Medical Terms Flashcards

1
Q

Structural component of the nucleus, composed of nucleic acids and proteins

A

Chromatin

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2
Q

Threadlike structures within the nucleus, composed of a deoxyribonucleic acid molecule that carries heredity information encoded in genes (counted by each centromere)

A

Chromosome

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3
Q

Jelly-like substance found within the cell membrane, composed of proteins, salt, water, dissolved gases, and nutrients

A

Cytoplasm

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4
Q

Molecule that holds genetic information, capable of replicating in producing an exact copy of whenever the cell divides

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

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5
Q

Muscular wall that divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity

A

Diaphragm

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6
Q

Sum of all physical and chemical changes that take place in a cell or an organism

A

Metabolism

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7
Q

Cellular structure that provides a specialized function, such as the nucleus, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and lysosomes

A

Organelle

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8
Q

Study of the nature of diseases, their causes, development, and consequences

A

Pathology

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9
Q

Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the walls of a tubular organ to propel its contents onward

A

Peristalsis

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10
Q

The study of the body at the cellular level is called ________

A

Cytology

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11
Q

Groups of cells that perform a specialized activity are called ___________

A

Tissues

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12
Q

The study of tissues is called _________

A

Histology

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13
Q

_________________ covers surfaces of organs, lines, cavities, and canals, forms tubes, and ducts, provides the secreting portions of glands, and makes up the epidermidis of the skin. It is composed of cells, arranged in a continuous sheet, consisting of one or more layers.

A

Epithelial tissue

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14
Q

_______________ supports and connects other tissues and organs. It is made up of diverse cell types, including fibroblasts, fat cells, and blood.

A

Connective tissue

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15
Q

_______________ provides the contractile tissue of the body, which is responsible for movement

A

Muscular tissue

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16
Q

_______________ transmit electrical impulses as it relays information throughout the entire body

A

Nervous tissue

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17
Q

_______________ are 4 divisions of the lower torso used to show topographical location

A

Quadrants

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18
Q

When homeostasis is disrupted in cells, tissues, organs, or systems are unable to function effectively, the condition is called _________

A

Disease

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19
Q

From a clinical standpoint disease is a _____________ or __________ condition that presents a group of signs, symptoms, and clinical findings

A

Pathological
Morbid

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20
Q

__________ are objective indicators that are observable

A

Signs

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21
Q

A ____________ is subjective and is experienced only by the patient

A

Symptom

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22
Q

____________ is the study of the cause or origin of a disease or disorder

A

Etiology

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23
Q

Establishing the cause and nature of a disease is called ___________

A

Diagnosis

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24
Q

A __________ is the prediction of the course of a disease and it’s probable outcome

A

Prognosis

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25
Q

Any disease whose cause is unknown is said to be __________

A

Idiopathic

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26
Q

Substance, analyzed, or tested, generally, by means of laboratory methods

A

Analyte

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27
Q

Bursting open of a wound, especially a surgical abdominal wound

A

Dehiscence

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28
Q

Feverish ; pertaining to a fever

A

Febrile

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29
Q

Body defense against injury, infection, or allergy that is marked by redness, swelling, heat, pain, and sometimes loss of function

A

Inflammation

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30
Q

Diseased ; pertaining to a disease

A

Morbid

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31
Q

Pathological state, usually Fibro, resulting from the presence of micro organisms or their products in the bloodstream

A

Sepsis

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32
Q

Producing or associated with generation of pus

A

Suppurative

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33
Q

Visual examination of a body cavity or a canal using a specialized lighted instrument called an endoscope

A

Endoscopy

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34
Q

Visual examination of the organs of the pelvis and abdomen through very small incisions in the abdominal wall

A

Laparoscopy

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35
Q

Examination of the lungs, pleura, and pleural space with a scope inserted through a small incision between the ribs

A

Thoracoscopy

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36
Q

Common blood test, that enumerates red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets; measures hemoglobin; estimates red cell volume; and sorts white blood cells into five subtypes with their percentages

A

Complete blood count (CBC)

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37
Q

Common urine screening test that evaluates the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine

A

Urinalysis

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38
Q

Radiographic technique in which x-rays are directed through the body to a fluorescent screen that displays continuous motion images of internal structures

A

Fluoroscopy

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39
Q

Representative tissue sample removed from a body site of microscopic examination, usually to establish a diagnosis

A

Biopsy

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40
Q

Ultra thin, slice of tissue cut from a frozen specimen for immediate pathological examination

A

Frozen section biopsy

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41
Q

Removal of a small tissue sample for examination using a hollow needle, usually attached to a syringe

A

Needle biopsy

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42
Q

Removal of a small core of tissue, using a hollow instrument

A

Punch biopsy

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43
Q

Removal of tissue using a surgical blade to shave elevated lesions

A

Shave biopsy

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44
Q

Removal of a part, pathway, or function by surgical, chemical destruction, electrocautery, freezing, or radio frequency

A

Ablation

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45
Q

Surgical joining of 2 ducts, vessels, or bowel segments to allow flow from one to another

A

Anastomosis

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46
Q

Destroy tissue by electricity, freezing, heat, or corrosive chemicals

A

Cauterize

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47
Q

Scraping of a body cavity with a spoon shaped instrument called a curette

A

Curettage

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48
Q

Incision made to allow the free flow or withdrawal of fluids from a wound or cavity

A

Incision and drainage (I&D)

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49
Q

Surgical technique employing a device that emits intense heat and powder at close range to cut, burn, vaporize, or destroy tissues

A

Laser surgery

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50
Q

Surgical removal of tissue in and extensive area surrounding the surgical site in an attempt to excise all tissue that may be malignant and decrease the chance of recurrence

A

Radical dissection

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51
Q

Partial excision of a bone, organ, or other structure

A

Resection

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52
Q

Generic term for an agent that stimulates development of male characteristics (testosterone and androsterone)

A

Androgen

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53
Q

Very small duct

A

Ductule

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54
Q

Pouch of skin in the male that contains the testicles

A

Scrotum

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55
Q

Formation of a complex substance by the compounds or elements

A

Synthesis

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56
Q

As the cells move towards the stratum corneum to replace the cells that have been sloughed off, they die, and become filled with a hard protein material called __________

A

Keratin

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57
Q

In the basal layer, special cells called ___________ produce a black pigment called __________

A

Melanocytes
Melanin

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58
Q

Another name for dermis is _________

A

Corium

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59
Q

The subcutaneous layer is also called the _______________

A

Hypodermis

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60
Q

__________ occurs when the hairs of the scalp are not replaced because of death of the papillae

A

Alopecia

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61
Q

The half moon shaped area at the base of the nail is called the ___________

A

Lunula

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62
Q

____________ are areas of tissue that have been pathologically altered by injury, wound, or infection

A

Lesions

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63
Q

Lesions may affect tissue over an area of a definite size, called __________ or maybe widely spread throughout the body, called __________

A

Localized
Systemic

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64
Q

_______________ are the initial reaction to pathologically altered tissue and may be flat or elevated

A

Primary skin lesions

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65
Q

_______________ are changes that take place in the primary lesion due to infection, scratching, trauma, or various stages of a disease

A

Secondary skin lesions

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66
Q

_______________ are the least serious type of burn because they injure only the top layers of the skin, the epidermis

A

First-degree burns (superficial)

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67
Q

_______________ are deep burns that damage, both the epidermis and part of the dermis, and may heal with little or no scarring

A

Second-degree burns (partial thickness)

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68
Q

_______________ the epidermidis and dermis are destroyed, and some of the underlying connective tissue is damaged, leaving the skin, waxy and chard with insensitivity to touch. The underlying bones, muscles, and tendons may also be damaged.

A

Third-degree burns (full thickness)

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69
Q

Skin grafting

A

Dermatoplasty

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70
Q

The formula for estimating the percentage of adult body surface area, affected by burns, is to apply the ______________

A

Rule of Nines
- this method assigns values of 9% or 18% of service areas to specific regions
- It is important to know the amount of the burned surface area because IV fluids for hydration are required to replace fluids lost from tissue damage

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71
Q

__________ are abnormal growth of new tissue that are classified as benign or malignant

A

Neoplasms

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72
Q

_______________ are non-cancerous growths, composed of the same type of cells as the tissue in which they are growing

A

Benign neoplasm’s

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73
Q

_______________ are composed of cells that are invasive and spread to remote regions of the body. These cells show altered function, altered appearance, and uncontrolled growth. They invade surrounding tissue.

A

Malignant neoplasms

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74
Q

Malignant cells from the primary tumor may enter blood and lymph vessels, and travel to remote regions of the body to form secondary tumor sites, a process called ____________

A

Metastasis

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75
Q

The presence of a malignant growth is the disease called ___________

A

Cancer

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76
Q

____________ is a treatment that stimulates the bodies on immune defenses to fight tumor cells

A

Immunotherapy
Bio therapy

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77
Q

The _______________ a system of staging is used to identify the invasiveness of the malignant tumor

A

Tumor, Node, & Metastasis (TNM)

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78
Q

A _______ grading system is used to evaluate the appearance and maturity of malignant cells in a tumor. Pathologist commonly describe tumors by their grades of severity based on the microscopic appearance of their cells

A

Tumor

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79
Q

_______________ is the most common type of skin cancer and is a malignancy of the basal layer of the epidermidis, or hair follicles. This type of cancer is commonly caused by over exposure to sunlight. These tumors are locally invasive, but rarely metastasize.

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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80
Q

_______________ arises from skin that undergoes pathological hardening (keratinizing) of epidermal cells. It is an invasive tumor with potential for meta-stasis and occurs commonly in fair skinned white men over age 60.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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81
Q

Confined to its original site

A

In situ

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82
Q

_________________ is a neoplasm composed of abnormal melanocytes that commonly begin as a darkly pigmented mole

A

Malignant melanoma

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83
Q

Melanomas are diagnosed by __________ along with histological examination

A

Biopsy

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84
Q

Localized collection of pus at the site of an infection

A

Abscess

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85
Q

Inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin with characteristic lesions that include blackheads, inflammatory, papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts ; usually associated with seborrhea

A

Acne

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86
Q

Partial or complete loss of hair, resulting from normal aging, and endocrine disorder, a drug reaction, anti-cancer, medication, or a skin disease

A

Alopecia

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87
Q

Form of intraepidermal carcinoma, characterized by red brown scaling or crusted lesions that resemble a patch of psoriasis or dermatitis

A

Bowen disease

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88
Q

Diffuse, acute infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue

A

Cellulitis

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89
Q

Pigmentary skin discoloration, usually occurring and yellowish brown patches or spots

A

Chloasma

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90
Q

Typically small skin lesion of acne vulgaris caused by accumulation of keratin, bacteria, and dried sebum plugging and excretory duct of the skin

A

Comedo

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91
Q

Infection of the skin caused by fungi

A

Dermatomycosis

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92
Q

Skin discoloration, consisting of a large, your regularly formed hemorrhagic area with colors, changing from blue to black to green to brown or yellow

A

Ecchymosis

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93
Q

Chronic skin inflammation, characterized by erythema, papules, vesicles, pustules, scales, crusts, scabs, and possibly itching

A

Eczema

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94
Q

Redness of the skin caused by swelling of the capillaries

A

Erythema

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95
Q

Damaged tissue, following a severe burn

A

Eschar

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96
Q

Bacterial skin infection, characterized by isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture

A

Impetigo

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97
Q

Thickened area of the epidermis or any horny growth on the skin

A

Keratosis

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98
Q

Small brown macules, especially on the face and arms, brought on by sun exposure, usually in a middle-aged or older person

A

Lentigo

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99
Q

Unnatural paleness, or absence of color in the skin

A

Pallor

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100
Q

Infestation with lice, transmitted, by personal contact, or common use of brushes, combs, and headgear

A

Pediculosis

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101
Q

Minute, pinpoint hemorrhage under the skin

A

Petechia

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102
Q

Skin ulceration caused by prolong pressure from lying on one position that prevents blood flow to the tissues, usually in bedridden patients ; also known as decubitus ulcer

A

Pressure ulcer

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103
Q

Intense itching

A

Pruritus

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104
Q

Chronic skin disease characterized by circumscribed red patches, covered by thick, dry, silvery, adherent scales, caused by excessive development of the basal layer of the epidermidis

A

Psoriasis

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105
Q

Any of several bleeding disorders, characterized by hemorrhage into the tissues, particularly beneath the skin, or mucous membranes, producing ecchymosis or petechia

A

Purpura

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106
Q

Contagious skin disease, transmitted by the itch mite, commonly through sexual contact

A

Scabies

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107
Q

Fungal skin infection, whose name commonly indicates the body part affected ; also called ringworm

A

Tinea

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108
Q

Allergic reaction of the skin, characterized by the irruption of pale red, elevated patches, called wheals over hives

A

Urticaria

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109
Q

Epidermal growth caused by a virus ; also known as warts

A

Verruca

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110
Q

Localized loss of skin pigmentation, characterized by milk, white patches

A

Vitiligo

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111
Q

Any test in which a suspected allergen or sensitizer is applied to, or injected into the skin to determine the patient’s sensitivity to it

A

Skin test

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112
Q

Skin test that identifies suspected allergens by subcutaneous injecting small amounts of extracts of the suspected allergens and observing the skin for a subsequent reaction

A

Intradermal skin test

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113
Q

Skin test identify suspected allergens by topical application of the substance to be tested, usually on the forearm, and observing for a subsequent reaction

A

Patch skin test

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114
Q

Skin test identify suspected allergens by placing a small quantity of the suspected allergen on a lightly scratched area of the skin

A

Scratch skin test

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115
Q

Chemical removal of the outer layers of the skin to treat acne scarring, and general keratosis

A

Chemical peel

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116
Q

Removal of necrotized tissue from a wound by surgical, excision, enzymes, or chemical agents

A

Debridement

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117
Q

Rubbing using wire brushes or sandpaper, to mechanically scrape away the epidermidis

A

Dermabrasion

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118
Q

Tissue destruction by means of high frequency, electric current ; also called electrodesiccation

A

Fulguration

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119
Q

Use of subfreezing temperatures to destroy or eliminate abnormal tissue, such as tumors, warts, and unwanted, cancers, or infected tissue

A

Cryosurgery

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120
Q

Surgical procedure to transplant, healthy tissue by applying it to an injured site

A

Skin graft

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121
Q

Transplantation of healthy tissue from one person to another person ; also called homograft

A

Allograft

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122
Q

Transplantation of healthy tissue from one side to another site in the same individual

A

Autograft

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123
Q

Transplantation of artificial skin produced from collagen, fibers arranged in a lattice pattern

A

Synthetic graft

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124
Q

Transplantation from a foreign donor (usually a pig) and transferred to a human ; also called heterograft

A

Xenograft

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125
Q

The interior lining of the stomach is composed of the mucous membranes, and contains numerous macroscopic longitudinal folds called ___________ that gradually unfold as the stomach feels

A

Rugae

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126
Q

Orange colored, or yellowish pigment in bile

A

Bilirubin

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127
Q

Mass of masticated food, ready to be swallowed

A

Bolus

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128
Q

Denotes a gland that secretes its products through excretory ducts to the surface of an organ or tissue, or into a vessel

A

Exocrine

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129
Q

Circular band of muscle fibers that constricts, a passage or close, is a natural opening of the body

A

Sphincter

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130
Q

Nutrients in chyme are absorbed through microscopic finger like projections called ________

A

Villi

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131
Q

__________ is the uppermost segment of the small intestine and is about 10 inches long

A

Duodenum

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132
Q

__________ is the second part of the small intestine, and is about 8 feet long

A

Jejunum

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133
Q

__________ what is the third part of the small intestine and is about 12 feet long

A

Ileum

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134
Q

The __________ is the largest glandular organ in the body and weighs approximately 3 - 4 lbs

A

Liver

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135
Q

_______________ is the branch of medicine concerned with digestive diseases

A

Gastroenterology

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136
Q

An ________ is a circumscribed, open sore, on the skin, or mucous membranes within the body

A

Ulcer

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137
Q

_______________ develops in the parts of the G.I. tract that are exposed to hydrochloric acid and pepsin, an enzyme secreted in the stomach that begins the digestion of proteins

A

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

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138
Q

_______________ is a chronic inflammatory disease of the large intestine and rectum commonly begins in the rectum or sigmoid colon and extends upward into the entire colon. It is characterized by profuse, watery, diarrhea, containing varying amounts of blood, mucus, and pus.

A

Ulcerative colitis

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139
Q

A _______ is a protrusion of any organ, tissue, or structure through the wall of the cavity in which it is naturally contained

A

Hernia

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140
Q

An ______________ is a partial or complete blockage in the small or large intestine that prevents forward flow of digestive products

A

Intestinal obstruction

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141
Q

Complete obstruction of any part of the intestine constitutes a medical emergency and requires rapid diagnosis and medical treatment within a _________ period to prevent death

A

24 hour

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142
Q

The two forms of intestinal obstructions include mechanical blockage also called _______ , where contents of the intestine are prevented from moving forward due to an obstacle or barrier that blocks the lumen. The second form is non-mechanical blockage also called ____________ , where peristaltic movement is lacking or absent, and the contents are no longer propelled through the intestine.

A

Ileus
Paralytic ileus

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143
Q

Enlarged veins in the mucous membrane of the anal canal are called _____________

A

Hemorrhoids

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144
Q

____________ is an inflammatory condition of the liver

A

Hepatitis

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145
Q

Hepatitis A also called _________

A

Infectious hepatitis

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146
Q

Hepatitis B and hepatitis C are also called _____________

A

Serum hepatitis

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147
Q

Extreme constipation

A

Obstipation

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148
Q

_______________ is a condition in which small, blister like pockets, develop in the inner lining of the large intestine and may balloon through the intestinal wall

A

Diverticulosis

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149
Q

____________ cancer arises from the epithelial lining of the large intestine

A

Colorectal

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150
Q

Lack or loss of appetite, resulting in the inability to eat

A

Anorexia

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151
Q

Inflammation of the appendix, usually due to obstruction or infection

A

Appendicitis

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152
Q

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen

A

Ascites

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153
Q

Rumbling, or gurgling noises that are audible at a distance, and caused by passage of gas through the liquid contents of the intestine

A

Borborygmus

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154
Q

Physical wasting that includes loss of weight and muscle mass ; commonly associated with aids and cancer

A

Cachexia

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155
Q

Presents for formation of gall stones in the gallbladder or common bile duct

A

Cholelithiasis

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156
Q

Scarring or dysfunction of the liver caused by chronic liver disease

A

Cirrhosis

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157
Q

Spasm in any hollow or tubular soft organ, especially in the colon, accompanied by pain

A

Colic

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158
Q

Chronic inflammation, usually in the ileum, but possibly affecting any portion of the intestinal tract ; also called regional enteritis

A

Crohn’s disease

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159
Q

Act of swallowing

A

Deglutition

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160
Q

Inflammation of the intestine, especially the colon, that may be caused by ingesting water or food, containing chemical, irritant, bacteria, protozoa, or parasites, which results in bloody diarrhea

A

Dysentery

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161
Q

Epigastric discomfort felt after eating ; also called indigestion

A

Dyspepsia

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162
Q

Inability or difficulty in swallowing ; also called aphagia

A

Dysphagia

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163
Q

Producing gas from the stomach, usually with a characteristic sound ; also called belching

A

Eructation

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164
Q

Fecal concretion

A

Fecalith

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165
Q

Gas in the G.I. tract ; expelling of air from a body orifice, especially the anus

A

Flatus

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166
Q

Backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to a malfunction of the sphincter muscle at the inferior portion of the esophagus

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

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167
Q

Offensive or bad breath

A

Halitosis

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168
Q

Vomiting of blood from bleeding in the stomach or esophagus

A

Hematemesis

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169
Q

Symptom complex marked by abdominal pain and altered bowel function for which no organic cause can be determined ; also called spastic colon

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

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170
Q

Symptom complex of the small intestine characterized by the impaired passage of nutrients, minerals, or fluids through the intestinal villi into the blood or lymph

A

Malabsorption syndrome

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171
Q

Passage of dark colored, tarry stools, due to the presence of blood altered by intestinal juices

A

Melena

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172
Q

Excessive accumulation of fat that exceeds the bodies, skeletal and physical standards, usually an increase of 20% or more above ideal body weight

A

Obesity

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173
Q

Body mass index of 40 or greater, which is generally 100 or more pounds over ideal body weight

A

Morbid obesity

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174
Q

Formation of white spots or patches on the mucous membrane of the tongue, lips, or cheek, caused primarily by irritation

A

Oral leukoplakia

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175
Q

Stricture or narrowing of the pyloric sphincter at the outlet of the stomach, causing an obstruction that blocks the flow of food into the small intestine

A

Pyloric stenosis

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176
Q

Backward flowing as in the return of solids or fluids to the mouth from the stomach

A

Regurgitation

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177
Q

Passage of fat, in large amounts in the feces, due to failure to digest and absorb it

A

Steatorrhea

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178
Q

Endoscopy of the esophagus stomach and duodenum

A

Upper G.I

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179
Q

Endoscopy of the colon, sigmoid colon, and the rectum and anal canal

A

Lower G.I.

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180
Q

Panel of blood test that identify the specific virus causing hepatitis by testing serum using antibodies to each of these antigens (hepatitis A, hepatitis, V, or hepatitis C)

A

Hepatitis panel

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181
Q

Group of blood tests that evaluate liver injury, liver function, and conditions often associated with the biliary tract

A

Liver function tests

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182
Q

Measurement of the level of bilirubin in the blood

A

Serum bilirubin

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183
Q

Test to identify microorganisms or parasites present in feces

A

Stool culture

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184
Q

Applying a substance called guaiac to a stool sample to detect the presence of occult blood in the feces ; also called Hemoccult

A

Stool guaiac

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185
Q

Radiographic examination of the rectum in: following enema administration of barium sulfate into the rectum

A

Barium enema

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186
Q

Radiographic, examination of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine, following oral administration of barium sulfate ; also called esophagram and upper G.I. series

A

Barium swallow

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187
Q

Radiographic images taken of the gallbladder after administration of a contrast, material, containing iodine, usually in the form of a tablet

A

Cholecystography

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188
Q

Endoscopic procedure that provides radiographic visualization of the bile and pancreatic ducts to identify partial or total obstructions, as well as stones, cysts, and tumors

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

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189
Q

Radiographic examination of bile duct structures

A

Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography

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190
Q

Radiographic examination of the salivary glands and ducts

A

Sialography

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191
Q

Procedure that involves insertion of a nasogastric tube through the nose into the stomach to relieve gastric, distention by removing gas, food, or gastric secretions ; to instill medication, food, or fluids ; or to obtain a specimen for laboratory analysis

A

Nasogastric intubation

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192
Q

Surgical connection of the ileum and rectum, after total colectomy, as is sometimes performed in treatment of ulcerative colitis

A

Ileorectal

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193
Q

Surgical connection of two points of the intestines ; also called Enteroenterostomy

A

Intestinal

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194
Q

Group of procedures that treat, morbid obesity, a condition which arises from severe accumulation of excessive weight, as fat tissue, and the resultant health problems

A

Bariatric surgery

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195
Q

Upper stomach near the esophagus is stapled vertically to reduce it to a small pouch. A band is the inserted that restricts food consumption and delays. It’s passage from the couch, causing a feeling of fullness.

A

Vertical band gastroplasty

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196
Q

Stomach is first stable to decrease it to a small pouch. Next the jejunum is shortened and connected to the small stomach pouch, causing the base of the duodenum leading from the non-functioning portion of the stomach to form a Y configuration. This configuration decreases the path of food through the intestine, reducing absorption of calories and fat.

A

RGB

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197
Q

Creation of an opening of a portion of the colon through the abdominal wall to its outside surface in order to divert fecal flow to a colostomy bag

A

Colostomy

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198
Q

Procedure for crushing a stone and eliminating, it’s fragments either surgically or using ultrasonic shockwaves

A

Lithotripsy

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199
Q

Use of shockwaves as a non-invasive method to break up stones in the gallbladder or biliary ducts

A

Extracorporeal shockwave

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200
Q

Excision of a polyp

A

Polypectomy

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201
Q

Incision of the longitudinal and circular muscles of the pylorus ; used to treat hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Pyloromyotomy

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202
Q

Tasteless, colorless, odorless, gas, produced by body cells during the metabolic process

A

Carbon dioxide

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203
Q

Tough, elastic connective tissue that is more rigid than ligaments, but less dense than bone

A

Cartilage

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204
Q

Any hair like structure

A

Cilia

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205
Q

Moving or spreading out of a substance at random, rather than by chemical reaction, or application of external forces

A

Diffuse

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206
Q

Moist tissue layer, lining hollow organs and cavities of the body that open to the environment ; also called mucosa

A

Mucous membrane

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207
Q

Thin layer of tissue that covers internal body cavities, the cells of which secrete a fluid that keeps the membrane moist ; also called serosa

A

Serous membrane

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208
Q

Within the nasopharynx is a collection of lymphoid tissue, known as ______________

A

Adenoids

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209
Q

The space between the right and left the lungs is called the ________________

A

Mediastinum

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210
Q

_______________ is more commonly called breathing, which is a largely involuntary action that moves air into and out of the lungs in response to changes in blood O2 & CO2 levels and nervous stimulation of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles

A

Pulmonary ventilation

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211
Q

_______________ , which is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli, and the blood in the pulmonary capillaries

A

External respiration

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212
Q

_____________________ , which occurs when blood, aided by the cardiovascular system, transports CO2 to the lungs and O2 to the body cells

A

Transport of respiratory gases

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213
Q

_______________ , which is the exchange of O2 & CO2 between the body cells and the blood in systemic capillaries

A

Internal respiration

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214
Q

_______________ is the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the respiratory system

A

Pulmonology

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215
Q

___________________ includes respiratory disorders that produce a chronic partial obstruction of the air passages. The patient finds it difficult to breathe, especially upon exertion, and usually exhibit a chronic cough. The three major disorders include asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema.

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

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216
Q

__________ produces spasms in the bronchial passages that may be sudden and violent and lead to dyspnea

A

Asthma

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217
Q

In asthma, if the usual measures do not reverse the bronchospasms, the condition is referred to as ____________________

A

Status asthmaticus

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218
Q

_______________ is an inflammation of the bronchi caused mainly by smoking and air pollution

A

Chronic bronchitis

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219
Q

_______________ is characterized by decreasing elasticity of the alveoli. The alveoli expand, but are unable to contract to their original size. The air that remains trapped in the chest results in a characteristic “barrel chested” appearance.

A

Emphysema

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220
Q

_______________ is an active infectious respiratory disease. Three major viral types are responsible : type A, type B, and type C

A

Influenza (flu)

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221
Q

Any abnormal fluid in the pleural cavity, the space between the visceral and parietal pleura, is called a ____________________

A

Pleural effusion

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222
Q

_______________ is the listening of sound made by organs of the body using a stethoscope

A

auscultation

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223
Q

_______________ is the gentle tapping of the chest with the fingers, and listening to the resultant sounds to determine the position, size, or consistency of the underlying structures

A

Percussion

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224
Q

____________ is a non-inflammatory fluid that resembles serum, but with slightly less protein

A

Transudate

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225
Q

____________ is usually high in proteins and often contains blood and immune cells

A

Exudate

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226
Q

____________ is a communicable disease caused by the bacterium - mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Tuberculosis

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227
Q

____________ is any inflammatory disease of the lungs that may be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi

A

Pneumonia

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228
Q

__________________ is a type of pneumonia, closely associated with AIDs

A

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

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229
Q

_______________ is a hereditary disorder of the exocrine glands that causes the body to secrete extremely thick mucus. This second mucus clogs ducts of the pancreas and digestive tract. It also blocks ducts of the sweat glands, causing the skin to become highly salty. In the lungs, mucus blocks airways and impede, natural disease fighting mechanisms causing repeated infections.

A

Cystic fibrosis

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230
Q

________________ is a condition in which the lungs no longer function effectively, threatening the life of the patient. The alveoli fill with fluid caused by inflammation , and then collapse, making oxygen exchange impossible. This usually occurs as a result of very serious lung conditions, such as trauma, severe, pneumonia, and other major infections that affect the entire body or blood.

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

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231
Q

_______________ it is a form of respiratory distress syndrome and is caused by insufficient surfactant, which causes the alveoli to collapse and breathing becomes labored

A

Hyaline membrane disease (infant respiratory distress syndrome)

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232
Q

Excessive acidity of body fluids

A

Acidosis

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233
Q

Absence of the sense of smell

A

Anosmia

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234
Q

Temporary loss of breathing

A

Apnea

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235
Q

Sleeping disorder, in which breathing stops repeatedly for more than 10 seconds, causing measurable bloody oxygenation

A

Sleep apnea

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236
Q

Condition caused by insufficient intake of oxygen

A

Asphyxia

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237
Q

Collapsed or airless state of the lung, which may be acute or chronic, and affect, all or part of a lung

A

atelectasis

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238
Q

Repeated breathing pattern characterized by fluctuation in the depth of respiration, first, deeply, then shallow, then not at all

A

Cheyne stokes respiration

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239
Q

Ease with which lung tissue can be stretched

A

Compliance

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240
Q

Head cold ; upper respiratory infection

A

Coryza

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241
Q

Abnormal respiratory sound heard on auscultation, caused by exudates, spasms, hyperplasia, or when air enters, moisture filled alveoli ; also called rale

A

Crackle

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242
Q

Common childhood condition involving inflammation of the larynx, trachea, bronchiole passages, and sometimes lungs

A

Croup

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243
Q

Displacement of cartilage dividing the nostrils

A

Deviated, nasal septum

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244
Q

Severe, life-threatening infection of the epiglottis and supraglottic structures that occurs most often in children between 2 - 12 years of age

A

Epiglottitis

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245
Q

Nosebleed ; nasal hemorrhage

A

Epistaxis

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246
Q

Enlargement of the terminal phalanges of the fingers and toes, commonly associated with pulmonary disease

A

Finger clubbing

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247
Q

Deficiency of oxygen in the blood

A

Hypoxemia

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248
Q

Deficiency of oxygen in the tissues

A

Hypoxia

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249
Q

Acute infectious disease characterized by a cough that has a “whoop” sound

A

Pertussis

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250
Q

Inflammation of the pleural membrane characterized by a stabbing pain that is intensified by coughing or deep breathing

A

Pleurisy

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251
Q

Disease caused by inhaling dust particles, including coal dust, stone, dust, iron, dust, and asbestos particles

A

Pneumoconiosis

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252
Q

Accumulation of extravascular fluid in the lungs, tissues and alveoli, caused most commonly by heart failure

A

Pulmonary edema

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253
Q

Abnormal breath sound heard on auscultation

A

Rhonchus.

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254
Q

High-pitched, harsh, adventitious breath, sound caused by a spasm or swelling in the larynx or an obstruction in the upper airway

A

Stridor

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255
Q

Complete, unexpected and unexplained death of an apparently normal, healthy infant, usually less than 12 months of age

A

Sudden infant death syndrome (crib death)

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256
Q

Whistling or sighing, sound heard on auscultation that results from narrowing of the lumen of the respiratory passageway

A

Wheeze

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257
Q

Intradermal test to determine tuberculin sensitivity based on a positive reaction or the area around the test site becomes red and swollen

A

Mantoux test

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258
Q

Noninvasive method of monitoring the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen

A

Oximetry

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259
Q

Test of sleep, cycles and stages using continuous recordings of brain waves, electrical activity of muscles, eye-movement, respiratory rate, blood pressure, blood, oxygen saturation, heart rhythm, and sometimes direct observation of the person during sleep using a video camera

A

Polysomnography

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260
Q

Multiple tests used to evaluate the ability of the lungs to take in and expel air, as well as perform gas exchange across the alveolocapillary membrane

A

Pulmonary function test

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261
Q

Measurement of ventilatory ability by assessing lung capacity and flow, including the time necessary for exhaling the total volume of inhaled air

A

Spirometry

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262
Q

Visual examination of the bronchi, using an endoscope inserted through the mouth and trachea for direct viewing of structures, or for projection on a monitor

A

Bronchoscopy

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263
Q

Visual examination of the larynx, to detect tumors, foreign bodies, nerve, or structural injury, or other abnormalities

A

Laryngoscopy

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264
Q

Visual examination of the mediastinal structures, including the heart, trachea, esophagus, bronchus, thymus, and lymph nodes

A

Mediastinoscopy

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265
Q

Test that measures partial pressure of oxygen, carbon dioxide, PH, and HCO3 level of arterial blood sample

A

Arterial blood gas

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266
Q

Microbial test used to identify disease causing organisms of the lower respiratory tract, especially those that cause pneumonia’s

A

Sputum culture

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267
Q

Measurement of the amount of salt in sweat

A

Sweat test

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268
Q

Test used to identify pathogens, especially Group A streptococci

A

Throat culture

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269
Q

Irritating, or washing out of an organ, stomach, bladder, bowel, or body cavity with a stream of water or other fluid

A

Lavage

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270
Q

Irrigation of the antrum in chronic or non-responsive sinusitis

A

Antral lavage

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271
Q

Positioning a patient, so that gravity aids in the training of secretions from the bronchi and lobes of the lungs

A

Postural drainage

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272
Q

Excision of part of the pleura of the lung, usually parietal

A

Pleurectomy

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273
Q

Excision of a lung

A

Pneumectomy

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274
Q

Reconstructive surgery of the nose to correct deformities, or for cosmetic purposes

A

Rhinoplasty

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275
Q

Surgical repair of a deviated nasal septum usually performed when the septum is encroaching on the breathing passages or nasal structures

A

Septoplasty

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276
Q

Surgical puncture and drainage of the pleural cavity

A

Thoracentesis
Pleurocentesis
Thoracocentesis

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277
Q

Surgical procedure in which an opening is made in the neck, and into the trachea into which a breathing tube may be inserted

A

Tracheostomy

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278
Q

Portion of the nervous system, that regulates, involuntary actions, such as heart rate, digestion, and peristalsis

A

Autonomic nervous system

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279
Q

Thin, flattened structure ; term used to describe the leaf shaped structures that compose a heart valve

A

Leaflet

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280
Q

Tubular, space, or channel within any organ or structure of the body ; space within an artery, vein, intestine, or tube

A

Lumen

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281
Q

Narrowing of the lumen of a blood vessel, that limits blood flow, usually as a result of diseases, medication’s, or physiological processes

A

Vasoconstriction

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282
Q

Widening of the lumen of a blood vessel caused by the relaxing of the muscles of the vascular walls

A

Vasodilation

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283
Q

State of being sticky or gummy

A

Viscosity

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284
Q

The walls of large arteries have three layers to provide toughness and elasticity, which include : ______________ , ______________ , & _______________

A

Tunica externa
Tunica media
Tunica intima

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285
Q

The heart is found in a sac, called the ________________

A

Pericardium

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286
Q

The heart is composed of 3 distinct tissue layers : ______________ , ____________ , & ____________

A

Endocardium
Myocardium
Epicardium

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287
Q

_______________ , a serous membrane that lines the 4 chambers of the heart and its valves, and is continuous with the endothelium of the arteries and veins

A

Endocardium

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288
Q

_______________ , the muscular layer of the heart

A

Myocardium

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289
Q

_______________ , the outer most layer of the heart

A

Epicardium

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290
Q

The sequence of the 4 structure is responsible for the conduction of a contraction impulse is :

A

SA Node
AV Node
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibers

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291
Q

The _____ wave is the depolarization of the atria

A

P

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292
Q

The ______ complex is the depolarization of the ventricles

A

QRS

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293
Q

The ____ wave is the repolarization of the ventricles

A

T

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294
Q

______________ measures the force of blood against the arterial walls during 2 phases of a heartbeat : the systolic phase is when the blood is forced out of the heart, and the diastolic phase is when the ventricles are filling with blood

A

Blood pressure

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295
Q

What are 5 factors that influence blood pressure :
_______________
_______________
_______________
_______________
_______________

A

Resistance of blood flow in blood vessels
Pumping action of the heart
Viscosity or thickness of blood
Elasticity of arteries
Quantity of blood in the vascular system

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296
Q

_______________ is the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the vascular system

A

Cardiology

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297
Q

_______________ is a hardening of arterial walls that causes them to become thickened and brittle. This hardening results from a buildup of a plaque like substance, composed of cholesterol, lipids, and cellular debris. Eventually the plaque hardens causing the vessel to lose elasticity. The lumen narrows as the plaques become larger. After a while, it becomes difficult for blood to pass through the blockage.

A

Arteriosclerosis

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298
Q

A procedure in which the surgeon opens the site and removes the plaque, thereby resuming normal blood flow. It is commonly used to treat, carotid, artery, disease, peripheral arterial disease, and diseases of the renal artery and aortic arch

A

Endarterectomy

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299
Q

Failure of the coronary arteries to deliver an adequate supply of blood to the myocardium is called ________________

A

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

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300
Q

In this procedure, a deflated balloon is passed through a small incision in the skin, and into the diseased blood vessel. When the balloon inflate, it presses the occluding material against the lumen to force open the channel after the procedure the physician deflates and removes the balloon. Sometimes the physician will place a hollow send mesh stent on the balloon and positioned it against the artery wall.

A

Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

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301
Q

An invasive procedure that involves rerouting blood around the occluded area, using a vein graph that bypasses the obstruction.

A

Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

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302
Q

_______________ is an inflammation of the inner lining of the heart and its valves. It may be non-infective in nature, caused by thrombi formation, or infective caused by various microorganism’s.

A

Endocarditis

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303
Q

Bacteria traveling in the bloodstream may lodge in the weakened heart tissue and form small masses called ____________ composed of fibrin and platelets

A

Vegetations

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304
Q

_______________ are enlarged, twisted, superficial veins that develop when the valves of the veins do not function properly, and fail to prevent the backflow of blood. Blood accumulates in the vein becomes engorged and distended. Excess fluid eventually seeps from the vein, causing swelling in the surrounding tissues.

A

Varicose veins

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305
Q

Localized abnormal dilation of a vessel, usually an artery

A

Aneurysm

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306
Q

Condition of being stopped for bringing to a stop

A

Arrest

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307
Q

Loss of effective cardiac function, which results in cessation of circulation

A

Cardiac arrest

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308
Q

Cessation of circulation of blood due to ventricular standstill, or fibrillation

A

Circulatory arrest

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309
Q

In ability of the heart to maintain a normal sinus rhythm, possibly including a rapid or slow beat or skipping a beat ; also called dysrhythmia

A

Arrhythmia

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310
Q

Soft blowing sound heard on auscultation, possibly due to vibrations associated with the movement of blood, valvular action, or both ; also known as a murmur

A

Bruit

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311
Q

Any disease or weakening of heart muscle that diminishes cardiac function

A

Cardiomyopathy

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312
Q

Narrowing of a vessel, especially the aorta

A

Coarctation

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313
Q

Calculation of how much blood a ventricle can eject with one contraction

A

Ejection fraction

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314
Q

Failure of the heart to supply in adequate amount of blood to tissues and organs

A

Heart failure

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315
Q

Quivering or spontaneous muscle contractions, especially of a heart, causing ineffectual contractions

A

Fibrillation

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316
Q

Arrest of bleeding or circulation

A

Hemostasis

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317
Q

Excessive amounts of lipids in the blood

A

Hyperlipidemia

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318
Q

Common disorder characterized by elevated blood pressure persistently exceeding 140 mmHg systolic or 90 mmHg diastolic

A

Hypertension

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319
Q

Hypertension in which there is no identifiable cause ; also called essential hypertension

A

Primary hypertension

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320
Q

Hypertension that results from an underlying, identifiable, commonly correctable cause

A

Secondary hypertension

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321
Q

Any heart disorder caused by prolonged hypertension, including left ventricular hypertrophy, coronary artery, disease, cardiac arrhythmias, and heart failure

A

Hypertensive heart disease

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322
Q

Implantable battery powered device that monitors and automatically corrects ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation by sending electrical impulses to the heart

A

Implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)

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323
Q

Area of tissue that undergoes necrosis, following cessation of blood supply

A

Infarct

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324
Q

Local and temporary deficiency of blood supply due to circulation obstruction

A

Ischemia

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325
Q

Common and occasionally serious condition in which the leaflets of the mitral valve prolapse into the left atrium during system causing a characteristic murmur, heard on auscultation

A

Mitral valve prolapse (MVP)

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326
Q

Sensation that the heart is not beating normally, possibly including thumping, fluttering, skipped beats, or a pounding feeling in the chest

A

Palpitation

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327
Q

Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close after birth, allowing blood to flow from the aorta into the pulmonary artery

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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328
Q

Circulation of blood through tissues or the passage of fluid through vessels of an organ

A

Perfusion

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329
Q

Congenital anomaly consisting of 4 elements:
1. Pulmonary artery stenosis.
2. Interventricular septal defect.
3. Transposition of the aorta, so that both ventricles empty into the aorta.
4. Right ventricular hypertrophy caused by increased workload of the right ventricle.

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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330
Q

Slender or threadlike device used to hold open vessels, tubes, or an obstructed area

A

Stent

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331
Q

Passage of a catheter into the heart through a vein or artery to provide a comprehensive evaluation of the heart

A

Cardiac catheterization

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332
Q

ECG taken with a small portable recording system, capable of storing up to 24 hours of ECG tracings

A

Holter monitor test

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333
Q

Blood test that measures troponin T, troponin I, and creatinine kinase (CK-MB)

A

Cardiac enzyme studies

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334
Q

Series of tests used to assess risk factors of ischemic heart disease
- Total cholesterol
- High density lipoprotein
- Low density lipoprotein
- Triglycerides

A

Lipid panel

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335
Q

Radiographic imaging of the heart and blood vessels, after injection of a contrast dye

A

Angiography

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336
Q

Angiography to determine the degree of obstruction of the arteries that supply blood to the heart

A

Coronary angiography

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337
Q

Angiography in which 2 radiographic images are obtained, the first one without contrast material in the second one after a contrast material has been injected, and then, compared by a computer that digitally subtract the images of soft tissues, bones, and muscles, leaving only the image of vessels with contrast

A

Digital subtraction angiography

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338
Q

Radiological examination of the aorta and its branches, following injection of a contrast medium via a catheter

A

Aortography

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339
Q

Noninvasive diagnostic method that uses ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures, and produce images of the heart

A

Echocardiography

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340
Q

Noninvasive adaptation of ultrasound technology, in which blood flow velocity is assessed in different areas of the heart

A

Doppler ultrasound

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341
Q

Imaging technique that provides a graphic display of heart sounds and murmurs during the cardiac cycle

A

Phonocardiography

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342
Q

Injection of a chemical irritant into a vein, to reduce inflammation and fibrosis that destroys the lumen of the vein

A

Sclerotherapy

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343
Q

Radiography of a vein after injection of a contrast medium to detect and complete filling of a vein which indicates obstruction

A

Venography

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344
Q

The procedure to restore normal rhythm of the heart by applying a controlled electrical shock to the exterior of the chest

A

Cardioversion

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345
Q

Technique used to block blood flow to a site by bypassing a catheter to the area and injecting a synthetic material or medication specially designed to include the blood vessel

A

Embolization

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346
Q

Procedure that alters a vessel through surgery or dilation of the vessel using a balloon catheter

A

Angioplasty

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347
Q

Removal of material from an occluded vessel, using a specially designed catheter fitted with a cutting or grinding device

A

Atherectomy

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348
Q

Destruction of conduction tissue of the heart to interrupt the abnormal conduction pathway causing the arrhythmia, thus allowing normal heart rhythm to resume

A

Catheter ablation

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349
Q

Surgical separation of the leaflets of the mitral valve, which have a fused together at their commissures (touching points)

A

Commissurotomy

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350
Q

Procedure used to remove or treat varicose veins

A

Laser ablation

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351
Q

Tying a varicose vein, followed by removal of the affected segment

A

Ligation and stripping

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352
Q

Surgical procedure performed on, or within the exposed heart, usually with the assistance of a heart-lung machine

A

Open heart surgery

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353
Q

Puncturing of the pericardium to remove excess fluid from the pericardial sac, or to test for protein, sugar, and enzymes for determine the causative organism of pericarditis

A

Pericardiocentesis

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354
Q

Incision of a valve to increase the size of the opening ; used in treating mitral stenosis

A

Valvotomy

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355
Q

Blood is connective tissue, composed of a liquid medium called ___________ in which solid components are suspended

A

Plasma

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356
Q

Protective protein, produced by B lymphocytes in response to presence of a foreign substance called an antigen

A

Antibody

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357
Q

Substance recognized as harmful to the host and stimulates formation of antibodies in and immunocompetent individual

A

Antigen

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358
Q

Substances derived from the breakdown of hemoglobin, produced by the liver, and excreted in the form of bile

A

Bile pigments

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359
Q

Chemical substances produced by certain cells, that initiate, inhibit, increase, or decreased activity in other cells

A

Cytokines

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360
Q

Organism that maintains or harbors, another organism

A

Host

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361
Q

Ability to develop an immune response, or ability to recognize antigens and respond to them

A

Immunocompetent

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362
Q

Specialized lymphocytes that kill abnormal cells by releasing chemicals that destroy the cell membrane, causing its intracellular fluid to leak out

A

Natural killer cells

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363
Q

Blood cells develop from an undifferentiated cell called a _______________

A

Stem cell

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364
Q

Immature RBC is called a _________________

A

Reticulocyte

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365
Q

Hemoglobin breaks down into an iron compound, called ______________ and several bile pigments

A

Hemosiderin

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366
Q

While red blood cells remain in the bloodstream, white blood cells migrate through endothelial walls of capillaries and venules, and enter tissue spaces by a process called _______________

A

Diapedesis

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367
Q

The 3 types of granulocytes :
_______________
_______________
_______________

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

368
Q

_______________ are the most numerous circulating leukocyte. Their granules stain with a neutral, die, giving them their lilac color. They are motile and highly phagocytic, permitting them to ingest and devour bacteria and other particulate matter. They are the first cell to appear at the site of injury or infection, to begin the work of phagocytize in foreign material. Their importance in body protection cannot be underestimated. A person with a serious deficiency of this blood cell type will die, despite protective attempts by other body defenses.

A

Neutrophils

369
Q

_______________ contain granules that stain with a red aesthetic die called eosin. They protect the body by releasing many substances that neutralize toxic compounds, especially of a chemical nature. They increase in number during allergic reactions and animal parasite infestation.

A

Eosinophils

370
Q

_______________ contain granules that readily staying with a purple alkaline dye. They release histamines and heparin when tissue is damaged.

A

Basophils

371
Q

_______________ initiates the inflammatory process by increasing blood flow. As more blood flows to the damaged area, it carries with it, additional nutrients, immune substances, and immune cells that help in damage containment, and tissue repair

A

Histamines

372
Q

The 2 types of agranulocytes :
_______________
_______________

A

Monocytes
Lymphocytes

373
Q

_______________ are mildly phagocytic when found within blood vessels. However, they remain in the vascular channels only a short time. When they exit in they transform into macrophages, avid phagocytes capable of ingesting, pathogens, dead cells, and other debris found at sites of inflammation. Macrophages play a Chief role in many activities associated with specific immunity.

A

Monocytes

374
Q

______________ include B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells. B cells and T cells provide a specialized type of defense, called the specific immune response. This mode of protection is custom-made and aimed at specific antigens. Its dual action includes humoral immunity and cellular immunity.

A

Lymphocytes

375
Q

_______________ provide a generalized defense and respond whenever a potentially dangerous or abnormal cell is encountered. They killed by releasing potent chemicals that rupture the cell membrane of abnormal cells. NK cells are highly effective against cancer cells and cells harboring pathogens. These cells have the ability to kill over and over again before they die.

A

Natural killer cells

376
Q

_______________ are the smallest formed elements found in the blood

A

Platelets

377
Q

Clotting factors in platelets and injured tissue release ________________ , a substance that initiates clot formation

A

Thromboplastin

378
Q

Lymph vessels from the right chest and arm join the _______________ in which this duct drains into the _______________ a major vessel in the cardiovascular system

A

Right lymphatic duct
Right subclavian vein

379
Q

Lymph from all other areas of the body enters the ________________ and drains into the _______________

A

Thoracic duct
Left subclavian vein

380
Q

After a brief stay in the vascular system, monocytes, enter tissue spaces and become highly phagocytic macrophages. In this form, they consume large numbers of pathogens, including bacteria, and viruses. After macrophages engulf, a pathogen, they process it in such a way that the highly specific antigenic properties of the pathogen are placed on the cell surface of the macrophage. Thus, the macrophage becomes an _____________________ . The APC awaits and encounter with a lymphocyte capable of responding to that specific antigen. When this occurs, the specific immune system begins, the operations required for the systemic destruction of the antigen.

A

Antigen presenting cell

381
Q

2 types of lymphocytes :
_______________
_______________

A

T cells
B cells

382
Q

___________________ is the component of the specific immune system that protects primarily against extracellular antigens, such as bacteria and viruses that have not yet entered a cell. It is mediated by the cells, which originate and mature in the bone marrow. During maturation, each B cell develops receptors for a specific antigen, and then enters the circulatory system upon an encounter with it specific antigen, the B cells produce a clone of cells called plasma cells. Plasma cells produce highly specific proteins, called antibodies. Antibodies travel throughout the body in plasma, tissue, fluid, and lymph. When an antibody encounters, it specific antigen, it attaches to it, and forms an antigen-antibody complex. After this, the antigen is an activated, neutralize, or tagged for destruction. After all antigens have been destroyed, memory B cells migrate to lymph tissue, and remain available for immediate recall, if the same antigen is encountered again.

A

Humoral immunity

383
Q

_______________ is the component of the specific immune system that protects primarily against intracellular antigens, such as viruses and cancer cells. It is mediated by T cells these cells, originate in the bone marrow, but my great and mature in the thymus

A

Cellular immunity

384
Q

4 types of T cells :
_______________
_______________
_______________
_______________

A

Cytotoxic T cells (Tc)
Helper T cells (Th)
Suppressor T cells (Ts)
Memory T cells (Tm)

385
Q

The _______________ is the cell that actually destroys the invading antigen. It determines the antigen specific weakness, and uses this weakness as a point of attack to destroy it.

A

Cytotoxic T cell

386
Q

The _______________ is essential to the proper functioning of both humoral and cellular immunity. That uses chemical messengers called cytokines to activate, direct, and regulate the activity of most of the other components of the immune system, especially B cells. If the number of cells is deficient, the immune system essentially shuts down and the patient becomes a victim of even the most harmless organisms.

A

Helper T cells

387
Q

The _______________ monitor is the progression of infection. When infection resolves, the cells shut down the immune response. Finally like the humoral response, the cellular response also produces memory cells.

A

Suppressor T cells

388
Q

The _______________ find their way to the lymph system and remain there long after the encounter with the antigen, ready for combat, if the antigen reappears

A

Memory T cells

389
Q

_______________ is the branch of medicine that studies, blood cells, blood, clotting, mechanisms, bone marrow, and lymph nodes

A

Hematology

390
Q

_______________ is any condition in which the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is deficient it is not a disease, but rather a symptom of various diseases. It results when there is a decrease in the number of circulating RBCs, the amount of hemoglobin, or in the volume of packed erythrocytes.

A

Anemia

391
Q

RBCs fall within normal range for size

A

Normocytic

392
Q

RBCs fall within normal range for amount of hemoglobin

A

Normochromic

393
Q

RBCs that are excessively large

A

Macrocytic

394
Q

RBCs that are excessively small

A

Microcytic

395
Q

RBCs that have excessively low amounts of hemoglobin

A

Hypochromic

396
Q

______________________ is an infectious disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus, which slowly destroys the immune system

A

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

397
Q

What are the 2 diseases closely associated with AIDS:
_______________
_______________

A

Kaposi sarcoma
Pneumocystis pneumonia

398
Q

An __________ is an acquired abnormal immune response

A

Allergy

399
Q

A treatment called _______________ reduces the sensitivity of the patient to the offending allergen. This treatment involves repeated injections of highly diluted solution containing the allergen

A

Desensitization

400
Q

_______________ is the failure of the body to distinguish accurately between self and non-self. The immune system attacks the antigens found on its own cells to such an extent at the tissue injury results.

A

Autoimmunity

401
Q

_______________ is an auto immune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction. Muscles of the limbs and eyes, and those affecting speech and swallowing are usually involved.

A

Myasthenia gravis

402
Q

__________ is an abnormal accumulation of fluids in the intercellular spaces of the body. A major cause is a decrease in the blood, protein level, especially albumin, which controls the amount of plasma, leaving the vascular channels. Other causes include poor, lymph, drainage, high sodium intake, increased, capillary, permeability, and heart failure.

A

Edema

403
Q

_______________ is a hereditary disorder in which the blood clotting mechanism is impaired

A

Hemophilia

404
Q

There are 2 main types of hemophilia :
__________
__________

A

Hemophilia A
Hemophilia B

405
Q

Hemophilia ___ , is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII

A

A

406
Q

Hemophilia ___ , is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor IX

A

B

407
Q

_______________ is one of the acute infections caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. It is usually found in young adults and tends to appear an early spring and fall. Saliva and respiratory secretions have been implicated as significant infectious agents hence the name kissing disease. Sore throat, fever, in large cervical lymph nodes, characterize this disease.

A

Infectious mononucleosis

408
Q

____________ is an ontological disorder of the blood forming organs, characterized by an overgrowth of blood cells. With this condition, malignant cells, replace healthy, bone marrow cells. The disease is generally characterized by the type of leukocyte population affected : granulocytic (myelogenous) or lymphatic

A

Leukemia

409
Q

________ leukemia, the cells are highly embryonic (blastic) with few, mature forms, resulting in severe anemia, infections, bleeding disorders, and is life-threatening

A

Acute

410
Q

__________ is a malignant disease of the lymph system, primarily the lymph nodes. It usually begins with a painless enlargement of lymph nodes, typically on one side of the neck, chest, or under arm.

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

411
Q

Condition of marked variation in the size of erythrocytes when observed on a blood smear

A

Anisocytosis

412
Q

Presence of a viable bacteria circulating in the blood stream, usually transient in nature

A

Bacteremia

413
Q

Destruction of a transplanted organ or tissue by the recipients immune system

A

Graft rejection

414
Q

Condition that occurs following bone marrow transplant in which the immune cells in the transplant bone marrow produce antibodies against the hosts tissues

A

Graft versus host disease

415
Q

Any disorder caused by abnormalities in the hemoglobin molecule

A

Hemoglobinopathy

416
Q

Destruction of RBCs, with a release of hemoglobin that diffuses into the surrounding fluid

A

Hemolysis

417
Q

State of being protected against infectious diseases

A

Immunity

418
Q

Immunity produced by the persons on immune system

A

Active immunity

419
Q

Immunity in which antibodies or other immune substances formed in one individual are transferred to another individual to provide immediate, temporary immunity

A

Passive immunity

420
Q

Any disease of the lymph nodes

A

Lymphadenopathy

421
Q

Malignant neoplastic disorder of lymphatic tissue (not related to Hodgkin disease)

A

Lymphosarcoma

422
Q

Serious, life-threatening, bloodstream infection that may arise from other infections throughout the body, such as pneumonia, urinary tract, infection, meningitis, or infections of the bone or G.I. tract ; also called blood infection or blood poisoning

A

Septicemia

423
Q

Laboratory test to detect the presence of antibodies, antigens, or immune substances

A

Serology

424
Q

Blood test that measures the amount of antibodies in blood ; commonly used as an indicator of a moon status

A

Titer

425
Q

Test to determine the presence of pathogens in the bloodstream

A

Blood culture

426
Q

Test that enumerates the distribution of WBCs in a stained blood smear by counting the different kinds of WBCs, and reporting each as a percentage of the total examined

A

Differential count (diff)

427
Q

Measurement of the distance the RBCs settle to the bottom of a test tube under standardized conditions ; also called sed rate

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

428
Q

Measurement of the amount of hemoglobin found in a whole blood sample

A

Hemoglobin value

429
Q

Measurement of the percentage of RBCs in a whole blood sample

A

Hematocrit (Hct)

430
Q

Nonspecific rapid serological test for infectious mononucleosis ; also called the heterophile antibody test

A

Monospot

431
Q

Test that measures the length of time it takes BLOOD to clot. It screens for deficiencies and some clotting factors and monitors the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy (heparin) ; also called activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

A

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

432
Q

Test that measures the time it takes for the PLASMA PORTION of blood to clot. It is used to evaluate portions of the coagulation system ; also called pro time

A

Prothrombin time (PT)

433
Q

Mathematical calculation of the size, volume, and concentration of hemoglobin for a RBC

A

Red blood cell indices

434
Q

Test used to assess the absorption of radioactive vitamin B12 by the digestive system

A

Schilling test

435
Q

Radiographic examination of lymph nodes, after injection of a contrast medium

A

Lymphadenography

436
Q

Radiographic examination of lymph vessels or tissues, after injection of a contrast medium

A

Lymphangiography

437
Q

Drawing in or out by suction

A

Aspiration

438
Q

Procedure using a syringe with a thin aspirating needle, inserted to withdraw a small sample of bone marrow fluid for microscopic evaluation (usually the pelvic bone and rarely the sternum)

A

Bone marrow aspiration

439
Q

Removal of a small core sample of tissue from bone marrow for examination under a microscope and possibly for analysis using other tests

A

Bone marrow biopsy

440
Q

Removal of the first lymph node that receives drainage from cancer containing areas, and the one most likely to contain malignant cells

A

Sentinel node biopsy

441
Q

Removal of a lymph vessel

A

Lymphangiectomy

442
Q

Infusion of blood or blood components into the bloodstream

A

Transfusion

443
Q

Transfusion prepared from the recipients own blood

A

Autologous transfusion

444
Q

Transfusion prepared from another individual, who is blood is compatible with that of the recipient

A

Homologous transfusion

445
Q

Grafting of living tissue from its normal position to another site or from one person to another

A

Transplantation

446
Q

Harvesting, freezing, and reinfusing the patients on bone marrow to treat bone marrow hyperplasia following cancer therapy

A

Autologous bone marrow transplantation

447
Q

Transplantation of bone marrow from one individual to another to treat aplastic, anemia, leukemia, and immunodeficiency disorders

A

Homologous bone marrow transplantation

448
Q

The 3 types of muscle tissue C:
_______________
_______________
_______________

A

Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle

449
Q

_______________ also called voluntary or striated muscle, our muscles who’s action is under voluntary control. Some examples of voluntary muscles are muscles that move the eyeballs, tongue, and bones.

A

Skeletal muscles

450
Q

_______________ is found only in the heart. It is unique for its branched, interconnections, and makes up most of the wall of the heart. Cardiac muscle shares similarities with both skeletal and smooth muscles. Like Skelton muscle it is striated, but it produces rhythmic involuntary contractions, like smooth muscle.

A

Cardiac muscle

451
Q

_______________ also called involuntary or visceral muscles, our muscles, whose actions are involuntary. They are found principally in the visceral organs, walls of arteries and respiratory passages, and urinary and reproductive ducts. The contraction is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.

A

Smooth muscles

452
Q

Any body part attached to a main structure

A

Appendage

453
Q

Place of union between 2 or more bones ; also called joint

A

Articulation

454
Q

Spongy or porous structure, as found at the end of long bones

A

Cancellous

455
Q

Ligaments that cross each other forming an X within the notch between the femoral condyles

A

Cruciate ligaments

456
Q

Moves closer to the midline

A

Adduction

457
Q

Moves away from the midline

A

Abduction

458
Q

Decreases the angle of a joint

A

Flexion

459
Q

Increases the angle of a joint

A

Extension

460
Q

Move the bone around its own axis

A

Rotation

461
Q

Turns the palm down

A

Pronation

462
Q

Turns the palm up

A

Supination

463
Q

Move the sole of the foot inward

A

Inversion

464
Q

Move the sole of the foot outward

A

Eversion

465
Q

Elevates the foot

A

Dorsiflexion

466
Q

Lowers the foot (points the toes)

A

Plantar flexion

467
Q

In __________ attachments, muscle fibers arise directly from bone

A

Fleshy

468
Q

In __________ attachments, the connective tissue convergence at the end of the muscle to become continuous and indistinguishable from the periosteum

A

Fibrous

469
Q

4 principal types of bones :
_______________
_______________
_______________
_______________

A

Short bones
Irregular bones
Flat bones
Long bones

470
Q

_______________ or somewhat cube shaped. They consist of a core of spongy bone, also known as cancellous bone, enclosed in a thin surface layer of compact bone.

A

Short bones

471
Q

_______________ include the bones that cannot be classified as short or long because of their complex shapes

A

Irregular bones

472
Q

________________ or exactly what their name suggests. They provide broad services for muscular attachment or protection for internal organs

A

Flat bones

473
Q

_______________ are found in the appendages of the body, such as the legs, arms, and fingers

A

Long bones

474
Q

The _______________ is a dense white fibrous membrane that covers the remaining surface of the bone

A

Periosteum

475
Q

An infant skull contains and unossified membrane or soft spot lying between the cranial bones, called a ______________

A

Fontanel

476
Q

The 3 bones that are fused together to form a single bone called the innominate (hip) bone :
__________
__________
__________

A

Ilium
Ischium
Pubis

477
Q

Freely movable joints are called __________

A

Diarthroses

478
Q

Only slightly movable joints are called ___________

A

Amphiarthroses

479
Q

Immovable joints are called ___________

A

Synarthroses

480
Q

Joints that allows movement are called ______________

A

Synovial joints

481
Q

_______________ fracture : bone is broken, but no external wound exists

A

Closed fracture (simple)

482
Q

_______________ fracture : involves a broken bone and an external wound that leads to the site of fracture (fragments of bone protrude through the skin)

A

Open fracture (complete)

483
Q

_______________ fracture : a broken bone has injured an internal organ, such as when a broken rib pierces a lung

A

Complicated fracture

484
Q

_______________ fracture : the bone has broken or splintered into pieces

A

Comminuted fracture

485
Q

_______________ fracture : the bone is broken, and one end is wedged into the interior of another bone

A

Impacted fracture

486
Q

_______________ fracture : the lining of fracture does not completely transverse the entire bone

A

Incomplete fracture

487
Q

_______________ fracture : the broken bone does not extend through the entire thickness of the bone, one side of the bone is broken and one side of the bone is bent

A

Greenstick fracture
- refers to the new branches on a tree that bend rather than break
- Also known as an incomplete fracture

488
Q

_______________ fracture : a break at the lower end of the radius, occurs just above the rest. It causes displacement of the hand, and usually occurs as a result of flexing a hand to cushion a fall.

A

Colles fracture

489
Q

_______________ fracture : a minor fracture in which all portions of the bone are in perfect alignment, and is seen on radiographic examination as a very thin hairline between the two segments, but not extending entirely through the bone

A

Hairline fracture

490
Q

_______________ is a chronic inflammation of bones, resulting in thickening and softening of the bones. That can occur in any bone, but most commonly affects the long bones of the legs, the lower spine, the pelvis, and the skull.

A

Paget disease (osteitis deformans)

491
Q

_______________ is a common metabolic bone disorder in the elderly, and is characterized by decreased bone density that occurs when the rate of bone resorption exceeds the rate of bone formation.

A

Osteoporosis

492
Q

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, either to the right or left is called ______________

A

Scoliosis (C-shaped curvature of the spine)

493
Q

An abnormal curvature of the upper portion of the spine is called ______________

A

Kyphosis
Humpback
Hunchback

494
Q

An abnormal inward curvature of a portion of the lower portion of the spine is called _____________

A

Lordosis
Swayback

495
Q

_______________ is an inflammation of a joint, usually accompanied by pain, swelling, and changes in structure

A

Arthritis

496
Q

_________________ a systemic disease characterized by inflammatory changes in joints and their related structures, results in crippling deformities

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

497
Q

_______________ is the most common type of connective tissue disease. Cartilage destruction and new bone formation at the edges of joints are the most common pathologies seen with this.

A

Osteoarthritis (degenerative joint disease)

498
Q

_______________ is a metabolic disease caused by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in the blood. These crystals may become deposited and joints and soft tissue near joints, causing painful, swelling, and inflammation.

A

Gouty arthritis (gout)

499
Q

__________________ a genetic disease characterized by gradual atrophy and weakening of muscle tissue. There are several different types

A

Muscular dystrophy

500
Q

malignancies that originate from bone, fat, muscle, cartilage, bone marrow, and cells of the lymphatic system are called ______________

A

Sarcomas

501
Q

3 major types of sarcomas include :
_______________
_______________
_______________

A

Fibrosarcoma
Osteosarcoma
Ewing sarcoma

502
Q

Stiffening and immobility of a joint as a result of disease, trauma, surgery, or abnormal bone fusion

A

Ankylosis

503
Q

Painful condition resulting from compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

504
Q

Lameness, limping

A

Claudication

505
Q

Fibrosis of connective tissue in the skin, facia, muscle, or joint capsule that prevents normal mobility of the related tissue or joint

A

Contracture

506
Q

Use of electrical stimulation to record the strength of muscle contractions

A

Electromyography

507
Q

Increase the severity of a disease or any of its symptoms

A

Exacerbation

508
Q

Tumor of tendon sheath or joint capsule, commonly found in the wrist

A

Ganglion cyst

509
Q

Effusion of blood into a joint cavity

A

Hemarthrosis

510
Q

Loss of muscular tone, or a diminished resistance to passive stretching

A

Hypotonia

511
Q

Primary malignant tumor that infiltrates the bone in red bone marrow

A

Multiple myeloma

512
Q

Bony outgrowth that occasionally develops on the vertebrae in my exert pressure on the spinal cord ; also called bone spur

A

Osteophyte

513
Q

Perceived sensation, following amputation of a limb, that the limb still exists

A

Phantom limb

514
Q

Replacement of a missing part by an artificial substitute, such as an artificial extremity

A

Prosthesis

515
Q

Form of osteomalacia and children caused by vitamin D deficiency

A

Rickets

516
Q

Fragment of necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue

A

Sequestrum

517
Q

Any slipping of a vertebrae from its normal position in relationship to the one beneath it

A

Spondylolisthesis

518
Q

Degeneration of the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae and related tissue

A

Spondylosis

519
Q

Tearing of ligament tissue that may be slight, moderate, or complete

A

Sprain

520
Q

To exert physical force in a manner that may result in injury, usually muscular

A

Strain

521
Q

Partial or incomplete dislocation

A

Subluxation

522
Q

Congenital deformity of one or both feet, in which the foot is pulled downward and laterally to the side ; also called club foot

A

Talipes Equinovarus

523
Q

Series of radiographs taken after injection of contrast material into a joint cavity, especially the knee or shoulder, to outline the contour of the joint

A

Arthrography

524
Q

Radiographic procedures that use low energy x-ray absorption to measure bone mineral density

A

Bone density test

525
Q

Radiographic examination of the intervertebral disc structures by injecting and contrast medium

A

Discography

526
Q

Radiography of the five lumbar vertebrae, and the fused, sacral vertebrae, including Anteroposterior, lateral, and oblique views of the lower spine

A

Lumbosacral spinal radiography

527
Q

Radiography of the spinal cord after injecting a contrast medium to identify and study spinal distortions caused by tumors, cysts, herniated intervertebral discs, and other lesions

A

Myelography

528
Q

Procedure that reduces a bone to its normal position

A

Reduction

529
Q

Reduction procedure, where fractured bones are realigned by manipulation rather than surgery

A

Closed reduction

530
Q

Reduction procedure, that treats bone fractures by placing the bone in their proper position using surgery

A

Open reduction

531
Q

Applications of a solid, stiff dressing formed with plaster of Paris or other material to a body part to immobilize it during the healing process

A

Casting

532
Q

Application of an orthopedic device to an injured body part for immobilization, stabilization, and protection during the healing process

A

Splinting

533
Q

Use of weights and pulleys to align or immobilize a fracture and facilitate the healing process

A

Traction

534
Q

Partial or complete removal of an extremity, due to trauma or circulatory disease

A

Amputation

535
Q

Puncture of a joint space, using a needle to remove accumulated fluid

A

Arthrocentesis

536
Q

Surgical breaking of an ankylosed joint to provide movement

A

Arthroclasia

537
Q

Visual examination of the interior of a joint and its structures, using a thin, flexible, fiber, optic scope, called an arthroscope that contains a magnifying lens, fiber, optic light, and miniature camera that projects images on a monitor

A

Arthroscopy

538
Q

Implanting or transplanting bone tissue from one part of the body, or from another person, to serve as a replacement for damaged or missing bone tissue

A

Bone grafting

539
Q

Excision of bursa

A

Bursectomy

540
Q

Excision of the posterior arch of a vertebrae

A

Laminectomy

541
Q

Surgery repeated to correct problems of a previously unsuccessful surgery for to replace a worn out prosthesis

A

Revision surgery

542
Q

Revision surgery are often required to correct bone infection, misalignments of bones, broken, prosthesis, and fractures of the bone around the prosthesis

A

Bone revision surgery

543
Q

Excision of a sequestrum

A

Sequestrectomy

544
Q

Excision of a synovial membrane

A

Synovectomy

545
Q

Surgical procedure to replace a hip joint damaged by a degenerative disease, commonly arthritis

A

Total hip replacement

546
Q

Mineral salts that carry in electrical charge in solution

A

Electrolytes

547
Q

Fluid that passes from the blood through the capillary walls of the glomeruli of the kidney

A

Filtrate

548
Q

Products of cellular metabolism that contain nitrogen

A

Nitrogenous waste

549
Q

Sequence of arithmetic contraction of smooth muscle of a hollow organ to force material forward and prevent backflow

A

Peristaltic waves

550
Q

Serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity and covers most of the organs within the cavity

A

Peritoneum

551
Q

Liquid portion of blood, composed, primarily of water, and containing dissolved proteins, nutrients, lipids, and various waste products

A

Plasma

552
Q

Fluid containing sperm and secretions from the prostate and other structures of the male reproductive system

A

Semen

553
Q

Androgenic hormone responsible for the development of male sex organs, including the penis, testicles, scrotum, and prostate

A

Testosterone

554
Q

The bladder has small folds called _________ that expand as the bladder fills

A

Rugae

555
Q

A triangular area at the base of the bladder called the ___________ is delineated by the openings of the ureters and the urethra

A

Trigone

556
Q

_______________ occurs in the renal corpuscle, or plasma, containing water, electrolytes, sugar, and other small molecules is forced from the blood within the glomerulus into Bowman capsule to form filtrate

A

Filtration

557
Q

______________ begins as filtrate travels through the long, twisted pathway of the tubule. Most of the water and some of the electrolytes and amino acids are returned to the peritubular, capillaries, and re-enter the circulating blood

A

Reabsorption

558
Q

_______________ is the final stage of your information. Substances are actively secreted from the blood in the peritubular capillaries into the filtrate in the renal tubules. Waste products, such as ammonia, uric acid, and metabolic products of medication‘s are secreted into the filtrate to be eliminated in urine

A

Secretion

559
Q

_______________ is a disorder in which bacteria invade the renal pelvis and kidney tissue, commonly a result of a bladder infection that ascended to the kidney via the ureters. When the infection is severe, lesions, form in the renal pelvis, causing bleeding.

A

Pyelonephritis (kidney infection or complicated urinary tract infection)

560
Q

Glomerular walls become inflamed, is called ________________

A

Glomerulonephritis

561
Q

Stones may form in any part of the urinary tract, but most arise in the kidney, a condition called ________________

A

Nephrolithiasis

562
Q

Stones lodged in the ureters cause intense throbbing pain called _________

A

Colic

563
Q

______________________ is a treatment in which renal calculi are pulverized using concentrated ultrasound waves called shock waves that are directed at the stones from a machine outside the body

A

Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL)

564
Q

____________________ is a procedure in which a small incision is made in the skin, and an opening is formed in the kidneys. A nephroscope is inserted into the kidney to locate and remove the stone. If the stone is large than an ultrasonic and electrohydraulic probe is used to break the stone into smaller fragments, which are than more easily removed. And the frosting me to may be inserted in remain in place during healing.

A

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)

565
Q

_____________________ is a procedure where a ureteroscope is passed through the urethra and bladder, and into the ureter where the basket collects the stone. For larger stones, it may be necessary to break them into smaller pieces using an endoscope fitted with a laser beam before the fragments are removed. no incision is required.

A

Ureteroscopic stone removal

566
Q

_______________, the prostate gland enlarges & it decreases the urethral lumen and complete voiding of urine becomes difficult. Urine that remains in the bladder commonly becomes a breeding ground for bacteria. Bladder infection and ultimately kidney infection may result.

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Nodular hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hypertrophy

567
Q

Bladder infection

A

Cystitis

568
Q

________________ , is a procedure in which a resectoscope is inserted through the urethra and a small loop chips away some of the obstructing tissue of the prostate. At the conclusion of surgery that urethra and bladder are irrigated to remove the small chips.

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

569
Q

Failure of the testes descend into the scrotal sac prior to birth is called _______________

A

Cryptorchidism

570
Q

_________________ , the tubular portion of the nephron is injured by a decrease in blood supply, or after the ingestion of toxic chemicals

A

Acute tubular necrosis

571
Q

Absence of urine production or urinary output

A

Anuria

572
Q

Retention of excessive amounts of nitrogen compounds in the blood ; also called uremia

A

Azotemia

573
Q

Blockage at base of the bladder that reduces or prevents urine from passing into the urethra

A

Bladder neck obstruction

574
Q

Renal failure that occurs over a period of years, in which the kidneys lose their ability to maintain volume and composition of body fluids with normal dietary intake

A

Chronic renal failure

575
Q

Painful or difficult urination, commonly described as a burning sensation while urinating

A

Dysuria

576
Q

Condition in which kidney function is permanently lost

A

End stage renal disease

577
Q

Involuntary discharge of urine ; also called incontinence

A

Enuresis

578
Q

Abnormal passage from a hollow organ to the surface or from one organ to another

A

Fistula

579
Q

Involuntary delay in initiating urination

A

Hesitancy

580
Q

Abnormal dilation of the renal pelvis and the calyces of one or both kidneys due to pressure from accumulated urine that cannot flow past an obstruction in the urinary tract.

A

Hydronephrosis

581
Q

Loss of large amounts of plasma, proteins, usually albumin by way of urine, due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane

A

Nephrotic syndrome

582
Q

Excessive or frequent urination after going to bed

A

Nocturia

583
Q

Diminished capacity to form and pass urine, resulting in an efficient excretion of the end products of metabolism

A

Oliguria

584
Q

Inherited disease in which sacs of fluid called cysts develop in the kidneys

A

Polycystic kidney disease

585
Q

Disorder caused by the failure of urine to pass through the ureters to the bladder, usually due to impairment of the valve between the ureter and bladder or obstruction of the ureter

A

Vesicoureteral reflux

586
Q

Rapidly developing malignant neoplasm of the kidney that usually occurs in children

A

Wilms tumor

587
Q

Congenital, absence of one or both testes ; also called anorchia or anorchism

A

Anorchidism

588
Q

Failure to form or ejaculate semen

A

Aspermia

589
Q

Inflammation of the skin covering the glans penis

A

Balanitis

590
Q

Malformation in which the urethra opens on the dorsum of the penis

A

Epispadias

591
Q

Repeated inability to initiate or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual intercourse

A

Erectile dysfunction

592
Q

Accumulation of serous fluid in a saclike cavity, especially the testes and associated structures

A

Hydrocele

593
Q

Developmental anomaly, in which the urethra openings on the underside of the penis, or an extreme cases on the perineum

A

Hypospadias

594
Q

Stenosis or narrowing of preputial orifice, so that the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis

A

Phimosis

595
Q

Inability to produce offspring

A

Sterility

596
Q

Swelling and distention of veins of the spermatic cord

A

Varicocele

597
Q

Screening test that assesses the rectal wall surface for lesions or abnormally firm areas that might indicate cancer

A

Digital rectal examination

598
Q

Endoscopy of the urinary bladder for evidence of pathology, obtaining biopsies of tumors or other growths, and removal of polyps

A

Cystoscopy

599
Q

Endoscopy of the kidneys, using a specialized three channel endoscope that enables visualization in irrigation of the kidney

A

Nephroscopy

600
Q

Endoscopy of the urethra, using a specialized endoscope typically for lithotripsy or TURP

A

Urethroscopy

601
Q

Test that determines the amount of urea nitrogen, a waste product of protein metabolism, present in a blood sample

A

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

602
Q

Test that determines the causative organism of a disease and how the organism responds to various antibiotics

A

Culture and sensitivity

603
Q

Blood test used to detect prostatic disorders, especially prostatic cancer

A

Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

604
Q

Test that analyzes a semen sample for volume, sperm, count, motility, and morphology to evaluate, fertility or verify sterilization after a vasectomy

A

Semen analysis

605
Q

Battery of tests performed on a urine specimen, including physical observation, chemical tests, and microscopic evaluation

A

Urinalysis

606
Q

Radiographic examination of the urinary bladder using a contrast medium

A

Cystography

607
Q

Procedure that assesses volume and pressure in the bladder at various stages of filling, using saline and a contrast medium introduced into the bladder through a catheter

A

Cystometrography

608
Q

Radiographic examination of the kidneys and urinary tract after IV injection of a contrast medium

A

Intravenous pyelography

609
Q

Radiological examination of the bladder and urethra performed before, during, and after voiding using a contrast medium to enhance imaging

A

Voiding cystourethrography

610
Q

Medical procedure used to filter toxic substances from the patient’s bloodstream, such as excess electrolytes in nitrogenous waste

A

Dialysis

611
Q

Method of removing waste substances from the blood by shutting it from the body, passing it through an artificial kidney machine, where it is filtered, and then returning the dialyzed blood to the patient’s body

A

Hemodialysis

612
Q

Removal of toxic substances from the body by perfusing the peritoneal cavity with a warm sterile chemical solution

A

Peritoneal dialysis

613
Q

Fixation of a floating or mobile kidney

A

Nephropexy

614
Q

Removal of one or both testes

A

Orchidectomy

615
Q

Incision of a urethral stricture

A

Urethrotomy

616
Q

Excision of all, or a segment of the vas deferens

A

Vasectomy

617
Q

_____________ , the initial menstrual period, occurs at puberty and continues approximately 40 years except during pregnancy

A

Menarche

618
Q

The average pregnancy lasts approximately ____________ and is followed by childbirth

A

9 months

619
Q

Up to the third month of pregnancy, the product of conception is referred to as the _____________ and after the third month up to birth, the unborn offspring is referred to as the ____________

A

Embryo
Fetus

620
Q

Absence of menses

A

Amenorrhea

621
Q

Labor occurs in 3 stages :
____________
____________
____________

A

Stage of dilation
Stage of expulsion
Placental stage, or afterbirth

622
Q

Menstrual pain and tension

A

Dysmenorrhea

623
Q

Irregular uterine bleeding between menstrual periods

A

Metrorrhagia

624
Q

______________ is a disorder with signs and symptoms that range from complaints of headache and fatigue to mood changes, anxiety, depression, uncontrollable, crying, spells, and water retention

A

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

625
Q

Profuse or prolonged bleeding during regular menstruation

A

Menorrhagia
Hypermenorrhea

626
Q

_______________ the presence of functional endometrial tissue in areas outside of the uterus. The endometrial tissue develops into what are called implants, lesions, or growths, and can cause pain, infertility, and other problems.

A

Endometriosis

627
Q

____________________ is a general term for inflammation of the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, adjacent pelvic structures, and is usually caused by bacterial infections

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

628
Q

_______________ is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Gonorrhea

629
Q

_______________ is caused by infection with the bacterium Treponema pallidum and is characterized by three distinct phases. The first phase includes a primary store that develops at the point where the organism enters the body. The second phase produces a variety of symptoms that make diagnosis of the disease difficult. The third phase is the latent phase whereby the disease may remain dormant for years

A

Syphilis

630
Q

_______________ is caused by infection with the bacterium chlamydia trachomatis

A

Chlamydia

631
Q

_______________ causes red blister like painful lesions that closely resemble the common fever, blister, or cold sore that appears on the lips in around the mouth

A

Genital herpes

632
Q

_______________ caused by the human papillomavirus

A

Genital warts

633
Q

___________________ is caused by the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Trichomoniasis

634
Q

Accessory parts of a structure

A

Adnexa

635
Q

Congenital, absence, or closure of a normal body opening, such as the vagina

A

Atresia

636
Q

Malignant neoplasm of the uterus, or at the site of an ectopic pregnancy

A

Choriocarcinoma

637
Q

Contraceptive device consisting of a hemisphere of thin rubber bonded to a flexible ring ; inserted into the vagina together with spermicidal gel or cream up to 2 hours before coitus so that the spermatozoa cannot enter the uterus, thus preventing conception

A

Contraceptive diaphragm

638
Q

Ovarian scar tissue that results from rupturing of a follicle during ovulation, and becomes a small yellow body that produces progesterone after ovulation

A

Corpus luteum

639
Q

Occurrence of pain during sexual intercourse

A

Dyspareunia

640
Q

Inflammation of the mucous lining of the cervix uteri

A

Endocervicitis

641
Q

Benign uterine tumor is composed of muscle and fibrous tissue

A

Fibroids
Myomas

642
Q

Inability or diminished ability to produce offspring

A

Infertility

643
Q

Use of hormones to suppress ovulation and prevent contraception

A

Hormonal contraception

644
Q

Birth control pills contain estrogen and progesterone and varying proportions

A

Oral contraceptive pills

645
Q

Scanty or infrequent menstrual flow

A

Oligomenorrhea

646
Q

Region between the vulva and anus that constitutes the pelvic floor

A

Perineum

647
Q

Period during which secondary sex characteristics begin to develop, and the capability of sexual reproduction is attained

A

Puberty

648
Q

Pause in the fallopian tube

A

Pyosalpinx

649
Q

Turning or state of being turned back, especially in an entire organ such as the uterus being tipped from its normal position

A

Retroversion

650
Q

Painful spasm of the vagina from contraction of its surrounding muscles

A

Vaginismus

651
Q

Termination of pregnancy before the embryo or fetus is capable of surviving outside of the uterus

A

Abortion

652
Q

Premature separation of a normal situated placenta

A

Abruptio placentae

653
Q

Membrane, continuous with and covering the fetal side of the placenta, that forms the outer surface of the umbilical cord

A

Amnion

654
Q

Common abnormality of delivering in which the fetal buttocks or feet present first rather than ahead

A

Breech presentation

655
Q

Congenital condition, characterized by physical malformations and some degree of mental retardation

A

Down syndrome, trisomy 21

656
Q

Difficult labor, which may be produced by the large size of the fetus or the small size of the pelvic outlet

A

Dystocia

657
Q

Most serious form of toxemia during pregnancy

A

Eclampsia

658
Q

Pregnancy in which the fertilized ovum does not reach the uterine cavity but becomes implanted on any tissue other than the lining of the uterine cavity, such as a Fallopian tube, an ovary, the abdomen, or even the cervix uteri

A

Ectopic pregnancy

659
Q

Pregnant woman

A

Gravida

660
Q

Woman who has been pregnant more than once

A

Multigravida

661
Q

Woman who was delivered more than one viable infant

A

Multipara

662
Q

Woman who has given birth to one or more valuable infants

A

Para

663
Q

Process of giving birth

A

Parturition

664
Q

Measurement of pelvic dimensions to determine whether the head of the fetus will be able to pass through the bony pelvis during the delivery process

A

Pelvimetry

665
Q

Condition in which the placenta is attach near the cervix and ruptures prematurely, with spotting as the early symptom

A

Placenta previa

666
Q

Woman pregnant for the first time

A

Primigravida

667
Q

Woman who has given birth to one viable infant, her first child, indicated by the notation para I on the patient’s chart

A

Primipara

668
Q

Period of 42 days after childbirth and expulsion of the placenta and membranes, during which the reproductive organs usually return to normal

A

Puerperium

669
Q

Transabdominal puncture of the amniotic sac under ultrasound guidance, using a needle and syringe to remove amniotic fluid

A

Amniocentesis

670
Q

Delivery of pressurized air or gas into a cavity, chamber, or organ to allow visual examination, remove an obstruction, or apply medication

A

Insufflation

671
Q

Test for patency of the uterine tubes made by transuterine insufflation with carbon dioxide

A

Tubal insufflation

672
Q

Visual examination of the vagina and cervix with an optical magnifying instrument called a colposcope

A

Colposcopy

673
Q

Sampling of placental tissue from prenatal diagnosis of potential genetic defects

A

Chorionic villus sampling

674
Q

Removal of a sample of uterine endometrium for microscopic study

A

Endometrial biopsy

675
Q

Psychological study used to detect abnormal cells sloughed from the cervix and vagina, usually obtain during routine pelvic examination

A

Papanicolaou test (pap)

676
Q

Radiographic examination of the breast to screen for breast cancer

A

Mammography

677
Q

Radiography of the uterus and uterine tubes, following injection of a contrast medium

A

Hysterosalpingography

678
Q

Surgery design to correct an unsuccessful procedure that has created a cosmetic problem or poses a health risk

A

Breast implant revision

679
Q

Suturing the cervix to prevent it from dilating prematurely during pregnancy, does decreasing the chance of a spontaneous abortion. The sutures are removed prior to delivery.

A

Cerclage

680
Q

Incision of the head abdomen and uterus to remove the fetus

A

Cesarean birth
C-section

681
Q

Surgical closure of the vagina canal

A

Colpocleisis

682
Q

Excision of a cone shaped piece of tissue, such as mucosa of the cervix, for histological examination

A

Conization

683
Q

Sampling of fetal blood drawn from the umbilical vein and performed under ultrasound guidance

A

Cordocentesis

684
Q

Process of freezing tissue to destroy cells

A

Cryosurgery

685
Q

Widening of the cervical canal with a dilator in scraping of the uterine endometrium with a curette

A

Dilation and curettage

686
Q

Repair of a lacerated vulva or an episiotomy

A

Episiorrhaphy

687
Q

Incision of the perineum from the vaginal orifice, usually done to prevent tearing of the tissue and to facilitate childbirth

A

Episiotomy

688
Q

Excision of the uterus

A

Hysterectomy

689
Q

Hysterectomy where the service, ovaries, and a Fallopian tubes remain

A

Sub total hysterectomy

690
Q

Hysterectomy where the cervix removed, but the ovaries and fallopian tubes remain

A

Total hysterectomy

691
Q

Total hysterectomy, including uterus, service, fallopian tubes, and ovaries

A

Total hysterectomy plus bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

692
Q

Plastic or metal object placed inside the uterus to prevent implantation of a fertilized egg in the uterine lining

A

Intrauterine device (IUD)

693
Q

Excision of a small primary breast tumor, and some of the normal tissue that surrounds it

A

Lumpectomy

694
Q

Surgical reconstruction of the breasts to change the size, shape, or position

A

Mammoplasty

695
Q

Breast enlargement to increase breast size or to replace one that has been surgically removed

A

Mammoplasty augmentation

696
Q

Breast reduction to reduce the size of a large, pendulous breast

A

Mammoplasty reduction

697
Q

Excision of the entire breast

A

Mastectomy

698
Q

Excision of the entire breast, nipple, areola, and the involved overlying skin

A

Total mastectomy (simple mastectomy)

699
Q

Excision of the entire breast, including the lymph nodes in the under arm (axillary dissection)

A

Modified radical mastectomy

700
Q

Excision of the entire breast, all under arm, lymph nodes, and chest wall muscles under the breast

A

Radical mastectomy

701
Q

Excision of a myomatous tumor, generally uterine

A

Myomectomy

702
Q

Reconstruction of a breast that has been removed because of breast, cancer or other disease

A

Reconstructive breast surgery

703
Q

Common breast reconstruction technique in which a balloon expander is inserted beneath the skin and chest muscle, saline solution is gradually injected to increase size, and the expander is then replaced with a more permanent implant

A

Tissue expansion reconstructive breast surgery

704
Q

Surgical creation of a skin flap using skin and fat from the lower half of the abdomen, which is passed under the skin to the breast area. The abdominal tissue is shaped into a natural looking breast and sutured into place.

A

Transverse rectus abdominous muscle flap (TRAM)

705
Q

Excision of an ovary and fallopian tube

A

Salpingo-oophorectomy

706
Q

Procedure that ties the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy

A

Tubal ligation

707
Q

________________ , is known as the master gland, because it regulates many body activities, and stimulates other glands, to secrete their own specific hormones

A

Pituitary gland

708
Q

Acting in opposition ; mutually opposing

A

Antagonistic

709
Q

Hormone produced by pancreatic alpha cells that increases the blood glucose level by stimulating, deliver to change stored glycogen to glucose

A

Glucagon

710
Q

Simple sugar that is the end product of carbohydrate digestion

A

Glucose

711
Q

Chemical substances produced by specialized cells in the body that are released slowly in minute amounts directly into the bloodstream

A

Hormones

712
Q

Hormone produced by pancreatic beta cells to ask to remove glucose from the blood by promoting it storage and tissues as glycogen

A

Insulin

713
Q

Agent that mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

A

Sympathomimetic

714
Q

Structure, organ, or tissue, to which something is directed

A

Target

715
Q

When hypothyroidism develops during adulthood, it is known as __________

A

Myxedema

716
Q

When hyperparathyroidism is generalized and all bones are affected, this disorder is known as ______________________
- renal symptoms and kidney stones may develop

A

Von Recklinghausen disease

717
Q

_______________ is a relatively uncommon. Chronic disorder caused by a deficiency of cortical hormones, results when the adrenal cortex is damaged or atrophied. Atrophy of the adrenal glands is probably the result of an autoimmune process in which circulating adrenal antibodies slowly destroy the gland. The gland usually suffers 90% destruction before clinical signs of adrenal insufficiency appear. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex interferes with the body‘s ability to handtool internal and external stress. In severe cases, the disturbance of sodium and potassium metabolism may be marked by depletion of sodium and water through urination, resulting in severe chronic dehydration.

A

Addison’s disease

718
Q

_______________ is a cluster of symptoms, produced by excessive amounts of cortisol, adrenocorticotropic, hormone, or both circulating in the blood. There is an alteration in carbohydrate and protein, metabolism, and electrolyte balance. Overproduction of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids cause blood sugar concentrations to remain high, depleting tissue proteins. In addition, sodium retention causes increased fluid and tissue that leads to edema. These metabolic changes produce weight gain and may cause structural changes, such as a moon shaped face, grossly exaggerated head, and trunk, and pencil, thin arms, and legs.
Causes of this excess secretion include. :
- Long-term administration of steroid drugs in treating such a diseases
- Adrenal tumor resulting in excessive production of cortisol
- Cushing disease, a pituitary disorders caused by hypersecretion of ACTH from an adenoma in the anterior pituitary gland

A

Cushing syndrome

719
Q

_______________ is a medullary tumor or neoplasm in which it produces excessive amount of epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

Pheochromocytoma

720
Q

As fat is metabolized, ketones are produced and enter the blood causing a condition called _____________

A

Ketosis

721
Q

_______________ is usually diagnosed and children and young adults and was previously called juvenile diabetes. The body does not produce sufficient insulin. Treatment include injection of insulin to maintain a normal level of glucose in the blood.

A

Type 1 diabetes

722
Q

_______________ is the most common form and is distinctively different from type one. It’s onset was typically later in life, but it has become more prevalent in children as the incidence of obesity has increased. Risk factors include a family, history of diabetes and obesity. And type two diabetes, the body is deficient in producing sufficient insulin, or the body cells are resistant to insulin action and target tissues. Hyperglycemia that results may cause cell starvation and overtime. May damage the kidneys, eyes, nerves, or heart. Treatment includes exercise, diet, weight, loss, and if needed insulin or oil, antidiabetic medication’s. Oral antidiabetic medication‘s activate the release of pancreatic insulin or improve the body’s sensitivity to insulin.

A

Type 2 diabetes

723
Q

_______________ may occur in women who are not diabetic, but develop diabetes during pregnancy. They develop an inability to metabolize carbohydrates with resultant hyperglycemia. This most often resolves after childbirth.

A

Gestational diabetes

724
Q

Chronic metabolic disorder, characterized by a gradual, marked enlargement and thickening of the bones of the face and jaw. This is caused by overproduction of growth hormone.

A

Acromegaly

725
Q

Increased formation and secretion of urine

A

Diuresis

726
Q

Presence of glucose in the urine or abnormal amount of sugar in the urine

A

Glycosuria

727
Q

Multisystem auto immune disorder, characterized by pronounce hyperthyroidism, usually associated with enlarged thyroid gland and exophthalmos

A

Graves’ disease

728
Q

Excessive distribution of body hair, especially in women

A

Hirsutism

729
Q

Excessive amount of calcium in the blood

A

Hypercalcemia

730
Q

Excessive amount of potassium in the blood

A

Hyperkalemia

731
Q

Abnormal increase in the volume of circulating fluid (plasma) in the body

A

Hypervolemia

732
Q

Abnormal condition of low sodium in the body

A

Hyponatremia

733
Q

Tumor of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas

A

Insulinoma

734
Q

Total pituitary impairment that brings about a progressive and general loss of hormonal activity

A

Panhypopituitarism

735
Q

Small chromaffin cell tumor, usually located in the adrenal medulla

A

Pheochromocytoma

736
Q

Crisis of uncontrolled hypothyroidism caused by the release into the bloodstream of increased amount of thyroid hormone

A

Thyroid storm
Thyroid crisis
Thyrotoxic crisis

737
Q

Masculine, or having characteristics of a man

A

Virile

738
Q

Masculinization in a woman or development of male secondary sex characteristics in the woman

A

Virilism

739
Q

Test that measures the degree of forward displacement of the eyeball as seen in Graves’ disease

A

Exophthalmometry

740
Q

Test that measures blood glucose levels after a 12 hour fast

A

Fasting blood glucose

741
Q

Test that measures the body’s ability to metabolize carbohydrates by administering a standard dose of glucose and measuring glucose levels in the blood and urine at regular intervals

A

Glucose tolerance test (GTT)

742
Q

Test that determines insulin levels in serum by administering insulin and measuring blood glucose levels in blood at regular intervals

A

Insulin tolerance test

743
Q

Test that measures the concentration of thyroxine in a blood sample

A

Protein bound iodine

744
Q

Test that detects an increase or decrease in thyroid function

A

Thyroid function test

745
Q

Test that measures calcium to detect a bone and parathyroid disorders

A

Total calcium

746
Q

Microdissection of a tumor, using a binocular surgical microscope for magnification

A

Microneurosurgery of the pituitary gland

747
Q

Excision of one or more of the parathyroid glands, usually to control hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroidectomy

748
Q

Removal of the pineal body

A

Pinealectomy

749
Q

Excision of the thymus gland

A

Thymectomy

750
Q

Excision of the thyroid gland

A

Thyroidectomy

751
Q

Method of choice for removing a fibrous, nodular thyroid

A

Partial thyroidectomy

752
Q

Removal of most of the thyroid to relieve hyperthyroidism

A

Subtotal thyroidectomy

753
Q

Carry or move, inward or toward a central structure

A

Afferent

754
Q

Protective mechanism that block, specific substances found in the bloodstream from entering delicate brain tissue

A

Blood brain barrier

755
Q

Network of nervous tissue found in the brain and spinal cord

A

Central nervous system

756
Q

Carry or move away from a central structure

A

Efferent

757
Q

Additional sheath external to myelin that is formed by Schwann cells and found only on axons in the peripheral nervous system

A

Neurilemma

758
Q

Chamber or cavity of an organ that receives or hold of fluid

A

Ventricle

759
Q

The brain and spinal cord receive limited protection, from 3 coverings called meninges, which include:
__________
__________
__________

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid
Pia mater

760
Q

_______________ provides a sample of CSF for analysis and helps identify various types of meningitis and encephalitis

A

Lumbar puncture

761
Q

_______________ is an inflammation of the nerve root associated with the spinal column

A

Radiculopathy
Radiculitis

762
Q

_______________ refers to any functional abnormality of the cerebrum caused by disorders of the blood vessels of the brain

A

Cerebrovascular disease

763
Q

The 3 major types of strokes are :
_______________
_______________
_______________

A

Ischemic stroke
Intracerebral hemorrhage
Subarachnoid hemorrhage

764
Q

stroke symptoms that resolved within 24 hours are known as ________________

A

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

765
Q

Thrombolytic medication is usually administered within _______ of symptom onset, when ischemic stroke is diagnosed

A

3 hours

766
Q

_______________ include any medical condition, characterized by sudden changes in behavior or consciousness, as a result of uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain. Characterized by sudden burst of abnormal electrical activity in neurons, resulting in temporary changes in brain function.

A

Seizure disorders

767
Q

_______________ , only a portion of the brain is involved. There is a short alteration of consciousness of about 10 - 30 seconds with repetitive unusual movement and confusion.

A

Partial seizures

768
Q

_______________ , the entire brain is involved. The most common type of this seizure is the tonic clonic seizure also called the grand mal seizure. In the tonic phase, the entire body becomes rigid ; in the clonic phase there is uncontrolled jerking. Recovery may take minutes to hours and usually leaves a patient week.

A

Generalized seizure

769
Q

In _______________ , tonic-clonic seizures follow one after another without an intervening period of recovery. It is a life-threatening emergency that involves the whole cortex and emergency medical attention.

A

Status epilepticus

770
Q

_______________ is a progressive neurological disorder affecting the portion of the brain responsible for controlling movement. As neurons degenerate, the patient develops uncontrollable nodding of the head, decreased speed of movement, tremors, large joint, stiffness, and a shuffling gait. Muscle rigidity causes facial expressions to appear fixed and mask-like with unblinking eyes. Sometimes the patient exhibits “pill rolling” and which they inadvertently rubs the thumb against the index finger.

A

Parkinson disease
Shaking palsy

771
Q

__________________ is a progressive, degenerative disease of the central nervous system. It is characterized by inflammation, hardening, and finally loss of myelin throughout the spinal cord and brain. As myelin deteriorates, the transmission of electrical impulses from Wonder onto another, is impeded.

A

Multiple sclerosis

772
Q

_________________ is a progressive neurological disorder that causes memory loss in serious mental deterioration. Small lesions called plaques develop in the cerebral cortex and disrupt the passage of electrical chemical signals between cells. The clinical manifestations include memory, loss and cognitive decline. There is also a decline in social skills and the ability to carry out activities of daily living. Most patients undergo personality, emotional, and behavioral changes. As the disease progresses loss of concentration and increased fatigue, restlessness, and anxiety are common.

A

Alzheimer’s disease

773
Q

_______________ includes any array of physiological disorders, syndromes, and behavioral patterns that cause alterations in mood, behavior, and thinking.

A

Mental illness

774
Q

____________ refers to a serious mental disorder commonly characterized by false beliefs, despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary. The patient’s speech is usually incoherent and disorganized and behavior is erratic.

A

Psychosis

775
Q

____________ is a mental disorder caused by an emotion experience in the past that overwhelmingly interferes or affects a present emotion

A

Neurosis

776
Q

In ability to comprehend auditory, visual, special, olfactory, or other sensations, even though the sensory sphere is intact

A

Agnosia

777
Q

Weakness, debility, for loss of strength

A

Asthenia

778
Q

Lack of muscle coordination in the execution of voluntary movement

A

Ataxia

779
Q

Premonitory awareness of an approaching physical or mental disorder ; peculiar sensation that precedes seizures

A

Aura

780
Q

Developmental disorder characterized by extreme withdrawal and an abnormal absorption in fantasy, usually accompanied by an inability to communicate even on a basic level

A

Autism

781
Q

Injury to the head in which the Dura mater remains intact and brain tissue is not exposed

A

Closed head trauma

782
Q

Abnormally deep unconsciousness with absence of voluntary response to stimuli

A

Coma

783
Q

Injury to the brain, occasionally with transient loss of consciousness as a result of injury or trauma to the head

A

Concussion

784
Q

Any sudden and violent contraction of one or more muscles

A

Convulsion

785
Q

Broad term that refers to cognitive deficit, including memory impairment

A

Dementia

786
Q

Inability to learning process written language despite adequate intelligence, century ability, and exposure

A

Dyslexia

787
Q

Autoimmune condition that causes acute inflammation of the peripheral nerves in which the myelin sheath on the axons are destroyed, resulting in decreased nerve impulses, loss of reflux, response, and sudden muscle weakness

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome

788
Q

Painful, acute infectious disease of the posterior root ganglia of only a few segments of the spinal cord or cranial nerves ; also called shingles

A

Herpes zoster

789
Q

Inherited disease of the CNS characterized by quick involuntary movements, speech disturbances, and mental deterioration

A

Huntington chorea

790
Q

Accumulation of fluid in the ventricles of the brain, causing increased cranial pressure (ICP), thinning of brain tissue, and separation of cranial bones

A

Hydrocephalus

791
Q

Abnormal inactivity or lack of response to normal stimuli ; also called sluggishness

A

Lethargy

792
Q

Non-psychotic mental illness that triggers feelings of distress and anxiety and impairs normal behavior

A

Neurosis

793
Q

Paralysis, usually partial, and commonly characterized by weakness and shaking or uncontrolled tremor

A

Palsy

794
Q

Facial paralysis caused by a functional disorder of the seventh cranial nerve, associated with herpes virus

A

Bell palsy

795
Q

Type of paralysis that affects movement and body position, and sometimes speech and learning ability

A

Cerebral palsy

796
Q

Loss of voluntary motion in one or more muscle groups with or without loss of sensation

A

Paralysis

797
Q

Paralysis of one side of the body, typically as the result of a stroke ; also called unilateral paralysis

A

Hemiplegia

798
Q

Paralysis of both lower limbs, typically as a result of trauma or disease of the lower spinal cord

A

Paraplegia

799
Q

Paralysis of both arms and legs, typically as a result of trauma or disease of the upper spinal cord

A

Quadriplegia

800
Q

Major emotional disorder in which contact with reality is lost to the point that the individual is incapable of meeting challenges of daily life

A

Psychosis

801
Q

Defect in which the neural tube fails to close during embryogenesis (tissue that forms the brain and spinal cord in the fetus)

A

Spina bifida

802
Q

Form of spina bifida in which the spinal cord develops properly, but the meninges protrude through the spine

A

Meningocele spina bifida

803
Q

Quadriplegia can result from an injury at the ____or___ vertebrae

A

C4
C6

804
Q

Paraplegia can result from an injury at the ___or___ vertebrae

A

T6
L1

805
Q

Most severe form of spina bifida, in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through the spine

A

Myelomeningocele

806
Q

Form of spina bifida in which one or more vertebrae are malformed and the spinal cord is covered with a layer of skin

A

Occulta myelomeningocele

807
Q

Sensation of numbness, prickling, tingling, or heightened sensitivity

A

Paresthesia

808
Q

Inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord caused by a virus, commonly resulting in spinal in muscle deformity and paralysis

A

Poliomyelitis

809
Q

Acute encephalopathy and fat infiltration of the brain, liver, and possibly the pancreas, heart, kidney, spleen, and lymph nodes

A

Reye syndrome

810
Q

Severe pain in the leg along the course of the sciatic nerve felt at the base of the spine, down the thigh, and radiating down the leg due to a compressed nerve

A

Sciatica

811
Q

Temporary loss of consciousness, due to the sudden decline of blood flow to the brain ; also called fainting

A

Syncope

812
Q

Syncope due to a drop in blood pressure brought on by the response of the nervous system to abrupt emotional stress, pain, or trauma

A

Vasovagal syncope

813
Q

General type of seizure characterized by the loss of consciousness and stiffening of the body followed by rhythmic, jerking movements

A

Tonic-clonic seizure

814
Q

Temporary interference with blood supply to the brain lasting from a few minutes to a few hours

A

Transient ischemic attack

815
Q

Recording of electrical activity in the brain, whose cells emit distinct patterns of rhythmic electrical impulses

A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

816
Q

Recording of electrical signals that occur in a muscle when it is at rest and during contraction to assess nerve damage

A

Electromyography (EMG)

817
Q

Needles puncture of the spinal cord to extract spinal fluid for diagnostic purposes, introduced anesthetics agents into the spinal cord, or remove fluid to allow other fluids to be injected ; also called spinal puncture & spinal tap

A

Lumbar puncture

818
Q

Test that measures the speed at which impulses travel through a nerve

A

Nerve conduction velocity

819
Q

Series of chemical, microscopic, and microbial tests, used to diagnose disorders of the central nervous system, including viral and bacterial infections, tumors, and hemorrhage

A

Cerebrospinal fluid analysis

820
Q

Precise method of locating in destroying sharply circumscribed lesions on specific, tiny areas of pathological tissue in deep seeded structures of the central nervous system ; also called stereotaxy or stereotactic surgery

A

Stereotactic radiosurgery

821
Q

Partial destruction of the thalamus to treat intractable pain, involuntary movements, or emotional disturbances

A

Thalamotomy

822
Q

Transection of a nerve tracked in the brain stem or spinal cord

A

Tractotomy

823
Q

Technique that cuts a circular opening in the skull to reveal brain tissue and decrease intercranial pressure

A

Trephination

824
Q

Interruption of the function of the vagus nerve to relieve peptic ulcer

A

Vagotomy

825
Q

The eye is a globe shaped organ composed of 3 distinct tunics :
_______________
_______________
_______________

A

Fibrous tunic
Vascular tunic
Sensory tunic

826
Q

Adjustment of the eye for various distances so that images fall on the retina of the eye

A

Accommodation

827
Q

Clearness or sharpness of a sensory function

A

Acuity

828
Q

Tissues or structures in the body adjacent to or near a related structure

A

Adnexa

829
Q

Being loosely joined or connected together to allow motion between the parts

A

Articulating

830
Q

Any fluid or semifluid of the body

A

Humor

831
Q

Series of intricate communicating passages

A

Labyrinth

832
Q

Substance that does not allow the passage of light ; not transparent

A

Opaque

833
Q

Fluid that very closely resembles spinal fluid, but found in the cochlea

A

Perilymph

834
Q

Light-sensitive pigment in the retinal cones and rods that absorb light and initiates the visual process ; also called visual pigment

A

Photopigment

835
Q

Ability to bend light rays as they pass from one medium to another

A

Refractive

836
Q

Layer or coat of tissue ; also called membrane layer

A

Tunic

837
Q

In the central portion of the retina is a highly sensitive structure, called the ____________

A

Macula

838
Q

If aqueous humor fails to drain from the eye at the rate at which it is produced, a condition called _________ results

A

Glaucoma

839
Q

The ear canal is a slender tube lined with glands that produce a waxy secretion called _____________

A

Cerumen

840
Q

The _______________ connects the middle ear to the pharynx

A

Eustachian tube

841
Q

_______________ refers to the orientation of the body relative to gravity. It allows an individual to maintain posture in orientation while at rest.

A

Static equilibrium

842
Q

_______________ refers to maintaining body position in response to movement

A

Dynamic equilibrium

843
Q

__________________ is the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the eye

A

Ophthalmology

844
Q

_______________ is the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the ear, nose, and throat

A

Otolaryngology

845
Q

Error of refraction

A

Ametropia

846
Q

Farsightedness

A

Hyperopia
Hypermetropia

847
Q

A form of farsightedness is called _______________ , in which a defect associated with the aging process

A

Presbyopia

848
Q

In another form of ametropia called ________________ , the cornea or lens has a defective curvature. This curvature causes light rays to diffuse over a larger area of the retina rather than being sharply focused.

A

Astigmatism

849
Q

_______________ are opacities that form on the lens and impaired vision. These opacities are commonly produced by protein that slowly builds up overtime until vision is affected.

A

Cataracts

850
Q

_______________ is characterized by increased intraocular pressure caused by the failure of aqueous humor to drain from the I threw a tiny duct called the canal of Schlemm. The increased pressure of the optic nerve destroys it, and vision is permanently lost.

A

Glaucoma

851
Q

An instrument that measures intraocular pressure

A

Tonometer

852
Q

_______________ is a condition in which one eye is misaligned with the other, and the eyes do not focused simultaneously when viewing an object. The misalignment may be in any direction. The deviation may be a constant condition, or may arise intermediately with stress, exhaustion, or illness.

A

Strabismus

853
Q

_______________ what is a deterioration of the macula, the most sensitive portion of the retina. The macula is responsible for central, or straightahead vision required for reading, driving, detail, work, and recognizing faces.

A

Macular degeneration

854
Q

_______________ is an inflammation of the middle ear. This infection may be caused by a virus or bacterium.

A

Otitis media

855
Q

The usual treatment for children with recurrent ear infections is the use of _________________________

A

Pressure equalizing tubes (eustachian, ear tubes)

856
Q

_______________ is a disorder characterized by an abnormal hardening of bones of the middle ear that cause hearing loss. The ossicle most commonly affected is the steepest, the bone that attaches to the oval window of the cochlea.

A

Otosclerosis

857
Q

In melanoma where the lesion is on the iris of the eye, an _______________ is performed

A

Iridectomy

858
Q

In melanoma of the choroid, _______________ is necessary

A

Enucleation (removal of the effected eye)

859
Q

Severe congenital deficiency in color perception ; also called complete color blindness

A

Achromatopsia

860
Q

Small hard tumor developing on the eyelid, somewhat similar to a sebaceous cyst

A

Chalazion

861
Q

Inflammation of the conjunctiva with vascular congestion, producing a red or pink eye ; may be secondary to viral, bacterial, fungal infections, or allergy

A

Conjunctivitis

862
Q

Medial movement of the 2 eyeballs so that they are both directed at the object being viewed

A

Convergence

863
Q

Measurement of refractive error

A

Diopter

864
Q

Eversion, or outward turning, of the edge of the lower eyelid

A

Ectropion

865
Q

State of normal vision

A

Emmetropia

866
Q

Inversion or inward turning of the edge of the lower eyelid

A

Entropion

867
Q

Abnormal overflow of tears

A

Epiphora

868
Q

Protrusion of one or both eyeballs

A

Exophthalmos

869
Q

Localized, circumscribed, inflammatory swelling of one of the several sebaceous glands of the eyelid, generally caused by bacterial infection ; also called stye

A

Hordeolum

870
Q

Visual distortion of objects

A

Metamorphopsia

871
Q

Impaired vision in dim light ; also called night blindness

A

Nyctalopia

872
Q

Involuntary eye movements that appear jerky and may reduce vision or be associated with other, more serious condition that limit vision

A

Nystagmus

873
Q

Edema or hyperemia of the optic disc, usually associated with increased Intra cranial pressure ; also called choked disc

A

Papilledema

874
Q

Unusual intolerance and sensitivity to light

A

Photophobia

875
Q

Loss of accommodation of the crystalline lens associated with aging process

A

Presbyopia

876
Q

Any disorder of retinal blood vessels

A

Retinopathy

877
Q

Disorder that occurs in patients with diabetes, and his manifested by small hemorrhages, edema, formation of new vessels on the retina, leading to scarring and eventually loss of vision

A

Diabetic retinopathy

878
Q

Chronic, contagious form of conjunctivitis common in the southwestern United States that typically lead to blindness

A

Trachoma

879
Q

Area within which objects may be seen when the eye is in a fixed position

A

Visual field

880
Q

Complete deafness

A

Anacusis

881
Q

Blocking of sound waves as they pass through the external and middle ear

A

Conduction impairment

882
Q

Inflammation of the inner ear that usually results from an acute febrile process

A

Labyrinthitis

883
Q

Disorder of the labyrinth that leads to progressive loss of hearing

A

Ménière disease

884
Q

Condition caused by the destruction of hair cells, the organ is responsible for hearing, caused by sounds that are “too loud, too long, or to close”

A

Noise induced hearing loss

885
Q

Infection of the external auditory canal

A

Otitis externa

886
Q

Impairment of hearing resulting from old age

A

Presbyacusis

887
Q

Tubes that are inserted through the tympanic membrane, commonly to treat chronic otitis media

A

Pressure equalizing tubes (PE tubes)

888
Q

Perception of ringing, hissing, or other, sounds in the ears or head when no external sound is present

A

Tinnitus

889
Q

Hallucination of movement, or a feeling of spinning or dizziness

A

Vertigo

890
Q

Measurement of hearing acuity at various sound wave frequencies

A

Audiometry

891
Q

Test that uses different water temperatures to assess the vestibular portion of the nerve of the inner ear to determine if nerve damage is the cause of vertigo

A

Caloric stimulation test

892
Q

Method of assessing and recording eye movements by measuring the electrical activity of the extraocular muscles

A

Electronystagmography

893
Q

Measurement of the blood pressure of the retinal vessels

A

Ophthalmodynamometry

894
Q

Evaluation of intraocular pressure by measuring the resistance of the eyeball to identification by an applied force

A

Tonometry

895
Q

Part of an eye examination that determines the smallest letters that can be read on a standard chart at a distance of 20 feet

A

Visual acuity test

896
Q

Examination of the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye to determine ocular motility and rotation, and diagnose and manage glaucoma

A

Gonioscopy

897
Q

Visual examination of the interior of the eye, using a handheld instrument, called an ophthalmoscope, which has various adjustable lenses for magnification and a light source to illuminate the interior of the eye

A

Ophthalmoscopy

898
Q

Visual examination of the internal auditory canal, and the tympanic membrane using an otoscope

A

Otoscopy

899
Q

Procedure that assesses the ability of the tympanic membrane to move in response to a change in air pressure

A

Pneumatic otoscopy

900
Q

Evaluation of refractive errors of the eye, by projecting your light into the eye and determining the movement of reflected light rays

A

Retinoscopy

901
Q

Radiographic imaging procedures of the nasolacrimal glands and ducts

A

Dacryocystography

902
Q

Assess his blood vessels and their leakage in and beneath the retina after injection of fluorescein dye. The dye circulates, while photographs of the vessels within the eye are obtained.

A

Fluorescein angiography

903
Q

Exercises intended to improve eye-movement or visual tracking that use training glasses, prism glasses, or tented/colored lenses

A

Orthoptic training

904
Q

Cosmetic surgery that removes fatty tissue above and below the eyes that commonly form as a result of the aging process or excessive exposure to the sun

A

Blepharoplasty

905
Q

Artificial hearing device that produces useful hearing sensations by electrically stimulating nerves inside the inner ear

A

Cochlear implant

906
Q

Formation of an opening between the anterior chamber and the suprachoroidal space for the draining of aqueous humor in glaucoma

A

Cyclodialysis

907
Q

Removal of the eyeball from the orbit

A

Enucleation

908
Q

Removal of the contents of the eye, while leaving the sclera and cornea intact

A

Evisceration

909
Q

Surgical opening of a cavity within the mastoid process

A

Mastoid antrotomy

910
Q

Corrective surgery for a deformed or excessively large or small pinna

A

Otoplasty

911
Q

Method of treating Cataracts by using ultrasonic waves to disintegrate a cloudy lens, which is the aspirated and removed

A

Phacoemulsification

912
Q

Incision of the cornea for treatment of nearsightedness or astigmatism

A

Radial keratotomy

913
Q

Surgical formation of an opening in the sclera

A

Sclerostomy

914
Q

Method used to evaluate sound conduction, using a vibrating tuning fork

A

Tuning fork test

915
Q

Tuning for test that evaluates bone conduction VS air conduction of sound

A

Rinne tuning fork test

916
Q

Tuning fork test that evaluates bone conduction of sound in both ears at the same time

A

Weber tuning fork test

917
Q

Reconstruction of the eardrum, commonly due to perforation

A

Tympanoplasty
Myringoplasty