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Biology Systems Flashcards

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1
Q

Classification of Organisms

A

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species (dear king philip cried out for good soup)

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2
Q

Domains

A

Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

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3
Q

Kingdoms of Eukarya Domain

A

Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia

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4
Q

Class and phylum of mammals

A

Class- mammalia; phylum- chordata

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5
Q

Species

A

loosely limited to all organisms that can reproduce to create fertile offspring

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6
Q

Causes for differentspecies being unable to mate

A

geographic isolation, temporal isolation (mating in different seasons), genetic incompatibility

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7
Q

Genotype

A

describes the chromosomes of an organism

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8
Q

Phenotype

A

describes the products of the genes that can be observed

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9
Q

Allele

A

copy of a gene

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10
Q

Polymorphism

A

a gene that has multiple alleles corresponding to distinct forms of a phenotype whose existence in a population makes evolution possible

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11
Q

Gene pool

A

the total of all alleles in a population

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12
Q

Evolution

A

the change in a population’s gene pool

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13
Q

Speciation

A

the formation of a new species which is when members from a single species have evolved into different groups that can no longer produce fertile offspring

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14
Q

Mechanisms that contribute to speciation

A

inbreeding, bottleneck situation, specialization, and adaptation

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15
Q

Inbreeding

A

the mating of relatives which increases the number of homozygous individuals in a population without changing the allele frequency

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16
Q

Outbreeding

A

mating of nonrelatives which maintains genetic flow between populations and so would not be expected to contribute to speciation

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17
Q

Bottleneck

A

sharp reduction in the population size where the allelic frequencies of the survivors are not representative of the original population

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18
Q

Specialization

A

the process by which the members of a species tailor their behaviors to exploit their environment; when distinct groups within a population specialize such that they differ substantially ie. in habits or locations, speciation may result

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19
Q

Adaptation

A

genetic or behavioral changes that are advantageous in a given environment

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20
Q

Assumptions of Hardy-Weingberg Equilibrum

A
  1. mutational equilibrium 2. large population 3. random mating 4. immigration or emigration must not change the gene pool 5. no natural selection
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21
Q

Measurement of evolutionary time

A

by comparing the genomes of species that share a common ancestor can be used to determine how long ago they diverged due the gradual changes in the genome

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22
Q

Genetic drift

A

changes in the gene pool in a small population owing to the chance of disappearance of alleles for individuals who fail to reproduce or die

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23
Q

Sexual selection

A

selection of certain phenotypes for mating

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24
Q

Fitness concept

A

the fittest organism is the one that can best survive to reproduce offspring who will in turn reproduce offspring and son generation after generation

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25
Q

Measure of gene fitness

A

increase in percent representation in the gene pool of the next generation

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26
Q

Natural selection

A

genes that are advantageous in a given environment are preferentially passed down from generation to generation

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27
Q

Differential reproduction

A

those organisms best adapted to an environment will be most likely to survive to reproductive age and have their own offspring

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28
Q

Viruses

A

tiny infectious agents from 1 to 100s of genes in the form of DNA or RNA (not both) that have the ability to transfer genetic material and are comparable in size to large proteins

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29
Q

Capsid

A

protein coat of a virus

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30
Q

Viral particle/virion

A

a mature virus outside the host cell

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31
Q

Structure of a virus

A

capsid (containing nucleic acid), lipid-rich protein envelope (for some viruses), and tail, base plate, and tail fibers for most bacteriophages

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32
Q

Host cell

A

the cell that is being infected by a virus

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33
Q

Receptor that virus binds to

A

usually a specific glycoprotein on the host cell membrane

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34
Q

Bacteriophage

A

a virus that infects bacteria which typically injects nucleic acids into the host cell through its tail after viral enzymes have digested a hole in the cell wall

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35
Q

Bacteriophage Injection Mechanism

A

Landing, Attachment, Tail contraction and penetration, injection

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36
Q

Eukaryotic Virus Infection Mechanism

A

being engulfed by an endoctytotic process

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37
Q

Lytic infection

A

the virus comandeers the cell’s synthetic machinery to translate its RNA into proteins which self-assemble to form a new virus; the cell may fill with new viruses until it lyses

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38
Q

Latent period

A

the period from infection to lysis

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39
Q

Virulent virus

A

a virus following a lytic cycle and which is capable of causing disease

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40
Q

Lysogenic infection

A

the viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome where the host cell replicates its DNA in addition to the viral DNA; may show no symptoms of infection

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41
Q

Temperate virus

A

a virus in the lysogenic cycle

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42
Q

Provirus (or prophage in bacteria)

A

when the viral DNA remains incorporated in the host DNA (dormant/latent)

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43
Q

Activation of dormant virus

A

potentially when the host cell is under stress in which the virus then takes on a lytic phenotype

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44
Q

Synthetic machinery

A

parts of cell used to produce protein

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45
Q

Viral envelope

A

formed as viruses undergo exoctyosis from the cell and to a certain extent protects the virus from detection by the immune system

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46
Q

Enveloped virus

A

protects virus from detection by the host cell’s immune system and allows it to bind to a new host cell and start the process all over again

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47
Q

Nonenveloped virus

A

typically lyse a cell and cause cell death on their release

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48
Q

Viral RNA

A

may have plus-strand RNA which only requires translation to produce proteins or it may have a minus-strand RNA which involves transcription/replication of RNA and then translation of that RNA to produce protein

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49
Q

Retrovirus

A

able to transcribe their RNA into double stranded DNA

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50
Q

Reverse transcriptase

A

enzyme that transcribes RNA into DNA

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51
Q

HIV

A

human immunodeficiency virus is a retrovirus that attacks cells involved in the immune response

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52
Q

Subviral particles

A

infectious agents related to viruses which include viroids and prions

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53
Q

Viroids

A

small rings of naked RNA without capsids which only infect plants

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54
Q

Prions

A

naked proteins which cause infections in animals and are capable of reproducing themselves without DNA or RNA

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55
Q

Prokaryotes

A

do not have membrane bound organelles including a nucleus and are split into two domains: bacteria and archae

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56
Q

Archae

A

prokaryote with similarities to both bacteria and eukaryotes which are typically found in extreme environments such as salty lakes and boiling hot springs

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57
Q

Shapes of Bacteria

A

cocci (spherical), bacilli (rod-shaped), and spirilla (spiral-shaped)

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58
Q

Symbiotic

A

mutually beneficial relationship ie. bacteria in the intestinal tract of humans

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59
Q

Parasitic

A

the relationship is beneficial to one organism but hurts the other

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60
Q

Anaerobic

A

not dependent on oxygen for growth and survival

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61
Q

Aerobic

A

requires oxygen for growth and survival

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62
Q

Protoplast

A

the bacterial plasma membrane along with everything it contains

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63
Q

Bacterial envelope

A

surrounds the protoplast

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64
Q

Cell wall

A

component of the bacterial envelope adjacent to the plasma membrane

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65
Q

Peptidoglycan

A

makes up the cell wall of bacteria and consist of a series of disaccharide polymer chains with amino acids and these chains are crosslinked by an interbridge of more amino acids

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66
Q

Gram positive bacteria

A

the cell wall is located just outside the cell membrane and have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall; stain purple

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67
Q

Gram negative bacteria

A

contain a thin peptidoglycan cell wall which is located in between two plasma membranes, the outer membrane possesses lipopolysaccharides which protrude outward and form a protectibe barrier from antibodies and antibiotics; stain pink

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68
Q

Flagella

A

long, hollow, rigid, helical structures that rotate counterclockwise to propel the bacterium in a single direction

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69
Q

Flagellin

A

globular protein which flagella are made from in bacteria

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70
Q

Flagellar propulsion

A

allows bacteria to move toward favorable products such as food sources

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71
Q

Chemotaxis

A

the directed movement of a motile cell or organism toward substances that will promote its survival and growth

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72
Q

Binary fission

A

a type of asexual reproduction (by bacteria) which results in 2 genetically identical daughter cells

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73
Q

Genetic recombination

A

examples are sexual reproduction, conjugation, transformation, and transduction

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74
Q

Origin of replication

A

point where DNA replication begins

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75
Q

Growth of bacterial population

A

exponential growth, meaning that each bacteria produces 2 offspring and so on

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76
Q

Conjugation

A

the transfer of a plasmid from one bacterium to another

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77
Q

Plasmid

A

small circles of extragenomic DNA which are not essential to the survival of bacteria that carry them

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78
Q

Extragenomic DNA

A

DNA that exist and replicate independently from the chromosome

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79
Q

Episome

A

a plasmid that can integrate into the chromosome

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80
Q

F plasmid

A

the fertility factor or F factor because it codes for the sex pilus (a conjugative plasmid)

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81
Q

R plasmid

A

donates resistance to certain antibiotics (also a conjugative plasmid)

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82
Q

Transformation

A

the process by which bacteria incorporate DNA from the external environment into their genomes

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83
Q

Transduction

A

the transfer of genetic material by a virus when a bacteriophage mistakenly encapsulates a DNA fragment of the host cell and injects this bacteria DNA into another cell

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84
Q

Vector

A

a virus that mediates transduction

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85
Q

Transposons

A

provides a way for nucleotides to move from one position to another along the genome

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86
Q

Transposase

A

the enzyme that catalyzes the transposon’s removal from and incorporation into the chromosome

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87
Q

sex pilus

A

a hollow protein tube that connects two bacteria to allow the passage of the plasmid from one to the other (conjugation)

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88
Q

Photosynthetic autotroph

A

organisms that obtain energy from sunlight

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89
Q

Nucleus

A

contains all of the DNA in a eukaryotic cell, other than a small amount in the mitochondria

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90
Q

Nuclear envelope

A

double phospholipid bilayer wrapped around the nucleus

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91
Q

Nuclear pores

A

large holes in the nuclear envelope in which RNA can exit but DNA cannot

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92
Q

Nucleolus

A

an area within the nucleus where rRNA is transcribed and the subunits of the ribosomes are assembled

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93
Q

Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

organelle that is a thick maze of membranous walls in the eukaryotic cell separating the cytosol from the ER lumen; proteins that will ultimately be exported from the cell or sequestered in a vesicle are translated on the ER

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94
Q

Cisternal space

A

ER lumen

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95
Q

rough ER

A

ER near the nucleus which has many ribosomes attached to its cytosolic side, giving it a granular appearance; synthesizes all proteins that do not belong in the cytosol; proteins synthesized in rough ER are pushed into ER lumen and sent to Golgi; also synthesizes peptide hormones

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96
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

a series of flattenened, membrane bound sacs whose major functions are packaging and secreting proteins within vesicles to be expelled from the cell, to mature into lysosomes, or transported within the cell ; may alter proteins by glycosylation or by removing amino acids;

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97
Q

Lysosomes

A

type of vesicle that contain hydrolytic enzymes particularly acid hydrolase that digest substances taken in the cell by endocytosis; come from Golgi apparatus

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98
Q

Apoptosis

A

programmed cell death where lysosomes are seen in high concentration as they rupture their contents to kill the cell

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99
Q

Smooth ER

A

plays a role in lipid metabolism and storage, as well as detoxification

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100
Q

Adipocytes

A

cells containing predominantly fat droplets which contribute to energy storage and body temperature regulation

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101
Q

Peroxisome

A

vesicles in the cytosol that are involved in both lipid and protein storage and are involved in the production and breakdown of hydrogen peroxide

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102
Q

Hydrogen peroxide

A

a byproduct that has potential to harm the cell, broken down by peroxisomes

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103
Q

Mitochondria

A

site of ATP production

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104
Q

Endosymbiotic theory

A

mitochondria may have evolved from a symbiotic relationship between ancient prokaryotes and eukaryotes and contain ciruclar DNA that replicates independently from nuclear DNA and contain no histones or nucleosomes; have their own ribosomes

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105
Q

Inner mitochondrial membrane

A

invaginates to form cristae and holds the electron transport chain of aerobic respiration

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106
Q

Intermembrane space

A

space between inner and outermembrane of mitochondria

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107
Q

Cytoskeleton

A

network of filaments that contributes to a cell’s structure and motility; consists of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments

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108
Q

Microtubules

A

provide a platform for transport within cells and also support the shape of the cell; made up of globular protein tubulin

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109
Q

Microtubule organizing center (MTOC)

A
  • end of microtubule attaches to MTOC and the the microtubule grows away from MTOC at is + end
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110
Q

Centrosome

A

major MTOC in animal cells, composed of a pair of centrioles

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111
Q

Centrioles

A

function in the production of flagella and cilia but are not necessary for microtubule production

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112
Q

cilia

A

specialized structure made from microtubules (along with flagella); they function to move fluid, causing the cell itself or nearby substances to move

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113
Q

9+2 arrangement

A

9 pairs of microtubules that forma circle around 2 lone microtubules where each outer pair is connected to its neighbot by dyneinthat are the major portion of each flagellum and cilium

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114
Q

Dynein

A

protein that connects each outer pair of microtubule to its neighbor in the 9+2 arrangment causing microtubule pairs to slide along their neighbors creating a whip action in cilia that causes fluid to move laterally or wiggle action in flagella which causes fluid to move directly away from the cell

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115
Q

Microfilaments (actin filaments)

A

interact with myosin to cause muscle contraction and are responsible for cleavage during cytokinesis

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116
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

maintain the cell’s shape and primarily serve to impart structural rigidity to the cell

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117
Q

Eukarytoic flagella vs prokaryotic flagella

A

eukaryotic: 9+2 arrangement, whip-like action; prokaryotic: thin strand of flagellin, rotate

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118
Q

Micelle

A

when placed in aqueous solution, amphipathic molecules spontaneously aggregate, turning their polar ends toward the solution and their nonpolar ends toward each other resulting in a spherical structural

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119
Q

Integral or intrinsic protein

A

amphipathic proteins that can cross the membrane from inside of the cell to the outside

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120
Q

Peripheral or extrinsic protein

A

located on the surfaces of the membrane and are generally hydrophilic; generally ionically bonded to integral proteins or the polar group of a lipid

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121
Q

Fluid mosaic model

A

the fluid part refers to the phospholipids and proteins which can slide past each other since the forces holding the entire membrane together are intermolecular; the mosaic part refers to the asymmetrical layout of a membrane’s lipids and proteins

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122
Q

Functions of membrane proteins

A

transporter, receptor, attachment, identifier, adhesion, and enzyme

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123
Q

Brownian motion

A

the random movement of molecules moving rapidly and in all directions and leads to the tendency of solutions to mix completely with each other over time

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124
Q

Chemical concentration gradient

A

series of vectors pointing in the direction of lower concentration

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125
Q

Electrical gradient

A

pointing in the direction that a positively charged particle will tend to move

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126
Q

Semipermeable

A

membrane slows the diffusion of X but does not stop it

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127
Q

Factors that determine permeability of compound

A

size and polarity

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128
Q

Leakage channels

A

most of the diffusion of polar or charged molecules across a membrane take place through incidental holes created by the irregular shapes of integral proteins

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129
Q

Passive diffusion

A

when molecules move across a membrane through random motion such as through a leak channel

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130
Q

Membrane channels/carrier proteins

A

facilitate the diffusion of specific molecules or ions across the membrane

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131
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

use of carrier or membrane channels for passive diffusion; contributes to the selective permeability of the membrane by selecting between molecules of similar size and charge

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132
Q

Active transport

A

requires expenditure of energy

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133
Q

Secondary active transport

A

powered indirectly by ATP to create an electrochemical gradient which is then used to acquire or expel a molecule down its concentration gradient ie. sodium potassium pump

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134
Q

Isotonic

A

aqueous solution of their cytosol contains approximately the same concentration of particles as the aqueous solution surrounding them

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135
Q

Hypertonic cells

A

cells that are more concentrated than their environment

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136
Q

Hypotonic cells

A

cells that are less concentrated than their environment

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137
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

minimum pressure which needs to be applied to a solution to prevent the inward flow of its pure solvent across a semipermeable membrane

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138
Q

Colligative property

A

a property that is based on the number of particles present rather than the type of particle

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139
Q

Endocytosis

A

how cells acquire substances from the extracellular environment

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140
Q

Phagocytosis

A

the cell membrane protudes outward to envelop and engulf particulate matter; triggered by the binidng of particulate matter to protein receptors on phagocytic cell; performed by particular cells

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141
Q

Phagosome

A

the membrane bound bond of a particulate mater that is engulfed by phagocytosis

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142
Q

Pinocytosis

A

extracellular fluid is engulfed by small invaginations of the cell membrane and is typically performed by most cells and random, non-selective

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143
Q

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

A

specific uptake of macromolecules such as hormones and nutrients; in this process the ligand binds to a receptor protein on the cell membrane and is then moved to a clathrin-coated pit which then invaginates to form a coated vesicle

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144
Q

Exocytosis

A

reverse of endocytosis; provides a way for substances to leave the cell

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145
Q

Interphase

A

G1, S, and G2

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146
Q

G1 stage

A

cell has just divided and begins to grow in size, producing new organelles and proteins; RNA and protein synthesis are highly active

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147
Q

G0 stage

A

a non-growing state distinct from interphase; responsible for variations in the length of cell cycle between different types of cells

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148
Q

S stage

A

the cell devotes most of its energy to DNA replication; organelles and proteins are produced more slowly

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149
Q

M stage

A

mitosis or meiosis which is defined by the division of the nucleus

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150
Q

G2 stage

A

the cell prepares to divide; organelles continue to duplicate, RNA and proteins are actively produced

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151
Q

Cancer

A

unchecked cell growth

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152
Q

Mutations that cause cancer

A

tumor repressor: the deactivation of a checkpoint protein; oncogene: the activation of a gene that causes the proliferation of the cell

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153
Q

Tissue

A

group of similar cells that work together

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154
Q

Fibroblasts

A

secrete fibrous proteins such as elastin and collagen which form a molecular network that holds tissue cells in place (the extracellular matrix)

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155
Q

Basal lamina

A

a thin sheet of matrix material that separates epithelial cells from support tissue; also found around nerves, and muscle and fat cells; usually acts as a sieve-like barrier, selectively allowing the passage of some molecules but not others

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156
Q

Epithelial cells

A

separate the outside environment from the inside of the body

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157
Q

Support tissue

A

composed of the cells adjacent to epithelial cells on the inside of the body

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158
Q

Types of intercellular junctions

A

tight, desmosomes, and gap

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159
Q

Tight junctions

A

form a watertight seal from cell to cell that can block water, ions, and other molecules from moving around and past these cells; often found in epithelial tissue of bladder, intestines, and kidneys

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160
Q

Apical surface

A

the part of a cell facing the lumen of a cavity

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161
Q

Basolateral surface

A

the part of a cell opposite of the lumen of a cavity

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162
Q

Desmosomes

A

join 2 cells at a single point; attach directly to the cytoskeleton of each cell, and are found in tissue that typically experience a lot of stress ie. skin or intestinal epithelium; strongest type of junction

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163
Q

Gap junctions

A

small tunnels that connect cells, facilitating the movement of small molecules and ions between the cells; found in cardiac muscle to propagate action potential from cell to cell, and in some kinds of smooth muscle allowing fibers to contract as a unit

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164
Q

Intracellular second messenger

A

activates or deactivates enzymes and/or ion channels and often creates a cascade of chemical reactions that amplifies the effect of the hormone

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165
Q

Epithelial tissue

A

separates free body surfaces from their surrounidngs; includes endothelium which lines vessels of the body such as the heart

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166
Q

Connective tissue

A

characterized by an extensive matrix such as blood, lymph, bone cartilage, and connective tissue proper

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167
Q

Positive sense virus

A

contain coding RNA that can be immediately transcribed by the host ribosomes and thus do not require RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRP)

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168
Q

Negative sense virus

A

contain the complement of the coding strand; since human cells do not normally make RNA from other RNA, there is no way for these viruses to begin replication without RdRP

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169
Q

Speed of communication of nervous system

A

specific and fleeting; somatic more so than autonomic

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170
Q

Nervous system

A

includes the brain, spinal cord, nerves, neural support cells and sense organs such as the eye and the ear

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171
Q

Neuron

A

the smallest functional unit of the nervous system; a highly specialized cell capable of transmitting a signal from one cell to another through a combination of electrical and chemical processes

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172
Q

Dendrites

A

stubby structures that receive a signal to be transmitted

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173
Q

Structure of neuron

A

dendrites, cell body, and axon

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174
Q

Summation

A

provides a way for the nervous system to screen for the most important stimuli

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175
Q

Spatial summation

A

occurs when multiple dendrites receive signals at the same time

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176
Q

Temporal summation

A

adds up the effects of signals that are received by a single dendrite in quick succession

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177
Q

Frequency of firing

A

codes the intensity of a stimulus of sensory neurons

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178
Q

Axon hillock

A

the site of connection between the cell body and the axon

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179
Q

Axon

A

carries action potentials to a synapse; having a single axon minimizes error and maximizes efficiency since multiple synapses would provide opportunities for information to be transferred incorrectly and would also slow down the signal

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180
Q

Receptors

A

bind substances (ligands) such as neurotransmitters and respond by triggering responses within the cell

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181
Q

Ion channels

A

open to allow ions to travel from one side of the membrane to the other, facilitating the transmission of signals; vary in how quickly they open and close

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182
Q

Concentration cell

A

differences in concentration initiate the movement of charge, creating a voltage

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183
Q

Concentrations of Na and K across membrane

A

more Na outside the cell and more K inside the cell

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184
Q

Resting potential

A

the electric potential or voltage across the neuronal membrane at rest; a stored potential that is used by the neurons to transmit a signal

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185
Q

Sodium potassium pump

A

functions to maintain or reestablish the chemical gradient that is lost by diffusion; the pump moves ions against their concentration gradients using ATP; moves 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in

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186
Q

Resting potential of neuron

A

set up by the diffusion of K; K diffuses out of the cell, dragging along negatively charged proteins that get stuck along the inner side of the membrane; when the chemical gradient of K equilibriates, the inner side of the membrane is negatively charged compared to the outer side; resulting potential across the membrane is very close to equilibrium potential of K

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187
Q

Action potential

A

mechanism by which a signal travels down the length of a neuron and ultimately is transferred to the next cell; generated by a change in voltage across the neuronal membrane

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188
Q

Voltage gated Na channels

A

these proteins change configuration when the voltage across the membrane is disturbed allowing Na+ to flow through the membrane

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189
Q

Depolarization

A

the process of the activation of multiple voltage gated Na channels causing more sodium channels to change configuration, allowing more sodium to flow into cell so that the cell becomes positive on the inside

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190
Q

Voltage gated K Channels

A

less sensitive to voltage change than sodium channels, so they take longer to open

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191
Q

Repolarization

A

the process of K+ flowing out of the cell, moving the potential back towards the negative equilibrium potential of K

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192
Q

Hyperpolarization

A

the process when the potassium channels are so slow to close that the membrane potential becomes even more negative than the resting potential

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193
Q

Threshold stimulus

A

in order to create an action potential, the stimulus to the membrane must be greater than the threshold

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194
Q

Excitatory

A

depolarizing effect

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195
Q

Inhibitory

A

hyperpolarizing effect

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196
Q

Accommodation

A

if the threshold is reached but it is reached very slowly so that an action potential may not occur

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197
Q

Absolute refractory period

A

period in which no stimulus will create another action potential because the membrane potential is already more positive than the resting potential, so the driving force of the action potential is absent

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198
Q

Relative refractory period

A

the time during which only an abnormally large stimulus will create an action potential because the membrane is hyperpolarizing, requiring a greater threshold stimulus

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199
Q

Steps of action potential

A
  1. membrane is at rest, voltage gated sodium and potassium channels are closed 2. voltage gated sodium channels open and the cell depolarizes 3. voltage gated potassium channels open as sodium channels begin to inactive 4. voltage gated sodium channels are inactivated, open potassium channels repolarize the membrane 5. voltage gated potassium channels close and the membrane equilibriates to its resting potential
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200
Q

Electrical synapse

A

composed of gap junctions between cells and are often used when coordinated action is required from a group of cells ie. cardiac muscle, visceral smooth muscle

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201
Q

Chemical synapse

A

consists of a space between 2 neurons that is crossed by neurotransmitters; unidirectional

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202
Q

Motor end plate

A

the connection between a neuron and a muscle

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203
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

chemicals that are often derived from amino acids which are released into the synapse by a presynaptic neuron and attach to receptors on the post-synaptic cell; required because the electrical signal of the action potential cannot be transferred across the synapse

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204
Q

Fatigue (of presynaptic neuron)

A

when a presynaptic cell is fired too often and it is not able to replenish its supply of neurotransmiter vesicles so the impulse is not passed to the postsynaptic cell

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205
Q

G protein second messenger system

A

a G protein is attached to the receptor protein along the inside of the postsynaptic membrane, when the membrane is stimulated by neurotransmitter, part of the G-protein called the alpha subunit breaks free and may activate separate specific ion channels, activate a second messenger, activate intracellular enzymes or activate gene transcription

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206
Q

Glial cells/neuroglia

A

support cells in nervous tissue; different types carry out immune functions, circulate cerebrospinal fluid, support ganglia, give physical support to neurons, help maintain the mineral and nutrient balance in the interstitial space, and create myelin

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207
Q

Myelin

A

electrically insulating sheaths in the central nervous system that wrap many times around axons which acts as a insulator around the axon, increasing resistance to the passage of ions through the membrane

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208
Q

Schwann cells

A

produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system which wrap their entire bodies around the axons

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209
Q

White matter

A

refers to areas of the nervous system that are composed of myelinated axons of neurons

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210
Q

Grey matter

A

refers to bundles of the cell bodies of neurons

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211
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

tiny gaps between the myelinated areas and are the only places along the myelinated axon where ions cross the neuron’s membrane

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212
Q

Saltatory conduction

A

the phenomenon when action potentials jump from one node of Ranvier to the next

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213
Q

Sensory/afferent neurons

A

receive signals from a receptor cell that interacts with the environment and then transfers this signal to other neurons; located dorsally on the spinal cord

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214
Q

Interneurons

A

transfer signals from neuron to neuron

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215
Q

Motor/effector neurons

A

carry signals to a muscle or gland; located ventrally on the spinal cord

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216
Q

Effector

A

muscle or gland

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217
Q

Nerves

A

neuron processes (axons and dendrites) bundled together

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218
Q

Reflex

A

a quick response to a stimulus that occurs without direction from the CNS

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219
Q

Supraspinal circuits

A

circuits above the spinal cord

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220
Q

Central Nervous System

A

consists of the neurons and support tissue within the brain and spinal cord; a major function is to integrate nervous signals between sensory and motor neurons

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221
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

handles the sensory and motor functions of the nervous system and is further divided into the somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system

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222
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

contains sensory and motor functions and primarily functions to respond to the external environment

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223
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

coordinates an involuntary response to environmental stimuli, altering processes within the body to produce the most adaptive physiological state and behavior; further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

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224
Q

Antagonistic control

A

when two systems have opposing influences on the same organs

225
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

fight or flight; acts on the heart to increase heart rate and stroke volume and around organs of the digestive and excretory systems in order to divert more blood flow to skeletal muscles; increased blood glucose and basal metabolism signals originate in the spinal cord; short preganglionic neurons, long postganglionic neurons; however does not innervate skeletal muscle

226
Q

Parasymapthetic nervous system

A

rest and digest; slows the heart rate and increases digestive and excretory activity; signals originate in both the brain and spinal cord; long preganglionic neurons, short postganglionic neurons

227
Q

Nucleus

A

a group of cell bodies located in the CNS

228
Q

Ganglion

A

a group of cell bodies located outside the CNS

229
Q

Acetylcholine

A

the neurotransmitter used by all preganglionic neurons in the ANS (and somatic) and by postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic branch

230
Q

Epinephrine or norepinephrine

A

the neurotransmitter used by postganglionic cells of the sympathetic nervous system

231
Q

Cholinergic receptor

A

receptor for acetylcholine

232
Q

Adrenergic

A

receptor for epinephrine and norepinephrine

233
Q

Brainstem

A

controls the basic involuntary functions necessary for survival; includes the medulla, pons, and midbrain

234
Q

Medulla

A

plays an important role in the regulation of cardiovascular and respiratory systems and monitor levels of CO2 in the bloodstream and triggers changes in the respiration rate accordingly

235
Q

Pons

A

coordinates communication between the motor cortex and the cerebellum, facilitating the transfer of motor commands

236
Q

Cerebellum

A

heavily involved in the coordination and planning of movement

237
Q

Diencephalon

A

thalamus and hypothalamus collectively

238
Q

Thalamus

A

control center; processes almost all sensory information before it reaches higher cortical centers as well as receiving motor commands from these cortical areas on their way to the spinal cord

239
Q

Hypothalamus

A

regulates many of the body’s basic physiological needs by maintaining homeostasis in multiple systems such as temperature and water balance

240
Q

Cerebrum/cerebral cortex

A

the most recently evolved portion of the brain and is the location of many higher-level functions of the nervous system such as consciousness, memory, cognition, planning, and emotion

241
Q

Frontal lobe

A

the location of higher-level (executive) function such as planning and impulse inhibition; includes motor cortex

242
Q

Motor cortex

A

creates a map of the parts of the body such that specific sets of neurons control certain body parts

243
Q

Parietal lobe

A

contains the somatosensory cortex

244
Q

Somatosensory cortex

A

maps the body’s sensation of touch

245
Q

Somatosensory system

A

involves the detection of physical stimuli such as touch, temperature, and pain

246
Q

Occipital lobe

A

the site where visual information is processed

247
Q

Temporal lobe

A

primarily concerned with auditory and olfactory information

248
Q

Limbic system

A

primarily concerned with memory and emotion

249
Q

Lateralization of cortical functions

A

take place primarily in one hemisphere or the other; production/comprehension of language: left hemisphere; positive emotion: left; negative emotion: right

250
Q

Methods of studying the brain

A

lesion studies, imaging, and recording of electrical activity

251
Q

Sensory receptors

A

detect internal and external stimuli

252
Q

Mechanoreceptors

A

respond to the physical stimuli of touch and pressure change

253
Q

Thermoreceptors

A

respond to temperature change

254
Q

Nociceptors

A

respond to pain

255
Q

Electromagnetic receptors

A

respond to light

256
Q

Chemoreceptors

A

respond to taste, smell, and blood chemistry; important for maintenance of homeostasis throughout the body

257
Q

Photoreceptors

A

type of electromagnetic receptor; detect the physical stimulus of photons that enter the eye; do not generate action potentials but instead the relative level of light affects the rate of neurotransmitter release by the photoreceptors into the synapses that they share with sensory neurons

258
Q

Sensory adaptation

A

a stimulus that occurs repeatedly at the same intensity level evokes fewer and fewer action potentials in the sensory receptors ; filters out less important information

259
Q

Phasic receptors

A

adapt very quickly and specialize in the perception of changes in stimuli

260
Q

Tonic receptors

A

adapt more slowly; the length of time required for tonic receptors to stop producing action potentials provides information to the nervous system about the intensity of the stimulus

261
Q

Eye

A

detects patterns of light and transmits this information to the nervous system, ultimately resulting in the perception of vision

262
Q

Cornea

A

nonvascular and made largely from collagen; it is clear with a refractive index of about 1.4 meaning that that incoming light is actually bent further at the interface of the air and the cornea rather than at the lens; where light first strikes the eye

263
Q

Lens

A

naturally has a spherical shape, but stiff suspensory ligaments tug on it and tend to flatten it, this allows the shape of the lens to be adjusted according to the focal length needed to ensure that the image produced by a given object will be focused precisely on the retina, rather than behind or in front of it

264
Q

Ciliary muscle

A

suspensory ligaments are connected to this muscle and when it contracts the lens becomes more like a sphere bringing its focal point closer to the lens; when the muscle relaxes, the lens flattens, increasing the focal distance

265
Q

Retina

A

covers the inside of the back (distal portion) of the eye; contains rods and cones

266
Q

Rods

A

type of photoreceptor that respond to all photons with wavelengths in the visible spectrum (390nm - 700 nm) so they cannot distinguish color

267
Q

Cones

A

type of photoreceptor; 3 different cones each with a different pighment that is stimulated by a slightly different spectrum of wavelengths ; able to distinguish colors

268
Q

Rhodopsin

A

pigment in rod cells

269
Q

Fovea

A

small point on the retina containing mostly cones; point on the retina where vision is most acute

270
Q

Iris

A

the colored portion of they eye that creates the opening called the pupil

271
Q

Bipolar cells

A

receive signals from their associated photoreceptors (vertical information) and also affected by signals from horizontal cells

272
Q

Horizontal cells

A

provide horizontal information from photoreceptors at the edge of the bipolar cell’s receptive field

273
Q

Pathway of vision

A

light–>cornea–>retina (bipolar cells –> photoreceptors) –> optic nerve –>LGN –> primary visual cortex–> ventral pathway and dorsal pathway

274
Q

Optic nerve

A

leaves the eye to convey visual information to the brain; some of the axons from each eye cross to the opposite side of the brain

275
Q

Lateral genticulate nucleus (LGN)

A

part of the thalamus; preserves the visual map created by the ganglion cells and projects this information to the primary visual cortex

276
Q

Primary visual cortex

A

located in the occipital lobe

277
Q

Pigments

A

undergo a chemical change when one of their electrons is struck by a single photon

278
Q

Rod cell hit with light

A

retinal isomerizes causing the membrane of the rod cell to become less permeable to sodium ions which causes it to hyperpolarize

279
Q

Retinal

A

prosthetic group of rhodopsin

280
Q

Ventral “what” pathway

A

travels from primary visual cortex to the temporal lobe toward the base of the brain and is involved in object recognition

281
Q

Dorsal “where” pathway

A

travels from primary visual cortex to the parietal cortex and is more involved in perceiving the location of objects

282
Q

Ear

A

transforms sound from waves of pressure in the air into physical vibrations into electrical signals; divided into outer ear, middle ear, and inner ear

283
Q

Middle Ear

A

contains 3 small bones: the malleus, incus, and stapes which act as a lever system and vibrate from the tymapnic membrane; these physical vibrations are conveyed to the oval window

284
Q

Cochlea

A

part of inner ear; basically detects sound, contains the organ of Corti

285
Q

organ of Corti

A

located on the cochlea’s basilar membrane; as the wave moves through the cochlea the organ of Corti vibrates causing movement of its hair cells

286
Q

Hair cells

A

their movement is transduced into neural signals that are sent to the brain

287
Q

Semicircular canals

A

part of inner ear; detect orientation and movement of the head (vestibular system)

288
Q

Otilith organs

A

involved in the vestibular system primarily tilting and linear acceleration

289
Q

Vestibular system

A

responsible for detecting changes in position and signaling the body to make necessary adjustments to maintain balance

290
Q

Kinesthetic sense

A

contributes to the awareness of the body’s location and movement, to give the individual an overall sensation of the body

291
Q

Processing of auditory information

A

movement hair cells release neurotransmitter to cochlear nerve –> cochlear nuclei–> inferior colliculus —> medial genticulate nucleus –> auditory cortex

292
Q

Medial genticulate nucleus

A

part of the thalamus; auditory information passes through this area on its way to a higher cortical area)

293
Q

Auditory cortex

A

in the temporal lobe; receives information from the thalamus and is where the detection of complex features of auditory information such as patterns take place

294
Q

Spatial organization of hair cells along the organ of Corti

A

hair cells in the part of the basilar membrane that is closes to the stapes and therefore the most stif, respond best to higher frequencies; the opposite is true for hair cells that are farther away from the base of the ear, in the more flexible portion of the basilar membrane

295
Q

5 primary taste sensations

A

bitter, sour, salty, sweet, and umami (savory); all taste sensations are a combination of these five

296
Q

Olfactory nerve

A

axons of the olfactory chemoreceptors ; the binding of chemicals to G protein coupled receptors on the chemoreceptors triggers and action potential that is transmitted to the olfactory bulb

297
Q

Olfactory bulb

A

recieves inupt from olfactory nerve and projects directly to the pyriform/olfactory cortex; also projects directly to the amygdala and hippocampus in the temporal lobe

298
Q

Pyriform/olfactory cortex

A

in temporal lobe; conveys olfactory information to the orbitofrontal cortex where it is integrated with other sensory information

299
Q

Olfactory pathway

A

olfactory nerve –» olfactory bulb –> pyriform cortex (note that it does not pass through the thalamus before reaching higher cortical areas)

300
Q

Pheromones

A

not perceived consciously; thought to exert a subconscious influence on behaviors related structures of amygdala and hypothalamus such as aggression and sexual behavior; unclear whether they affect human behavior

301
Q

Contributors to resting potential of neuron

A

electrochemcial gradients of potassium, sodium and chloride (chloride contributes the least)

302
Q

Motor and sensory neuron innervation in spine

A

sensory: dorsal roots; motor: ventral roots

303
Q

Acetylcholinesterase

A

degrades acetylcholine in synapse

304
Q

Light passage through the eye

A

Cornea –> aqueous humor –> lens –> vitreous humor –> retina

305
Q

Lysogenic or lysic for phages to survive in body during a bacterial infection

A

lysogenic as the host cell would not be destroyed which would cause inflammation and attraction of immune cells at the site of cell death

306
Q

Exocrine glands

A

release enzymes to the external environment through ducts ie. sudiferous (sweat), sebaceous (oil), mucous and digestive glands

307
Q

Endocrine glands

A

release hormones directly into the bloodstream

308
Q

3 chemistry types of hormones

A

peptide, steroid, and tyrosine derivatives

309
Q

Peptide hormones

A

polar, move alone through bloodstream, attach to membrane-bound receptors, may be large or small, made in rough ER as preprohormones and then cleaved in ER lumen to prohormone and transported to Golgi

310
Q

Steroid hormones

A

formed in smooth ER and mitochondria, hydrophobic, require a carrier protein, diffuse through cell membrane to reach their effector in cytosol or nucleus and act at level of transcription

311
Q

Tyrosine derivative hormones

A

formed in the cytosol or rough ER, not all either water or lipid soluble like peptide and steroid hormones

312
Q

Portal system

A

shared blood vessels

313
Q

Hormones of posterior pituitary gland

A

ADH and oxytocin

314
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

vasopressin; small peptide hormone which causes the collecting ducts of the kidney to become permeable to water causing reabsorption of water from the collecting tubule, increases blood pressure

315
Q

Oxytocin

A

small peptide hormone that increases uterine contractions during pregnancy and milk to be ejected from the breasts

316
Q

Anterior pituitary gland

A

located in brain beneath the hypothalams

317
Q

Posterior pituitary gland

A

composed mainly of support tissue for nerve endings extending from the hypothalamus

318
Q

Hypothalamus

A

controls the release of the anterior pituitary hormones with releasing and inhibitory hormones of its own

319
Q

Hormones of anterior pituitary gland

A

TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, HGH, Prolactin

320
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

peptide that stimulates the thyroid to release T3 and T4 via cAMP, increases thyroid cell size, number, and rate of secretion of T3/T4

321
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

peptide that stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids via cAMP, stimulated by stress

322
Q

Human growth factor (HGF)

A

somatotropin; peptide that stimulates growth in almost all cells of the body by increasing rate of mitosis, cell size, rate of protein synthesis, mobilizing fat stores, increasing the use of fatty acids for energy and decreasing use of glucose; also increases transcription/translation and decreases breakdown of protein and AAs

323
Q

Prolactin

A

peptide that promotes lactation (milk production) by the breasts; act of suckling stimulates hypothalamus which stimulates anterior pituitary gland to release prolactin

324
Q

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

peptide that increases blood calcium by increasing osteocyte absorption of calcium, stimulating proliferation of osteoclasts, increases reabsorption of calcium and phosphate from bone, increase renal reabsorption of calcium and excretion of phosphate, increase absorption of calcium and phosphate from gut

325
Q

Basal metabolic rate

A

resting metabolic rate, amount of energy expended at rest in one day and is commonly measured as rate of oxygen consumption ; determined by heart rate and muscle mass

326
Q

T3/T4

A

released by thyroid; lipid soluble tyrosine derivatives, regulated by TSH, help determine the basal metabolic rate

327
Q

Hormones of thyroid

A

calcitonin and T3/T4

328
Q

Calcitonin

A

large peptide hormone that slightly decreases blood calcium by decreasing osteoclast activity and number

329
Q

Adrenal glands

A

located on top of the kidneys, separated into adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla

330
Q

Adrenal cortex

A

outside portion of adrenal gland and only secretes sterioid hormones

331
Q

Hormones of adrenal cortex

A

mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids

332
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

steroid, affects the electrolyte balance in the bloodstream, aldosterone

333
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

steroid, increase blood glucose concentration and have an even greater effect on fat and protein metabolism, cortisol

334
Q

Aldosterone

A

mineralocorticoid that acts in the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting ducts to increase sodium and chloride reabsorption and K and H secretion; Na reabsorption drives increased water reabsoprtion through aquaporins which leads to an increase in blood pressure

335
Q

Cortisol

A

glucocorticoid that increases blood glucose levels by stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver, mobilize fatty acids from fat cells to be used for energy and causes a moderate decrease in use of glucose by cells. stimulates protein degradation in nonhepatic cells to create AA which serve as carbon sources for gluconoegenesis; diminish capacity of immune system

336
Q

Epinephrine/adrenaline (as a hormone)

A

catecholamine, tyrosine derivative, similar effect to SNS but effects last longer

337
Q

Norepinephrine/noadrenaline (as a hormone)

A

catecholamine, tyrosine derivative, similar effect to Parasympathetic nervous system but effects last longer

338
Q

Hormones released by adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

339
Q

Pancreas

A

acts as both an endocrine and exocrine gland

340
Q

Hormones released by pancreas

A

beta cells release insulin, alpha cells release glucagon, delta cells release somatostatin

341
Q

Somatostatin

A

inhibits both insulin and glucagon; may be to extend the period of time over which nutrients are absorbed

342
Q

Insulin

A

peptide hormone, released when blood levels of carbohydrates or proteins are high; carbohydrates are stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle, fat is stored in adipose tissue and AAs are taken up by the cells of the body and made into proteins –> lower blood glucose levels as cells become more permeable to glucose by opening membrane bound glucose transporter

343
Q

Glucagon

A

peptide hormone,stimulates glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen) and gluceogenesis in the liver, acts via cAMP, breaks down adipose tissue increasing fatty acid levels in the blood, net effect is to raise blood glucose levels

344
Q

Tropic hormones

A

released from one gland and cause downstream release of other hormones from their target endocrine glands

345
Q

Blood chemistry hormones

A

control the concentrations of sodium, calcium and glucose in the bloodstream

346
Q

Osmolarity in bloodstream

A

determined by sodium concentrations

347
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

stimulate Leydig cells which leads to ovulation and estrogen or testosterone release

348
Q

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

stimulates sertoli cells which promotes growth of follicles or sperm production in males; stimulates the growth of granulosa cells around primary oocyte in females

349
Q

Gonads

A

organs involved in the the production of gametes

350
Q

Male gonads

A

testes

351
Q

Seminiferous tubules

A

a set of long, twisted tubes in the testes that are lined by Sertoli cells and spermatogonia, site of production of sperm

352
Q

Sertoli cells

A

surround and nurture the spermatocyte and spermatids ; secrete inhibin that acts on the pituitary gland to inhibit FSH secretion

353
Q

Leydig cells

A

located in the interstitium between the tubules, release testosterone in males; estrogen

354
Q

Androgen

A

male sex hormone ie. testosterone

355
Q

Testosterone

A

stimulates the germ cells to differentiate into sperm, development of secondary sex characteristics, puberty, closure of the epiphyses of long bones

356
Q

Structure of sperm

A

head/acrosome, midpiece/mitochondria, and tail

357
Q

Acrosome

A

contains lysosome-like enzymes for penetrating the egg during fertilization

358
Q

Epididymis

A

where sperm stays to mature after it is released from the semineferous tubules

359
Q

Movement of sperm during ejaculation

A

moves through vas deferens into the urethra and out the penis

360
Q

Semen

A

complete mixture of spermatozoa and fluid that leaves the penis upon ejaculation; composed of fluid from seminal vesicles, prostate and bulbourethral glands/Cowper’s glands

361
Q

Capacitation

A

process by which spermatozoa become activated for fertilization which takes place in the vagina

362
Q

Granulosa cells

A

secrete a viscous substance around the egg called the zona pellucida; convert androgen to estradiol (a type of estrogen)

363
Q

Luteal surge

A

just before ovulation, the estradiol level rises rapidly and causes a dramatic increase in LH secretion; resulst from a positive feedback loop where rising estrogen levels increase LH levels which increase estrogen; causes ovulation

364
Q

Ovulation

A

the bursting of the follicle and release of the egg in to the body cavity

365
Q

Fallopian/uterine tube

A

where the egg remains after ovulation

366
Q

Corpus luteum

A

remaining portion of the follicle that is left behind after ovulation; secretes estradiol and progesteron throughout pregnancy or in case of no pregnancy for 2 weeks until it degrades into the corpus albicans

367
Q

Ovarian cycle

A

follicular phase and luteal phase

368
Q

Follicular phase of ovarian cycle

A

begins with the development of the follicle and ends at ovulation; menstruation (beginning)and proliferation phase

369
Q

Luteal phase of ovarian cycle

A

begins with ovulation and ends with the degeneration of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans (menstruation end)

370
Q

Progesterone

A

acts as a maintenance hormone for the uterus

371
Q

Corpus albicans

A

no longer able to secrete progesterone to maintain the uterine wall and so the uterine wall sloughs off and produces menstruation

372
Q

Cortical reaction

A

entry of the sperm causes the cortical reaction which prevents other sperm from fertilizing the same egg

373
Q

Cleavage

A

begins when the zygote is still in the Fallopian tube, the zygote goes through many cycles of mitosis; the embryo at this stage does not grow

374
Q

Morula

A

when the zygote is comprised of 16 or more cells

375
Q

Totipotent

A

have the potential to express any of their genes; can become any cell, placenta or embryo

376
Q

Blastocyst

A

a mostly hollow ball that is filled with fluid and has a small cell mass on one side, forms after morula continues to divide;

377
Q

Implantation

A

when the blastocyst lodges in the uterus, considered pregnant

378
Q

Placenta

A

forms when the outer cells of the blastocyst implant in the uterine wall and fuse with the uterine tissue

379
Q

Stem cells

A

pluripotent cells meaning that it has the abilitiy to develop into most of the types of cells in the human body depending on its position in the mass/ any one of the initial 3 germ layers

380
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

A

secreted by placenta after implantation; prevents the degeneration of the corpus luteum and maintains its secretion of estrogen and progesterone; presence in blood or fluid is outward sign of pregnancy

381
Q

Determination

A

the process where a cell becomes committed to a specialized developmental path

382
Q

Differentiation

A

the specialization that occurs at the end of development, forming a specialized tissue cell

383
Q

Multipotent stem cells

A

can regenerate as needed; present in systems that experience injury (skin, liver, blood); replace cells of a particular lineage

384
Q

Gastrulation

A

formation of the gastrula 3 weeks after fertilization; 3 primary germ layers are formed

385
Q

Ectoderm

A

epidermis of skin, nervous system, sense organs

386
Q

Mesoderm

A

skeleton, muscles, blood vessels, heart, blood, gonads, kidneys

387
Q

Endoderm

A

lining of digestive and respiratory tracts, liver, pancreas, thymus, thyroid

388
Q

Neurulation

A

gastrula develops into a neural

389
Q

Induction (embryology)

A

occurs when one cell type affects the direction of differentiation of another cell type

390
Q

Formation of neural plate

A

through induction, the notochord (made from mesoderm) causes overlying ectoderm to thicken and form the neural plate; the notochord eventually degenerates while a neural tube forms from the neural plate to become the spinal cord, brain, and most of the nervous system

391
Q

Neural crest

A

cells of the ectoderm that close to the neural tube; function mostly as accessory cells to the nervous system such as Schwann cells

392
Q

Apoptosis

A

programmed cell death; essential for development; damaged cells may undergo as well

393
Q

Senescence

A

process by which cells stop proliferating in response to environmental stressors and are are ultimately cleared away by immune cells; implicated in the aging process

394
Q

Prenatal development

A

development that occurs before birth and begins with development of the embryo

395
Q

Teratogens

A

harmful substances to an embryo; particularly harmful due to fast growth of multiple structures

396
Q

Order of development for embryo

A

morula –> blastula –> gastrula –> neurula; 1st trimester: development; 2nd trimester: growth and development; 3rd trimester: growth

397
Q

Motor development of infant

A

direction of development is from head to toe (a cephalocaudal pattern) and from the midline of the body to the periphery (proximodistal pattern)

398
Q

Puberty

A

biological changes that ultimately lead to sexual maturity

399
Q

Parturition

A

time of birth; brain is not fully developed

400
Q

Menopause

A

period in woman’s life when period stops; decreased estrogen

401
Q

Estrogen and bone strength

A

stimulates osteoblastic activity

402
Q

Panting

A

increases respiration rate, bringing more water into the upper part of the respiratory tree that can then evaporate

403
Q

Nasal cavity

A

the space inside the nose that acts to filter, moisten, and warm incoming air

404
Q

Nasal hairs

A

near front of naval cavity and traps large dust particles

405
Q

Mucus

A

secreted by goblet cells which traps smaller dust particles that were able to bypass the coarse nasal hair and also moistens the air

406
Q

Cilia in nasal cavity

A

move mucus and dust back toward the pharynx to be removed by spitting or swallowing

407
Q

Pharynx

A

throat; functions as a passageway for food and air

408
Q

Larynx

A

contains the vocal chords

409
Q

Epiglottis

A

cartilaginous structure that rises to block the opening of the trachea during swallowing, preventing the entry of food into the airway

410
Q

Trachea

A

composed of ringed cartilage covered by ciliated mucous cells which collect particulate matter and usher it back out toward the pharynx

411
Q

Bronchi

A

2 split from the trachea; right/left

412
Q

Bronchioles

A

make up the bronchi; terminate in grape-like clusters called alveolar sacs which are composed of aveoli

413
Q

Alveoli

A

oxygen diffuses from each alveolus into an adjacent capillary where it is picked up by red blood cells; the red blood cells release carbon dioxide which diffuses into the alveolus and is expelled upon exhalation

414
Q

Medulla oblongota and respiration

A

signals the diaphragm to contract

415
Q

Diaphragm

A

thin sheet of skeletal muscle that is innervated by the phrenic nerve; dome shaped in a relaxed state but flattens upon contraction, expanding the chest cavity

416
Q

Intercostal muscle

A

rib muscles’ also help to expand the chest cavity

417
Q

Surfactant

A

alveoli contain a type of cell that produces surfactant, a a material composed of amphipathic phospholipids; coats the alveolar surface and breaks up the intermolecular forces between water molecules, reducing surface tension of water on the inner surface of alveoli which assists the expansion of the lungs

418
Q

Respiration - differential partial pressures

A

high partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli compared to the low partial pressure in the deoxygenated blood in adjacent capillaries; blood has a high partial pressure of carbon dioxide compared to that of the alveoli

419
Q

Fick’s law

A

the rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the surface area and differential partial pressure across the membrane, and is inversely proportional to the thickness of the membrane across which diffusion occurs

420
Q

Henry’s Law

A

states that the amount of gas that can be dissolved in solution is directly proportional to the partial pressure of a gas in equilibrium with the liquid

421
Q

Hemoglobin

A

composed of 4 polypeptide subunits each with a single heme cofactor; the heme cofactor is an organic molecule with an iron atom at its center; each of the 4 iron atoms in hemoglobin binds an oxygen molecule which accelerates the oxygenation of the other heme groups (cooperativity)

422
Q

Rightward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve

A

occurs in response to an increase in carbon dioxide pressure, hydrogen ion concentration, or temperature (heat released during metabolism which requires O2); reflects hemoglobin’s lower affinity for oxygen

423
Q

Bohr shift

A

when the rightward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve is due to CO2 ( increasing hydrogen ion concentration and CO2 itself)

424
Q

2,3-DPG/BPG

A

chemical found in red blood cells that shifts oxygen dissociation curve rightward by binding to deoxygenated hemoglobin and decresasing its affinity to oxygen; increaes in response to low oxygen environments such as high altitudes

425
Q

Carbonic anhydrase

A

catalyzes the formation of bicarbonate (and hydrogen ions) from carbon dioxide; present in red blood cells but not plasma

426
Q

Chloride shift

A

entry/leaving of chloride ions from erythrocyte offsets the buildup of hydrogen ions

427
Q

Chloride shift in tissues

A

chloride ions flow into erythrocyte as bicarbonate follows its concentration gradient from erythrocyte to plasma

428
Q

Chloride shift in lungs

A

chloride ions flow out of erthrocyte as bicarbonate follows its concentration gradient from plasma into erythrocyte

429
Q

Nervous system sensitivity to changes in CO2 and O2

A

much more sensitive to changes in carbon dioxide which are monitored by central chemoreceptors

430
Q

pH control through breathing

A

in the case of acidosis, the body compensates by increasing the breathing rate, thereby expelling carbon dioxide and raising the pH of the blood

431
Q

Blood

A

connective tissue (contains cell and a matrix); travels throughout the body via the cardiovascular system; made of 3 components: plasma, red blood cells, and buffy coat (white blood cells)

432
Q

Plasma

A

contains the matrix of the blood, which includes water, ions, urea, ammonia, proteins, and other organic/inorganic compounds

433
Q

Albumin

A

protein found in blood that transports fatty acids and steroids and help regulate the osmotic pressure of blood, facilitating transfer of substances across capillary walls

434
Q

Serum

A

plasma from which the clotting protein fibrinogen has been removed

435
Q

Plasma proteins

A

albumin, fibrinogen and most others are formed in the liver; acts as a source of amino acids for tissue protein replacement

436
Q

Hematocrit

A

the percentage of volume of red blood cells; typically 35 - 50% and greater in men than women

437
Q

Leukocytes

A

white blood cells; contain organelles but not hemoglobin; function is to protect the body from foreign invaders

438
Q

Erythrocytes

A

red blood cells; have no organelles, no nuclei, and do not undergo mitosis; they are disc shaped and there main function is to transport oyxgen and carbon dioxide

439
Q

Granular leukocytes/granulocytes

A

live for a very short time because they function nonspecifically against all infective agents; multiply quickly against any infection and then die once the infection is gone; neutrophils, eosinophil, basophil

440
Q

Agranular leukocytes/agranulocytes

A

live for a longer time, and work against specific agents of infection; hang around after in case the infection returns; include monocytes, lymphocytes, and megakaryocytes

441
Q

Platelets

A

small portions of membrane-bound cytoplasm torn from megakaryocytes; do not have nuclei; contain actin and myosin, mitochondria, golgi and ER; capable of making prostaglandins and other important enzymes; function in coagulation

442
Q

Coagulation

A

functions to minimize blood loss and facilitate healing when blood vessels are damaged; most important step is the polymerization of the plasma protein fibrinogen to form fibrin threads that attach to the platelets and form a tight plug

443
Q

Closed circulatory system

A

contains no opening for the blood to leave the vessels

444
Q

Systemic circulation

A

directs oxygenated blood to the tissues and then returns deoxygenated blood to the heart

445
Q

Movement of blood in systemic circulation

A

left ventricle –> aorta –> smaller arteries –> arterioles –> tissue capillaries –> venules —> veins –> superior/inferior venae cavae –> right atrium

446
Q

Pulmonary system

A

transports blood to the lungs for oxygenation

447
Q

Movement of blood in pulmonary system

A

right atrium –> right ventricle –> pulmonary arteries –> arterioles –> lung capillaries –> venules –> veins –> pulmonary veins –> left atrium

448
Q

Pulmonary arteries

A

only arteries in the adult body that carry deoxygenated blood

449
Q

Sinoatrial (SA) node

A

a group of specialized cardiac muscle cells located in the right atrium; autorhythmic spreading its contractions to the surrounding cardiac muscles via electrical synapses formed by gap junctions; pace of SA node faster than normal heart beats

450
Q

Vaguns nerve

A

innervates the SA node slowing the contractions of heart to produce the typical resting heart rate

451
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) node

A

located in the interatrial septum (wall of cardiac muscle between the atria); slower to depolarize than the SA node creating a delay which allows the atria to finish their contraction and squeeze their contents into the ventricles before the ventricles to contract

452
Q

Purkinje fibers (in heart)

A

action potential then branches out through the ventricular walls via these conductive fibers which allows for a more unified and stronger contraction

453
Q

bundle of His

A

located in the wall separating the ventricles; from the AV node, action potential moves down conductive fibers in the bundle of His

454
Q

Four methods by which materials cross capillary walls

A

pinocytosis, diffusion or transport through capillary cell membranes, fenestrations, movement through the space between the cells

455
Q

Fenestrations

A

movement through pores in the cells

456
Q

Systolic pressure

A

highest pressure and is measured in the arteries during systole

457
Q

Dialostic pressure

A

pressure during the relaxation of the ventricles and filling of the atria and is the lowest pressure in the cardiac cycle

458
Q

Total peripheral resistance

A

the overall resistance of the entire systemic circulatory; changes in this resistance are primarily achieved through constriction or dilation of smooth muscle surrounding arterioles which are the blood vessels that contribute the most to peripheral resistance

459
Q

Baroreceptor reflex

A

regulates blood pressure by altering both cardiac output and blood vessel resistance to flow

460
Q

Baroreceptor

A

type of mechanoreceptor located within arteries detect changes in blood pressure ; respond by signaling centers in the brainstem to alter sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system output to the heart and blood vessels

461
Q

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

A

regulates blood pressure through the regulation of plasma volume; activated when mechanoreceptors in arteries leading to the kidneys detect a decrease in blood pressure; a cascade of enzymatic effects triggered by the secretion of renin leads to increased intake and retention of water which increases plasma volume

462
Q

Velocity of arteries and veins

A

greatest in the arteries where cross-sectional area is smallest and velocity is lowest in the capillaries where cross-sectional area is greatest

463
Q

Precapillary sphincters

A

regulate the flow of blood into capillary beds according to the metabolic needs of the tissues

464
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

pulling pressures of solutes in solutions that leads to the diffusion of solvent across a membrane; encourages the flow of fluid from the tissues into the capillaries; relatively constant

465
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

encourages the flow of fluid into the interstitium; higher in arteries, lower in veins

466
Q

Lymphatic system

A

open system (fluid enters at one end and leaves at the other); drainage and immune response

467
Q

Innate immunity

A

quick and non-specific providing a generalized protection from most intruding organisms and toxins

468
Q

Acquired/adaptive immunity

A

develops more slowly and only after the body has experienced the initial attack

469
Q

Examples of innate immunity

A

skin, stomach acid/digestive enzymes, phagoctyic cells such as neutrophils and macrophages, and chemicals in the blood

470
Q

Inflammation

A

functions to “wall-off” affected tissue and local lymph vessels from the rest of the body, impeding the spread of infection; dilation of blood vessels, increased permeability of capillaries, swelling of tissue cells, and migration of granulocytes and macrophages to inflamed area

471
Q

Causative agents of inflammation

A

histamine, prostaglandins, and lymphokines

472
Q

Macrophages

A

involved in innate immune respons; infectious agents that enter the body are first attacked by these cells; die after engulfing bacteria

473
Q

Eosinophils

A

work mainly against parasitic infections

474
Q

Basophils

A

release many of the chemicals of the inflammation reaction

475
Q

Types of acquired ammunity

A

B-cell immunity and T-cell immunity

476
Q

Plasma cells

A

can survive for decades or even a lifetime; synthesize free antibodies and release them into the blood during primary response

477
Q

Memory B-cells

A

long-lived; in case of reinfection these cells can be called upon to synthesize antibodies

478
Q

Primary response for BCR

A

the immune response that results from the first exposure to an antigen which requires 20 days to reach full potential, the BCR recognizes the appropriate antigen under the right conditions; when this happens the B-lymphocyte differentiates (with help of helper T cells) into plasma cells and memory B-cells

479
Q

B-lymphocytes

A

differentiate and mature in the adult bone marrow and the fetal liver; makes a single type of antibody/immunoglobin which can recognize and bind to a particular antigen

480
Q

B-cell receptor (BCR)

A

initially a B-lymphocyte displays its particular antibody on its membrane and the antibody is called a BCR

481
Q

Antigenic determinant

A

the portion of the antibody that binds to an antigen which is highly specific for that antigen

482
Q

Secondary response

A

reinfection in which memory b-cells fight against

483
Q

Antibody function during primary response

A

(produced by plasma cells); 1. mark antigen for phagocytosis by macrophages and natural killer cells 2. bind and perforate the antigen bearing cell 3. cause the antigenic substances to agglutinate (stick together) or precipitate 4. attach their bases to mast cells which release histamine and other chemicals

484
Q

T-lymphocytes

A

made in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus; has an antibody-like protein at its surface that recognizes antigens termed the T-cell receptor (TCR); never make free antibodies

485
Q

TCR during primary immune response

A

when a TCR recognizes the appropriate antigen, T-lymphocytes differentiate into helper T-cells, memory T-cells, suppressor T-cells, and killer T-cells

486
Q

Helper T cells

A

assist in activating B-lymphocytes (to differentiate), also activate other types of T-lymphocytes

487
Q

Killer T cells

A

bind to the antigen-carrying cell and release perforin, a protein that punctures the antigen-carrying cell; can attack many cells because they do not phagocytize their victims and not destroyed when they kill pathogens

488
Q

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules

A

all human cells with nuclei express these molecules on their cell surface; their function is to display antigens for recognition

489
Q

MHC class I molecules

A

display antigens derived from intracellular pathogens; since all cells can be infected by these pathogens, all nucleated cells have these molecules

490
Q

Endogeneous pathway

A

the process by which intracellular antigens are processed and displayed on the cell surface

491
Q

MHC class II molecules

A

display antigens derived from extracellular pathogens; only displayed by phagocytic cells

492
Q

Activtation of B and T cells

A

require both signal 1 and signal 2; protects against an autoimmune response

493
Q

Signal 1

A

provided when the BCR or TCR recognizes its appropriate antigen

494
Q

Signal 2

A

B-cells and T-cells receive it when there is an active infection

495
Q

Autoimmune disease

A

where a hyperactive immune system attacks the body’s own tissues; caused from too little regulation and can be caused from a failure of clonal selection

496
Q

Clonal selection

A

only certain B and T cells are permitted to mature and proliferation (fully funciontal ones)

497
Q

Positive (clonal) selection

A

when a b or t cell cannot recognize the MHC molecule

498
Q

Negative (clonal) selection

A

when the b or t cells respond too strongly to MHC molecules with self-antigens

499
Q

Self-antigens

A

antigens from endogenous normal proteins

500
Q

Components of digestive tract

A

mouth –> esophagus –> stomach –> small intestine –> large intestine –> anus

501
Q

Ingestion

A

the process of taking in food through the mouth; chewing and chemcial breakdown by a-amylase contained in saliva

502
Q

Bolus

A

the clump of chewed food

503
Q

Peristalsis

A

contraction of the smooth muscle in the digestive tract which creates a wave motion that pushes along the partially digested food

504
Q

Saliva

A

acts as lubrication for the food, helping it move down the digestive tract, also contains a-amylase

505
Q

Components of stomach

A

fundus, body, pylorus; serves to store food

506
Q

Fundus

A

collects excess gas produced by digestion and can expand to store food ingested during a large meal prior to digestion

507
Q

Body (of stomach)

A

primary site of digestion within the stomach

508
Q

Pylorus

A

acts to prevent the passage of undigested food into the small intestines

509
Q

Sphincter

A

ring of muscle that is normally contracted so that there is no opening at its center

510
Q

Chyme

A

fiid reduced to a semi-fluid mass

511
Q

Gastric juice

A

a combination of acid, enzymes, and hormones released by cells in the lining of the stomach; low pH contributes to protein digestion by denaturing proteins and also helps kil ingested bacteria

512
Q

4 major cell types of the stomach

A

mucous cells, chief/peptic cells, parietal/oxyntic cells and G cells

513
Q

Mucous cells

A

line the the stomach wall and the necks of the exocrine glands so that food can slide along surface of the the stomach wall without causing damage; also protects the eptihelial lining of the stomach wall from the acidic environment; composed of sticky glycoproteins and electrolytes

514
Q

Chief/peptic cells

A

found in the exocrine cglands and secrete pepsinogen

515
Q

Pepsinogen

A

zymogen precursorr to pepsin; activated by low pH of the stomach

516
Q

Pepsin

A

protein digestion

517
Q

Zymogen

A

proenzymes; inactivave precursors to enzymes that can be activated to become functional enzymes

518
Q

G cells

A

secrete gastrin; activated by presence of polypeptides in stomach, stomach distension and input from parasympathetic nervous system

519
Q

Gastrin

A

a large peptide hormone that stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl

520
Q

Parietal cells

A

found in exocrine gland of stomach; secrete HCl into the lumen through active transport which requires large input of energy

521
Q

Components of small intestine

A

duodenum –> jejunum –> ileum

522
Q

Duodenum

A

most digestion occurs in the duodenum

523
Q

Jejunum and ileum

A

most absorbtion occurs here

524
Q

Villi

A

increase the surface area of the intestinal wall allowing for greater digestion and absorption

525
Q

Lacteal

A

the lympathic vessels of the small intestine which absorb fats (within a villus)

526
Q

Microvilli

A

increase the surface area even further

527
Q

Enterocytes

A

intestinal epithelial cells

528
Q

Goblet cells

A

secrete mucus to lubricate the small intestine and help protect the brush border from mechanical and chemical damage

529
Q

Brush border

A

contains membrane bound digestive enzymes

530
Q

Pancreas

A

aids the digestive process (and regulates metabolism); secretes bicarbonate ion to regulate hydrochloric acid released from the stomach; creates enzymes (released as zymogens) that aid in the digestive processes in the small intestine

531
Q

Major enzymes of pancrease

A

trypsin, chymotripsin, pancreate amylase, lipase, ribonuclease, deoxyribonuclease

532
Q

Trypsin/chymotrypsin

A

degrade proteins into small polypeptides

533
Q

Lipase

A

degrade fate specifically trigylcerides

534
Q

Bile

A

produced in the liver and stored in the gall bladder; ultimately released into the small intestine to emsulfiy fat which increases its surface area so that lipase can degrade it into mainly fatty acids and monoglycerides

535
Q

Components of large intestine

A

ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum

536
Q

Function of large intestine

A

water and electrolyte absorption; also contains a variety of bacterial flora which live off of partially digestive food and in turn produce vitamin K, B12, thiamin and riboflavin

537
Q

Feces

A

75% water, remaining solid mass is 30% dead bacteria, 10-20% fat, 10-20% inorganic matter, 2-3% protein and 30% roughage (ie. cellulose) and undigested matter

538
Q

Rectum

A

acts as a storage receptacle for feces until the waste is eliminated through the anus

539
Q

Enteric nervous system

A

consists of a large network of neurons surrounding the digestive organs, helping to regulate processes such as smooth muscle contraction (peristalsis), fluid exchange, blood flow to the digestive organs and hormone release

540
Q

Molecular digestion of carbohydrates

A

large polysacchardies broken down by amylase in intestinal lumen –> small polyaccharides broken down by brush border enzymes –> broken down molecules enter via secondary transport with sodium –> facilitated fiffusion from enterocyte to blood

541
Q

Molecular digestion of proteins

A

trypsin and chmotrypsin break down proteins into small polypeptides –> brush border enzymes break these down in to amino acids –> amino acids enter via co-transort with Na+, intracellular enterocyte enzymes further degrade, and then amino acids enter blood via facilitated diffusion/ or active transport

542
Q

Molecualr digestion of fats

A

similar to digestion of proteins and carbohydrates but fats/trigylcerides emulsifty into micelles which then diffuse through enterocyte membrane where they are converted back into trigylcerides in the smoothe ER and the nleave through lacteal (NOT blood)

543
Q

Albumin

A

protein that carries fatty acid molecules in the blood

544
Q

Metabolic functions of liver

A

carbohydrate metabolism (gluconeogenesis), fat metabolism, protein metabolism, detoxification

545
Q

Storage functions of liver

A

blood storage, glycogen storage, vitamin storage

546
Q

Immune functions of liver

A

blood filtration, erythrocyte destruction

547
Q

Functions of muscle

A

body movement, stabilization of body position, movement of substances through the body, and generating heat to maintain body temperature

548
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

type of striated muscle; voluntary muscle innervated by the somatic nervous system; moves the body, involved in thermoregulation and movement of fluids in cardiovascular and lymphatic systems

549
Q

Tendon

A

connective tissue connecting muscle to bone

550
Q

Ligament

A

connective tissue connecting bone to bone

551
Q

Peripheral circulatory assistance

A

contraction of skeletal muscle helps squeeze blood and lymph through their respective vessels, aiding circulation

552
Q

Shivering reflex

A

the rapid contraction or shaking of skeletal muscle to warm the body; controlled by the hypothalamus

553
Q

Sarcomere

A

smallest functional unit of the contractile apparatus in skeletal muscle; composed of thick filaments made of myosin and thin filaments made of actin

554
Q

Z line

A

separates one sarcomere from the next and is where actin filaments attach

555
Q

I Band

A

area containing only actin

556
Q

H zone

A

area containing only myosin

557
Q

A band

A

area where myosin and actin is present

558
Q

M line

A

midline of the myosin fibers

559
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

specialized endoplasmic reticulum filled with calcium ions

MCAT (5 decks)

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