pattern that large groups follow for a long period of time

189
Q

Mass hysteria

A

moral panic; a collective behavior in which groups of people feel a real or imagined threat to social order and respond in a hysteric manner

190
Q

Role

A

the role that a person plays in a social interaction is defined by his or her expected behavior in a particular situation

191
Q

Role conflict

A

occurs when 2 or more roles that an individual plays have conflicting requirements

192
Q

Roles strain

A

the demands of a single role become overwhelming

193
Q

Role exit

A

an individual stops identifying with a particular role

194
Q

Status

A

social position

195
Q

Types of status

A

ascribed status and achieved status

196
Q

Ascribed status

A

one that is assigned to a person, either at birth or later in life ie. gender, race, SES

197
Q

Achieved status

A

one that person intentionally earns ie. pro athlete, doctor

198
Q

Self-presentation

A

how they are perceived

199
Q

Impression management

A

the process of consciously making behavioral choices in order to create a specific impression in the minds of others

200
Q

Dramaturgical approach of impression management

A

impression management takes place in all aspects of human interaction; a person’s behavior is an ongoing performance of self that changes according to the situation

201
Q

Front stage self

A

encompasses behavior that a person performs in front of society or subset of society when he is being watched and judged

202
Q

Back stage self

A

when players are together, but no audience is present where they perform a different self that may include behavior unacceptable for their front stage self

203
Q

Groupthink

A

the phenomenon where a group’s members tend to think alike and agree for the sake of group harmony

204
Q

Group polarization

A

occurs when the attitude of the group as a whole toward a particular issue becomes stronger than the attitudes of its individual members

205
Q

Peer pressure

A

social influence exerted by one’s peers to act in a way that is acceptable or similar to their own behaviors

206
Q

Social facilitation

A

the tendency to perform better when a person knows he is being watched; usually most pronounced for tasks at which the performer is highly skilled or practiced

207
Q

Diffusion of responsibility

A

people in a large, anonymous crowd are less likely to feel accountable for the outcome of a situation or to feel responsibility to take action

208
Q

Bystander effect

A

onlookers in a crowd fail to offer assistance to a person who is in trouble because they assume someone else will help

209
Q

Social loafing

A

occurs when members of a group decrease the pace o intensity of their own work with the intention of letting other group members work harder

210
Q

Deindividuation

A

occurs when people lose awareness of their individuality and instead immerse themselves in the mood or activities of a crowd which can cause individuals to no longer feel responsible for their own behavior

211
Q

Socialization

A

the process by which people learn customs and values of their culture

212
Q

Social norms

A

the rules that community members are expected to follow

213
Q

Agents of socialization

A

comprised of the groups and people who influence personal attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors such as family, friends, religion, school, media

214
Q

Social control

A

more direct form of socialization in which one group or individual imposes a set of rules to control the behavior of others; can be formal or informal

215
Q

Conformity

A

the tendency of individuals to change their attitudes, opinions, and behaviors to align with group norms

216
Q

Obedience

A

describes behavioral changes made in response to a command by an authority figure ie. Milgram experiment

217
Q

Perspectives on deviance

A

strain theory, differential association theory, and labeling theory

218
Q

Strain theory

A

deviance arises when there is a conflict between societal expectations and the socially condoned methods of achieving those expectations

219
Q

Differential association theory

A

deviance arises from social learning

220
Q

Labeling theory

A

particular behaviors are societally defined as deviant based on the group that carries out those behaviors

221
Q

Transmission

A

the passage of culture from one generation to another

222
Q

Diffusion

A

the spread of culture from one population to another

223
Q

Assimilation

A

the process by which an individual or group becomes part of a new culture

224
Q

Culture shock

A

the feeling of disorientation that occurs due to an encounter with an unfamiliar culture; 4 stages: honeymoon, negotiation, adjustment, and mastery

225
Q

Subculture

A

a culture that is shared by a smaller group of people who are also part of a larger culture but have specific cultural attributes that set them apart from the larger group

226
Q

Multiculturalism

A

the practice of valuing and respecting differences in culture

227
Q

Popular culture

A

designates the most widespread cultural patterns of a society

228
Q

Mass media

A

means of delivering standardized messages to a large audience ie. television

229
Q

Counterculture

A

groups whose members adapt cultural patterns in opposition to the larger culture and tend to acquire cultural messages from sources that are less mainstream

230
Q

Cultural lag

A

the time culture takes to adjust to technological innovations

231
Q

Ethnocentrism

A

the belief that one’s group is of central importance and includes the tendency to judge the practices of other groups by one’s own cultural standards

232
Q

Cultural relativism

A

the practice of trying to understand a culture on its own terms and to judge a culture by its own standards

233
Q

In-group

A

a group with which an individual shares identity and toward which she feels loyalty

234
Q

Out-group

A

a group with which she does not identify and toward which she may feel competition or hostility

235
Q

Bias

A

individuals favor in-group and devalues out groups

236
Q

Prejudice

A

strict generalizations about other groups or categories of people

237
Q

Processes that contribute to prejudice

A

power, prestige, and class

238
Q

Stereotype

A

a concept about a group or category of people that includes the belief that all members of that group share certain characteristics; can be positive, negative, or neutral

239
Q

Stereotype threat

A

the anxiety and resulting impaired performance that a person may experience when confronted with a negative stereotype about a group to which he belongs or when he feels his performance may confirm a negative stereotype about his group

240
Q

Self-fulfilling prophecies

A

the stress and lowered expectations accompanying negative stereotypes contribute to making stereotypical beliefs into reality; definition: when one’s belief-driven actions cause the belief to become true

241
Q

Discrimination

A

unfair treatment of others based on their membership in a specific social group

242
Q

Individual discrimination

A

when one person behaves negatively toward another because of that person’s membership in a specific social group or category

243
Q

Institutional discrimination

A

when social institutions employ policies that differentiate between people based on social groupings

244
Q

Anomie

A

individuals lose their moral guidance due to the pressures of pursuing societal expectations

245
Q

Personality

A

the collection of lasting characteristics that makes a person unique

246
Q

Trait theory of personality

A

personality consists of a set of traits

247
Q

Traits

A

characteristics that vary between people and are stable over the course of the lifetime, regardless of environmental factors; allow for variation in degree (continuous variable)

248
Q

Biological theory of personality

A

a person’s genome contributes to the formation of personality and that personality traits differ in the extent to which they are influenced by heredity versus environmental factors

249
Q

Monozygotic twins

A

have virtually identical genomes

250
Q

Dizygotic twins

A

no more related to each other than any other biological sibling

251
Q

Evolutionary psychology

A

the genes associated with personality traits that improve and individual’s chances for successful reproduction tend to be conserved

252
Q

Psychoanalytic theory

A

id, super ego, and ego; early experiences have lasting effects on individuals throughout life

253
Q

Id

A

most primitive part of personality which seeks instant gratification with no consideration for morality or social norms

254
Q

Superego

A

develops later in life through internalization of society’s rules for moral behavior, learned primarily through interactions with caregivers

255
Q

Ego

A

part of the personality that is forced to direct behavior in a way that balances the demands of the id and the superego

256
Q

Behaviorist theory

A

the personality is constructed by a series of learning experiences that occur through interactions between the individual and their environment; environment shapes personality; learned reactions to situations

257
Q

Social cognitive theory

A

like the behaviorist theory, it focuses on learning experiences and observable behaviors but also considers the contributions of an individual’s mental life and personal choices; includes observational learning; reciprocal causation

258
Q

Reciprocal causation

A

behavior, personal factors and the environment continually interact with each other

259
Q

Humanistic theory

A

people continually seek experiences that make them better, more fulfilled individuals; self-actualization; conscious decisions make people who they are

260
Q

Self-actualization

A

the development and realization of one’s full potential in life;

261
Q

Situational approach to explaining behavior

A

the concept of enduring personality traits is fatally flawed because of the variations in behavior that occur across different situations

262
Q

Identity

A

a person’s view of who they are in terms of both internal factors, including personality traits, and social or external factors like group membership

263
Q

Self-concept

A

the knowledge of oneself as a person both separate from other people and constant throughout changing situations; the view of one person’s own personality

264
Q

Social identity

A

the perception of oneself as a member of certain social groups

265
Q

Socialization

A

the process by which developing individuals learn the values, norms, and appropriate behaviors of their society, continuing throughout the lifespan

266
Q

Role-taking

A

adopting the role of another person, either by imitating behaviors associated with specific social roles or by taking the other person’s point of view in a social interaction; allow children to develop a sense of their own identity (looking-glass self)

267
Q

Reference group

A

a group that provides an individual with a model for appropriate actions, values and worldviews ; person must aspire to be part of that group

268
Q

In-group

A

social group with which one identifies with

269
Q

Out-group

A

one with which the individual does not identify with

270
Q

Self-esteem

A

a person’s overall value judgement of him or herself

271
Q

Self-efficacy

A

the feeling of being able to carry out an action successfully

272
Q

Locus of control

A

a person’s belief about the extent to which internal or external factors play a role in shaping his or her life; internal locus = he/she has complete control over behavior and events

273
Q

Freud’s theory of developmental stages

A

each stage presents a challenge to be navigated; if a child gets too much or too little satisfaction of the urge associated with a particular stage, they may fail to move on to the next stage

274
Q

Freud developmental stages

A

Oral - nursing; Anal - toilet training; Phallic - gender and sexual identification; Latent - social development; Genital - sexual maturation

275
Q

Erik Erikson Developmental Stages

A

reinvisioned Freud’s psychosexual stages as pyschosocials ones where each stage has a crisis that must be resolved; more stages after adolescence unlike Freud’s theory

276
Q

Vygotsky’s Theory

A

learning takes place through interactions with others that promote the acquisition of culturally valued behaviors and beliefs; no series of sequential steps; current development level, potential development level, and zone of proximal development; development is fostered when the demands of the activity fall within the child’s zone of proximal development

277
Q

Current development level

A

consists of those tasks that a child can perform without help from others

278
Q

Potential development level

A

the most advanced task that a child can do with guidance from more knowledgeable people

279
Q

Zone of proximal development

A

all of the skills that can be accomplished with help

280
Q

Kohlberg’s theory of moral development

A

developing children progress through a predictable sequence of stages of moral reasonin: preconventioanl lvl, conventional lvl, and postcoventional lvl

281
Q

Preconventional level

A

describes moral judgements that are based solely on consideration of the anticipated consequences of behavior; childhood

282
Q

Conventional level

A

takes into account social judgments’ adolescence and continuing through adulthood

283
Q

Postconventional level

A

rises to the level of universal principles and fully-developed ideas about right and wrong

284
Q

Attribution theory

A

a line of research into the causes that people use to explain the observed behavior of others

285
Q

Dispositional attribution

A

assigning the cause to an inherent quality or desire

286
Q

Situational attribution

A

deciding environmental forces were in control

287
Q

Fundamental attribution error

A

the tendency to automatically favor dispositional attributions when judging other people

288
Q

Self-serving bias

A

tendency to attribute one’s success to internal factors while attributing one’s failures to external factors

289
Q

Psychological disorders

A

sets of psychological abormailities that are maladaptive to the individual

290
Q

Somatoform disorders

A

characterized by bodily symptoms such as pain or fatigue along with associated psychological symptoms that cause significant problems for the individual;

291
Q

Anxiety disorders

A

defined by the experience of unwarranted fear and anxiety, physiological tension and behaviors associated with the emotional and physical experience of anxiety; commonly connected to worries about future and hypothetical circumstances rather than actual events in the present; manifest physically as excessive SNS activation

292
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

excessive, persistent anxiety is triggered by a wide variety of stimuli

293
Q

Panic disorder

A

involves the experience of frequent panic attacks, short-lived instances of overwhelming SNS activation and fear

294
Q

Phobias

A

excessive fear of a specific object or situation, as well as active attempts to avoid that stimulus

295
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

characterized by obsessions (recurrent, intrusive thoughts) and compulsions (ritualistic or repetitive behaviors that serve the purpose of reducing anxiety associated with these obsessions)

296
Q

Body dysmorphic disorder

A

preoccupation with a perceived physical flaw even though they look relatively normal

297
Q

Hoarding disorder

A

persistent difficulty disposing of belongings regardless of their value

298
Q

Trichotillomania

A

preoccupations with hair pulling

299
Q

Excoriation disorder

A

preoccupation with skin picking

300
Q

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

caused by exposure to any life-threatening or traumatic event; associated with re-experiencing of the event through dreams, flashbacks and hallucinations; difficulty sleeping, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response and irritability (symptoms of hyper arousal)

301
Q

Acute stress disorder

A

similar to PTSD but symptoms occur within a month of exposure to a trauma, include extreme anxiety and dissociative symptoms

302
Q

Adjustment disorder

A

the experience of extreme distress associated with a major life event or change such as loss of a loved one

303
Q

Mood disorders

A

category of psychological disorders that deal with disruptions in emotion that influence personal functioning

304
Q

Depressive disorders

A

extreme sadness and despair

305
Q

Depression

A

defined by pervasive feelings of sadness and hopelessness and/or the loss of interest in activities that an individual usually enjoys which lead to lowered functioning in various spheres of everyday life

306
Q

Major depressive disorder

A

associated with more severe symptoms for a shorter period of time and is considered an episodic disorder

307
Q

Persistent depressive disorder

A

associated with less severe symptoms but persist for longer periods of time, minimally two years

308
Q

Monoamine hypothesis (depression)

A

a deficiency in the availability or potency of monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine) in the synapses contributes to depression

309
Q

Bipolar disorders

A

characterized by episodes of mania and usually involves episodes of depression as well; may include uncontrollable impulses and reckless decisions; often involves a distortion of self-concept where the self is viewed in an exaggeratedly positive light (self esteem very high)

310
Q

Psychotic disorders

A

characterized by a loss of connection with reality such as delusions or hallucinations

311
Q

Bipolar I disorder

A

associated with mania that occurs in episodes lasting at least one week; when mania not present the person may have a normal mood or may experience depression

312
Q

Bipolar II disorder

A

associated with hypomania (does not cause impairment in functioning); may be mixed with periods of depression

313
Q

Schizophrenia

A

can have a wide variety of clinical presentations but is fundamentally characterized by psychosis, an impaired connection with reality; patient experiences at least one of the following: hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech ; also may have negative symptoms such as lack of emotion, motivation and enjoyment of activities

314
Q

Dissociative disorders

A

defined by the experience of dissociation: a split between different aspects of physiological functioning; experienced as a disruption in identity, memory or consciousness

315
Q

Dissociative amnesia

A

occurs when a person forgets about past events; often associated with a traumatic experience

316
Q

Depersonalization/derealization disorder

A

characterized by feelings that either the self or the surroundings are unreal and disconnected from the individual; also often have had some sort of traumatic experience

317
Q

Dissociative identity disorder

A

individual experiences or displays evidence of multiple distinct personalities that can differ significantly in terms of traits and behaviors. Each different personality may also lack awareness of the other personalities

318
Q

Personality disorders

A

involve the development of personality traits that cause psychological and social dysfunction

319
Q

Prevalence of different psychological disorders

A

Anxiety: 20%; mood: 10%; personality: 10%, schizophrenia: 1%

320
Q

Cognition

A

refers to a wide range of internal mental activities, such as analyzing information, generating ideas, and problem solving; higher-level processes like language and logical reasoning

321
Q

Perception

A

refers to the organization and identification of sensory inputs

322
Q

Information-processing models

A

focus on input-output functions and distinguish between serial and parallel processing of information

323
Q

Frontal lobe

A

motor control, decision making, long term memory storage

324
Q

Parietal lobe

A

somatosensory cortex

325
Q

Occipital lobe

A

visual information

326
Q

Temporal lobe

A

auditory and olfactory information; also emotion, language and memory formation

327
Q

Jean Piaget

A

4 stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

328
Q

Piaget sensorimotor

A

birth to 2 years; children learn to separate themselves from objects, object permanence

329
Q

Piaget preoperational

A

2 to 7 years; children learn to use language while they continue to think very literally; maintain an egocentric world-view and have difficulty taking the perspective of others

330
Q

Piaget operational

A

7 to 11 years: develop inductive reasoning and come to understand conservation (quantity remains the same despite changes in its shape and container)

331
Q

Formal operational

A

11+ think logically in the abstract, deducting reasoning `

332
Q

Learning theory of language

A

a behaviorist theory; language is a form of behavior that is learned through operant conditioning/ environmental reinforcement rather than focusing on innate ability

333
Q

Nativist theory of language

A

language development is innately human and that all people have a neural cognitive system, the language acquisition device which allows the learning of syntax and grammar

334
Q

Interactionist theory

A

the human brain develops so that it can be receptive to new langauge input and development and children are motivated to practice and expand their language base in order to communicate and socialize

335
Q

Broca’s area

A

located in the frontal lobe and primarily involved in speech production

336
Q

Broca’s aphasia or expressive aphasia

A

difficulty enunciating and speaking but ability to understand language is unaffected

337
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

found in temporal lobe and contributes primarily to the understanding of language

338
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia or receptive aphasia

A

not able to follow commands, still able to produce words but have no comprehensible meaning

339
Q

Intelligence

A

the ability to undretand and reason with complex ideas, adapt effectively to the environment, and learn from experience

340
Q

IQ

A

correlates strongly with school-related skills but lower correlations with other skills such as art and design

341
Q

General learning disability

A

below average IQ

342
Q

General intelligence factor

A

a set level of intelligence that applies to all of their intellectual pursuits and determines performance on various types of intelligence tests

343
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

the ability to think logically without the need for previously learned knowledge; peaks in young adulthood and then declines with age

344
Q

Crystalized intelligence

A

able to think logically using specific, previously learned knowledge

345
Q

Emotional intelligence

A

perceiving emotions ,using and reasoning with emotions, understanding emotions, and managing emotions

346
Q

Algorithm

A

step by step procedure that leads to a definite solution

347
Q

Trial and error

A

repeated, unsystematic attempts to solve a problem until the desired outcome is achieved

348
Q

Heuristics

A

mental shortcuts or rules of thumb that often lead to a solution

349
Q

Biases

A

various tendencies to think in particular ways

350
Q

Functional fixedness

A

a tendency to view objects as only having a single function

351
Q

Confirmation bias

A

people tend to value new information that supports a belief they already hold while they often disregard information that goes against their preconceived notions

352
Q

Belief perserverance

A

people hold onto their initial beliefs even when rational argument would suggest they are incorrect

353
Q

Causation bias

A

the tendency to assume a cause and effect relationship

354
Q

Aspects of Emotion

A

cognitive, physiological and behavioral; limbic system and autonomic system

355
Q

Amygdala

A

chiefly responsible for the emotional memories when similar emotional circumstances occur

356
Q

Hypothalamus

A

regulates sympathetic and parasympathetic functions

357
Q

James-Lange theory

A

an external stimulus elicits a physiological response and that emotional experience depends on the recognition and interpretation of this physical reaction

358
Q

Cannon-Bard theory

A

emotional feelings and physiological reactions to stimuli are experience simultaneously

359
Q

Schachter-Singer

A

physiological arousal is first component of emotional response but it includes higher level thinking

360
Q

Universal emotions

A

fear, anger, happiness, surprise, joy, disgust, and sadness

361
Q

Motivation

A

a psychological factor that provides a directional force or reason for behavior

362
Q

Instinct

A

a biological, innate tendency to perform a certain behavior that leads to the fulfillment of a need

363
Q

Drives

A

urges to perform certain behaviors in order to resolve physiological arousal when the arousal is casued by the biological needs of the organism

364
Q

Drive reduction theory

A

people are motivated to take action in order to lessen the state of arousal caused by a physiological need

365
Q

Incentive theory

A

people are motivated by external rewards

366
Q

Cognitive theories of emotion

A

people behave in a way that they predict will yield the most favorable outcome

367
Q

Need-based theories

A

people are motivated bt the desire to fulfill unmet needs ie. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

368
Q

Components of attitude

A

affective, behavioral, cognitive

369
Q

Affective component of attitude

A

a person’s feelings or emotions about an object ,person or event

370
Q

Behavioral component of attitude

A

the influence that attitudes have on behavior

371
Q

Cognitive component of attitude

A

beliefs or knowledge about a specific object of interest

372
Q

Foot-in-the-door phenomenon

A

people are much more likely to agree to a large request if they first agree to a smaller one

373
Q

Role

A

set of norms that dictate expected behavior in a specific situation

374
Q

Cognitive dissonance

A

the conflict or inconsistency between internal attitudes and external behaviors; people have an inherent desire to avoid the internal discomfort associated with a mismatch between attitudes and behaviors

375
Q

Peripheral route processing

A

occurs when an individual does not think deeply to evaluate the argument due to being unable or unwilling; strong and weak arguments can affect attitude

376
Q

Central route processing

A

an individual thinks deeply and elaborates on the argument presented; appeals to logical and reason and is influenced mostly by the argument itself; only strong argument affect attitude

377
Q

Stress

A

the strain that is experienced when an organism’s equilibrium is disrupted and it must adapt

378
Q

Cognitive appraisals

A

personal interpretations of the situations that triggered stress

379
Q

Primary appraisal

A

evaluating a situation for the presence of any potential threat; if a threat is present, a secondary appraisal is generated

380
Q

Secondary appraisal

A

assessing personal ability to cope with the threat

381
Q

Sensation

A

the conversion of physical stimuli into electrical signals that are transferred through the nervous system by neurons

382
Q

Perceptions

A

use of sensory information and pre-existing knowledge to create a functional representation of the world

383
Q

Absolute threshold

A

the lowest intensity of a stimulus that can be sensed

384
Q

Difference threshold/just noticeable threshold

A

the smallest difference that is sufficient for a change in a stimulus to be noticed

385
Q

Weber’s Law

A

the change required to meet the difference threshold is a certain fraction (weber fraction) of the oroginally presented stimulus ; meaning that the actual amount of change required to reach the difference threshold differs according to the original stimulus

386
Q

Signal detection theory

A

how an organism differentiates important stimuli (signals) from those that are not of interest (noise) in an environment where the distinction is ambiguous ; includes decision making component

387
Q

Attention

A

selects sensory information for pereceptual processing

388
Q

Selective attention

A

the focus of attention on one particular stimulus or task at the exclusion of other stimuli

389
Q

Divided attention

A

splits perceptual resources between multiple stimuli or behaviors; causes each stimuli to receive less attention

390
Q

Bottom-up processing

A

involves the construction of perceptions from individual pieces of information provided by sensory processing

391
Q

Top-down processing

A

brings the influence of prior knowledge into play to make perception more efficient

392
Q

Gestalt principles

A

describe the top-down processing that organizes sensory information into distinct forms (objects) according to distinct regions of the sensed surroundings; when one object is recognized as a form or figure, the rest of the stimulus is perceived as background or ground

393
Q

Principle of nearness

A

clusters of objects will each be perceived as a distinct group

394
Q

Principle of similarity

A

objects with a shared feature will be perceived as a single group

395
Q

Principle of common region

A

objects sharing a common background are perceived as a group even if they would be separated by the principles of nearness and/or similarity

396
Q

Principle of continuity

A

the brain will perceive an ambiguous stimulus according to the simplest possible continuous form

397
Q

Principle of closure

A

we perceive whole shapes even when they are not actually present in the stimulus

398
Q

Size constancty

A

allows a single object to be perceived as remaining constant in size even when it moves closer to or further from the eyes

399
Q

Shape constancy

A

when the brain perceives an object as maintaining its shape even when it moves relative to the eyes which changes the shape of the light reflected onto the retina

400
Q

Parallel processing

A

use of multiple pathways to convey information about the same stimulus

401
Q

Feature detection

A

type of serial processing where increasingly complex aspects of the stimulus are processed in sequence

402
Q

Consciousness

A

awareness of oneself, one’s surroundings, one’s thoughts and one’s goals

403
Q

Alertness

A

default state of consciousness; the brain is able to attend to tasks and carry out goal-directed processes

404
Q

EEG

A

a recording at the scalp of general patterns in electrical signals (called brainwaves)

405
Q

Circadian rhythm

A

regulates the body’s functions on a predictable schedule, lasts roughly 24 hours

406
Q

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

A

part of hypothalamus; maintains the drive for wakefulness by inhibiting the release of the hormone melatonin by the pineal gland

407
Q

Stage 1 of sleep

A

light sleep, alpha waves, state of wakefulness but one that is more relaxed than the fully alert state associated with beta waves

408
Q

Stage 2 of sleep

A

bursts of brain wave activity that indicated a full transition into sleep

409
Q

Stage 3 of sleep

A

delta waves which are much longer than alpha waves which reflects the transition into deep sleep

410
Q

Stage 4 of sleep

A

deepest sleep, almost entirely delta waves

411
Q

REM sleep

A

separate sleep stage of high brain activity; makes up a significant portion of sleep in later sleep cycles; period where the brain relives the massive amount of stimuli experienced during the day consolidating important information into memory and discarding less important information; accompanied by dreaming

412
Q

NREM sleep

A

brain activity is much lower than REM sleep

413
Q

Insomnia

A

difficulty in falling asleep and quality of sleep is low

414
Q

Sleep terror disorder

A

characterized by severe nighmare-like imagery

415
Q

Narcolepsy

A

overwhelming daytime drowsiness by REM sleep that occurs without warning

416
Q

Hypnosis

A

state of relaxation, focused attention and increased willingness to relinquish control over one’s own actions; induced through cooperation with a hypnotist or later as self-hypnosis; treatment for anxiety and pain associated with medical conditions

417
Q

Meditation

A

intentional, self-produced state of consciousness induced by relaxing and systematically shifting attention away from day-to-day concerns; coping mechanism for stress

418
Q

Stimulants

A

raise the level of activity in the central nervous system ; act by increasing the amount of monamine neurotransmitters such as epinephrine and dopamine

419
Q

Depressants

A

cause a decrease of activity in the central nervous system; associated with feelings of relaxation and decreased alertness

420
Q

Hallucinogens

A

defining feature is an alteration in sensory and perceptual experience

421
Q

Sensory memory

A

first phase in memory formation; temporary storage for incoming sensory stimuli; unlimited storage

422
Q

Short-term memory

A

holds items in conscious awareness; working memory is a component; limited storage 7+/- 2

423
Q

Long term memory

A

maintained outside of conscious awareness and can be called back into working memory when needed; unlimited storage

424
Q

Neural plasticity

A

the ability of the brain’s network of neurons and their synapses to change

425
Q

Long-term potentiation (LTP)

A

describes the increase in likelihood that presynaptic input will trigger an action potential in the postsynaypic neuron; occurs when presynaptic and postsynatpic neurons fire simultaneously which strengthens the synapse between them

426
Q

Retrieval

A

information stored in long-term memory can return to working memory for the purpose of problem-solving and guidance of behavior

427
Q

Semantic networks

A

organize information in networks of meaningfully related memories

428
Q

Spreading activation

A

where one item triggers an activation of related memories

429
Q

Recall

A

retrieval of a memory from scratch

430
Q

Recognition

A

the correct identification of information that is presented

431
Q

Retrieval cues

A

environmental stimuli or pieces of information that are associated in some way with the memory being sought

432
Q

Context dependent retrieval cues

A

environmental stimuli present at time that the memory sought was originally formed

433
Q

State dependent retrieval cues

A

internal stimuli such as feelings present at time that the memory sought was originally formed

434
Q

Priming

A

occurs outside of conscious awareness and causes activation of semantic networks; it makes an individual more likely to recall a memory that is similar to the retrieval cue

435
Q

Relearning

A

allows for the detection of long-term memories that have become inaccessible to conscious recognition or recall and as a result are experienced as lost

436
Q

Memory decay

A

the weakening of connections that make up neural networks that holds a memory

437
Q

Primacy effect

A

recall is reliably strongest for items at the beginning of a list

438
Q

Recency effect

A

recall is reliably strongest for items ad the end of a list

439
Q

Interference

A

similar information prevents the retrieval of a memory

440
Q

Retroactive interference

A

newly learned material that prevents successful retrieval of related old memories

441
Q

Proactive interference

A

previously held knowledge prevents successful retrieval of more newly learned information

442
Q

Memory construction

A

memories can be updated with new information and experiences; occurs during retrieval

443
Q

Source monitoring

A

occurs when a person attributes a memory to a particular source, correctly or not; may lead to the construction of memories of events that never actually occurred

444
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

associated with aging but not considered part of normal aging; neurodegeneration; begin with the loss of the ability to form memories of recent events; caused by amyloid plaques and neurofibrilalry tangles

445
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

similar presentation as Alzheimer’s but caused by a nutritional deficiency typically of Vitamin B1 which is often due to severe alcoholism

446
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

neurdegenerative disease within the substantia nigra located within the midbrain that leads to the impairment of motor abilities

MCAT (5 decks)

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