Psychiatry (Quesmed) Flashcards

1
Q

What is Korsakoff’s Syndrome?
What condition leads to it and what type of Amnesia is seen?
What 3 other symptoms are seen in addition to amnesia? (VCA)
What underlies the symptoms?

A

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy progresses to Korsakoff’s Syndrome if left untreated

It presents as Profound Anterograde Amnesia with Limited Retrograde Amnesia

Therefore patients may fabricate memories to mask memory deficits

In addition to memory issues:
1) Issue with coordination and balance
2) Issue with Vision
3) Apathy

It is thought to occur due to Mammillary Body degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which questionnaire quickly screens for Alcohol Abuse?

A

CAGE

Cut down? (Have YOU ever felt the need to cut down)
Annoyed? (other people annoyed you saying you drink too much?)
Guilt?
Eye Opener? (Drinking in the morning to calm down your nerves)

then AUDIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is alcohol absorbed in the body?

A

Proximal small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Transient Global Amnesia?

A

It is the temporary destruction of both long and short term memory (hence GLOBAL AMNESIA)

All other cognitive functions are normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the presentation of Transient Global Amnesia?

A

Patients are found wandering the street far away from their home as they forget RECENT and OLD memories

But this may be TRANSIENT as

This may last for hours before resolving on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 criteria that must be met for a patient to be treated under the Mental Health Act?

(Treated without their consent)

A

They must have a Mental Disorder

They must be a risk to their own Health and Safety or someone else’s health and safety

There must be a treatment (including Nursing Care or drugs)

(Only for mental health conditions UNLESS a physical condition is the cause or result of a mental health condition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 5 principles of the Mental Capacity Act?

A

1) A person is assumed to have capacity unless proven otherwise

2) HELP- Steps must be taken to help a person have capacity

3) UNWISE- An Unwise decision does not mean that the person lacks capacity

4) BEST- Any decision made under the MCA must be made in the person’s best interests

5) LEAST- Any decisions made must be the LEAST RESTRICTIVE decision to the person’s rights and freedom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is capacity assessed?

A

A person has capacity if they show a disturbance in the functioning of the mind AND they are unable to:

  • Understand the information
  • Retain the information
  • Weight up the information
  • Communicate a decision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Section 2 of the Mental Health Act?

What is a requirement that must be met by at least one of the other doctors?

A
  • Admission for assessment for up to 4 weeks
  • This decision is made by an Approved Mental Health Professional or the patient’s nearest relative
  • Requires the recommendation of 2 doctors (one of whom must be approved under Section 12(2) of the MHA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Section 3 of the Mental Health Act?

A
  • Admission for up to 6 months, renewable
  • It requires an Approved Mental Health Professional and 2 doctors- both of who must have seen the patient in the past 24 hours

Also after 3 MONTHs an independent doctor must review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Section 4 of the Mental Health Act?

A
  • Used in Emergencies if the doctor is NON-PSYCHIATRIC where Section 2 would cause an “Undesirable Delay”
  • You need the recommendation of only 1 doctor and either an AMHP or their nearest relative
  • They can be detained for up to 72 hours, where it is then converted to a Section 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act?

A
  • A voluntary patient in HOSPITAL can be legally detained by a doctor for 72 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Section 5(4) of the Mental Health Act?

A

Like Section 2 but it is used by Nurses and only for 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Section 17 of the Mental Health Act?

A

It is a Supervised Community Treatment
(You can get leave but you can get recalled to the hospital if you stop taking medication or if your condition worsens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Section 135 of the Mental Health Act?

A

It is a court order that allows Police to enter a property and move a patient to a place of safety (Police Station or A&E)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Section 136 of the Mental Health act?

A

The police can bring someone from a public place who appears to have a mental health condition to a place of safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the side effects of First Generation Antipsychotics (HALOPERIDOL)?

(All 4 are MOVEMENT RELATED- uncontrollable movements)

A

Extra Pyramidal Effects

  • Akasthisia (inability to sit still)
  • Dystonia (spasms and contractures)
  • Parkinsonism
  • Tardive Dyskinesia (twitching, jerking, involuntary blinking)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are 5 examples of Second Generation Antipsychotics?
(ARIP, RIZ and the PINEs)

A
  • Ariprazole
  • Risperidone
  • Quetiapine
  • Olanzapine
  • Clozapine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 3 main side effects of Second Generation Antipsychotics?

(Uncontrollable Sugar, Lipids and Weight)

What can Clozapine in particular cause?

A

Weight Gain
Worsening Glycaemic Control
Dyslipidaemia

Clozapine- leads to Agranulocytosis, Confusion, Ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the side effects of ALL Antipsychotics?

Stopping Insanity Comes with High Stakes, Remember NMS

A
  • Sedation
  • Increased Risk of Stroke
  • Cardiac Arrhythmias
  • Hyperprolactinaemia (Switch to Aripiprazole)
  • Sexual Dysfunction
  • Reduction in Seizure Threshold
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (Measure CK)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the signs of Neuroleptic Malignancy Syndrome?

Patient is rigid and sweating and all readings are high

A

Confusion
Diaphoresis (Sweating)
Rigidity
Pyrexia (Fever)
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 6 side effects of SSRIs?

QA GG SS

A

1) QT Prolongation
2) Anxiety and Agitation

3) GI Upset
4) Gastric Ulcer

5) (Salt) Hyponatraemia
6) Sexual Dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the side effects of Tricyclic Antidepressants?

SAD DOWNS

A

S - Sedation/ Dizziness
A - Arrhythmia
D - Dry mouth

D - Difficulty urinating/ Constipated
O - Orthostatic hypotension
W - Weight gain
N - Nausea
S - Sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 4 cautions of SSRIs?

A

Should be omitted in Mania
Should be used with caution in Children and Adolescents
Sertraline is BEST for Ischaemic Heart Disease
Do NOT use with anticoagulants- Give Mirtazapine instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the cautions of Tricyclic Antidepressants?

DRILLER, USE C4 to SQuasH their HEARTS!!

A

Diabetes, Urinary Retention, Cytochrome 4 (liver disease, warfarin, statins, antiepileptics), Schizophrenia, Long QT, “hypertension- BP- actually stands for Breastfeeding and Pregnancy” , Heart disease

  • CONTRAINDICATED in Previous Heart Disease
  • Can exacerbate Schizophrenia
  • May exacerbate Long QT Syndrome
  • Use with caution in Breastfeeding and Pregnancy
  • May alter blood sugar in Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes
  • May precipitate Urinary Retention (so careful with people with Large Prostates)
  • It uses the Cytochrome P450 pathway so AVOID in LIVER DISEASE, WARFARIN, STATINS and ANTIEPILEPTICS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a side effect of SNRIs?

A

High Blood Pressure

So contraindicated in uncontrolled BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the signs of Serotonin Syndrome?

Remember the TRIAD of:

1) Mental status changes

2) Autonomic hyperactivity

3) Neuromuscular abnormalities.

A

S - Sweating
E - Elevated temperature
R - Restlessness/ Agitation
O - Oculation (dilated pupils)
T - Tremor/ Rigidity/ Clonus
O - Overreactive reflexes
N - Nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Postpartum Psychosis?

How is it different from Postpartum Depression with Psychosis?

What is the management of Postpartum Depression?

A

It develops in the first 2 weeks after birth

A woman may experience Paranoia, Delusions, Hallucinations, Mania, Depression or Confusion

A differential is Postpartum Depression with Psychosis but this presents with a more Insidious onset of Low Mood, Tearfulness and Anxiety

PAROXETENE is used to manage postpartum depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the signs of Postpartum Psychosis (What warrants admission)?

What increases the risk of this occurring?

A

Woman with previous history of severe mental illness are at high risk

If the risk is high to the mother or baby (like if the mother has command hallucinations, self harm or has beliefs about the baby’s identity)- then ADMIT TO MENTAL HEALTH UNIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the management of Postpartum Psychosis?

A

Antipsychotics and sometimes Mood Stabilisers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the signs of Cannabis Intoxication?

DDP-ABIS

(Cannabinoid Receptors)

A

Drowsiness
Dry Mouth
Paranoia

Appetite increased
Bloodshot Eyes
Impaired Memory
Slowed Reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the signs of LSD Intoxication?

(Dopamine Receptors)

A

LABILE MOOD (EXAGGERATED MOODS)
Sweating
Dry Mouth

Pyrexia
Hallucinations
Insomnia
Tachycardia
Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the signs of Stimulant (Cocaine and Meth) Intoxication?

(Cocaine- Dopamine Receptors and Meth- TAAR Receptors)

A

Tachycardia
Pyrexia
Hypertension
Euphoria
(High Heart, High Temp and High Mood)

and RED EYES

Cocaine- Diarrhoea (Dopamine starts with D as well)
Meth- Usually taken for Concentration (ConcenTAARation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the signs of Opiate Withdrawal (like Heroin Withdrawal)?

RRS-DA-G/G

A

Runny Nose
Runny Eyes
Sweating

Dilated Pupils
Agitation

Goosebump Skins
GI Disturbance- Abdominal Cramps, Nausea, Diarrhoea and Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you treat Opiate Withdrawal?

A

Symptomatic Management Acutely and give Methadone or Buprenorphine for Long Term

Meth—-orphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are 6 examples of Medically Unexplained Symptoms?

A

Somatoform/ Somatisation Disorder-
- Physical Symptoms that can not be explained by Medical Condition or Drug
- Usually GI, MSK, Weakness
- Leads to loss of functioning

Conversion Disorder- Loss of Motor/ Sensory
- Neurological Symptoms without any cause (Paralysis, Sensory Changes, Pseudoseizures)
- It is linked to emotional stress

Hypochondriasis/ Illness Anxiety Disorder-
- Concern that they will develop a serious illness despite lack of evidence
- Usually No or Limited Symptoms
- If there are symptoms that they are worried about- this may be Somatisation DIsorder

Munchausen’s Syndrome/ Factitious Disorder-
- They fake signs (adding blood to urine) to get attention and play the role of the patient

Malingering-
- Faking for secondary gain (Drugs, Avoiding Work etc.)

La Belle Indifference-
- Inappropriate lack of concern over symptoms (usually associated with Conversion Disorder). Patients say there is nothing to worry about despite serious symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the side effects of Lithium?

Also remember HYPERPARATHYROIDISM and HYPERCALCAEMIA

A

Fine Tremor
+

(imagine drawing a path from mouth down the GI system)
Dry mouth
Thyroid Dysfunction (Lithium affects Thyroid remember)
GI Disturbance
Polyuria and Polydipsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the signs of Lithium Toxicity?

4 disturbances

Remember Dysarthria

A

Coarse Tremor
+
(Nerves, Heart and Eyes)
CNS Disturbances- Seizures, Impaired Coordination, Dysarthria
Arrhythmias
Visual Disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the management of Lithium Toxicity?

3 steps

A

Largely Supportive

  • Maintain Electrolyte Balance, Monitor Renal Function and Seizure Control

1) IV Fluids
2) Dialysis may be needed
3) Seizures and Agitation= give Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What should be done if a patient misses a significant number of days of methadone?

A

Reinduction should be done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the signs of Frontotemporal Dementia?

3 Earlys

A

Presents at a Younger Age than other kinds of Dementia

EARLY Personality Change

Language is also affected Early On

It is often misdiagnosed and Neuroimaging may be needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Pick’s Disease?

A

It is a cause of Frontotemporal Dementia

  • It is when there are TAU Proteins found on the neurons, they are found in the Frontal and Temporal Lobes

It is associated with Motor Neurone Disease- developed later in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the management of Frontotemporal Dementia?

A

Refer to the Psychiatrist and organise Social Support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What symptoms are seen in Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?

The Ventricles will be Disproportionately Dilated to the Cerebral Atrophy

A

(Can’t Walk, Can’t Think, Can’t even Pee)
Gait Disturbance
Dementia
Urinary Incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the 8 types of Thought Disorder?

In addition to Echolalia and Neologism

A

Circumstantiality-
- Patient moves onto different topics and returns to the original one
- There is a train of thought that can be followed

Clang Association-
- Words sound similar so are associated

Word Salad-
- Nonsense sentences built up of random words

Knight’s Move-
- The sentences are linked but still unrelated (I went for a jog and saw a dog. Speaking of dogs I really want one for my home. My home is big, I miss it so much)

Derailment/ Tangentiality-
- The Conversation randomly moves from one topic to another

Poverty of Speech-
- Lack of Spontaneous Speech (they struggle to find the words, the speech is brief and they can’t think of what to say)

Perseveration-
- Repetition of words or ideas when another person attempts to change topic

Thought Blocking-
- Patients suddenly halt and can not continue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are 6 examples of Eponymous Syndromes?

What are Othello’s and Ekbom’s associated with (3 each)

A

Capgras syndrome: “C for copycat” - this syndrome involves the delusional belief that a loved one or familiar person has been replaced by an imposter or duplicate.

Ekbom’s syndrome: “E for Eek, bugs!” - this syndrome involves the delusional belief that there are parasites or bugs living in or under the skin. It can be associated with various medical conditions including B12 deficiency, hypothyroidism, and neurological disorders.

Cotard syndrome: “C for corpse” - this syndrome involves the delusional belief that one is dead or does not exist.

De Clerambault syndrome: “D for delusions of grandeur” - this syndrome involves the delusional belief that a celebrity or authority figure is in love with the patient.

Fregoli syndrome: “F for face” - this syndrome involves the delusional belief that everyone the patient encounters is actually the same person in disguise.

Othello Syndrome
- You feel your spouse or partner is unfaithful with no evidence. It is associated with Alcohol Abuse, psychosis and Right Frontal Lobe Damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Charles Bonnet Syndrome?

A

It is a condition in the Elderly who have VISUAL DEFECTS

The brain fills in for this defect and produces hallucinations

This is due to AGE RELATED MACULAR DEGENERATION/ GLAUCOMA and CATARACTS (in order of likelihood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Acute Stress Reaction?

What 4 symptoms characterise it and PTSD?

How is it managed and what is an important differential?

A

It is a Transient Disorder and develops in people with no other mental disorder.
This occurs due to Stress. It usually subsides within a few hours or days but should not exceed 4 weeks (otherwise PTSD). Patients may feel Dissociated.

1) Emotional Numbing
2) Avoidance
3) Flashbacks/ Re-experiencing
4) Hyperarousal

Managed with TRAUMA FOCUSED CBT- then Benzos

An important differential is Adjustment Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Adjustment Disorder?

A

It is a state of Emotional Distress that interferes with someone’s social life that occurs in response to a Significant Life Change or Stressful Life Event such as bereavement or separation

The PTSD Features should last for 1-6 months after the stressor and include:

1) Delayed or Prolonged Response to a Catastrophic or Threatening Situation
2) Episodes of Flashbacks in memories or dreams
3) “Numbness” or Detachment from other people
4) Avoidance of Activities or Situations reminiscent of trauma
5) Usually Autonomic Hyperarousal with Hypervigilance= Enhanced Startle Reaction and Insomnia, Poor Concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the first-line treatment of PTSD?

A

Trauma-focused Psychological Treatments and EMDR

Then VENLAFAXINE and SSRI

51
Q

What is the management of Acute Stress Reaction?

A

Trauma-focused CBT and Benzodiazepines

Active Monitoring in case it develops into PTSD

52
Q

What is Stupor? (it is part of Dissociative Disorder)

A

The patients are unable to move or speak but are fully conscious. This is a severe form of Depressive Retardation

53
Q

What is Depressive Retardation?

A

It is a Psychomotor Retardation associated with Low Mood. Thoughts, Speech and Movement become Slowed

54
Q

What is Echopraxia?

A

The person imitates another person’s movements. It is an Automatic Process

55
Q

What is Monomania?

A

It is the preoccupation with a single subject to a Pathological Degree (Severe Obsession)

56
Q

What are Obsessions?

A

They are repetitive and senseless thoughts and behaviours that are recognised as irrational by the patient but they are unable to resist the behaviours

57
Q

What is Logoclonia?
What condition is it seen in?

A

The patients repeat the LAST SYLLABLE of a word or phrase. Seen in Parkinson’s

58
Q

What is Pressure of Speech?

A

It is an increased Quantity and Speed of Speech- seen in Mania

59
Q

What are Neologisms?

A

New words made up by patient- only understood by patients

60
Q

What is Word Salad?

A

Patients use words nonsensically (“Purple Monkey Dishwater? Thursday!”)

61
Q

What are Compulsions?

A

Repetitive and Stereotyped Behaviours that are seemingly Purposeful

62
Q

What are Delusions?

A

A belief that is held despite Superior Evidence that they are wrong

63
Q

What is Mitmachen?
What disease is it associated with?

(MitmachenToribash)

A

It is a motor symptom of Schizophrenia- the limbs can be moved without resistance but they return to their original position once the limb is released

64
Q

What is Muddling?

A

It is a speech disruption seen in Schizophrenic Patients

There will be Thought Blocking (speaking about 2 unrelated concepts) and Fusions (fusing of 2 different concepts into one) occur at the same time

Speech becomes very difficult to interpret

65
Q

What is Punding?

What 2 things increase the chance of Punding occurring?

A

It is an obsession with Mechanical tasks- building things and reassembling things

It is associated with Parkinson’s Disease medication or with those taking Methamphetamine

66
Q

What is the difference between Knight’s Move and Flight of Ideas?

A

Knights Move- Jumps from one to another
Flight of Ideas- you can make the link between the ideas vaguely

67
Q

What is only seen in Mania but not Hypomania?

A

Grandiose (almost everything else is seen in Hypomania as well)

68
Q

What is Dementia with Lewy Bodies?
What are the four core signs?
What condition is it associated with?
How can it be diagnose? (The investigation)

A

It is the 3rd most common type of Dementia

  • Four core features= Fluctuating Cognition, Sleep Disturbance, Parkinsonism, Visual Hallucinations (Not seen in AD)
  • It occurs due to Alpha-Synuclein Cytoplasmic Inclusions (Lewy Bodies) in the Substantia Nigra, Paralimbic and Neocortical Areas
  • Associated with Parkinson’s. Patients are also Hypersensitive to Neuroleptics (Antipsychotics) which causes a deterioration in Parkinson’s
  • Progressive Cognitive Impairment
  • Diagnosis is clinical but DOPAMINE UPTAKE SCANNING (SPECT DaT Scan) may be used
69
Q

What is the difference between Dementia and Delirium in terms of symptoms?

What is ONLY affected in Delirium?

A

Consciousness is not disturbed in the early stages in Dementia

In Delirium there is Cognitive Decline associated with an Impaired Conscious

70
Q

What are the 4 types of Delusions?

A

Nihilistic Delusions- Negative Delusions that are typically mood-congruent and see in depressed patients (they do not exist, they are dead, they are decomposing)- usually due to PHYSICAL ILLNESS, whereas Cotard is due to Psychiatric

Delusions of Grandeur/ Grandiose Delusions- They believe they have highly positive traits (I’m Rich, I’m the Prime Minister). Associated with Mania

Delusions of Control- Sensation that someone else is controlling your thoughts or actions. Seen in Psychosis

Persecutory Delusions- A Set of Delusional Conditions where you believe you are being Persecuted or Hunted down for doing something you’re not supposed to be doing. May be seen in Psychosis

71
Q

What is a Somatic Delusion?

A

It is a Delusion related to bodily function or bodily sensation (like feeling you have a disease that has not been diagnosed- like a defect, condition etc.)

Even if it is parasites, it is Somatic Delusion if they point to real marks and are more willing to accept they are wrong. Ekbom’s is when they are more fixed in their beliefs and also have no evidence

72
Q

What is Delirium Tremens and what are the signs of Delirium Tremens?

A

It is a rapid onset of Confusion precipitated by Alcohol Withdrawal

Signs-
- Confusion
- Delusions
- Hallucination (visual and tactile (Formication- Sensation of crawling Insects on or under the skin)
- Sweating
- Hypertension
- (Rarely) Seizures

73
Q

What is the management of Delirium Tremens?
What is first line? What 2 things can be given if symptoms persist?

What is needed for maintenance- know this roughly for here as emergency med covers this better

A

Oral Lorazepam
(If symptoms persist or they can’t have oral- Parenteral Lorazepam or Haloperidol)

Maintenance-
- Chlordiazepoxide
- Fluids
- Anti-emetics
- Pabrinex
- Refer to Local Drug and Alcohol Liaison Teams

74
Q

An Elderly patient has constipation and symptoms of DEPRESSIO lasting a few days. What is it?

A

Delirium

Constipation can cause Delirium in the elderly

75
Q

Which patient group are most likely to experience Delirium?

A

Elderly Patients

76
Q

What is Acamprosate?

A

It is an example of a medication given for Alcohol Dependence

77
Q

What are the signs of Delirium?

A

(They are OUT of it (confused and inattention) and are not themselves. They are seeing things and not getting enough sleep. They are not as active and are agitated)

Disorientation
Hallucinations
Inattention
Change in Mood or Personality
Disturbed Sleep
Memory Problems

Patients may be very agitated or very sedated and hypoactive

78
Q

What are the causes of Delirium?

A

DELIRIUMS

  • Drugs and Alcohol (Anticholinergics, Opiates, Anticonvulsants, Recreational, Chlorphenamine- an anithistamine) (CROC C)
  • Eyes, Ears and Emotional
  • Low Output State (MI, ARDS, PE, CHF, COPD)
  • Infection
  • Retention (Urine or Stool)
  • Ictal
  • Underhydration/ Undernutrition
  • Metabolic- Electrolyte Imbalance, Thyroid, Wernickes
  • Subdural Haemorrhage, Sleep Deprivation)
79
Q

What investigations should be ordered in Delirium?

A

Do a Full examination and Infection Screen

80
Q

What is the management of Delirium?

Treating the underlying cause is the obvious one but what 2 medications can be given if they are extremely agitated?

and what condition would mean they can’t be given these and must be given something else? and what is that something else?

A

Treat the Underlying cause

Maintain an environment with good lighting and Reassurance

In EXTREMELY AGITATED Patients- small doses of HALOPERIDOL or OLANZAPINE may be considered

Give LORAZEPAM if they have Parkinson’s or Dementia with Lewy Bodies (anything where the antipsychotic movement side effects would make things worse)

81
Q

What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease?
When should it be suspected?

A

It is a rapidly progressive Neurological condition caused by a MISFOLDED PROTEIN known as a PRION

RAPID ONSET DEMENTIA with MYOCLONUS (remember NOT tremors- sudden jerky movements not repeated ongoing ones)

It is super rare

82
Q

What are the signs of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease?

Ingestion of what causes it?

(a RAPIDLY PROGRESSIVE Dementia with NEUROLOGICAL signs such as MYOCLONUS)

What is seen in MRI? What is seen in brain tissue sampling which is done AFTER DEATH?

A

There are 3 types
- Sporadic= 85% of cases
- Familial= 10-15%
- Acquired= Ingesting contaminated beef

Prion causes Cell Death in the brain which progresses from Mild Memory and Mood Changes to Myoclonus, Speech and Language Impairment, Seizures and Death

MRI= Basal Ganglia Hyperintensity
Definitive Diagnosis- The brain tissue samples show Prominent and widespread Vacuole Development which makes it look like a Sponge

The life expectancy is only 5 months

83
Q

What does an MRI show in CJD?

A

Basal Ganglia Hyperintensity

84
Q

What are Class A Personality Disorders?
What are the 3 types?

A

“Odd or Eccentric Disorders”

Paranoid Personality Disorder
- Irrational Suspicion and Mistrust of others
- Hypersensitive to Criticism
- Reluctant to Confide and is preoccupied with Perceived Conspiracies against themselves

Schizoid Personality Disorder
- Characterised by a Lack of Interest in Others, Apathy and lack of Emotional Breadth
- They have few friends and do not form relationships, leading a Solitary Life

Schizotypal Personality Disorder
- Extreme Difficulty interacting socially, bizarre or magical thinking
- Inappropriate behaviour and strange system and affect can cause others to perceive them as Strange
- They share some features with Schizophrenics but maintain a Better grasp on reality

85
Q

What are Class B Personality Disorders?
What are the 4 types?

A

“Dramatic, Emotional or Erratic Disorders”

Antisocial Personality Disorder-
- Patterns of Disregard and Violation of the rights of others. Individuals LACK EMPATHY and are often manipulative and impulsive
- Aggressive and Unremorseful
- Consistently irresponsible with failure to obey laws and social norms

Borderline Personality Disorder-
- Pattern of Abrupt Mood Swings, Unstable relationships and Instability in Self-image
- Relationships alternate between Idealization and Devaluation (Splitting)
- Inability to Control Temper and General Affect

Histrionic Personality Disorder-
- Attention seeking behaviours and Excessive display of Emotions
- Often Sexually Inappropriate
- Shallow and Self-dramatising
- Relationships are considered more dramatic than they actually are

Narcissistic Personality disorder-
- Grandiosity/ seeking admiration/ lack of empathy
- Sense of entitlement and will take advantages of others to achieve their own wants
- Arrogant and preoccupied by their own fantasies and desires

86
Q

What are Class C Personality Disorders?
What are the 3 types?

A

“Anxious or Fearful” disorders

Avoidant Personality Disorder-
- Strong feelings of inadequacy and fears of Social Situations where they may be criticised
- Patients are sensitive to Criticism
- They often self impose Isolation while craving acceptance and social contact

Dependent Personality Disorder-
- Characterised by an Intense Psychological Need to be cared for by others
- Lack Initiative and need others to make a decision on their behalf
- Urgently search for new relationships as soon as one ends to provide care for them

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder-
- Preoccupied by rules, details and organization to the detriment of other aspects of life
- Perfectionist, often eliminating leisure activities to ensure work is completed
- In contrast to OCD, these activities are seen as PLEASURABLE and DESIRABLE rather than stressful or anxiety inducing

87
Q

What is Bulimia?

A

It is an eating disorder that involves Binging followed by Purging (Either Induced Vomiting or Laxative Use)

Unlike Anorexia Nervosa, the sufferers may have a NORMAL BMI

88
Q

What are the signs of Bulimia?

A

Binge Eating

Purging (Binging causes shame or guilt so they want to undo the damage (vomiting, laxatives or exercise)

Body image distortion- feeling fat or hating their body

BMI>17.5 (Normal or even slightly raised weight with normal periods)

Signs of DEHYDRATION

And the THREE ADDITIONAL FEATURES (EPR)
(Dental Erosion

Parotid Gland Swelling

Russell’s Sign (Scarring in the fingers from inducing vomiting))

89
Q

What are the THREE ADDITIONAL FEATURES of Bulimia?

A

Dental Erosion

Parotid Gland Swelling

Russell’s Sign (Scarring in the fingers from inducing vomiting)

90
Q

What metabolic state are Purging patients often in?

A

Hypokalaemia with Metabolic Alkalosis

91
Q

What is Bipolar Disorder?

What are the 2 types and the potential triggers?

A

It consists of periods of Depression and periods of Mania

Type 1- Mania and Depression
Type 2- Hypomania (no psychotic symptoms) and Depression

This may be triggered by Stress, Illness or Substance Abuse

92
Q

What are the signs of Bipolar Disorder?

A

Patients may experience periods of being withdrawn and tearful with low mood, poor sleep and anhedonia. They may experience suicidal thoughts or make attempts

Manic episodes are characterised by episodes by Elevated Mood or Irritability. They may make impulsive and dangerous decisions with little thought for consequence. The need for sleep is reduced. Mood congruent delusions may be present. they have pressured speech and flight of ideas usually

93
Q

What is needed for the diagnosis of Mania?

Elevated Randy Is Freakishly Excited In Pursuit of Insanity

A

At least 1 week long episode of Mania which consists of 3 of:

1) Elevated Self Esteem
2) Reduced Need for Sleep

3) Increased Rate of Speech
4) Flight of Ideas

5) Easily Distracted
6) Increased Interest in Goals or Activities

7) Psychomotor Agitation
8) Increased Pursuit of Activities with a High Risk of Danger

94
Q

What makes it Hypomania and not Mania?

A

The episode should not be severe enough to cause a marked impairment in social or occupational functioning or necessitate hospitalisation

And there should be No Psychotic Features and no grandiose

95
Q

What is the management of Acute Bipolar Disorder?

You manage the Mania and the Depression, depending on which is presenting. But there are two ways to manage the Mania depending on whether something is present. What is that something and how is it managed?

A

Depends on the Acute Presentation=

1) Acute Mania with Agitation
- IM Therapy- either a Neuroleptic or a Benzodiazepine. They may need urgent admission to a secure unit

2) Acute Mania without Agitation
- Oral Monotherapy with an Antipsychotic (Olanzapine, Quetiapine, Risperidone, Haloperidol). Sedation and a Mood Stabiliser such as Lithium can be added if necessary

3) Acute Depression
- Mood Stabiliser and/or Atypical Antipsychotic and/or Antidepressant with appropriate psychosocial support

96
Q

What is the Chronic Management of Bipolar Disorder?

A

Lithium Monotherapy is the gold standard

Valproate is a suitable second-line alternative. Antipsychotics and Anticonvulsants may be used in treatment-resistant people

NICE also recommends High Intensity psychological therapies (CBT, Interpersonal)

97
Q

What should be done in Pregnancy to the Lithium Dose?

A

Should be stopped in the first trimester to avoid Ebstein’s Anomaly

98
Q

What is Autoimmune Encephalitis and what are the signs?

A Rapid-onset condition with Multiple Neurological symptoms

Look out for Diarrhoea and URTI as well

A

It is a form of Autoimmune Neuroinflammation

Signs-
- FEVER
- HEADACHE
- DIARRHOEA
- UPPER RESP TRACT INFECTION
- Confusion
- Seizures
- Movement Disorders
- Behavioural Changes
- Emotional LABILITY
- Psychosis
- Cognitive Impairment
- Reduced Conscious Level

The onset is faster in young people than in adults

99
Q

What are the 4 subtypes and differentials of Autoimmune Encephalitis?

A

Subtypes

  • Definite Limbic Encephalitis (Hippocampus and Amygdala are affected)- memory commonly affected
  • Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis (Demyelination caused by Viral Infection)
  • anti-NMDA receptor Encephalitis (associated with Ovarian Teratoma)- more PSYCHIATRIC SYMPTOMS and MOTOR SYMPTOMS
  • Hashimoto’s Encephalopathy (associated with Autoimmune Thyroiditis)- memory commonly affected

Differentials

  • Non Convulsive Status Epilepticus
  • Space Occupying Lesion
  • Meningoencephalitis
  • Acute Demyelinating Encephalomyelitis (usually preceded by viral infection or vaccination)
  • Stroke and Trauma (including non-accidental injury)
100
Q

What investigations should be ordered in Autoimmune Encephalitis?

A

Full Neurological Exam

Blood Tests
- Low Sodium is associated with LG1 (Limbic) Encephalitis
- Antibodies- LGI1, NMDA receptor, CASPR2 (also Limbic)

MRI

Lumbar Puncture (High Lymphocytes)

EEG is sensitive but not specific (Lateralised periodic discharges at 2Hz)

101
Q

What is the treatment of Autoimmune Encephalitis?

What are the side effects of plasma exchange in the first line therapy?
When should the second line therapy be started?
What should be done regarding the first line therapy when the second line is started?

A

(Cortico)Steroids and Intravenous Immunoglobulins. Can also give Plasma Exchange in addition to this (complications of this= Infection, Hypotension and Electrolyte Imbalances)

Second Line (after 2 weeks)- Immunosuppressants (Rituximab and Cyclophosphamide). Continue the first line therapy

102
Q

What 3 cancers should be screened for in Autoimmune Encephalitis?

A

Anti-Hu= Small cell Lung Cancer

NMDA receptor antibodies= Ovarian Teratoma

Anti-Yo= Breast and Ovarian Tumours

103
Q

What are Neuroses?

A

Symptoms (anxiety or fear) that are both understandable and with which one can empathize- like work or school or relationships etc.

Insight is maintained

This is different to delusions which are not understandable and can not be empathised with

104
Q

What are the signs of Anxiety?

A

Psychological- Fears, Worries, Poor Concentration, Depersonalisation, Derealization, Insomnia, Night Terrors

Motor Symptoms- Restlessness, Fidgeting, Feeling on Edge

Neuromuscular- Tremor, Tension, Headache, Muscle Ache, Dizziness, Tinnitus

GI- Dry Mouth, Can’t Swallow, Nausea, Indigestion, Butterflies, Flatulence, Frequent or Loose Motion

Cardiovascular- Palpitations, Chest discomfort

Respiratory- Difficulty inhaling, Tight/ Constricted Chest

GI- Urinary Frequency, Erectile Dysfunction, Amenorrhoea

105
Q

What are the 5 signs of Generalised Anxiety Disorder?

DAMAD

A

Apprehension (difficulty concentrating, worries about future, feeling on edge)

Motor Tension (Restless Fidgeting, Tension Headaches, Trembling, Inability to relax)

Autonomic Overactivity can manifest in a range of symptoms, such as increased heart rate, sweating, trembling, flushing, and high blood pressure.(Lightheadedness, Sweating, Tachycardia, Epigastric Discomfort, Dizziness)

Depersonalisation (altered or lost sense of personal reality or identity) and Derealization (surroundings feel unreal). This is also seen in Depression, Schizo, Alcohol, Drugs and Epilepsy

106
Q

What is the 6 step management of General Anxiety Disorder?

2, BB, Antipsychotic and Pregabalin

A

Advice and Reassurance can help early or mild problems from worsening

CBT has good evidence

1) First Line- SSRI or SNRI

2) SSRI plus CBT may superior to either alone

3) Busipirone is suitable for Short Term

4) Beta Blockers are good in Somatic Anxiety Symptoms (Contraindicated in Asthma and Heart Block)

5) Low dose Antipsychotics can also be used

6) Pregabalin can also be used

107
Q

What are notes on Sedatives in Anxiety Management? What are the 3 signs of benzo withdrawal?

Which Benzo is usually preferred and why?

A

Do not prescribe Benzodiazepines for more than 10 days due to risk of dependency and sedation. ONLY use them to overcome symptoms that are severe enough to affect initiation of psychological treatment

Diazepam is preferred as there is less risk of withdrawal symptoms (Ataxia, Paresthesia, Hyperacusis (sensitivity to sound))

108
Q

What are the Differential Diagnoses for Anxiety?

1 Metabolic Condition, Substances, 4 Other Psych Conditions

A

Hyperthyroidism
Substance Misuse (Intoxication (Amphetamines), Withdrawal (Benzos, Alcohol)
Excess Caffeine
Depression
Anxious (Avoidant Personality Disorder)- the person describes themselves as being anxious and there is no major increase in anxiety levels
Early Dementia or Schizophrenia

109
Q

What are the signs of Panic Disorder?

A

Recurrent attacks of Sever Anxiety not restricted to any particular situation or set of circumstances so it is UNPREDICTABLE

Secondary Fears of Dying, Losing Control or Going Mad

Attacks usually last for minutes- there is a crescendo of fear and autonomic symptoms

There is a comparative freedom from anxiety symptoms between attacks

110
Q

What are the 2 signs of Panic Disorder?

What is the pH and Calcium Level of these patients and why?

What is seen in Extreme Cases?

A

Signs of Anxiety
Tingling or Numbness in Hands, Feet or around Mouth.
Hyperventilation blows of CO2 and raises the pH
Calcium binds to Albumin which leads to Hypocalcaemia
If Extreme= Carpopedal Spasm (Curling of Fingers and Toes)
Can lead to Fear of Situation where Panic Attack or Agoraphobia develops

111
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for Panic Disorder?

Is it Hypo or Hyperglycaemia that’s one of the organic causes?

A

Other Anxiety Disorders- GAD and Agoraphobia
Depression
Alcohol or Drug Withdrawal
Organic Causes= Cardiovascular System or Respiratory Disease. Also Hypoglycaemia and Hyperthyroidism. Rarely also Pheochromocytoma

112
Q

What is the management of Panic Disorder?

What is the second-line medication that is usually just given for Panic Disorders? (everything else is similar to anxiety)

A

Psychological-
1) Reassurance and CBT (CBT is FIRST LINE)
2) Education about nature of panic attacks
3) Cognitive Restructuring- detecting flaws in logic
4) Situational Exposure and Controlled Exposure to somatic Symptoms (like Breathing in CO2 and Physical Exercise)

Drug Management-
1) SSRIs are First Line (after CBT)
2) Clomipramine (a Tricyclic) is also given

113
Q

What are the signs of Specific Phobia?

What happens to heart rate and blood pressure?

A

Restricted to specific situations such as Flying, Animals etc.

Often clear in Early Adulthood

Result of Avoidance

Phobias of Blood and Bodily Injury lead to Bradycardia and Hypotension upon Exposure

Exclude Comorbid Depression

114
Q

What are the signs of Agoraphobia?

What adjunctive diagnosis should you be wary of?

What are the 4 other differentials?

A

Fear of not only open spaces but also related aspects such as crowds and difficulty of immediate escape to safe place (like home)

It is common in 20s or mid-30s

Comorbid depression is common (be wary of them taking drugs and alcohol to overcome this)

May be Gradual or precipitated by a Sudden Panic Attack

Higher Incidence of Sexual Problems

Differentials:
1) Depression
2) Social Phobia
3) OCD
4) Schizophrenia (may stay indoors to avoid Persecutors)

115
Q

What are the signs of Social Phobia?

Why may the MSE appear normal?

A

It is the most common Anxiety Disorder

Fear of SCRUTINY by other people in comparatively small groups (compared to crowds) leading to avoidance of social situations

Usually 5-6 people (they may be fine with 1-2)

Physical symptoms= Blushing or Fear of Vomiting

Also Palpitations, Trembling and Sweating

Can be precipitated by Humiliating Experience, Death of a Parent, Separation, Chronic Stress

MSE may appear normal as Phobia object is not present

116
Q

What are the Differentials for Social Phobia?

A

Shyness (In Social Phobia there is Fear)

Agoraphobia

Anxious Perosnality Disorder

Poor Social Skills/ Autism Spectrum Disorder

Benign Essential Tremor (Worse in Social Situations and is Familial. Alcohols and Benzos help with this)

117
Q

What investigations should be conducted for Social Phobia?
What are the 2 anxiety scales used in Social Phobia?

A

History and examination

Rating Scales of Anxiety (Beck Anxiety Inventory and the HADS score)

Social and Occupational Assessments for effect on Quality on Life

Collateral History

118
Q

What is the management of Phobias?

For which phobias are SSRIs and MAOIs (Phenelzine) most useful?

When are TCAs usually used?

When can Benzodiazepines and Beta Blockers be used?

A

Flooding- taking someone with a fear of heights to a tower

Modelling- the individual observes the therapist dealing with the phobia (like holding a spider)

Agoraphobia and Panic Disorders- CBT is First Line

Social Phobia- CBT is the treatment of choice

SSRIs and MAOIs (Phenelzine) is most useful in Agoraphobia and Social Phobia

TCAs are best for those with a depressive component

Benzodiazepines can be used BEFORE a Phobic Situation

Beta-blockers can be used if someone’s Somatic Symptoms predominate their prognosis

Animal Phobias do best, Agoraphobias respond worst

119
Q

What is Anorexia Nervosa?

What 10 signs are seen as a result of the starvation?

What is the blood pressure and heartrate?

What is the cholesterol and growth hormone/ cortisol level?

What metabolic association is seen?

A

Deliberate weight loss- Induced and sustained by the patient

There must be clear concerns from the individual regarding their weight and shape, with a fear of becoming fat as an Intrusive Overvalued thought

They are determined to achieve this, regardless of the impact on their physical health

1) Low BMI

2) Hypotension and Bradycardia (Admit if severe or if super weak and struggling)

3) Enlarged Salivary Glands

4) Lanugo Hair (fine hair covering the skin)

5) Amenorrhoea

6) Hypokalaemia

7) Low Sex Hormones (FSH, LH, Oestrogen, Testosterone)

8) Raised Growth Hormone and Cortisol

9) Hypercholesterolaemia

10) Low WCC due to the Malnutrition

120
Q

What is the management of Anorexia Nervosa?

What is refeeding syndrome? What 3 types of ions are affected by this?
What are patients with Anorexia Nervosa most at risk of? Which Arrythmia in particular?

A

Aiming to return to a healthy weight and using Psychological Therapies to treat the underlying thought processes

  • If nutritional intake is resumed too rapidly, the patient is at risk of developing Refeeding Syndrome. Rapidly increasing Insulin Levels lead to shifts of Potassium, Magnesium and Phosphate from extracellular to intracellular spaces. This can be fatal

Symptoms of Refeeding Syndrome= Oedema, Confusion and Tachycardia. Blood tests initially show Hypophosphataemia which is managed with Phosphate Supplementation

  • Patients with Anorexia Nervosa are at risk of Cardiac Arrhythmias and sudden Death. An ECG should be performed on patients with Anorexia Nervosa especially those complaining of Light Headedness or Fainting.

There may also be Hypotension, Bradycardia and a Prolonged QT Interval which increases the risk of Ventricular Fibrillation

121
Q

What can predispose patients to Anorexia Nervosa?

A

Standard Dieting

122
Q

What are the 4 signs of Alzheimer’s?

A

Amnesia

Aphasia

Agnosia

Apraxia

123
Q

What is the management of Alzheimer’s?

What is the first and second line pharmacological management and when is Donepazil contraindicated?

A

Non Pharmacological-
1) Range of activities to promote wellbeing- tailored to person’s preference
2) Group Cognitive stimulation therapy
3) Group Reminiscence Therapy and Cognitive Rehabilitation

Pharmacological-
1) Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors (Donepezil, Galantimine, Rivastigimine)
2) Second Line- Memantine (Monotherapy if Severe Alzheimer’s)

When is Donepezil Contraindicated?
- Bradycardia (Relatively contraindicated)
- Side Effects= Insomnia