Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

Give the key feature of panic attacks in panic disorder which distinguish it from phobias

A

Unpredictable/not in a particular situation/no objective danger present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give physical symptoms that may occur during panic attacks

A
SOB/hyperventilation
Chest pain/discomfort
Palpitations
Sweating
Shaking/trembling
Numbness/tingling
Choking feeling/abnormal feeling at back of throat 
Nausea
Churning stomach 
Dizzy/light headed/faint
Chills/hot flushes
Carpopedal spasm
Dry mouth/difficulty swallowing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Excluding anxiety, give psychological symptoms that might occur as part of panic disorder

A
Derealisation
Depersonalisation 
Fear of dying
Fear of losing control or going crazy
Need to escape from the situation 
Change in behaviour due to attacks /avoidance of places where attacks occurred 
Concern about having more attacks
Agoraphobia/social withdrawal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give lifestyle advice you could offer to try and reduce frequency of panic attacks

A
Reduce caffeine 
Reduce alcohol
Reduce nicotine /smoking
Improve sleep hygiene 
Address practical issues that may be increasing anxiety e.g. Housing, financial
Regular exercise
Avoid recreational drugs especially stimulants - amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy
Relaxation/anxiety management techniques
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Following lifestyle advice, what is the recommended psychological intervention for panic disorder?

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In which social class groups is anorexia nervosa most common?

A

Middle and upper middle class families

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of hair is seen on the body of patients with anorexia nervosa?

A

Lanugo hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some predisposing factors for psychiatric problems?

A

Bio: Genetic Loading, Gender, Brain Injury/LD, Physical Illness, Substance Misuse, Previous Psychiatric Hx
Psycho: Personality factors, Parental modelling, Cognitive factors – low IQ, Beck’s triad, cognitive distortions, locus of control
Social: High expressed emotion, Parental discord, Poor socio-economic factors, Isolation, Debts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some precipitating factors for psychiatric problems?

A

Bio: Non-compliance, Substance misuse, Physical illness/trauma, Iatrogenic – drugs, Hormonal – Menopause
Psycho: Poor insight, Assault/conflict, Loss of loved object
Social: Significant life events, Isolation, Lack of support, Increasing stressors, Change of environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some perpetuating factors for psychiatric problems?

A

Bio: Brain Injury, Non-compliance, Substance misuse, Physical illness, Genetic loading
Psycho: Personality factors, Cognitive factors, Poor insight, Anxiety, Reduced motivation
Social: Isolation, Poor socio-economic factors, High expressed emotion, Family discord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are good prognostic features in psychiatric illness?

A
Acute Onset
Family support
Rapid de-escalation of symptoms/signs
Older age group generally
Good response to treatment
Good insight & engagement with services
Effective psycho-education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are poor prognostic features in psychiatric illness?

A
Poor insight
Physical illness
Poor response to past/present treatment 
Substance misuse
Younger age group generally
Poor insight
On-going substance use
Disengagement with services
Chronic psychiatric illnesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are important features of a generic anxiety history?

A
S ymptoms of Anxiety
E pisodic or Continuous
D epression / Drink / Drugs
A voidance & Escape
T iming + Triggers
E ffect on Life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a definition of addiction?

A

Control - there are repeated attempts to cut back or control use, with episodes or loss of control in between
Compulsion - a person experiences a sense that they must use. Can be due to tolerance, withdrawal or psychological need
Consequences - substance use is continued despite significant negative consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is personality disorder and what are the 3 Ps?

A

Pattern of relating to self, other and the world that deviates from cultural norm
Persistent – happens frequently
Pervasive – across different circumstances
Problematic – and cause problems for themselves and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the traits of borderline personality disorder?

A

PRAISE
Paranoid ideas
Relationship instability
Affective instability/ Abandonment fears/ Angry outbursts
Impulsivity/ Identity disturbance
Suicidal behaviour/ Self-harming behaviour
Emptiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What aspects of a personal history are important in a psych history?

A

Infancy and Childhood: Mother’s pregnancy, Neuro-developmental milestones – birth, walking, talking, sitting and socializing age, Childhood separation or emotional problems, Home and school environment (Bullying, school refusal, shyness,
conduct disorders), Schooling and academic achievements
Adolescence: onset of puberty, early sexual experience, peer relationship
Adulthood: education, military experiences, employment, social life, sexual history, marriage, children, forensic history and substance misuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What aspects of a social history are important in a psych history?

A

Profession and employment record, Current employment
Financial situation, Current and past debt problems, spending
Marital status – single, married, divorced, widowed
Children – ages if dependent, parental responsibility
Housing situation, past and present-living alone
Stressors
Social supports
Typical day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What aspects of a forensic history are important in a psychiatric history?

A

Past and present charges, penalties, arrests and convictions (Violence/Anger, sexual offences)
Pending court cases
Unrecorded offences
Relationship to symptoms and substance misuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What aspects of pre morbid personality are important in a psychiatric history?

A

Life long persistent characteristics prior to illness
Moral and religious beliefs
Leisure activities and hobbies
How would others e.g. relatives/friends describe them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the elements of the mental state examination?

A

Appearance and behaviour
Speech: Rate, volume, tone, Formal Thought Disorder
Mood: Subjectively, Objectively
Affect
Thoughts : Content and Form, Abnormal ideas and beliefs, Delusions and ideas of reference, Negative Thoughts about past, present and future / self Passivity phenomena (inc thought insertion & withdrawal), Symptoms of severe anxiety, esp obsessions and compulsions, SUICIDAL THOUGHTS, INTENTIONS and PLANS
Perceptions : Hallucinations (modality, person, content), Illusions
Cognitive Functions: Attention and Concentration, Orientation (T, P and P), Memory: Immediate, Short-term, Long Term
Insight: Recognise nature and severity of condition, Willingness to accept appropriate help
RISK: Self, Others , Health and Self-neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What might be things that you notice/comment on about a psychiatric patient’s appearance and behaviour in a mental state examination?

A
Body language
Appropriateness of dress
Evidence of self neglect 
Under or over psychomotor activity – excitation or retardation
Facial expression – dilated pupils, rigidity
Abnormal movements or posture
Rapport and eye contact
Distractibility
Disinhibition
Preoccupation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What might be things that you notice/comment on about a psychiatric patient’s speech in a mental state examination?

A

Rate, tone and volume
Rate: slow in depression; pressured in mania
Quantity: poverty in depression and chronic schizophrenia
Form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s the difference between mood and affect?

A

Mood - a person’s sustained emotional state
Affect – outward manifestation of a person’s feelings, tone, or mood, the way the patient shows feelings- variability, intensity, appropriateness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What might you notice about a psychiatric patient’s mood in a mental state examination?

A

Subjective description-Sad, happy, top of the world, worried, up and down
Objective
Range: depression – euthymic – euphoria
Inability to enjoy activities (anhedonia)
Inability to describe one’s emotion (alexithymia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What might you notice about a psychiatric patient’s thought form and process in a mental state examination?

A
Stream of Thought
Goal directness/continuity 
Process
Connectivity/Organisation
Circumstantiality
Tangentiality
Loose Association
Word Salad
Echolalia
Neologisms
Perseveration
Thought blocking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What might you notice about a psychiatric patient’s thought content in a mental state examination?

A
Delusions: persecution, infidelity, grandiose, hypochondriacal, love, guilt, nihilistic, poverty, reference, infestation
Obsessions
Negative Cognitions
Overvalued Ideas
Primary and secondary delusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What might you notice about a psychiatric patient’s perception in a mental state examination?

A

Illusions
Hallucinations: Auditory (2nd, 3rd) visual gustatory, olfactory (organic, TLE), tactile (cocaine addiction, drug withdrawals)
Pseudo-hallucinations
Hypnopompic/hypnogogic hallucinations
Derealisation and depersonalization
First rank symptoms
Thought insertion, withdrawal, broadcast
Voices- echo, running commentary and 3rd Person auditory hallucinations
Passivity affect, action and impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How might you assess cognitive function in a mental state examination of a psychiatric patient?

A

Ask them to repeat 3 words i.e. Velvet, Daisy, Red (or address), inform them to remember them
Orientation to Time , Place and Persons
Concentration / Immediate Memory (Numbers or Letters)
Serial 7s or WORLD forwards and backwards or Months of the Year or Days of the Week backwards
Past Memory
General Knowledge / Intelligence
Recall ( 3 words or address )
Separate poor concentration from memory problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the aspects of the mini mental state examination?

A
Year, month, Day of week, date, season
Place, Floor, city, county, country
3 Objects to remember
WORLD backwards or serial 7’s
Recall 3 objects
Pen, watch – naming
Repeat phrase ‘No ifs ands or buts’
3 stage command
Read and follow instruction
Write sentence (verb and noun)
Interlocking pentagons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are bedside measures you can use to assess frontal lobe executive functioning?

A

Luria Motor Test: alternate hand movements; fist, cut; slap.
Word Fluency Test: “You have a minute Could you tell me as many words as you can starting with the letter “A”
Similarities: ability to apply abstract concepts
Proverb interpretation: conceptual thinking ability
Clock Drawing: “This circle represents a clock face. Please put the numbers, so that it looks like a clock and then set the time to 10 minutes past 11” (parietal and frontal lobes involved)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is insight and how can you assess it in a mental state examination?

A

Awareness of abnormal state of mind
Insight rests on a continuum from complete lack of insight to being partially insightful to having insight
Ask the patient if they think they are ill, Mentally or physically
Ask the patient if they are willing to accept help
Ask the patient if they will take treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What criteria are required for diagnosis of somatisation disorder?

A

Four different pain sites or functions
Two GI symptoms other than pain
One sexual or reproductive symptom other than pain
One pseudoneurological symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Under what law is a patient held in A and E who has taken a large paracetamol overdose and suicidal ideation? Who needs to be involved?

A

Held under common law until appropriate time to take blood sample (4 hours after ingestion)
Medically stabilise - N acetylcysteine treatment etc
Then psych team advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a section 5(2) of the mental health act? Where can this not be done?

A

Used for patients who are already admitted to hospital who have a mental illness to allow compulsory detention for up to 72 hours for assessment
Cannot be done in A and E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the PHQ9 used for?

A

Assess severity of depression symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the GAD7 score used for?

A

Screening tool and severity measure for generalised anxiety disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a SCOFF score used for?

A

Detect eating disorders and aid treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the guiding principles of the mental health act?

A
PuRPLE
Purpose 
Respect
Participation
Least restriction
Effectiveness, efficiency and equity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Munchausens syndrome?

A

Intentional production of symptoms for example self poisoning
Factitious disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is somatisation disorder?

A

Patient concerned about persistent unexplained symptoms for at least 2 years
Refuse to accept reassurance or negative test results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is hypochondrial disorder?

A

Patient persistently concerned about an underlying diagnosis such as cancer
Refuse to accept reassurance or negative test results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

Loss of motor or sensory function not consistent with well established organic cause which causes significant stress and can be traced back to a psychological trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is la belle indifference?

A

Person unconcerned with symptoms caused by a conversion disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is malingering?

A

Fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with intention of financial or other gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are Schneiders first rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Auditory hallucinations: 3rd person, thought echo, commentary
Thought disorder: insertion, withdrawal, broadcasting
Passivity phenomena: control by external influence
Delusional perception: normal object perceived, then intense delusional insight into objects meaning for patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Blunting of affect
Anhedonia
Alogia
Avolition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the features required for a diagnosis of autism to be made?

A

Global impairment of language and communication
Impairment of social relationships
Ritualistic and compulsive phenomena
Usually before age of 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which conditions are associated with autism?

A

Fragile x

Retts syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are diagnostic criteria for body dysmorphic disorder?

A

Preoccupation with imaginary defect in appearance. If slight anomaly present - markedly excessive concern
Preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational or other areas of functioning
Preoccupation not better accounted for by another mental disorder (e.g. Anorexia nervosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which screening tool is used to screen for post natal depression?

A

Edinburgh postnatal depression scale
10 item questionnaire, max 30 points
How mum has felt over previous week
Score >13 indicates depressive illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Over what time period should SSRIs be stopped? Why?

A

Gradually reduced over 4 weeks

Discontinuation symptoms: mood change, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, sweating, GI symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

After how long of starting on an antidepressant should a patient be reviewed by a doctor?

A

2 weeks

If under 30 or increased risk of suicide - 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How long should a patient remain on antidepressants if they make a good response?

A

At least 6 months after remission to reduce risk of relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which drugs interact with SSRIs?

A

NSAIDs
Warfarin/heparin
Aspirin
Triptans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In which patients should citalopram not be used?

A

Congenital long QT syndrome
Known existing QT prolongation
In combination with other medicines that prolong QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are adverse effects of SSRIs?

A

GI upset
GI bleeding - may need PPI
Increased anxiety and agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are features of post traumatic stress disorder?

A

Re experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images
Avoidance: people, situations, circumstances associated with the event
Hyperarousal: hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability, difficulty concentrating
Emotional numbing: lack of ability to experience feelings, detachment
Depression
Drug or alcohol misuse
Anger
Unexplained physical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the management for post traumatic stress disorder?

A

Watchful waiting if mild lasting less than 4 weeks
Trauma focussed CBT
Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing
Paroxetine or mirtazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which score is used to calculate risk of suicide if a patient reveals suicidal intent?

A

SADPERSONs score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which questions can be used to screen for depression?

A

During the last month have you been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless?
During the last month have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the hospital anxiety and depression scale?

A
14 questions, 7 anxiety 7 depression
Each item score 0-3
Score out of 21 for each
0-7 normal
8-10 borderline
11+ case 
Encourage patients to answer quickly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the patient health questionnaire 9?

A
9 items scored 0-3
Includes thoughts of self harm 
Grades severity of depression
0-4 none
5-9 mild
10-14 moderate
15-19 moderately severe 
20-27 severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is depression graded?

A

Mild: few symptoms in excess of 5 required for diagnosis, minor functional impairment
Moderate: functional impairment between mild and severe
Severe: most symptoms, markedly interfere with functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the management guidelines for Alzheimer’s?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine used in mild to moderate
NMDA antagonist: memantine in moderate to severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are features of sleep paralysis? How is it managed?

A

Paralysis: after waking or before falling asleep
Hallucinations: images or speaking present during paralysis
If troublesom, can be managed with clonazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the main feature that differentiates mania from hypomania?

A

Presence of psychotic symptoms: delusions of grandeur, auditory hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When should blood samples be taken for therapeutic monitoring of lithium levels?

A

12 hours post dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In a patient on clozapine presenting as generally unwell and tired, what is the most important test?

A

FBC - check for agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are some risk factors for suicide?

A
Male
Age 35-49
Mental illness
Treatment and care received after suicide attempt
Physically disabling or painful illness
Alcohol and drug misuse
Loss of a job
Debt
Living alone - socially excluded or isolated
Bereavement 
Family breakdown including divorce and family mental health problems
Imprisonment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What factors are associated with risk of suicide following an episode of deliberate self harm?

A
Efforts to avoid discovery
Planning
Leaving a written note
Final acts such as sorting out finances
Violent method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

For which conditions is ECT considered effective?

A

Major depression
Catatonic schizophrenia
Prolonged/severe mania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are some side effects associated with olanzapine?

A
Akathisia 
Agranulocytosis 
Hyperprolactinaemia 
Hyperglycaemia
Depression 
Anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the first line treatment for mild depression?

A

Psychological therapies usually via an IAPT referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which is the preferred antidepressant following a myocardial infarction?

A

Sertraline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When should clozapine be used to treat schizophrenia?

A

Lack of clinical improvement following sequential use of at least 2 antipsychotics for 6-8 weeks with at least 1 from the atypical class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are side effects of clozapine?

A
Weight gain
Excessive salivation
Agranulocytosis 
Neutropenia 
Myocarditis
Arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What do antipsychotics increase the risk of in elderly patients?

A

Stroke and VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What differentiates a normal grief reaction from depression?

A

Normal grief reaction lasts under 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief?

A
Denial: numbness, pseudohallucinations of the deceased 
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In which patients are atypical grief reactions more likely to occur?

A

Women
If death is sudden and unexpected
Problematic relationship before death
Lack of social support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are features of atypical grief reactions?

A

Delayed grief: more than 2 weeks passes before grieving begins
Prolonged grief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which is the SSRI of choice in children and adolescents?

A

Fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are long term management options in a patient addicted to benzodiazepines?

A

Drug addiction counselling
Self help groups
Slow withdrawal under cover of propranolol/antidepressant
Psychiatric referral for withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are withdrawal symptoms of benzos?

A

Rebound anxiety
Insomnia
Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the features of ADHD?

A

Extreme restlessness
Poor concentration
Uncontrolled activity
Impulsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are favourable prognostic indicators in schizophrenia?

A
Premorbid stable personality
Acute onset
Higher social class
Female
Later age of onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When is a grief reaction said to be delayed?

A

If it commences 2 weeks after bereavement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A 30 year old schizophrenic female attacks her mother believing that aliens have replaced her with an exact double. What is the diagnosis?

A

Capgras syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is another term for delusional jealousy?

A

Othello syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is Gansers syndrome?

A

Prisoner tries to feign insanity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

In a patient who has bulimia nervosa that has failed CBT and psychotherapy, what is the next line treatment?

A

Fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

In a patient with Parkinson’s disease who develops paranoid ideation and auditory hallucinations, which antipsychotic would be useful?

A

Atypical like Olanzapine

Less likely to exacerbate PD than chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which contraceptive is a well recognised cause of severe depression?

A

Depo provera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which anxiolytic drug cab cause vivid dreams?

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which antimalarial can cause neuropsychiatric disturbances?

A

Mefloquine (lariam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the commonest side effect of antipsychotics and one of the most common reasons stated for non compliance of medication?

A

Impaired sexual performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are common organic causes of anxiety?

A
Hypoglycaemia 
Alcohol withdrawal
Drug intoxication or withdrawal
Thyroxine
Paroxysmal SVT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are features of anorexia nervosa?

A
Phobic avoidance of normal weight
Relentless dieting
Self induced vomiting
Laxative use
Excessive exercise
Amenorrhoea
Lanugo hair 
Hypotension 
Denial 
Concealment
Over perception of body image
Enmeshed families
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are possible serious side effects of chlorpromazine?

A

Hyperprolactinaemia
Hypogonadism
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the unusual pharmacodynamic properties of venlafaxine?

A

Acts at different receptors depending on dose given
Low strengths: acts only at serotonin receptors
Moderate: acts on serotonin and noradrenaline
High doses: also has dopaminergic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine?

A

SNRI
Increased serotonergic neurotrasmission to improve mood and depressive symptoms
Increased noradrenaline increases drive, memory, learning and energy levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is a problem of coprescribing SSRI with Tramadol?

A

Seizures: Particularly if elderly, drug or alcohol withdrawal, head injury
Serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How can pseudodementia due to affective disorder be differentiated from Alzheimer’s?

A

Pseudo: Acute and recent cognitive deficit, sense of distress, agitation, positive diurnal mood variation, early morning waking
Alzheimer’s: insidious onset

105
Q

Why do psychotropic drugs cause weight gain?

A

Dopamine 2 antagonist: decrease limbic activity, increase reward seeking behaviour like eating, disinhibition of prolactin
Histamine 1 antagonist: increase appetite, sedative effects
Muscarinic 3 antagonist: impaired glucose tolerance, reduction of insulin secretion
Serotonin 2C antagonist: disinhibition of hypothalamic neuropeptide y neurones and initiation of pro-opiomelanocortin neurones

106
Q

In a patient with an isolated episode of mania which was controlled with medication who now has insight into their condition, when can they drive?

A

After 3 months of remaining stable and well

107
Q

What are symptoms of oculogyric crisis?

A
Restlessness
Agitation
Malaise
Fixed stare
Maximal upward deviation of eyes in sustained fashion
Backwards and lateral flexion of neck
Widely opened mouth
Tongue protrusion
Ocular pain
108
Q

How is oculogyric crisis terminated?

A

Procyclidine

109
Q

What are symptoms of delirium tremens?

A
Tremors
Irritability
Insomnia
Nausea and vomiting
Hallucinations
Confusion
Delusions
Severe agitation
Seizures
110
Q

How long do baby blues usually last?

A

Evident by 3rd day
Peak at 5th day
Subside within 10 days

111
Q

Which tool can be used to assess for post natal depression?

A

Edinburgh depression scale

112
Q

What are the criteria for performing a section 2?

A

Application made by approved mental health professional or nearest relative
Must have seen the patient within 14 days
Must be seen by 2 separate doctors, one of which with special training for this role
Doctors must have seen them within 5 days of each other
Admission must be arranged within 14 days of last medical examination

113
Q

How long can you be kept in hospital for on a section 2?

A

28 days

114
Q

What are your rights on a section 2?

A

Right to appeal in tribunal during first 14 days
Right to appeal to mental health act managers
Ask for help of independent mental health advocate who can raise any issues with care and treatment

115
Q

What are how long can you be detained on a section 3?

A

Up to 6 months
Can be renewed for 6 months
Then can be renewed once a year

116
Q

At what point does there need to be involvement of a secondary opinion appointed doctor when treating a patient on a section 3?

A

After 3 months of detention and treatment

117
Q

What is the difference between mania and hypomania?

A

Mania: elevated mood is severe and sustained or associated with psychotic symptoms, leading to marked disturbance of behaviour and function
Hypomania: less severe elevations in mood, which may be fairly brief, lower level of disturbance that usually does not bring the person to medical attention; however, hypomania may progress to mania

118
Q

What is the difference between bipolar 1 and 2?

A

Bipolar I disorder with episodes of Mania

Bipolar II disorder in which only episodes of Hypomania occur and at least 1 major depressive episode

119
Q

What are manic symptoms?

A
Elevated, expansive or irritable mood
Increased activity that is goal directed or psychomotor agitation
Reduced need for sleep
Excessive involvement in pleasurable activities with likely adverse consequences
Inflated self esteem or grandiosity
Increased or pressured speech
Flight of ideas or racing thoughts
Distractibility
120
Q

What are depressive symptoms?

A

Depressed mood
Markedly reduced interest in nearly all activities
Increased or decreased appetite or weight
Insomnia or hypersomnia
Psychomotor retardation or agitation
Fatigue or loss of energy
Feelings of excessive worthlessness or guilt
Impaired concentration or indecisiveness
Recurrent thoughts of death/suicide

121
Q

What is a manic episode?

A

At least 4 manic symptoms including altered mood that persists for at least a week and causes marked functional impairment, hospital admission, or there are psychotic symptoms

122
Q

What is a hypomanic episode?

A

As for manic episode but less severe
Symptoms persist for at least 4 days and functioning is noticeably altered but not enough for hospital admission or impaired function
No psychotic symptoms

123
Q

Why is bipolar disorder difficult to manage?

A

Comorbid psychiatric disorders, most often
anxiety disorders, are common
> 1/3 of cases also have an Alcohol or Drug
disorder, either as a precipitant or secondary
complication
Poor insight: can necessitate compulsory tx
and make collaborative management difficult
Usually long delay before symptoms and diagnosis
Disinhibited and violent behaviour in mania may lead to risk or harm to others
Hypomania often escapes medical attention
Patient may view hypomania as positive and associated with increased energy and productivity
High rates of unrecognised bipolar disorder have been found in depressed patients who respond
poorly to antidepressants

124
Q

What is rapid cycling and what does it signify?

A

Four or more mood episodes each year

Marker of severity and poor treatment response

125
Q

What is the most common cause of mortality in mental health patients? Why?

A

Cardiovascular disease
Lifestyle: diet, smoking
Obesity
Drug side effects

126
Q

What are differential diagnoses for mania?

A

Medical and organic brain conditions: Endocrine, cerebrovascular disease, dementia, confusion, steriods
Unipolar depression
Schizophrenia
Substance misuse
Personality disorders
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

127
Q

What are screening questions for mania?

A

Do you experience mood that is higher than normal, or do you feel much more irritable than usual, and that others have noticed?
At the same time do you have an increase in your energy levels so that you are much more active or don’t need as much sleep?

128
Q

What are screening questions for depression?

A

In the past month have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed, or hopeless?
During the past month have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?

129
Q

Which drugs are used to manage mania?

A

Antipsychotics
Valproate
Lithium
Short term benzodiazepines are clinically used for treating agitation and insomnia

130
Q

How is depression managed in patients with bipolar?

A

Identify and remove any precipitants and
establish treatment history
For patients on long term treatments with mild
depression, guidelines recommend optimising
their dose and monitoring mood initially
No significant benefit for antidepressants for bipolar depression. Antidepressants should always be combined with an antimanic drug to reduce the
risk of destabilising mood. SSRI least likely

131
Q

What drugs are used to manage bipolar depression?

A

Quetiapine
Cognitive behavioural therapy, family focused therapy
Suggestive evidence: olanzapine, fluoxetine, olanzapine, lamotrigine, lithium, valproate, interpersonal and social rhythm therapy

132
Q

Which bipolar patients require long term treatment?

A

Bipolar I disorder: two acute episodes, or a single manic episode with severe consequences
Bipolar II disorder: frequent relapses, functional impairment, or suicide risk

133
Q

Which medications are used for maintenance and to prevent relapse in bipolar disorder?

A

Monotherapy with lithium, antipsychotics (mania), quetiapine, olanzapine (depression and mania), lamotrigine (depression)
Combination therapy with antipsychotics and lithium or valproate

134
Q

What are implications of bipolar disorder for women of childbearing age?

A

Refer for specialist preconception advice if considering pregnancy and joint management between psychiatric and obstetric services if pregnant
1 in 4 women with BD relapse during pregnancy 52% postpartum
Lithium and anticonvulsants increased risk of teratogenicity. Risk is greatest with valproate, which also causes later neurodevelopmental delay in children exposed prenatally
Valproate is contraindicated in women of childbearing age and, if used, effective contraception is needed
Valproate is contraindicated in pregnancy, and other anticonvulsants are contraindicated in the first trimester
trimester.

135
Q

What are clinical features of anorexia nervosa?

A

Age of onset typically early teenage years (12 to 15 years)
Weight loss (BMI < 17.5 kg/m2)
Fear of fatness/weight gain/normal weight
Drive for thinness
Body image disparagement
Behavioural change directed at weight loss (dietary
restriction, over-exercise, self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics or diet pills)
Endocrine disorder: Amenorrhoea in females (loss of libido in males)

136
Q

What other mental health problems may be associated with anorexia nervosa?

A
Depression
Anxiety (generalised, food/eating related, social phobia)
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Self harm
Suicidal ideation/attempts
Personality disorder
137
Q

What are medical risks of anorexia nervosa?

A

Cardiovascular (bradycardia, hypotension, arrhthymia, QT prolongation, mitral valve dysfunction, cardiac failure)
Biochemical (hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia,
hypomagnesaemia, hypophosphatemia,
hypocalcaemia, metabolic alkalosis/acidosis)
Gastrointestinal (gastro-oesophageal reflux, delayed gastric emptying, constipation, nutritional hepatitis)
Metabolic (hypothermia, hypoglycaemia)
Endocrine (amenorrhoea, reduced T3, increased cortisol, increased growth hormone)
Musculoskeletal (proximal muscle wasting,
osteoporosis)
Haematological (anaemia, leucopaenia,
thrombocytopaenia, bone marrow hypoplasia)
Neurological (peripheral neuropathy, seizures,
confusional states)
Dermatological (lanugo, hair loss, pruritis)

138
Q

What are psychiatric risks of anorexia nervosa?

A

Self harm
Suicide
Vulnerability to self-neglect
Risk to others: consider risk to child in pregnant
women / mothers with AN
Capacity may be affected by AN psychopathology

139
Q

What is the treatment of anorexia nervosa?

A

Weight restoration to normal range (BMI 20)
Behavioural change: cessation of ED behaviours
Psychological change: acceptance of normal weight, development of alternative strategies to manage emotional distress, understanding of aetiological factors
Socio-occupational rehabilitation
Outpatient/daypatient/inpatient settings: Dependent on severity, medical/psychiatric risk/ previous response to treatment
Family therapy for children/adolescents
Individual psychological therapy (psychodynamic therapy / CBT /interpersonal therapy)
Group psychological therapy (psychodynamic or CBT)
Dietetic intervention
Occupational therapy
Anorexia nervosa is a mental disorder under the Act: Re-feeding is treatment of mental disorder

140
Q

How is risk of refeeding syndrome minimised in anorexia nervosa?

A

Limit weight gain to < 1kg week (inpatients) or 0.5kg/week (outpatients) and monitor closely

141
Q

What are poor prognostic factors for anorexia nervosa?

A
Long duration
Resistance to treatment
Lower minimum weight
Older age of onset
Personality difficulties
Poor familial relationships
Social difficulties
142
Q

What are clinical features of bulimia nervosa?

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating
Regular use of methods to control weight
(compensatory behaviours): restriction, exercise, self-induced vomiting, laxatives, diuretics)
Fear of fatness, defined weight threshold
Normal weight/overweight
Onset: late teens

143
Q

What is binge eating?

A

Typically forbidden foods
High fat or CHO content
Large quantity
May be purchased specifically for binge episode
May incur financial difficulty due to cost of purchasing binge foods
Consumption of a large amount of food within a specific time period with associated sense of loss of control
Binge terminated by fullness/discomfort/being
disturbed by others

144
Q

Which other mental health problems are associated with bulimia nervosa?

A
Depression
Anxiety 
Self harm
Substance misuse
Personality disorder
145
Q

What are medical risks of bulimia nervosa?

A

Morbidity and mortality lower than for anorexia nervosa
Electrolyte disturbance due to self induced vomiting, laxative and diuretic misuse (hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia,
metabolic acidosis)
Acid erosion of teeth
Salivary (parotid) gland enlargement
Oesophagitis, Mallory-Weiss tears
Irregular menstruation
Russell’s sign: calluses to the dorsum of the hand

146
Q

What is the management of bulimia nervosa?

A

Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

High dose fluoxetine (60mg/day) may reduce binge eating behaviour

147
Q

What features of bulimia nervosa indicate a worse prognosis?

A

Multi-impulsive presentation
(comorbid substance misuse/repetitive self
harm/stealing/overspending directed at emotional regulation)

148
Q

What is binge eating disorder?

A
Recurrent episodes of binge eating in absence of compensatory behaviours
Typically overweight
Female:Male ratio 1:1
Later age of onset: 30’s
Evidence for efficacy of CBT
149
Q

What are risks of eating disorders in pregnancy?

A

IUGR, obstetric complications, operative delivery

Risk of post natal depression, puerperal psychosis, post natal deterioration in eating disorder

150
Q

What is a personality disorder?

A

Enduring pattern of inner experience and behaviour that deviates markedly from expectations of the individual’s culture, is pervasive and inflexible, has onset in adolescence or early adulthood, is stable over time and leads to distress or impairment

151
Q

What are features of personality disorders according to DSM V?

A

Distorted thinking patterns
Problematic emotional responses
Over/under regulated impulse control
Interpersonal difficulties

152
Q

What are the different clusters of personality disorders?

A

Cluster A: Odd or Eccentric
Cluster B: Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic
Cluster C: Anxious and Fearful

153
Q

What are cluster A personality disorders?

A

Paranoid, Suspicious: Feel that other people are nasty (when evidence shows this isn’t true). Easily rejected, tend to hold grudges
Schizoid: Emotionally cold. Don’t like contact with other people, prefer own company, Have a rich fantasy world
Schizotypal: Eccentric behaviour, Odd ideas, see or hear strange things, Difficulties with thinking, Lack of emotion, or inappropriate
emotional reactions, Sometimes related to Schizophrenia

154
Q

What are cluster B personality disorders?

A

Antisocial or Dissocial: Don’t care much about feelings of others. Find it difficult to make intimate relationships. Easily get frustrated, impulsive, Tend to be aggressive, commit crimes, Don’t feel guilty, Don’t learn from unpleasant experiences
Borderline or Emotionally Unstable: Impulsive, Find it hard to control their emotions, Often self-harm, cutting or making suicide attempts, Feel empty. Feel bad about themselves, Make relationships quickly, but easily lose them, Can feel paranoid or depressed, When stressed, may hear noises or voices
Histrionic: Self-centred, Over-dramatise events, Have strong emotions which change quickly and don’t last long. Can be seductive, Can be suggestible, Worry a lot about their appearance, Crave new things and excitement
Narcissistic: Have a strong sense of own self-importance, Dream of unlimited success, power and intellectual brilliance, Crave attention from other people, but show few warm feelings in return. Ask for favours that are not returned. Can exploit others

155
Q

What are cluster c personality disorders?

A

Obsessive-Compulsive (Anankastic): Worry and doubt a lot, Perfectionist - always check things, Cautious, preoccupied with detail, Rigidity, Find it hard to adapt to new situations, Judgemental, Often have high moral standards, Sensitive to criticism
Avoidant (Anxious/Avoidant): Very anxious and tense, Worry a lot, Feel insecure and inferior, Have to be liked and accepted, Extremely sensitive to criticism
Dependent: Passive, Rely on others to make their own decisions, do what other people want them to do, Find it hard to cope with daily chores, Feel hopeless and incompetent, Easily feel abandoned by others

156
Q

What aetiological factors contribute to development of personality disorders?

A

Upbringing: physical ,emotional or sexual abuse in childhood, violence in the family parents who drink too much or severely ill, neglect and lack of parental supervision/guidance
Early problems: Severe aggression, disobedience, and repeated temper tantrums can be a sign in childhood

157
Q

What are some triggers for personality disorders?

A

Using drugs or alcohol
Mental health: anxiety,depression
Important Life Events: Stressful situations, money problems, Problems getting on with family or partner

158
Q

What is short and long term treatment/management of personality disorders?

A

Short term: Assessment (strengths and weakness), DSH and suicide risk, Crisis containment, Co-morbidity
Long term: Compliance, Support, talking therapies, Antipsychotics (usually at a low dose), Antidepressants, Mood stabilisers

159
Q

Simon is a 22 year old man who has just been diagnosed with first episode psychosis. He is commenced on Risperidone. 2 days later he telephones complaining of a very stiff neck. On observation his head is tilted and rotated, and on further examination his sternocleidomastoid muscle is fully contracted. What is the cause of his stiff neck? To what group of side effects does this belong?

A

Acute Dystonia

Extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs)

160
Q

How do you manage acute dystonia?

A

IM or oral procyclidine

Stop/change antipsychotic

161
Q

What are possible Extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics?

A

Acute dystonia
Parkinsonism
Akathesia

162
Q

What is akathesia?

A

Intensely unpleasant feeling of need to move. Purposeless but voluntary movements (usually legs)

163
Q

What is the management of akathesia?

A

Reduce antipsychotic / change to alternative
Anticholinergics – minimal benefit
Benzodiazepines, B-blockers

164
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

Tongue, lips, jaw, facial expression, neck, trunk, limbs
Involuntary movements – mainly chorea but also dystonia, tics, myoclonus
Often progressive

165
Q

What is the management of tardive dyskinesia?

A

Reduce dose (note - can be temporary rebound worsening)
Stop / Change to alternative – Olanzapine / Clozapine
Diazepam
Vitamin E

166
Q

How is neuroleptic malignant syndrome managed?

A
Stop antipsychotic
Fluids
Antipyretics
Cooling
Intubation if required
Muscle relaxants
167
Q

What are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Severe rigidity, akinesia over short time
Pyrexia
Autonomic disturbance
Sweating, sialorrhoea, tachycardia, hyperventilation, labile blood pressure
Fluctuating impairment of consciousness, confusion, stupor, coma

168
Q

What are lab findings in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Raised CK
Raised WCC
Abnormal LFTs

169
Q

What causes death in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Cardiorespiratory arrest
Pneumonia
Renal failure secondary to rhabdomyolosis /myoglobinuruia

170
Q

How long after NMS can antipsychotics be re-trialled?

A

Can retrial antipsychotics after 2 weeks
Consider change to alternative antipsychotic
Monitor temp and BP carefully
Clozapine

171
Q

Why do medical problems often present later in patients with mental health problems?

A

Poor access to services –
Less able to identify / express health concerns
Less motivated to seek help
Less likely to be listened to

172
Q

What are reasons for excess mortality in patients with schizophrenia?

A

Poor access to services: Less able to identify / express health concerns, Less motivated to seek help, Less likely to be listened to
Lifestyle: Smoking, Alcohol, Substance misuse, Diet, Exercise
Socioeconomics: Lower socioeconomic status, Lack of employment, Lower quality healthcare
Antipsychotics: But nb those who have untreated schizophrenia have a HIGHER SMR
Poor adherence to physical treatments
Direct effect of schizophrenia
Undiagnosed medical disorder causing misdiagnosis of schizophrenia

173
Q

What serious side effects need to be considered in patients with dementia when prescribing risperidone?

A
Risk of CVA
Increased mortality
Increased rate of cognitive decline
Sedation
Parkinsonism
Hypotension
174
Q

Why should antipsychotics not be given in Lewy body dementia?

A

Risk of severe neuroleptic sensitivity

175
Q

What are alternative drugs to antipsychotics which can be used in Lewy body dementia? What are some problems with these drugs?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors – nausea, GI disturbance, GI bleeds
Benzodiazepines – Sedation / falls, paradoxical agitation
SSRIs – nausea, GI bleeds
Memantine

176
Q

What is a hallucination?

A

Sensory perception which is experienced despite there being no external stimulus

177
Q

What is an illusion?

A

A perception that occurs when a sensory stimulus is present but is incorrectly perceived and misinterpreted

178
Q

What is a delusion?

A

False belief which is firmly sustained and based on incorrect inference about reality. This belief is held despite evidence to the contrary and is not accounted for by the person’s culture or religion

179
Q

What are some examples of types of delusion?

A
Persecutory
Jealous
Religious
Grandiose
Reference
Somatic
Guilt
Nihilism
180
Q

What delusions of control occur?

A
Thought insertion
Thought withdrawal
Thought broadcast
Somatic passivity
Made feelings/actions
181
Q

What are some examples of thought disorder?

A
Tangential speech
Knights move thinking
Neologisms
Word salad
Flight of ideas
182
Q

Give examples of some diagnoses in which psychosis is the main presenting feature

A
Schizophrenia
Schizoaffective disorder 
Schizophreniform disorder (DSMV)
Delusional disorder 
Brief psychotic disorder
Bipolar disorder with psychotic features
Depressive psychosis
Substance induced psychotic disorder
Psychosis Not Otherwise Specified (NOS)
Psychosis due to medical condition
183
Q

What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganised speech
Catatonia

184
Q

What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Affective flattening
Alogia
Avolition
Anhedonia

185
Q

How is schizophrenia defined by ICD10?

A

Fundamental and characteristic distortions of thinking, perception, and affect that is inappropriate or blunted
Diagnosis requires disturbance lasting for six months or longer with at least one month of the classical symptoms, delusions, hallucinations, disorganised or catatonic behaviour or negative symptoms

186
Q

What are different types of schizophrenia?

A
Paranoid
Hebephrenic
Catatonic
Undifferentiated
Residual
Simple
187
Q

What are first rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Hearing thoughts spoken aloud
Hearing voices referring to himself / herself, made in third person
Auditory hallucinations in the form of a commentary
Thought withdrawal, insertion
Thought broadcasting
Somatic hallucinations
Delusional perception
Feelings or actions experienced as made or influenced by external agents

188
Q

What are catatonic symptoms?

A
Stupor
Waxy flexibility
Mutism
Posturing
Negativisms
Echolalia/echopraxia
Catalepsy
Stereotypy
Agitation
189
Q

What are cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Poor executive functioning (ability to absorb and interpret information and make decisions based on that information)
Inability to sustain attention
Problems with working memory (ability to keep recently learned information in mind and use it right away)
Poor social cognition (ability to interpret and process social information)

190
Q

What are some organic causes of psychosis?

A

Epilepsy (temporal lobe)
Infections: encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, neurosyphillis, HIV, Cerebral trauma
Cerebrovascular disease
Demyelination: MS, Schilder’s disease, metachromatic dystrophy
Neurodevelopmental disorders: velocardiofacial syndrome, Wilsons disease
Endocrine: thyroid disorders (hyper and hypo), Cushing’s syndrome,
Metabolic: hepatic failure, uraemia
Immunological: SLE
Toxins eg. lead
Dementias
Drugs: L-Dopa, Amphetamine, LSD, Cannabis, Cocaine, Ketamine

191
Q

What neuroanatomical changes occur in schizophrenia?

A

Degeneration occurs within grey matter, particularly medial temporal lobes, as a result enlarged ventricles and sulci are apparent on scanning. Cerebral blood flow is reduced in the basal ganglia and frontal lobes
Disconnectivity between subcortical and prefrontal cortical regions

192
Q

What are some extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics?

A

Acute: Dystonia, Akasthisia (motor restlessness), Parkinsonism (including rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (slowness of movement)
Later or Tardive: Tardive dyskinesia (often irreversible) - Characterized
by disabling involuntary movements, including tongue protruding, choreiform movements, grimacing and twisting of the face and limbs

193
Q

What are some examples of second generation antipsychotics?

A
Risperidone
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Olanzapine
Clozapine
194
Q

What are common side effects of antipsychotics?

A

Extra-pyramidal side effects (especially with typicals)
Metabolic effects – weight gain, insulin resistance, dyslipidemia
Sedation
Cognitive side-effects
Sexual side-effects
Less common: Cardiac Side effects, Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

195
Q

What psychosocial interventions can be used to treat schizophrenia?

A
Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
Family therapy/interventions
Vocational interventions
Relapse prevention
Cognitive remediation/social cognition remediation
196
Q

What factors may contribute to schizophrenia not going into remission?

A

Non treatment / poor adherence
Illicit drug use
Psychosocial stressors
Raised Expressed Emotion

197
Q

What are the criteria for detention under the mental health act?

A

Mental disorder (Nature)
Severity of the disorder (Degree)
Concerns: Deterioration of health, Risk to safety of the patient, Risk to the safety of others

198
Q

What different sections can be applied using the mental health act?

A
Section 2 up to 28 days
Section 3 up to 6 months
Section 5 (2) up to 72 hr
Section 5 (4) up to 6 hr
Section 17 temporary leave from hospital
Section 17 A Community Treatment Order
Section 117 after care discharge plans
Section 136 police holding powers
199
Q

What is a section 2?

A

Allows a person to be admitted to hospital for an assessment
Duration – 28 Days maximum
Section 2 cannot be renewed
Application by Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP)
Nearest relative can discharge
Approved Clinician can bar the discharge

200
Q

What is a section 3?

A

Allows a person to be admitted to hospital for treatment
Duration – up to 6 months and can be renewed
Application by Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP)
or nearest relative
Treatment plan needs to be recorded in the recommendation

201
Q

What are risk factors for mental health issues in people with learning difficulties?

A

Genetic: Behavioural phenotypes, Schizophrenia: Velo-cardio-
facial syndrome, Alzheimers disease: Down syndrome, Brain structural abnormalities, Epilepsy, Sensory Impairments, Abnormal Thyroid function, Medication, Speech-Language difficulties
Social: Adverse environments, Lack of social support, Poverty, Unemployment, Dependency on family/carers, Abuse – physical, sexual, financial
Psychological: Impaired intelligence, Poor problem solving, Lower stress tolerance, Immature defence mechanisms, Lack of emotional support Dysfunctional coping strategies, Low self esteem

202
Q

What are the axis in the multi axial formulation for learning disabilities?

A

Axis I - Severity of Learning Disability
Axis II - Associated medical conditions
Axis III - Psychiatric Disorders (including Autistic Spectrum disorders)
Axis IV - Assessment of Psychosocial Disability
Axis V - Abnormal Psychosocial Situations

203
Q

What is autism?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorder
Diagnosed by symptoms occurring in 3 areas: Language Use, Social interaction, Interest and routines
Onset before the age of 3

204
Q

What are causes of autism?

A

Strong genetic component
Association with affective disorders
Associated with multiple genetic syndromes e.g. Tuberous Sclerosis / Fagile X syndrome
Any other insult to brain

205
Q

What comorbidities can often go alongside learning disabilities?

A
Epilepsy –particularly in children 
Atypical Psychotic illness – depression, anxiety, OCD, cyclical mood disorders
Substance misuse 
Sexual health – especially females
Eating disorders
Sensory processing difficulties
206
Q

What is the management strategy for people with learning disabilities who suffer from mental health problems?

A
Primarily Psycho- social
Supported Accommodation
Supported occupation 
Social skills group
Social support (buddy)
Treat co morbidity 
Mediator
207
Q

What is the kindling phenomenon of alcohol withdrawal?

A

An increasing sensitisation so that each repeated alcohol withdrawal becomes progressively more severe

208
Q

What are symptoms of alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

A
Tremor of tongue, eyelids, or outstretched hands
Sweating
Nausea, retching or vomiting
Tachycardia or hypertension
Psychomotor agitation
Headache
Insomnia
Malaise or weakness
Transient visual, tactile, auditory hallucinations or illusions
Grand mal convulsions
209
Q

What are the main complications of alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

A
Delirium Tremens
Alcohol Withdrawal Seizures
Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium (DTs)
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
Re-feeding syndrome and other vitamin deficiencies
210
Q

What are symptoms of delirium tremens?

A

Develop over a short period of time
Clouding of consciousness and fluctuating cognitions
Delusions, confusion, inattention and disorientation
Hallucinations: visual, auditory, tactile
Paranoid ideation / suspiciousness / combativeness/fear
Agitation and sleep disturbances
Autonomic hyperactivity

211
Q

How do you treat delirium tremens?

A

Diazepam 10-20mg every 30mins
IV lorazepam 1-2mg every 30 mins
Haloperidol/Olanzapine/Risperidone
Pabrinex TDS

212
Q

Why are alcoholics thiamine deficient?

A

Poor diet
Decreased absorption
Decreased hepatic storage
Increased demand

213
Q

What is the classic symptom triad for wernicke korsakoff syndrome?

A

Mental impairment
Ataxia
Ophthalmoplegia

214
Q

What are the criteria for a diagnosis of alcohol dependence?

A

3 or more present during past year:
A strong desire or compulsion to take alcohol
Difficulties in controlling the use of alcohol
Neglect of alternative interests due to alcohol use
Persisting with alcohol use despite evidence of harmful consequences
Tolerance to the effects of alcohol
Withdrawal symptoms

215
Q

What are the 12 steps of AA?

A

We admitted we were powerless over alcohol - that our
lives had become unmanageable
Came to believe that a power greater than ourselves could
restore us to sanity
Made a decision to turn our will and our lives over to the
care of God as we understood Him
Made a searching and fearless moral inventory of ourselves
Admitted to God, to ourselves and to another human being the exact nature of our wrongs
Were entirely ready to have God remove all these defects of character
Humbly asked Him to remove our shortcomings
Made a list of all persons we had harmed, and became willing to make amends to them all
Made direct amends to such people wherever possible, except when to do so would injure them or others
Continued to take personal inventory and when we were wrong promptly admitted it
Sought through prayer and meditation to improve our conscious contact with God as we understood Him, praying only for knowledge of His will for us and the power to carry that out
Having had a spiritual awakening as the result of these steps, we tried to carry this message to alcoholics and to practice these principles in all our affairs

216
Q

What are definitions of mild, moderate and severe alcohol dependence according to severity of alcohol dependence questionnaire?

A

Mild dependence = Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ) score 15 or less
Moderate dependence = SADQ score of 15–30
Severe dependence = SADQ score of 31 or more

217
Q

What is binge drinking?

A

Eight or more units of alcohol per day for men

Six or more for women

218
Q

What pharmacological interventions can be used for alcohol problems?

A

DETOXIFICATION REGIMES: Chlordiazepoxide
PREVENTION OF COMPLICATIONS: Thiamine, Vitamin B Compound Strong, Pabrinex
MAINTENANCE OF ABSTINENCE: Acamprosate, Disulfiram, Naltrexone

219
Q

What should be done to manage people who misuse alcohol and have comorbid depression or anxiety disorders?

A

Treat the alcohol misuse first
If depression or anxiety continues after 3 to 4 weeks of abstinence from alcohol, assess the depression or anxiety and consider referral and treatment

220
Q

What are some psychosocial interventions for alcohol misuse?

A
Brief Interventions
Motivational Interviewing
Alcohol Counselling
CBT
Relapse Prevention
AA
221
Q

What is motivational interviewing?

A

Directive, patient-centred counselling style that aims to help patients explore and resolve their ambivalence about behaviour change. Combines elements of style (warmth and empathy) with technique (focused reflective listening and the development of discrepancy)
Patient’s motivation to change is enhanced if there is a gentle process of negotiation in which the patient, not the practitioner, articulates the benefits and costs involve
Conflict is unhelpful and that a collaborative relationship between therapist and patient, in which they tackle the problem together, is essential

222
Q

What are treatment approaches to addiction?

A

ABSTINENCE BASED APPROACH: Detoxification, Rehabilitation - Community/Residential
HARM REDUCTION APPROACH: safer sex and injecting, Needle/syringe exchange programme - injecting drug users more likely to experience some drug related harm, Available from a number of community settings including CDTs, community pharmacies
RECOVERY OREINTED APPROACH

223
Q

Which drugs are recommended as options for maintenance therapy in the management of opioid dependence?

A

Methadone

Buprenorphine

224
Q

Which drug is recommended as a treatment option in detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people?

A

Naltrexone

225
Q

Who can be given naloxone as a take home therapy?

A

Currently using illicit opiates, such as heroin
Receiving opioid substitution therapy
Leaving prison with a history of drug use
Previously used opiate drugs (to protect in the event of relapse)

226
Q

Mental or physical illness can be the cause of aggression. Name 3 other causes

A

Frustration, learned behaviour, communication issues/ deficit,
attitudes/behaviour of others, personality, social/ relationship issues

227
Q

Name 3 precipitating factors for aggression on a psychiatric ward

A

Mental illness esp. psychotic symptoms, boredom/ lack of
therapeutic activities, drugs/ alcohol intoxication/withdrawal, disagreement with staff or other patients, restricted freedom, personal factors

228
Q

Name 3 strategies that ward staff can implement to reduce the risks of aggression

A
Managing own emotions so not provoked into unwise 
reactions
Getting support and supervision
Therapeutic activities
Get to know patients as people
Better environment
Consistent approach from staff due to clinical leadership
Help people sort out social issues
Risk assessments
Restrict access to certain items
Observation levels
Safe staffing levels
229
Q

Name 3 signs of agitation

A

Signs of arousal- increased activity, pacing, loud speech,

breathing fast, flushing, tachycardia, making strong eye contact

230
Q

Name 3 ways of de-escalating a situation with an agitated or aggressive patient

A

Help resolve issue, relaxation, drink, personal space, clear communication, keep calm, acknowledge how they feel,
separate them from others especially antagonists

231
Q

If de-escalation fails to resolve the situation, what 3

physical interventions can be used to prevent harm to the patient and/or others?

A

Restraint, medication, seclusion

232
Q

Name 3 pre-existing factors that increase the risk of violence in people with a mental illness

A

Male, young age, history of violence, substance or alcohol misuse, learning disability, Autism

233
Q

Name 3 psychiatric symptoms that can lead to increased risk of violence

A

Threat/control override symptoms – passivity, command hallucinations; impulsivity; grandiosity/mania

234
Q

What 3 types of medication can be considered for reduction of agitation?

A

Benzodiazepines
Antipsychotics
Antihistamines

235
Q

After rapid tranquilisation what monitoring needs to be done?

A

Consciousness level
Resp rate
Sats every 15 mins

236
Q

Name 3 physical causes of agitation

A
Pain
Constipation
Urinary retention
Dehydration
Hyperthyroidism
Hypoglycaemia
Drug intoxication
Medication side effects eg steroids
Neurological disorder eg epilepsy
SOL
CVA
237
Q

What does nice guidance recommend for management of acute depressive episode in bipolar disorder?

A

Fluoxetine and olanzapine combined or
Quetiapine
If already on lithium/sodium valproate, increase or optimise this before considering additional medication

238
Q

What is the management of generalised anxiety disorder?

A

Step 1: education about GAD and active monitoring
Step 2: low intensity psychological interventions (self help, psychoeducational groups)
Step 3: high intensity psychological interventions (CBT, applied relaxation). Sertraline
Step 4: specialist input

239
Q

What is the management of panic disorder?

A

Step 1: recognition and diagnosis
Step 2: CBT/SSRI
Step 3: consider imipramine or clomipramine (TCA)
Step 4: referral to specialist

240
Q

What are poor prognostic features in schizophrenia?

A
Strong FH
Gradual onset
Low IQ
Premorbid Hx of social withdrawal
Lack of obvious precipitant
241
Q

How should benzos be withdrawn?

A

1/8 dose decrease every fortnight

242
Q

What are features of benzo withdrawal?

A
Insomnia
Irritability
Anxiety
Tremor
Loss of appetite
Tinnitus
Perspiration
Perceptual disturbance
Seizures
243
Q

What is the difference between benzos and barbiturates?

A

Benzos increase frequency of chloride channel opening

Barbiturates increase duration of chloride channel opening

244
Q

What should be done for patients diagnosed with mild depression?

A

Period of active monitoring
Provide info on nature and course of depression
Arrange follow up, normally within 2 weeks
If this persists, consider psychological intervention - IAPT
Consider citalopram, fluoxetine, paroxetine or sertraline

245
Q

What things are raised in anorexia nervosa?

A
Growth hormone
Glucose
Salivary glands
Cortisol
Cholesterol
Carotinaemia
246
Q

Which psychotherpapies can be useful in schizophrenia to reduce relapse rates?

A

CBT

Family therapy

247
Q

Which foods should be avoided when taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors?

A

Food containing high levels of tyramine
Aged cheeses
Alcoholic drinks
Yeast extracts such as marmite and bovril

248
Q

What is a cheese reaction with MAOIs?

A

Tyramine displaces noradrenaline from pre synaptic vesicles flooding the synaptic cleft
It’s breakdown is inhibited by MAOI
This leads to severe HTN, tachycardia, flushing

249
Q

What is a good way to manage acute opioid withdrawal in patients who are actively using heroin?

A

Titrate codeine to effect

Can be given in 30-60mg doses and repeated every 30 mins until symptoms subside

250
Q

What biochemical changes might be seen in anorexia nervosa?

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypochloraemic alkalosis (vomiting, diuretic, laxative abuse)
Hypercholesterolaemia

251
Q

What are features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A
Young male patients
Onset in first 10 days of treatment or after increasing dose
Pyrexia 
Rigidity
Tachycardia 
Raised CK 
Leukocytosis
252
Q

What is the management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Stop antipsychotic
IV fluids to prevent renal failure
Dantrolene (ryanodine receptor blocker)
Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

253
Q

What is first line treatment for children and young people with anorexia?

A

Family based therapy

254
Q

What are features of depression?

A
Low mood
Anhedonia
Anorexia
Weight loss
Early morning wakening
Diurnal mood variation
Psychomotor retardation
Decreased libido
Poor concentration
Feelings of worthlessness/guilt
Thoughts of death or suicide
Delusions or hallucinations of death or worthlessness
255
Q

Which other conditions may be associated with depression?

A

Other mental illness: bipolar, schizophrenia, anxiety
Chronic disease: cancer, diabetes, cardiac failure, COPD etc
Medical conditions: hypothyroidism, Addison’s, perimenopausal

256
Q

What are features of atypical depression?

A

Vegetative symptoms: weight gain, increased appetite, hypersomnolence
Catatonic symptoms: leaden limbs, social impairment
Mood: may lighten with positive events

257
Q

What are management options for alcohol abuse?

A

Self directed therapy
Group psychotherapy and self help e.g. AA
Medical: disulfiram, acamprosate
Education/counselling and admission for detox using sliding scale benzodiazepine

258
Q

What is alcohol abuse?

A

Continued drinking harms a person physically, mentally, socially or financially
For example being made unemployed, ending relationships, getting into debt