Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

The science of behavior and mental processes

A

Psychology

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2
Q

The study of the relationships between features of physical stimuli, such as their intensity, and the sensations we experience in response to them

A

Psychophysics

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3
Q

Inward focusing on mental experiences, such as sensations or feelings

A

Introspection

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4
Q

The school of psychology that attempts to understand the structure of the mind by breaking it down into its component parts

A

Structuralism

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5
Q

The school of psychology that focuses on the adaptive functions of behavior

A

Functionalism

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6
Q

The school of psychology that holds that psychology should limit it self to the study of overt, observable behavior

A

Behaviorism

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7
Q

The school of psychology that holds that the brain structures or perceptions of the world in terms of meaningful patterns or wholes

A

Gestalt psychology

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8
Q

A German word meaning unitary form or pattern

A

Gestalt

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9
Q

In Freudian theory, the part of the mind that lies beyond conscious awareness and that contains primitive drives and instinct

A

Unconscious

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10
Q

The view that behavior is influenced by the struggle between unconscious sexual or aggressive impulses and opposing forces that try to keep this threatening material out of consciousness

A

Psychodynamic perspective

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11
Q

Frauds method of psychotherapy, which focuses on uncovering and working through unconscious conflicts believed to be at root or psychological problems

A

Psychoanalysis

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12
Q

In approach to the study of psychology that focuses on the role of learning in explaining observable behavior

A

Behavioral perspective

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13
Q

A contemporary learning based model that emphasizes the roles of cognitive and environmental factors in determining behavior

A

Behavior therapy

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14
Q

The school of psychology that believes that free will and conscious choice are essential aspects of the human experience

A

Humanistic psychology

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15
Q

In approach to study psychology that focuses on the relationships between biological processes and behavior

A

Physiological perspective

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16
Q

A branch of psychology that focuses on the role of evolutionary processes in shaping behavior

A

Cognitive perspective

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17
Q

An approach to the study of psychology that emphasizes the role of social and cultural influences on behavior,

A

Sociocultural perspective

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18
Q

Contemporary movement within psychology that emphasizes the study of human virtues and assets, rather than weaknesses and deficits

A

Positive psychology

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19
Q

Research focused on acquiring knowledge, even if such knowledge has no direct practical application

A

Basic research

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20
Q

Research that attempts to find solutions to specific problems

A

Applied research

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21
Q

Psychologists who apply experimental methods to the study of behavior and mental processes

A

Experimental psychologist

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22
Q

Psychologist who studies behavior, similarities, and differences among animal species

A

Comparative psychologists

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23
Q

Psychologists who focus on the biological underpinnings of behavior

A

Physiological psychologist

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24
Q

Psychologists who use psychological techniques to evaluate and treat individuals with mental or psychological disorders

A

Clinical psychologist

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25
Q

Medical doctors who specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of mental or psychological disorders

A

Psychiatrist

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26
Q

Psychologist who help people clarify their goals and make life decisions or finding ways of overcoming problems in various areas of their lives

A

Counseling psychologist

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27
Q

Psychologists who evaluate and assist children with learning problems, or other special needs

A

School psychologists

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28
Q

Psychologists who study issues relating to the measurement of intelligence and the processes involved in educational or academic achievement

A

Educational psychologist

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29
Q

Psychologists to focus on processes involving physical, cognitive, social, and personality development

A

Developmental psychologists

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30
Q

Psychologist who studies the psychological characteristics and behaviors that distinguishes as individuals and lead us to act consistently over time

A

Personality psychologists

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31
Q

Psychologists who study group or social influences on behavior and attitudes

A

Social psychologist

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32
Q

Psychologist who study relationships between physical environment and behavior

A

Environmental psychologists

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33
Q

Psychologist who studies people’s behavior at work

A

Industrial/organizational psychologist

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34
Q

Psychologists who focus on the relationship between psychological factors and physical health

A

Health psychologist

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35
Q

Psychologist who study why people purchase a particular product and brands

A

Consumer psychologist

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36
Q

Psychologists who study relationships between the brain and behavior

A

Neuropsychologists

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37
Q

Psychologists to focus on physiological processes involved in aging

A

Geropsychologists

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38
Q

Psychologists involved in the application of psychology in the legal system

A

Forensic psychologist

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39
Q

Psychologists who applied psychology to understand and improving athletic performance

A

Sport psychologists

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40
Q

A method of developing knowledge based on evaluating evidence, gathered from experiments and careful observation

A

Empirical approach

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41
Q

Conclusions drawn from observations

A

Inferences

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42
Q

A formulation that accounts for relationships among observed events or that explains experimental findings

A

Theory

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43
Q

Factors or measures that vary within an experiment or among individuals

A

Variables

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44
Q

A method of inquiry involving careful observation, and use of experimental methods

A

Scientific method

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45
Q

A precise prediction about the outcome of an experiment

A

Hypothesis

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46
Q

A branch of mathematics involving the tabulation, analysis, and interpretation of numerical data

A

Statistics

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47
Q

A term representing that he finding is unlikely to be due to a chance of random fluctuations

A

Statistical significance

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48
Q

The attempt to duplicate findings

A

Replication

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49
Q

An in-depth study of one or more individuals

A

Case study method

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50
Q

A research methods that uses structured interviews or questionnaires to gather information about groups of people

A

Survey method

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51
Q

An interview in which a set of specific questions asked in a particular order

A

Structured interview

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52
Q

A written set of questions, or statements, to which people reply by marking their responses on the answer form

A

Questionnaire

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53
Q

All the individuals are organisms that constitute a particular groups

A

Population

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54
Q

A method of sampling in which each individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected

A

Random sampling

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55
Q

Subset of a population

A

Samples

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56
Q

The tendency to respond to questions in a socially desirable manner

A

Social desirability bias

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57
Q

The type of bias that arises when people who volunteered to participate in a survey or research study have characteristics that make them on representative of the population, from which they were drawn

A

Volunteer bias

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58
Q

A method of research based on careful observation of behavior in nature settings

A

Naturalistic observation method

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59
Q

A research method that examines relationships between variables, as expressed in form of a statistical measurement called a correlation coefficient

A

Correlational method

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60
Q

A statistical measure of association between variables that can vary from -1.00 to +1.00

A

Correlational coefficient

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61
Q

A method of scientific investigation involving the manipulation of independent variables and observation of measurement of their effects on dependent variables under controlled conditions

A

Experimental method

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62
Q

Factors that are manipulated in an experiment

A

Independent variables

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63
Q

The effects or outcomes of an experiment that are believed to be dependent on the levels or values of the independent variable or variables

A

Dependent variables

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64
Q

Groups of participants in a research experiment, who do not receive the experimental treatment or intervention

A

Control groups

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65
Q

A method of assigning research participants at random to experimental or control groups

A

Random assignment

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66
Q

An inert substance or experimental condition that resembles the active treatment

A

Placebo

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67
Q

Positive outcomes of an experiment resulting from positive expectations of participants, rather than from the experimental treatment

A

Placebo effects

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68
Q

In drug research, studies in which participants are kept uninformed about whether they are receiving the experimental drug or a placebo

A

Single blind studies

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69
Q

Injured research, studies in which both participants and experimenters are kept uninformed about which participants are receiving the active drug and which are receiving the placebo

A

Double blind studies

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70
Q

Committees that evaluate whether proposed studies meet ethical guidelines

A

Ethics review committee’s

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71
Q

Agreement to participate in a study, following disclosure of information about the purposes and nature of the study, and its potential risks and benefits

A

Informed consent

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72
Q

The adoption of a skeptical, questioning attitude and careful scrutiny of claims or arguments

A

Critical thinking

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73
Q

Irregularities in _________________ functioning are implicated in many psychological disorders, including eating disorders, depression, and schizophrenia

A

Neurotransmitter

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74
Q

Chemicals released in the nervous system that influence the sensitivity of the receiving neuron to neuron transmitters

A

Neuromodulators

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75
Q

A severe and chronic psychological disorder characterized by disturbances in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior

A

Schizophrenia

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76
Q

Perceptions experienced in the absence of corresponding external stimuli

A

Hallucinations

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77
Q

Fixed but patently false beliefs, such as believing that one is being hounded by demons

A

Delusions

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78
Q

A progressive brain disease involving destruction of dopamine producing brain cells and characterized by muscle tremors, shakiness, rigidity, difficulty in walking and controlling fine body movements

A

Parkinson’s disease

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79
Q

A drug that activates the central nervous system, such as caffeine

A

Stimulant

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80
Q

A class of synthetically, derived stimulant drugs, such as methamphetamine

A

Amphetamines

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81
Q

Drugs that combat depression by affecting the levels or activity of neural transmitters

A

Anti-depressants

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82
Q

Natural chemicals released in the brain that have pain killing and pleasure inducing affects

A

Endorphins

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83
Q

A reflex controlled at the level of the spinal cord that may involve has a few as to neurons

A

Spinal reflex

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84
Q

The part of the nervous system that connects the spinal cord and brain with the sensory organs, muscles, and glands

A

Peripheral nervous system

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85
Q

The part of the peripheral nervous system, that transmits information between the central nervous system and the sensory organs and muscles ; also controls voluntary movement

A

Somatic nervous system

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86
Q

The part of the peripheral nervous system that automatically regulates involuntary bodily processes, such as breathing, heart rate, and digestion

A

Autonomic nervous system

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87
Q

The branch of the autonomic nervous system that accelerates bodily processes and releases the stores of energy needed to meet increased physical demands

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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88
Q

The branch of the autonomic nervous system, that regulates, bodily processes, such as digestion, that replenishes stores of energy

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

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89
Q

Neurons that fire both when an action is performed and when the same action is merely observed

A

Mirror neurons

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90
Q

Areas of the cerebral cortex that piece together sensory information to form meaningful perceptions of the world and perform higher mental functions

A

Association areas

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91
Q

In studies of brain functioning, the intentional destruction of brain tissue in order to observe the effects on behavior

A

Lesioning

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92
Q

Specialization of the right and left cerebral hemispheres for particular functions

A

Lateralization

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93
Q

An area of the left frontal lobe involved in speech

A

Broca’s area

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94
Q

An area of the left temporal lobe involved in processing written and spoken language

A

Wernicke’s area

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95
Q

Persons whose corpus callosum have been surgically severed

A

Split brain patients

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96
Q

A type of brain trauma in which a foreign object, such as a bullet or a piece of shrapnel, pierces the skull and injures the brain

A

Laceration

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97
Q

The ability of the brain to adapt itself after trauma or surgical alteration

A

Plasticity

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98
Q

A cluster of physical and physiological symptoms occurring in a few days preceding the menstrual flow

A

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

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99
Q

An organisms genetic code

A

Genotype

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100
Q

Basic units of heredity that contain the individuals genetic code

A

Genes

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101
Q

Rodlike structures in the cell nucleus that house the individuals genes

A

Chromosomes

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102
Q

The observable physical, and behavioral characteristics of an organism, representing the influences of the genotype and environment

A

Phenotype

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103
Q

Traits that are influenced by multiple genes interacting in complex ways

A

Polygenic traits.

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104
Q

Studies exam in the degree to which disorders or characteristics are shared among family members

A

Familial association studies

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105
Q

Twins who developed from the same zygote and so have identical genes (monozygotic)

A

Identical twins

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106
Q

A fertilized egg cell

A

Zygote

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107
Q

Twins who developed from separate zygotes and so have 50% of their genes in common (dizygotic)

A

Fraternal twins

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108
Q

Studies that exam in the degree to which twins, share traits, characteristics, or disorders in relation to whether the twins are identical or fraternal

A

Twin studies

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109
Q

In twin studies, the percentages of cases, in which both members of twin pairs share the same trait or disorder

A

Concordance rates

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110
Q

Studies examine weather adoptees, are more similar to their biological or adoptive parents with respect to their psychological traits or the disorders they developed

A

Adoptee studies

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111
Q

The process by which we received, transform, and process, stimuli from the outside world to create sensory experiences a vision, touch, hearing, taste, smell, and so on

A

Sensation

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112
Q

The study of the relationship between features of physical stimuli, such as the intensity of light and sound, and the sensation we experience in response to the stimuli

A

Psychophysics

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113
Q

The smallest amount of a given stimulus a person can sense

A

Absolute threshold

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114
Q

The minimal difference in the magnitude of energy needed for people to detect a difference between to stimuli

A

Difference threshold

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115
Q

The principle that the amount of change in a stimulus needed to detect a difference is given by a constant ratio or fraction, called a constant, of the original stimulus

A

Weber’s law

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116
Q

The belief that the detection of a stimulus is determined by many factors, including the intensity of the stimulus, the level of background stimulation, and the biological in physiological characteristics of the preceiver

A

Signal detection theory

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117
Q

The process by which sensory receptors adapt to constant stimuli by becoming less sensitive to them

A

Sensory adaptation

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118
Q

A theory of color vision that posits that the ability to see different colors depends on the relative activity of 3 types of color receptors in the eye (red, green, and blue-violet)

A

Trichromatic theory

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119
Q

The visual image of a stimulus that remains after the stimulus is removed

A

Afterimage

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120
Q

A theory of color vision that holds that the experience of color results from opposing processes involved in 2 sets of color receptors, red-green receptors and blue-yellow receptors, and that another set of opposing receptors, black-white, is responsible for detecting differences in brightness

A

Opponent process theory

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121
Q

People with normal color vision who can discern all the colors of the visual spectrum

A

Trichromats

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122
Q

People who have no color vision and see only in black-and-white

A

Monochromats

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123
Q

People who can see some colors, but not others

A

Dichromats

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124
Q

The sense of hearing

A

Audition

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125
Q

The highness or lowness of a sound that corresponds to the frequency of the sound wave

A

Pitch

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126
Q

The nerve that carries neural impulses from the ear to the brain, which gives rise to the experience of hearing

A

Auditory nerve

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127
Q

The belief that pitch depends on the place along the basilar membrane that vibrates the most in response to a particular auditory stimulus

A

Place theory

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128
Q

The belief that pitch depends on the frequency of vibration of the basilar membrane and the volley of neural impulses transmitted to the brain via the auditory nerve.

A

Frequency theory

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129
Q

The principle that relates the experience of pitch to the alternating firing of groups of neurons along the basilar membrane

A

Volley principle

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130
Q

A form of deafness, usually involving damage to the middle ear, in which there is a loss of conduction of sound vibrations through the ear

A

Conduction deafness

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131
Q

Deafness associated with nerve damage, usually involving damage to the hair cells or to the auditory nerve itself

A

Nerve deafness

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132
Q

Chemical substances that are emitted by many species and that have various functions, including sexual attraction

A

Pheromones

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133
Q

The belief that a neural gate in the spinal cord opens to allow pain messages to reach the brain and closes to shut them out

A

Gate control theory of pain

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134
Q

An ancient Chinese, practice of inserting and rotating thin needles in various parts of the body in order to release natural healing energy

A

Acupuncture

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135
Q

The sense that keeps us informed about movement of the parts of the body and their position in relation to each other

A

Kinesthesis

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136
Q

The sense that keeps us informed about balance in the position of our body in space

A

Vestibular sense

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137
Q

3 curved, tube-like canals in the inner ear that are involved in sensing changes in the direction and movement of the head

A

Semicircular canals

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138
Q

Organs in the inner ear that connect the semicircular canals

A

Vestibular sacs

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139
Q

The process by which the brain integrate, organizing, and interprets sensory impressions to create representations of the world

A

Perception

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140
Q

The process by which we attend to meaningful stimuli and filter out irrelevant or extraneous stimuli

A

Selective attention

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141
Q

Reduction in the strength of a response to a repeated stimulus

A

Habituation

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142
Q

The tendency for perception to be influenced by ones expectations or preconceptions

A

Perceptual set

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143
Q

A mode of perceptual processing by which the brain recognizes meaningful patterns by piecing together bits and pieces of sensory information

A

Bottom up processing

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144
Q

A mode of perceptual processing by which the brain identifies patterns as meaningful holes rather than as piecemeal constructions

A

Top down processing

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145
Q

The principles identified by Gestalt psychologists that describe the ways in which the brain groups bit of sensory stimulation into meaningful wholes or patterns

A

Laws of perceptual organization

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146
Q

The principle that objects that are near each other will be perceived as belonging to a common set

A

Proximity

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147
Q

The principle that objects that are similar will be perceived as belonging to the same group

A

Similarity

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148
Q

The principle that a series of stimuli will be perceived as representing a unified form

A

Continuity

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149
Q

The perceptual principle that people tend to piece together disconnected bits of information to perceive whole forms

A

Closure

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150
Q

The principle the objects positioned together or move together will be perceived as belonging to the same group

A

Connectedness

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151
Q

The tendency to perceive the size, shape, color, and brightness of an object as remaining the same, even when the image it casts on the retina changes

A

Perceptual constancy

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152
Q

The tendency to perceive an object, as having the same shape despite differences in the images it casts on the retina is the viewers perspective changes

A

Shape constancy

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153
Q

The tendency to perceive an object as having the same size, despite changes in the images of casts on the retina as the viewing distance changes

A

Size constancy

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154
Q

The tendency to perceive an object as having the same color, despite changes in lighting conditions

A

Color constancy

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155
Q

The tendency to perceive objects as retaining there brightness, even when they are viewed in dim light

A

Brightness constancy

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156
Q

Cues for depth that involve both eyes, such as retinal disparity and convergence

A

Binocular cues

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157
Q

A binocular cue for distance based on the slight differences in the visual impressions formed in both eyes

A

Retinal disparity

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158
Q

A binocular cue for distance based on the degree of tension required to focus two eyes on the same object

A

Convergence

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159
Q

Cues for depth that can be perceived by each eye alone, such as relative size and interposition

A

Monocular cues

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160
Q

Misperceptions of visual stimuli

A

Visual illusions

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161
Q

A type of apparent movement based on the rapid succession of still images, as in motion pictures

A

Stroboscopic movement

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162
Q

An attempt to explain the Müller-Lyer illusion, in terms of the cultural experience of living in a carpentered, right-angled world like our own

A

Carpentered world hypothesis

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163
Q

Perception of stimuli presented below the threshold of conscious awareness

A

Subliminal perception

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164
Q

Perception that occurs with the benefit of the known senses

A

Extrasensory perception (ESP)

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165
Q

The study of paranormal phenomena

A

Parapsychology

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166
Q

Communication of thoughts from one mind to another that occurs without using the known senses

A

Telepathy

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167
Q

The ability to perceive objects and events without using the known senses

A

Clairvoyance

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168
Q

The ability to foretell the future

A

Precognition

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169
Q

The ability to move objects by mental effort alone

A

Psychokinesis

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170
Q

A method of learning to control certain bodily responses by using information transmitted by physiological monitoring equipment

A

Biofeedback training

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171
Q

A form of biofeedback training that involves feedback about changes in temperature in blood flow in selected parts of the body semicolon used in the treatment of migraine headaches

A

Thermal biofeedback

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172
Q

A prolonged, intense headache brought on by changes in blood flow in the brains blood vessels

A

Migraine

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173
Q

A state of awareness of ourselves & of the world around us

A

Consciousness

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174
Q

A state of heightened alertness and which one is fully absorbed in the task at hand

A

Focused awareness

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175
Q

A state of awareness characterized by drifting thoughts or mental imagery

A

Drifting consciousness

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176
Q

A form of consciousness during a waking state in which one’s mind wanders to dreaming thoughts or fantasies

A

Daydreaming

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177
Q

A state of awareness characterized by divided attention to two or more tasks or activities performed at the same time

A

Divided consciousness

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178
Q

States of awareness during wakefulness that are different from the persons usual waking state

A

Altered states of consciousness

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179
Q

The pattern of fluctuations in bodily processes that occur regularly each day

A

Circadian rhythm

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180
Q

A disruption of sleep wake cycles caused by the shifts in time zones that accompany long-distance air travel

A

Jetlag

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181
Q

The stage of sleep that involves rapid eye movement, and that is most closely associated with periods of dreaming

A

Rapid eye movement sleep
REM

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182
Q

The proposition that dreams represent the brains attempt to make sense of the random discharges of electrical activity that occur during REM sleep

A

Activation synthesis hypothesis

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183
Q

Dreams in which the dreamers aware that he or she is dreaming

A

Lucid dreams

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184
Q

Difficulty falling asleep, remaining asleep, or returning to sleep after night time awakenings

A

Insomnia

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185
Q

A disorder characterized by sudden unexplained “sleep attacks” during the day

A

Narcolepsy

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186
Q

Temporary cessation of breathing during sleep

A

Sleep apnea

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187
Q

A sleep disorder involving a pattern of frequent, disturbing nightmares

A

Nightmare disorder

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188
Q

Sleep disorder involving repeated episodes of intense fear during sleep, causing the person to awake abruptly in a terrified state

A

Sleep terror disorder

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189
Q

A sleep disorder characterized by repeated episodes of sleepwalking

A

Sleepwalking disorder

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190
Q

The process of focused attention that induces a relax, contemplative state

A

Meditation

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191
Q

Before my meditation which practitioners focus their attention by repeating a particular mantra

A

Transcendental meditation (TM)

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192
Q

A sound or phrase chanted repeatedly during transcendental meditation

A

Mantra

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193
Q

A form of meditation, and which one adopt a state of nonjudgmental attention to the unfolding of experience on a moment to moment basis

A

Mindfulness meditation

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194
Q

An altered state of consciousness, characterized by focused attention, deep relaxation, and heightened susceptibility to suggestion

A

Hypnosis

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195
Q

A hypnotically induced experience that involves experiencing past events in one’s life

A

Hypnotic age regression

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196
Q

A loss of feeling or responsiveness to pain in certain parts of the body occurring during Hypnosis

A

Hypnotic analgesia

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197
Q

And inability to recall what happen during hypnosis

A

Posthypnotic amnesia

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198
Q

A hypnotist’s suggestion that the subject will respond in a particular way following hypnosis

A

Posthypnotic suggestion

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199
Q

A theory of hypnosis based on the belief that hypnosis represents a state of disassociation (divided) consciousness

A

Neodissociation theory

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200
Q

Hilgard’s term for a part of consciousness that remains detached from the hypnotic experience, but aware of everything that happens during it

A

Hidden observer

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201
Q

Chemical substances that affect a persons mental or emotional state

A

Psychoactive drugs

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202
Q

Maladaptive or dangerous use of a chemical substance

A

Drug abuse

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203
Q

People who abuse more than one drug at a time

A

Polyabusers

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204
Q

A severe drug related problem characterized by impaired control over the use of the drug

A

Drug dependence

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205
Q

A state of physical dependence on a drug caused by repeated usage that changes body chemistry

A

Physiological dependence

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206
Q

A cluster of symptoms associated with abrupt withdraw from a drug

A

Withdrawal syndrome

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207
Q

A form of physical habituation to a drug in which increased amounts are needed to achieve the same affect

A

Tolerance

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208
Q

Drug dependence accompanied by signs of physiological dependence, such as the development of a withdrawal syndrome

A

Drug addiction

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209
Q

A pattern of compulsive or habitual use of a drug to satisfy a psychological need

A

Psychological dependence

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210
Q

Drugs, such as alcohol and barbiturates, that dampen central nervous system activity

A

Depressants

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211
Q

A chemical substance that induces a state of drunkenness

A

Intoxicant

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212
Q

The chemical addiction characterized by impaired control over the use of alcohol and physiological dependence on it

A

Alcoholism

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213
Q

Addictive drugs that have pain relieving and sleep inducing properties

A

Narcotics

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214
Q

Drugs that increase the level of activity of the central nervous system and increase alertness and wakefulness

A

Stimulants

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215
Q

Drugs that alter sensory experiences in produce hallucinations

A

Hallucinogens

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216
Q

A mental state characterized by confusion, disorientation, difficulty, focusing attention, and excitable behavior

A

Delirium

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217
Q

A process of clearing drugs or toxins from the body

A

Detoxification

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218
Q

A relatively permanent change in behavior acquired through experience

A

Learning

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219
Q

The process of learning by which a previously neutral stimulus comes to elicit an identical or similar response to one originally elicited by another stimulus as the result of the pairing of the two stimuli

A

Classical conditioning

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220
Q

An unlearned response to a stimulus

A

Unconditioned response

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221
Q

A stimulus that elicits and unlearned response

A

Unconditioned stimulus

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222
Q

A stimulus that before conditioning does not produce a particular response

A

Neutral stimulus

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223
Q

An acquired or learned response to a conditioned stimulus

A

Conditioned response

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224
Q

A previously neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a conditioned response after it has been paired with an unconditioned stimulus

A

Conditioned stimulus

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225
Q

The gradual weakening and eventual disappearance of a conditioned response

A

Extinction

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226
Q

Spontaneous return of a conditioned response following extinction

A

Spontaneous recovery

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227
Q

The process of relearning a conditioned response following extinction

A

Reconditioning

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228
Q

The tendency for stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response

A

Stimulus generalization

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229
Q

The tendency to differentiate among stimuli so that stimuli that are related to the original condition, stimulus, but not identical to it, failed to elicit a conditioned response

A

Stimulus discrimination

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230
Q

The process by which a new stimulus comes to elicit a conditioned response as a result of it being paired with a conditioned stimulus that already elicits a conditioned response

A

Higher order conditioning

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231
Q

An emotional response to a particular stimulus acquired through classical conditioning

A

Conditioned emotional reaction

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232
Q

Excessive fears of particular objects or situations

A

Phobias

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233
Q

A form of therapy that involves the systematic application of the principles of learning

A

Behavior therapy

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234
Q

Aversions to particular taste acquired through classical conditioning

A

Conditioned taste aversions

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235
Q

Thorndike’s principle that responses that have satisfying effects are more likely to recur, while those that have unpleasant attacks are less likely to recur

A

Law of effect

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236
Q

The philosophical position that free will is an illusion or myth, and that human and animal behavior is completely determined by environmental and genetic information

A

Radical behavioralism

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237
Q

An experimental apparatus developed by B. F. Skinner for studying relationships between reinforcement and behavior

A

Skinner box

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238
Q

The process of learning by which a response is strengthened by means of manipulating the consequences of the response

A

Operant conditioning

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239
Q

A stimulus or event that increases the probability that the response it follows will be repeated

A

. Reinforcer

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240
Q

In Skinner’s view, behavior acquired through coincidental association of a response and reinforcement

A

Superstitious behavior

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241
Q

Strengthening of a response by presenting a positive or rewarding stimulus after the response occurs

A

Positive reinforcement

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242
Q

Strengthening of a response to the removal of the stimulus after the response occurs

A

Negative reinforcement

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243
Q

Such as food or sexual stimulation, that are naturally regarding because they satisfy basic biological needs or drives

A

Primary reinforcers

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244
Q

Learned reinforcers, such as money, that develop their reinforcing properties because of their association with primary reinforcers

A

Secondary reinforcers

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245
Q

A cue that signals that reinforcement is available, if the subject makes a particular response

A

Discriminative stimulus

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246
Q

A process of learning that involves the reinforcement of increasing closer approximations to the desired response

A

Shaping

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247
Q

The method used to shape behavior that involves reinforcing ever closer approximations to the desired response

A

Method of successive approximations

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248
Q

Predetermined plans for timing the delivery of reinforcement

A

Schedules of reinforcement

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249
Q

A system of dispensing a reinforcement each time a desired response is produced

A

Schedule of continuous reinforcement

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250
Q

A system of dispensing reinforcement, in which only a portion of the desired responses is reinforced

A

Schedule of partial reinforcement

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251
Q

The learning of behaviors that allow an organism to escape from an aversive stimulus

A

Escape learning

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252
Q

The introduction of an aversive stimulus or the removal of a reinforcing stimulus, following a particular behavior, which leads to the weakening or suppression of the response

A

Punishment

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253
Q

The systematic application of learning principles to strengthen adaptive behavior and weaken maladaptive behavior

A

Behavior modification (B-mod)

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254
Q

A form of behavior modification in which tokens turned from performing desired behaviors can be exchanged for positive reinforcers

A

Token economy program

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255
Q

A learning method in which complex material is broken down into a series of small steps, that learners master at their own pace

A

Programmed instruction

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256
Q

A form of programmed instruction in which a computer is used to guide a student through a series of increasingly difficult questions

A

Computer-assisted instruction

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257
Q

Learning that occurs without the opportunity of first performing the learned response or being reinforced for it

A

Cognitive learning

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258
Q

The process of mentally working through a problem, until the sudden realization of a solution of hers

A

Insight learning

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259
Q

Learning that occurs without a parent reinforcement and that is not displayed until reinforcement is provided

A

Latent learning

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260
Q

A mental representation of an area that helps an organism navigate its away from one point to another

A

Cognitive map

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261
Q

Learning by observing and imitating the behavior of others

A

Observational learning
Vicarious learning
Modeling

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262
Q

The system that allows us to retain information and bring it to mind

A

Memory

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263
Q

The process of converting information into a form that can be stored in memory

A

Memory encoding

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264
Q

The process of retaining information in memory

A

Memory storage

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265
Q

The process of assessing and bringing into consciousness information stored in memory

A

Memory retrieval

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266
Q

Cues associated with the original learning that facilitate the retrieval of memories

A

Retrieval cues

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267
Q

The belief that retrieval will be more successful and cues available during recall are similar to those present when the material was first committed to memory

A

Encoding specificity principle

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268
Q

The tendency for information to be better recalled in the same contacts in which was originally learned

A

State dependent memory effect

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269
Q

A model of memory that posits 3 distinct stages of memory ; sensory memory, short term memory, & long-term memory

A

Three stage model

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270
Q

The storage system that holds memory of sensory impressions for a very short time

A

Sensory memory

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271
Q

A temporary storage device for holding sensory memories

A

Sensory register

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272
Q

A sensory storage for holding a mental representation of a visual image for a fraction of a second

A

Iconic memory

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273
Q

A lingering mental representation of a visual image

A

Eidetic imagery
Photographic memory

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274
Q

A sensory store for holding a mental representation of a sound for a few seconds after the registers in the ears

A

Echoic memory

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275
Q

The memory subsystem that allows for retention in processing of newly acquired information for a maximum of about 30 seconds

A

Short term memory
Working memory

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276
Q

The process of enhancing retention of a large amount of information by breaking it down into smaller, more easily recalled chunks

A

Chunking

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277
Q

The process of extending retention of information held in short-term memory by consciously repeating the information

A

Maintenance rehearsal

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278
Q

The speech based part of working memory that allows for the verbal rehearsal of sounds or words

A

Phonological loop

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279
Q

The storage buffer for a visual-spatial material held in short term memory

A

Visuospatial sketchpad

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280
Q

The workspace of working memory were information from visual, auditory, and other modalities are brought together

A

Episodic buffer

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281
Q

The component of working memory responsible for coordinating the other subsystems, receiving and processing stored information, and filtering out distracting thought

A

Central executive

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282
Q

The memory subsystem responsible for long-term storage of information

A

Long-term memory

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283
Q

The process of converting short-term memories into long-term memories

A

Consolidation

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284
Q

The process of transferring information from short term, memory to long-term memory by consciously focusing on the meaning of the information

A

Elaborative rehearsal

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285
Q

A representation of the organizational structure of long-term memory into networks of associated concepts

A

Semantic network model

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286
Q

The belief that how well or how long information is remember, depends on the depth of encoding or processing

A

Levels of processing theory

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287
Q

Memory of fax and personal information that requires a conscious effort to bring to mind

A

Declarative memory
Explicit memory

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288
Q

Memory of facts and general information about the world

A

Semantic memory

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289
Q

Memory of personal experiences

A

Episodic memory

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290
Q

Memory of past experiences or events, and previously required information

A

Retrospective memory

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291
Q

Memory of things, one plans to do in the future

A

Prospective memory

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292
Q

Memory of how to do things that require motor or performance skills

A

Procedural memory

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293
Q

Memory accessed without conscious effort

A

Implicit memory

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294
Q

Memory access through conscious effort

A

Explicit memory

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295
Q

A theory that holds that memory is not a replica of the past but a representation, or reconstruction, of the past

A

Constructionist theory

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296
Q

An organized knowledge structure, such as a set of beliefs, reflecting ones past experiences, expectancies, and knowledge about the world

A

Memory schema

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297
Q

Enduring memories of emotional charged events that same permanently seared into the brain

A

Flashbulb memories

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298
Q

A form of memory distortion that affects eyewitness testimony and that is caused by misinformation provided during the retention interval

A

Misinformation effect

299
Q

A theory of forgetting that posits that memories consist of traces lay down in the brain that gradually deteriorate and fadeaway over time

A

Decay theory
Trace theory

300
Q

A method of testing memory retention by comparing the numbers of trials needed to learn material with the number of trials needed to relearn the material at a later time

A

Savings method

301
Q

The tendency for retention of learned material to be greater with spaced practice than with massed practice

A

Massed vs. Spaced practice effect

302
Q

The belief that forgetting is the result of the interference of memories with each other

A

Interference theory

303
Q

A form of interference in which newly acquired information interferes with retention of material learned earlier

A

Retroactive interference

304
Q

A form of interference in which material learned earlier interferes with retention of newly acquired information

A

Proactive interference

305
Q

Practice repeated be on the point necessary to reproduce material without error

A

Overlearning

306
Q

The tendency to recall items at the start or end of a list better than items in the middle of a list

A

Serial position effect

307
Q

The tendency to recall items better when they are learned first

A

Primary effect

308
Q

The tendency to recall items better when they are learned last

A

Recency effect

309
Q

The belief that forgetting is the result of a failure to access storage memories

A

Retrieval theory

310
Q

An experience in which people are sure they know something but can’t seem to bring it to mind

A

Tip of the tongue phenomenon

311
Q

In Freudian theory, a type of defense mechanism involving motivated forgetting of anxiety-evoking material

A

Repression

312
Q

A memory task, such as an essay test, requiring retrieval of stored information with minimal cues available

A

Recall task

313
Q

A method of measuring memory retention that accesses the ability to select the correct answer from among a range of alternative answers.

A

Recognition task

314
Q

Loss of memory

A

Amnesia

315
Q

Loss of memory of past events

A

Retrograde amnesia

316
Q

Loss or impairment of ability to form or store new memories

A

Anterograde amnesia

317
Q

The normal occurrence of amnesia for events occurring during infancy and early childhood

A

Childhood amnesia

318
Q

A psychological beast form of amnesia involving the “ splitting off” from memory of traumatic or trouble experiences

A

Dissociative amnesia

319
Q

Lashley’s term for the physical traits of etching of a memory in the brain

A

Engram

320
Q

The long-term strengthening of neural connections, as the result of repeated stimulation

A

Long-term potentiation

321
Q

A device for improving memory

A

Mnemonic

322
Q

They word composed of the first letters of a series of words

A

Acronym

323
Q

A verse or saying in which a certain letter of each word stands for something else

A

Acrostic

324
Q

The branch of psychology that forces on such mental processes as thinking, problem-solving, decision making, can use of language

A

Cognitive psychology

325
Q

The process of mentally representing and manipulating information

A

Thinking

326
Q

A mental picture or representation of an object or event

A

Mental image

327
Q

Mental categories for classifying events, objects, and ideas on the basis of their common features or properties

A

Concepts

328
Q

Concepts with clearly defined rules for membership

A

Logical concepts

329
Q

Concepts with poorly defined or fuzzy rules for membership

A

Natural concepts

330
Q

The broadest concepts in a three level hierarchy of concepts

A

Superordinate concepts

331
Q

The middle level of concepts in a three level hierarchy of concepts, corresponding to the categories be most often used in grouping objects and events

A

Basic level concepts

332
Q

The narrowest level of concepts in a three level hierarchy of concepts

A

Subordinate concepts

333
Q

An object that fits a particular concept

A

Positive instance

334
Q

An object that does not fit a particular concept

A

Negative instance

335
Q

A form of thinking focused on finding a solution to a particular problem

A

Problem-solving

336
Q

A step by step set of rules used to solve a problem

A

Algorithm

337
Q

A rule of thumb for solving problems or making judgments or decisions

A

Heuristic

338
Q

In problem-solving, a strategy based on using similarities between the properties of two things or applying solutions to past problem to the problem at hand

A

Analogy

339
Q

A respite from active problem-solving efforts, which may facilitate finding a solution

A

Incubation period

340
Q

The tendency to rely on strategies that work in similar situations in the past but that may not be appropriate to the present situation

A

Mental set

341
Q

The tendency to perceive objects as limited to the customary functions they serve

A

Functional fixedness

342
Q

A form of problem solving in which we must select a course of action from among the available alternatives

A

Decision making

343
Q

The tendency to maintain allegiance to an initial hypothesis, despite strong evidence to the contrary

A

Confirmation bias

344
Q

A rule of thumb for making a judgment that assumes a given sample is representative of the larger population from which it is drawn

A

Representative heuristic

345
Q

The tendency to judge events as more likely to occur when information pertaining to them comes readily to mind

A

Availability heuristic

346
Q

The tendency for decisions to be influenced by how potential outcomes are phrased

A

Framing

347
Q

Originality of thought associated with the development of new, workable products or solutions to problems

A

Creativity

348
Q

The ability to conceive of new ways of viewing situation in new uses for familiar objects

A

Divergent thinking

349
Q

The attempt to narrow down a range of alternatives to converge on the one correct answer to a problem

A

Convergent thinking

350
Q

Combination of two or more concepts into one concept, resulting in the creation of a novel idea or application

A

Conceptual combination

351
Q

The expansion of familiar concept into new uses

A

Conceptual expansion

352
Q

A system of communication composed of symbols that are arranged according to a set of rules to form meaningful expressions

A

Language

353
Q

The set of rules governing how symbols in a given language are used to form meaningful expressions

A

Grammar

354
Q

The basic unit of sound in a language

A

Phonemes

355
Q

The smallest unit of meaning in a language

A

Morphemes

356
Q

The rules of grammar that determine how words are ordered within sentences or phrases to form meaningful expressions

A

Syntax

357
Q

The set of rules governing the meaning of words

A

Semantics

358
Q

Chomsky’s concept of an innate, pre-wired mechanism in the brain that allows children to acquire language naturally

A

Language acquisition device

359
Q

The proposition that the language we use determines how we think and how we perceive the world

A

Linguistic relativity hypothesis

360
Q

The capacity to think and reason clearly and to act purposefully and effectively in adapting to the environment and pursuing ones goals

A

Intelligence

361
Q

A representation of a persons intelligence, based on the age of people who are capable of performing at the same level of ability

A

Mental age

362
Q

A measure of intelligence based on performance on tests of mental abilities, expressed as a ratio between one’s mental age and chronological age or derived from the deviation of one’s scores from the norms for those of one’s age group

A

Intelligence quotient (IQ)

363
Q

The standard used to compare an individual’s performance on a test with the performance of others

A

Norms

364
Q

The process of establishing norms for a test by administering the test to large numbers of people who constitute a standardization sample

A

Standardization

365
Q

The consistency of test scores over time

A

Reliability

366
Q

The degree to which a test measures what it purports to measure

A

Validity

367
Q

Tests designed to eliminate cultural biases

A

Culture fair tests

368
Q

A generalized deficit or impairment in intellectual & social skills

A

Mental retardation

369
Q

The practice of placing children with special needs in a regular classroom environment

A

Mainstreaming

370
Q

7 basic mental abilities that Thurstone believed constitute intelligence

A

Primary mental abilities

371
Q

Gardner’s term for the distinct types of intelligence that characterize different forms of intelligent behavior

A

Multiple intelligences

372
Q

Sternberg’s theory of intelligence that posits 3 aspects of intelligence : analytic, creative, & practical

A

Triarchic theory of intelligence

373
Q

The degree to which heredity accounts for variations on a given trait within a population

A

Heritability

374
Q

A method of promoting divergent thinking by encouraging people to propose as many solutions to a problem as possible without fear of being judged negatively by others, no matter how far-fetched their proposals may be

A

Brainstorming

375
Q

Factors that activate, direct, and sustain goal directed behavior

A

Motivation

376
Q

Needs or wants that drive goal directed behavior

A

Motives

377
Q

Genetically programmed, innate patterns of responses that are specific to members of a particular species

A

Instinctive behavior’s

378
Q

The belief that behavior is motivated by instinct

A

Instinct theory

379
Q

The belief that behavior is motivated by drives that arise from biological needs that demand satisfaction

A

Drive theory

380
Q

A state of deprivation or deficiency

A

Need

381
Q

A state of bodily tension, such as hunger or thirst, that arises from an unmet need

A

Drive

382
Q

Satisfaction of a drive

A

Drive reduction

383
Q

Innate drives, such as hunger, thirst, sexual desire, which arise from basic biological needs

A

Primary drives

384
Q

Drives that are learned or acquired through experience, such as the drive to achieve monetary wealth

A

Secondary drives

385
Q

Internal states that prompt inquisitive, stimulation-seeking, and exploratory behavior

A

Stimulus motives

386
Q

The belief that whenever the level of stimulation dips below an organisms optimal level, the organism seeks ways of increasing it

A

arousal theory

387
Q

The belief that are attraction to particular goals or objects motivates much of our behavior

A

Incentive theory

388
Q

Rewards or other stimuli that motivate us to act

A

Incentives

389
Q

The strength of the “pull” of a goal or reward

A

Incentive value

390
Q

A state of internal tension brought about by conflicting attitudes and behavior

A

Cognitive dissonance

391
Q

The belief that people are motivated to resolve discrepancies between their behavior in their attitudes or beliefs

A

Cognitive dissonance theory

392
Q

The tendency to place greater value on goals that are difficult to achieve in order to justify the effort expended in attaining them

A

Effort justification

393
Q

Needs that reflect interpersonal aspects of motivation, such as the need for friendship or achievement

A

Psychosocial needs

394
Q

The need to excel in one’s endeavors

A

Need for achievement

395
Q

Motivation reflecting a desire for external rewards, such as wealth or the respect of others

A

Extrinsic motivation

396
Q

Motivation reflecting a desire for internal gratification, such as the self-satisfaction derived from accomplishing a particular goal

A

Intrinsic motivation

397
Q

The motive or desire to achieve success in excel at what we do

A

Achievement motivation

398
Q

The motive or desire to avoid failure

A

Avoidance motivation

399
Q

Maslow’s concept that there is an order to human needs, which starts with a basic biological needs and progresses to self-actualization

A

Hierarchy of needs

400
Q

The motive that drives individuals to express their unique capabilities and fulfill their potential’s

A

Self actualization

401
Q

A part of the hypothalamus involved in initiating eating (turning on)

A

Lateral hypothalamus

402
Q

A part of the hypothalamus involved in regulating feelings of satiety

A

Ventromedial hypothalamus

403
Q

A condition of excess body fat

A

Obesity

404
Q

A standard measure of obesity based on body weight adjusted for height

A

Body mass index

405
Q

The belief that brain mechanisms regulate body weight around a genetically predetermined “set point”

A

Set point theory

406
Q

____________ is a form of self starvation that result in an unhealthy and potentially dangerous low body weight, characterized by both and intense fear of becoming fat and a distorted body image

A

Anorexia nervosa

407
Q

____________ is characterized by a repetitive pattern of binge eating, followed by purging (self-induced vomiting and or laxatives)

A

Bulimia nervosa

408
Q

Complex feeling states that psychologist view as having physiological, cognitive, and behavioral components

A

Emotions

409
Q

Cultural customs and norms that govern the display of emotional expressions

A

Display rules

410
Q

The belief that mimicking facial movements associated with a particular emotion will produce the corresponding emotional state

A

Facial-feedback hypothesis

411
Q

A genuine smile that involves contraction of a particular set of facial muscles

A

Duchenne smile

412
Q

Love involving strong erotic attraction and desire for intimacy

A

Romantic love

413
Q

Sternberg’s concept of love as a triangle with 3 components : intimacy, passion, & decision/commitment

A

Triangular model of love

414
Q

The belief that emotions occur after people become aware of their physiological responses to the triggering stimuli

A

James-Lange theory

415
Q

The belief that emotional and physiological reactions to triggering stimuli occur almost simultaneously

A

Cannon-Bard theory

416
Q

The theory that emotions involve 2 factors : a state of general arousal and a cognitive interpretation (labeling) of the causes of the arousal

A

2-factor model

417
Q

LeDoux’s theory that the brain uses 2 pathways to process fear messages (“high road and low road”)

A

Dual-pathway model of fear

418
Q

The ability to recognize emotions in oneself and others, and to manage one’s own emotions effectively

A

Emotional intelligence

419
Q

The branch of psychology that explores, physical, emotional, cognitive, & social aspects of development

A

Developmental psychology

420
Q

The debate in psychology over the relative influences of genetics & environment in determining behavior (nature vs. nurture)

A

Nature-Nurture debate

421
Q

The model proposing that development involves quantitative changes that occur in small steps over time

A

Continuity model

422
Q

The model proposing that development progresses and discreet stages that involve abrupt, qualitative changes in cognitive ability and ways of interacting with the world

A

Discontinuity model

423
Q

Study that compares the same individuals that periodic intervals over an extended period of time

A

Longitudinal study

424
Q

Study that compares individuals of different ages or developmental level at the same point in time

A

Cross-sectional study

425
Q

Differences between age groups as a function of historical or social influences affecting those groups rather than age per se

A

Cohort effect

426
Q

The release of an ovum from an ovary

A

Ovulation

427
Q

A strawlike to between an ovary and the uterus, through which an ovum passes after ovulation

A

Fallopian tube

428
Q

A fertilized egg cell is called a __________

A

Zygote

429
Q

The stage of prenatal development that spans the period from fertilization through implantation

A

Germinal stage

430
Q

The stage of prenatal development from implantation through about the 8th week of pregnancy, during which the major organ systems begin to form

A

Embryonic stage

431
Q

The area in the embryo from which the nervous system develops

A

Neural tube

432
Q

The stage of prenatal development in which the fetus develops, beginning with the 9th week of pregnancy and lasting until the birth of the child

A

Fetal stage

433
Q

A neural tube defect in which the child is born with a hole in the tube surrounding the spinal cord

A

Spina bifida

434
Q

And environmental influence our agent that may harm the developing embryo or fetus

A

Teratogen

435
Q

A common childhood disease that may lead to serious birth defects, if contracted by the mother during pregnancy

A

Rubella
Also called German measles

436
Q

The sudden and unexplained death of infants that usually occurs when they are asleep in their cribs

A

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

437
Q

A syndrome caused by maternal use of alcohol during pregnancy in which the child shows developmental delays and facial deformities

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

438
Q

A technique for diagnosing fetal abnormalities involving examination of extracted fetal cells

A

Amniocentesis

439
Q

A technique of detecting fetal abnormalities that involve examination of fetal material extracted from the chorion

A

Chorionic villus sampling

440
Q

The membrane that contains the amniotic sac and fetus

A

Chorion

441
Q

A chromosomal disorder characterized by mental retardation and certain facial abnormalities

A

Down syndrome

442
Q

The reflexive turning of the newborns head in the direction of a touch on its cheek

A

Rooting reflex

443
Q

The reflexive blinking of the eyes that protects the newborn from bright light and foreign objects

A

Eyeblink reflex

444
Q

Rhythmic sucking in response to stimulation of the tongue or mouth

A

Sucking reflex

445
Q

An inborn reflex, elicited by sudden noise or loss of support, in which the infant extends its arms, arches it’s back, and brings its arms toward each other, as though attempting to grab a hold of someone

A

Moro reflex

446
Q

The reflexive curling of the infants fingers around an object that touches it’s palm

A

Palmar grasp reflex

447
Q

The reflexive fanning out and curling of an infants toes and inward twisting of its foot when the sole of the foot is stroked

A

Babinski reflex

448
Q

The biological unfolding of the organism according to the underlying genetic code

A

Maturation

449
Q

A characteristics style of behavior or disposition

A

Temperament

450
Q

The enduring emotional bond that infants and older children form with their caregivers

A

Attachment

451
Q

The process by which parents develop strong ties to their newborns, which may form in the first few hours following birth

A

Bonding

452
Q

The formation of a strong bond of the newborn animal to the first moving object scene after birth

A

Imprinting

453
Q

Ainsworth’s method for assessing infant attachment to the mother, based on a series of brief separations and reunions with mother and a playroom situation

A

Strange situation

454
Q

Generalized expectations, developed in early childhood, about how others are likely to respond in close relationships

A

Internal working models

455
Q

In Piaget’s theory, a mental framework for understanding or acting on the environment

A

Schema

456
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the process of adjustment that enables people to function more effectively and meeting the demands they face in the environment

A

Adaptation

457
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the process of incorporating new objects or situations into existing schemas

A

Assimilation

458
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the process of creating new scammers, or modifying existing ones to account for new objects or experiences

A

Accommodation

459
Q

The recognition, the objects continue to exist even if they have disappeared from site

A

Object permanence

460
Q

Symbols that stand for names and experiences ; specifically the words in a language

A

Symbolic representations

461
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the tendency to see the world only from one’s own perspective

A

Egocentrism

462
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the child’s believe that inanimate objects have living qualities

A

Animistic thinking

463
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the inability to reverse the direction of a sequence of events to their starting point

A

Irreversibility

464
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation at a time

A

Centration

465
Q

In Piaget’s theory, the ability to recognize that the quantity or amount of an object remains constant despite superficial changes in its outward appearance

A

Conservation

466
Q

The level of full cognitive maturity in Piaget’s theory, characterized by the ability to think in abstract terms

A

Formal operations

467
Q

In Vygotsky’s theory, and the range between children’s present level of knowledge and their potential now which state if they receive proper guidance and instruction

A

Zone of proximal development (ZPD)

468
Q

In Vygotsky’s theory, tailoring the degree in type of instruction to the child’s current level of ability or knowledge

A

Scaffolding

469
Q

The period of life beginning at puberty and ending with early adulthood

A

Adolescence

470
Q

The stage of development at which individuals become physiologically capable of reproducing

A

Puberty

471
Q

Physical characteristics that differentiate males, and females that are not directly involved in the production

A

Secondary sex characteristics

472
Q

Physical characteristics, such as the gonads, that differentiate males and females and play a direct role and reproduction

A

Primary sex characteristics

473
Q

The common belief among adolescents, that they are the center of other peoples attention

A

Imaginary audience

474
Q

The common belief among adolescents, that their feelings and experiences cannot possibly be understood by others and that they are personally invulnerable to harm

A

Personal fable

475
Q

In Erickson’s theory, the attainment of a psychological sense of knowing oneself and one’s direction in life

A

Ego identity

476
Q

In Erickson’s view, a stressful period of serious soul-searching and self examination of issues relating to personal values and one’s direction in life

A

Identity crisis

477
Q

In Erickson’s model, a lack of direction or aimlessness with respect to one’s role in life or public identity

A

Role diffusion

478
Q

A form of intelligence associated with the ability to think abstractly and flexibly in solving problems

A

Fluid intelligence

479
Q

A form of intelligence associated with the ability to use accumulated knowledge

A

Crystallized intelligence

480
Q

The time of life when menstruation ends

A

Menopause

481
Q

In some cultures, the period of psychosocial development, roughly spanning ages 18 - 25 during which the person makes the transition from adolescence to adulthood

A

Emerging adulthood

482
Q

A state of psychological crisis, often occurring during middle adulthood, in which people grapple with the loss of their youth

A

Midlife crisis

483
Q

A cluster of negative emotions, involving a loss of purpose and direction that can occur when children have grown and left home

A

Empty nest syndrome

484
Q

The tendency for people to marry others who are similar to themselves

A

Homogamy

485
Q

Prejudice and discrimination directed at older people

A

Ageism

486
Q

A psychological state of deprivation involving feelings of grief and loss resulting from the death of a loved one or close friend

A

Bereavement

487
Q

The expression of sorrow or grief in accordance with a set of customs, such as wearing black clothing

A

Mourning

488
Q

A bone disease characterized by a loss of bone density in which the bone becomes porous, brittle, and more prone to fracture

A

Osteoporosis

489
Q

The state of maleness out femaleness

A

Gender

490
Q

A cultural expectations imposed on men and women to behave in ways deemed appropriate for their gender

A

Gender roles

491
Q

The psychological sense of maleness or femaleness

A

Gender identity

492
Q

A mismatch in which one’s gender identity is inconsistent with one’s chromosomal an anatomic sex

A

Transsexualism

493
Q

The belief that children for mental representations or scammers of masculinity and femininity, which they then use as a bias for organizing their behavior and evaluating their self-worth

A

Gender-schema theory

494
Q

A type of gender role identification, that characterizes people who possess high levels of both masculinity and feminine traits

A

Androgyny

495
Q

A learning disorder characterized by impaired ability to read

A

Dyslexia

496
Q

The term used by masters and Johnson to refer to the characteristic stages of physiological response to sexual stimulation

A

Sexual response cycle

497
Q

Swelling of tissues with blood, a process that accounts for penile erection and vaginal lubrication during sexual arousal

A

Vasocongestion

498
Q

A state of muscle tension or rigidity

A

Myotonia

499
Q

The directionality of one’s erotic interests

A

Sexual orientation

500
Q

Unreasoning, fear and loathing of people with a homosexual sexual orientation

A

Homophobia

501
Q

A psychological disorder involving atypical or deviant patterns of sexual attraction

A

Paraphilia

502
Q

A type of paraphilia involving use of objects as sources of sexual arousal

A

Fetishism

503
Q

A type of paraphilia involving cross dressing for purposes of sexual arousal

A

Transvestism

504
Q

A type of paraphilia that involves watching unsuspecting others as they disrobe or engage in sexual activities

A

Voyeurism

505
Q

A type of paraphilia characterized by exposing ones generals to unsuspecting others for purposes of sexual arousal

A

Exhibitionism

506
Q

A type of paraphilia involving sexual attraction to children

A

Pedophilia

507
Q

A type of paraphilia involving the confliction of physical suffering or humiliation on another person for purposes of sexual gratification

A

Sexual sadism

508
Q

A type of paraphilia involving the recipient of painful or humiliating experiences as part of a sexual act

A

Sexual masochism

509
Q

Persistent or recurrent problems with sexual interest, arousal, or response

A

Sexual dysfunctions

510
Q

A type of sexual desire disorder characterized by an absence or lack of sexual interest or desire

A

Hypoactive sexual desire disorder

511
Q

A type of sexual desire disorder involving repulsion or strong aversion to genital sexual contact

A

Sexual aversion disorder

512
Q

Anxiety experienced in performance situations stemming from a fear of negative evaluation of one’s ability to perform

A

Performance anxiety

513
Q

A technique used in sex therapy that consists of non-genital massage to lessen the anxiety associated with sexual interactions

A

Sensate-focus exercises

514
Q

Sexual intercourse with a person who is under the legal age of consent, even if the person is a willing participant

A

Statutory rape

515
Q

A form of sexual coercion involving unwelcome sexual comments, jokes, overtures, demands for sexual favors, or outright physical contact

A

Sexual harassment

516
Q

The specialty in psychology that focuses on the inter-relationships between psychological factors & physical health

A

Health psychology

517
Q

Pressure or demand placed on an organism to adjust or adapt

A

Stress

518
Q

A state of emotional or physical suffering, discomfort, or pain

A

Distress

519
Q

Sources of stress

A

Stressors

520
Q

Annoyances of daily life that impose a stressful burden

A

Hassles

521
Q

Continuing or lingering stress

A

Chronic stress

522
Q

A negative emotional state experienced when one’s efforts to pursue ones goals are thwarted

A

Frustration

523
Q

A state of tension brought about by opposing motives operating simultaneously

A

Conflict

524
Q

A psychological disorder involving a maladaptive reaction to traumatic stress

A

Post traumatic stress disorder

525
Q

A behavior pattern characterized by impatience, time urgency, competitiveness, & hostility

A

Type A behavior pattern

526
Q

Demands faced by immigrants in adjusting to a host culture

A

Acculturative stress

527
Q

Selye’s term for the 3 stage response of the body to persistent or intense stress

A

General adaptation syndrome (GAS)

528
Q

The first stage of the general adaptation syndrome, evolving mobilization of the bodies resources to cope with an immediate stressor

A

Alarm stage

529
Q

The bodies built an alarm system that allows it to quickly mobilizes resources to either fight or flight, when faced with a threatening stressor

A

Fight or flight response

530
Q

The second stage of the general adaptation syndrome, characterized by the body’s attempt to adjust or adapt to persistent stress

A

Resistance stage

531
Q

The third stage of the general adaptation syndrome, characterized by depletion of bodily resources and a lowered resistance to stress related disorders or conditions

A

Exhaustion stage

532
Q

Beliefs about one’s ability to accomplish particular tasks

A

Self-efficacy

533
Q

A cluster of traits that may buffer the effects of stress (commitment, openness to challenge, internal locus of control)

A

Psychological hardiness

534
Q

__________ is a state of physical and emotional exhaustion and reduced effectiveness resulting from handling excessive job demands, caregiving responsibilities, or other stress-laden commitments

A

Burnout

535
Q

Freud’s theory of personality, which holds that personality and behavior are shaped by unconscious forces and conflicts

A

Psychoanalytic theory

536
Q

In Freudian theory, the part of the mind corresponding to the state of present awareness

A

Conscious

537
Q

To Freud, the part of the mind whose contents can be brought into awareness through focused attention

A

Preconscious

538
Q

In Freudian theory, the part of the mind that lies outside the range of ordinary awareness that contains primitive drives or instincts and unacceptable urges, wishes, or ideas

A

Unconscious

539
Q

Freud’s term for the psychic structure existing in the unconscious that contains our basic animal drives and instinctual impulses

A

ID

540
Q

Freud’s term for the psychic structure that attempts to balance, the instinctual demands of the ID with social realities and expectations

A

Ego

541
Q

Freud’s term for the psychic structure that corresponds to the internal moral guardian or conscience

A

Superego

542
Q

In Freud’s theory, a governing principle of the ID that is based on demand for instant gratification without regard to social rules or customs

A

Pleasure principle

543
Q

In Freudian theory, the governing principle of the ego that takes into account what is practical and acceptable and satisfying basic needs

A

Reality principle

544
Q

In Freudian theory, the reality-distorting strategies of the ego to prevent awareness of anxiety-provoking or trouble ideas or impulses

A

Defense mechanisms

545
Q

In Freudian theory, a type of defense mechanism involving motivated forgetting of anxiety-evoking material

A

Repression

546
Q

In freudian theory, a defense mechanism involving a failure to recognize a threatening impulse or urge

A

Denial

547
Q

In Freudian theory, defense mechanism involving a behavior that stands in opposition to one’s true motives and desires so as to prevent conscious awareness of them

A

Reaction formation

548
Q

In Freudian theory, a defense mechanism involving the use of self-justification to explain away unacceptable behavior, impulses, or ideas

A

Rationalization

549
Q

In Freudian theory, a defense mechanism involving the projection of one’s own unacceptable impulses, wishes, or urges onto another person

A

Projection

550
Q

In Freudian theory, a defense mechanism involving the channeling of unacceptable impulses in to socially sanctioned behaviors or interests

A

Sublimation

551
Q

In Freudian theory, a defense mechanism, in which an individual, usually under high levels of stress, reverts to a behavior characteristic of an earlier stage of development

A

Regression

552
Q

In Freudian theory, a defense mechanism in which an unacceptable sexual or aggressive impulse is transferred to an object or person that is safer or less threatening than the original object of the impulse

A

Displacement

553
Q

Parts of the body that are especially sensitive to sexual or pleasurable stimulation

A

Erogenous zones

554
Q

Constellations of personality traits characteristic of a particular stage of psychosexual development, resulting from either excessive or an adequate gratification at that stage

A

Fixations

555
Q

In Freudian theory, the first stage of psychosexual development during which the infant seeks sexual gratification through oral stimulation (sucking, mouthing, and biting)

A

Oral stage

556
Q

In Freudian theory, the second stage of psychosexual development during which sexual gratification is centered on processes of elimination (retention & release of bowel contents)

A

Anal stage

557
Q

In Freudian theory, a personality type characterized by perfectionism and excessive needs for self control as expressed through extreme neatness and punctuality

A

Anal retentive personality

558
Q

In Freudian theory, a personality type characterized by messiness, lack of self discipline, & carelessness

A

Anal-expulsive personality

559
Q

In Freudian theory, the third stage of psychosexual development marked by erotic attention on the phallic region (penis or clitoris) and the development of the Oedipus complex

A

Phallic stage

560
Q

In Freudian theory, the psychological complex in which the young boy or a girl develops incestuous feelings towards the parent of the opposite gender and perceives the parent of the same gender as a rival

A

Oedipus complex

561
Q

The term given by some psychodynamic theorists to the form of the Oedipus complex in young girls

A

Electra complex

562
Q

In Freudian theory, unconscious fear of removal of the penis as punishment for having unacceptable sexual impulses

A

Castration anxiety

563
Q

In Freudian theory, jealousy of boys for having a penis

A

Penis envy

564
Q

In Freudian theory, the fourth stage of psychosexual development during which sexual impulses remain latent or dormant

A

Latency stage

565
Q

In Freudian theory, the fifth and final stage of psychosexual development which begins around puberty and corresponds to the development of mature sexuality and emphasis on procreation

A

Genital stage

566
Q

Jung’s term for an unconscious region of mind comprising a reservoir of the individuals repressed memories and impulses

A

Personal unconscious

567
Q

In Jung’s theory, a part of the mind containing ideas and archetypal images shared among humankind that has been transmitted genetically from ancestral humans

A

Collective unconscious

568
Q

Jung’s term for the primitive images contained in the collective unconscious that reflect ancestral or universal experiences of human beings

A

Archetypes

569
Q

Adler’s theory of personality, which emphasizes the unique potential of each individual

A

Individual psychology

570
Q

In Adler’s theory, the self-aware part of personality that organizes goal seeking efforts

A

Creative self

571
Q

In Adler’s theory, the feelings of inadequacy, or inferiority in young children that influence their developing personalities and create desires to overcome

A

Inferiority complex

572
Q

Adler’s term for the motivation to compensate for feelings of inferiority

A

Drive for superiority
Will to power

573
Q

In Horney’s theory, a deep-seated form of anxiety and children that is associated with feelings of being isolated and helpless in a world perceived as potentially threatening and hostile

A

Basic anxiety

574
Q

In Horney’s theory, deep feelings of resentment that children may harbor toward their parents

A

Basic hostility

575
Q

Relatively enduring personal characteristics

A

Traits

576
Q

Allport’s term for the more persuasive dimensions that define individuals general personality

A

Cardinal traits

577
Q

Allport’s term for personality characteristics that have a widespread influence on the individuals behavior across situations

A

Central traits

578
Q

Allport’s term for a specific traits that influence behavior and relatively few situation’s

A

Secondary traits

579
Q

Cattell’s term for personality traits at the surface level that can be gleaned from observations of behavior

A

Surface traits

580
Q

Cattell’s term for traits at a deep level of personality that are not a parent and observed behavior but must be inferred based on underlying relationships among surface traits

A

Source traits

581
Q

Tendency toward being solitary and reserved on the one end or outgoing & sociable on the other end

A

Introversion-extraversion

582
Q

Tendencies toward emotional instability, anxiety, & worry

A

Neuroticism

583
Q

Tendencies to be perceived by others as cold and antisocial

A

Psychoticism

584
Q

The dominant contemporary trait, model of personality, consisting of 5 Broad, personality factors:
Neuroticism
Extraversion
Openness
Agreeableness
Conscientiousness

A

Five factor model

585
Q

Play contemporary learning based model that emphasizes the roles played by both cognitive factors and environmental or situational factors in determining behavior

A

Social cognitive theory

586
Q

In social cognitive theory, personal predictions about the outcomes of behavior

A

Expectancies

587
Q

In social cognitive theory, the importance, that individuals place on desired outcomes

A

Subjective value

588
Q

In Rotter’s theory, one’s general expectancies about whether ones efforts can bring about desired outcomes or reinforcements

A

Locus of control

589
Q

Bandura’s model in which cognitions, behaviors, and environmental factors both influence and are influenced by each other

A

Reciprocal determinism

590
Q

Bandura’s term for our personal predictions about the outcomes of our behavior

A

Outcome expectations

591
Q

Bandura’s term for the expectancies we have regarding our ability to perform behaviors we set out to accomplish

A

Efficacy expectations

592
Q

Mischel’s term for environmental influences on behavior, such as rewards and punishments

A

Situational variables

593
Q

Mischel’s term for internal personal factors that influence behavior, including competencies, expectancies, and subjective values

A

Person variables

594
Q

Rogers’s model of personality, which focuses on the importance of the self

A

Self theory

595
Q

Valuing another person as having intrinsic worth, regardless of the persons behavior at the particular time

A

Unconditional positive regard

596
Q

Valuing a person only when the persons behavior meet certain expectations or standards

A

Conditional positive regard

597
Q

Rogers’s term for the idealized sense of who or what we should be

A

Self ideal

598
Q

A culture that emphasizes peoples social roles and obligations

A

Collectivistic culture

599
Q

A culture that emphasizes individual identity and personal accomplishment

A

Individualistic culture

600
Q

The now-discredited view that one can judge a persons character and mental abilities by measuring the bumps on his or her head

A

Phrenology

601
Q

Structured psychological tests that use formal methods of assessing personality

A

Personality tests

602
Q

Personality tests that can be scored objectively because the response options are limited, and because items were derived on the basis of research evidence

A

Objective tests

603
Q

Scores that represent an individual’s relative deviation from the mean of the standardization sample

A

Standard scores

604
Q

Personality tests in which ambiguous or vague test materials are used to elicit responses that are believed to reveal a persons unconscious needs, drives, & motives

A

Projective tests

605
Q

Perceptions experienced in the absence of external stimuli

A

Hallucinations

606
Q

Fixed but patently false beliefs, such as believing that one is being hounded by demons

A

Delusions

607
Q

Psychological disorders found it only one or a few cultures

A

Culture-bound syndromes

608
Q

A culture-bound syndrome found in India in which men develop intense fears about losing semen

A

Dhat syndrome

609
Q

A framework for understanding abnormal behavior patterns are symptoms of underlying physical disorders or diseases

A

Medical model

610
Q

An integrative model for explaining abnormal behavior patterns in terms of the interactions of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors

A

Biopsychosocial model

611
Q

A type of biopsychosocial model that relates the development of disorders to the combination of a diathesis or predisposition usually genetic an origin and exposure to stressful events or life circumstances

A

Diathesis stress model

612
Q

A vulnerability or predisposition to developing a disorder

A

Diathesis

613
Q

Abnormal behavior patterns, characterized by disturbances in behavior, thinking, perceptions, or emotions that are associated with significant personal distress or impaired functioning

A

Psychological disorders
Mental disorders
Mental illnesses

614
Q

Irrational or excessive fears of objects or situations

A

Phobias

615
Q

A type of anxiety disorder involving excessive fear of social situations

A

Social phobia

616
Q

Phobic reactions involving specific situation or objects

A

Specific phobia

617
Q

Excessive fear of heights

A

Acrophobia

618
Q

Excessive fear of enclosed spaces

A

Claustrophobia

619
Q

Excessive fear of being in public places

A

Agoraphobia

620
Q

A type of anxiety disorder involving repeated episodes of sheer terror called panic attacks

A

Panic disorder

621
Q

A type of anxiety disorder involving persistent and generalized anxiety and worry

A

Generalized anxiety disorder

622
Q

A type of anxiety disorder involving the repeated occurrence of obsessions and/or compulsions

A

Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)

623
Q

A class of psychological disorders involving changes in consciousness, memory, or self identity

A

Dissociative disorders

624
Q

A class of psychological disorders involving physical ailments or complaints that cannot be explained by organic causes

A

Somatoform disorders

625
Q

A type of dissociative disorder characterized by the appearance of multiple personalities in the same individual

A

Dissociative identity disorder

626
Q

A type of somatoform disorder characterized by a change or a loss of physical function that cannot be explained by physical causes

A

Conversion disorder

627
Q

A somatoform disorder in which there is excessive concerned that one’s physical complaints are signs of underlying serious illness

A

Hypochondriasis

628
Q

The reward value of having a psychological or physical symptom, such as release from ordinary responsibilities

A

Secondary gain

629
Q

A class of psychological disorders involving disturbances in mood states, such as major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder

A

Mood disorders

630
Q

The most common type of depressive disorder, characterized by periods of downcast mood, feelings of worthlessness, and loss of interest in pleasurable activities

A

Major depression

631
Q

A type of major depressive disorder that involves a recurring pattern of winter depressions followed by elevation of mood in spring & summer

A

Seasonal affective disorder

632
Q

A type of psychological disorder characterized by mild, chronic depression

A

Dysthymic disorder

633
Q

A type of mood disorder characterized by mood swings from extreme elation (mania) to severe depression

A

Bipolar disorder

634
Q

Periods of mania, or unusual elevated mood & extreme restlessness

A

Manic episodes

635
Q

A mood disorder characterized by a recurring pattern of relatively mild mood swings

A

Cyclothymic disorder

636
Q

The view that depression results from the perception of a lack of control over the reinforcements in one’s life that may result from exposure to uncontrollable negative events

A

Learned helplessness model

637
Q

A persons characteristic way of explaining outcomes of events in his or her life

A

Attributional style

638
Q

A characteristic way of explaining negative events in terms of internal, stable, & global causes

A

Depressive attributional style

639
Q

The removal of normal restraints or inhibitions that serve to keep impulsive behavior in check

A

Disinhibition effect

640
Q

A severe and chronic psychological disorder characterized by disturbances in thinking, perception, emotions, & behavior

A

Schizophrenia

641
Q

A psychological disorders such as schizophrenia characterized by a break with reality

A

Psychotic disorder

642
Q

A breakdown in the logical structure of thought, and speech, revealed in the form of a loosening of associations

A

Thought disorder

643
Q

Symptoms of schizophrenia involving behavioral excesses, such as hallucinations & delusions

A

Positive symptoms

644
Q

Behavioral deficits associated with schizophrenia, such as withdrawal & apathy

A

Negative symptoms

645
Q

A subtype of schizophrenia characterized by confused behavior and disorganized delusions, among other features

A

Disorganized type

646
Q

A subtype of schizophrenia, characterized by bazaar movements, postures, or grimaces

A

Catatonic type

647
Q

A feature of catatonic schizophrenia, in which people rigidly maintain the body position or posture in which they were placed by others

A

Waxy flexibility

648
Q

The most common subtype of schizophrenia characterized by the appearances of delusional thinking accompanied by frequent auditory hallucinations

A

Paranoid type

649
Q

A class of psychological disorders characterized by rigid personality traits that impair people’s ability to adjust to the demands they face in the environment & that interfere with their relationship with others

A

Personality disorders

650
Q

A type of personality disorder characterized by a grandiose sense of self

A

Narcissistic personality disorder

651
Q

A type of personality disorder characterized by extreme suspiciousness or mistrust of others

A

Paranoid personality disorder

652
Q

A type of personality disorder characterized by social aloofness and limited range of emotional expression

A

Schizoid personality disorder

653
Q

A type of personality disorder characterized by unstable emotions & self image

A

Borderline personality disorder

654
Q

A type of personality disorder characterized by callous attitudes toward others and by antisocial & irresponsible behavior

A

Antisocial personality disorder

655
Q

A philosophy of treatment that emphasizes treating mentally ill people with compassion and understanding, rather than shackling them in chains

A

Moral therapy

656
Q

A policy of reducing the population of mental hospitals by shifting care from inpatient facilities to community-based outpatient facilities

A

Deinstitutionalization

657
Q

A verbal form of therapy derived from a psychological framework that consist of one or more treatment sessions with a therapist

A

Psychotherapy

658
Q

Freud’s method of psychoanalysis, which focuses on uncovering, and working through unconscious conflicts, believed to be at the root of a psychological problems

A

Psychoanalysis

659
Q

Practitioners of psychoanalysis who are school in the Freudian tradition

A

Psychoanalysts

660
Q

A technique in psychoanalysis in which the client is encouraged to say anything that comes to mind

A

Free association

661
Q

A technique in psychoanalysis in which the therapist attempts to analyze the underlying or symbolic meaning of the clients dreams

A

Dream analysis

662
Q

In psychoanalysis, the attempt by the therapist to explain the connections between the material the client discloses in therapy and his or her unconscious conflicts

A

Interpretation

663
Q

In Freud’s theory, the awareness of underlying, unconscious wishes and conflicts

A

Insight

664
Q

In psychoanalysis, the blocking that occurs when therapy touches upon anxiety-evoking thoughts or feelings

A

Resistance

665
Q

In therapy, the tendency of clients to reenact earlier conflicted relationships in the relationship they develop with their therapists

A

Transference relationship

666
Q

The tendency for therapists to relate to clients in ways that mirror their relationship with important figures in their own lives

A

Countertransference

667
Q

A form of therapy that involves the systematic application of the principles of learning

A

Behavior therapy

668
Q

A behavior therapy technique for treating phobias, based on direct exposure to a series of increasingly fearful stimuli

A

Gradual exposure
In vivo exposure

669
Q

A behavior therapy technique for treating phobias through the pairing of exposure in imagination to fear inducing stimuli and states of deep relaxation

A

Systematic desensitization

670
Q

An ordered series of increasingly fearful objects or situations

A

Fear hierarchy

671
Q

A behavior therapy technique for overcoming phobias and acquiring more adaptive behaviors, based on observing and imitating models

A

Modeling

672
Q

A form of behavior therapy in which stimuli associated with undesirable behavior are paired with a version stimuli to create a negative response to the stimuli

A

Aversion conditioning

673
Q

A form of therapy that combines behavioral and cognitive treatment techniques

A

Cognitive behavioral therapy

674
Q

Developed by Albert Ellis, a form of therapy based on identifying incorrect in irrational beliefs that are believed to underlie emotional and behavioral difficulties

A

Rational emotive behavior therapy

675
Q

The method of psychotherapy developed by Aaron Beck, that helps clients recognize and correct, distorted patterns of thinking believed to underlie their emotional problems

A

Cognitive therapy

676
Q

A therapeutic approach that draws upon principles and techniques representing different schools of therapy

A

Eclectic therapy

677
Q

A form of therapy in which clients are treated with a group format

A

Group Therapy

678
Q

Therapy for troubled families that focuses on changing disruptive patterns of communication and improving the ways in which family members relate to each other

A

Family therapy

679
Q

Therapy that focuses on helping distressed couples resolve the conflict and develop more effective communication skills

A

Couple therapy

680
Q

A form of exposure therapy in which virtual reality is used to stimulate real world environments

A

Virtual reality therapy

681
Q

A statistical technique for averaging results across a large number of studies

A

Meta-analysis

682
Q

General features of psychotherapy, such as attention from a therapist and mobilization of positive expectancies or hope

A

Nonspecific factors

683
Q

In psychotherapy, positive outcomes of a treatment resulting from hopeful expectations of clients rather than from the effects of the treatment itself

A

Placebo effect
Expectancy effect

684
Q

Psychiatric drugs used in the treatment of psychological or mental disorders

A

Psychotropic drugs

685
Q

Drugs that combat anxiety

A

Antianxiety anxiety

686
Q

Drugs that combat depression by affecting the levels of activity of neurotransmitters in the brain

A

Antidepressants

687
Q

A class of antidepressant drugs that increase the availability of neurotransmitters in the brain by interfering with the reuptake of these chemicals by transmitting neurons

A

Tricyclics

688
Q

A class of antidepressant drugs that increase the availability of neurotransmitters in the brain by inhibiting an enzyme, monoamine oxidase, that breaks down, or degrades them in the synapse

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MOA)

689
Q

A class of antidepressant drugs that works specifically on increasing availability of the neurotransmitter serotonin by interfering with its re-uptake

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI’s)

690
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of psychotic disorders that help alleviate hallucinations and delusional thinking

A

Antipsychotics

691
Q

A potentially disabling motor disorder that may occur following regular use of antipsychotic drugs

A

Tardive dyskinesia (TD)

692
Q

A form of therapy for severe depression, that involves the administration of an electrical shock to the head

A

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

693
Q

Brain surgery used to control violent or deviant behavior

A

Psychosurgery

694
Q

A surgical procedure in which neural pathways in the brain are severed in order to control violent or aggressive behavior

A

Prefrontal lobotomy

695
Q

The subfield in psychology that deals with how our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are influenced by our social interactions with others

A

Social psychology

696
Q

The processes by which reform impressions, make judgments, and develop attitudes about the people and events that constitute our social world

A

Social perception

697
Q

The process of developing an opinion or impression of another person

A

Impression formation

698
Q

A mental image or representation that we used to understand our social environment

A

Social schema

699
Q

Oversimplified generalizations about the characteristics, attitudes, and behaviors of members of a particular group or category

A

Stereotypes

700
Q

An expectation that brings about the expected outcome

A

Self fulfilling prophecy

701
Q

An assumption about the causes of behavior or events

A

Attribution

702
Q

Causes relating to the internal characteristics or traits of individuals

A

Dispositional causes

703
Q

Causes relating to external or environmental events

A

Situational causes

704
Q

The tendency to attribute behavior to internal causes without regard to situational influences

A

Fundamental attribution error

705
Q

The tendency to attribute the causes of one’s own behavior to situational factors without attribute in the causes of others people’s behavior to internal factors or dispositions

A

Actor-observer effect

706
Q

The tendency to take credit for our accomplishments, and to explain away our failures or disappointments

A

Self-serving bias

707
Q

A positive or negative evaluation of persons, object, or issues

A

Attitude

708
Q

A theoretical model that posits 2 channels by which persuasive appeals lead to attitude change : a central route and a peripheral route

A

Elaborative likelihood model

709
Q

Feelings of liking, for others, together with having positive thoughts about them and inclinations to act toward them, and positive ways

A

Attraction

710
Q

The belief that people tend to pair off with others who are similar to themselves in physical attractiveness and other characteristics

A

Matching hypothesis

711
Q

The principle that people tend to like others who like them back

A

Reciprocity

712
Q

Behavior that benefits others

A

Prosocial behavior

713
Q

Helping a stranger in distress

A

Bystander intervention

714
Q

Standards that define what is socially acceptable in a given situation

A

Social norms

715
Q

A preconceived opinion or attitude about an issue, person, or group

A

Prejudice

716
Q

Unfair or biased treatment of people based on their membership in a particular group or category

A

Discrimination

717
Q

A cognitive bias involving the predisposition to attribute more negative characteristics to members of out-groups than to those of in-groups

A

Out-group negativism

718
Q

A cognitive bias involving the predispositions to attribute more positive characteristics to members of in-groups as more alike than those of out-groups

A

In-group favoritism

719
Q

A cognitive bias, describing the tendency to perceive members of out-groups as more alike than members of in-groups

A

Out-group homogeneity

720
Q

A personality type characterized by rigidity, prejudice, and excessive concerned with obedience and respect for authority

A

Authoritarian personality

721
Q

Allport’s belief that under certain conditions increased intergroup contact helps reduce prejudice and intergroup tension

A

Contact hypothesis

722
Q

Negative bias held toward others based on their ethnicity or race your identification

A

Racism

723
Q

A sense of threat evoked and people from stereotyped groups when they believe they may be judged or treated stereotypically

A

Stereotype threat

724
Q

In the part of our a psychological identity that involves our sense of ourselves as unique individual’s

A

Personal identity

725
Q

The part of our psychological identity that involves our sense of ourselves as members of particular groups

A

Social identity
Group identity

726
Q

The tendency to adjust one’s behavior to actual or perceived social pressures

A

Conformity

727
Q

The process of acceding to the requests or demands of others

A

Compliance

728
Q

The tendency to use other peoples behavior as a standard for judging the appropriateness of one’s own behavior

A

Social validation

729
Q

A compliance technique based on secure in compliance with a smaller request as a prelude to making a larger request

A

Foot in the door technique

730
Q

A compliance technique based on “ baiting” an individual by making an unrealistically attractive offer and then replacing it with a less, attractive offer

A

Bait and switch technique

731
Q

A compliance technique based on obtaining a persons initial agreement to purchase an item at a lower price before revealing hidden costs that raise the ultimate price

A

Low-ball technique

732
Q

A compliance technique in which refusal of a larger unreasonable request is followed by a smaller, more reasonable request

A

Door in the face technique

733
Q

Compliance with commands or orders issued by others, usually persons in a position of authority

A

Obedience

734
Q

The tendency to grant legitimacy to the orders or commands of persons in authority

A

Legitimization of authority

735
Q

The tendency to use other peoples behavior as a standard, for judging the appropriateness of one’s own behavior

A

Social validation

736
Q

The tendency to work better or harder in the presence of others than when alone

A

Social facilitation

737
Q

The tendency to expand less effort when working as a member of a group than when working alone

A

Social loafing

738
Q

The loss of self awareness that may occur in one acts in concert with the actions of a crowd

A

Deindividuation

739
Q

The tendency for members of decision-making groups to shift toward more extreme views in whatever direction they are initially leaning

A

Group polarization

740
Q

A type of group polarization affect in which group discussion leads to the adoption of a riskier course of action than the members would have endorsed initially

A

Risky shift phenomenon

741
Q

Janis’s term for the tendency of members of a decision, making group to be more focused on reaching a consensus, then on critically examining the issues at hand

A

Groupthink

742
Q

Level of contentment or positive feelings for one’s job or work

A

Job satisfaction

743
Q

A form of working at home in which people communicate with their home office and clients via computer or telecommunications

A

Telecommuting

744
Q

The system of shared values and norms within an organization

A

Organizational culture