Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

What is child abuse?

A

Action by another person that causes significant harm to a child in a given culture in a given time

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2
Q

What are the different categories of abuse?

A

Physical
Emotional
Neglect
Sexual

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3
Q

Who has responsibility for child protection?

A

Everyone

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4
Q

What is a serious case review?

A

When child either dies or is seriously harmed after previous involvement with social services/police

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5
Q

If you find that a child under 13 is having sex what should you do?

A

Sexual intercourse under age of 13 - statutory rape and must be referred to social services

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6
Q

What is a CSE screening tool?

A

Child sexual exploitation screening tool

Enable professionals to assess child’s (under 18) level of risk of CSE in a quick and consistent manner

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7
Q

What are deemed to be high risk behaviours when using the child sexual exploitation screening tool?

A
Internet use
Financial rewards
Adult mobile phone apps
Episodes of going missing
Socially adverse circumstances
High risk locations
New friends
Older relationships
Drug and alcohol misuse
Gum clinic attendances
Pregnancies
STIs
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8
Q

Which medical condition could be confused for a cigarette burn in a child?

A

Bullous impetigo

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9
Q

How should you escalate things if you are worried about a child protection issue?

A
Discuss with senior
Discuss with Paeds
Discuss with social care
Documentation
Communication
Photographs
Body maps
Re-examination at later date
Consider differences of opinion
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10
Q

What is a common assessment framework?

A

Structured approach to supporting the family of a child
Allows input from a variety of services
May avoid need for more formal child protection procedures

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11
Q

What are the 3 sides of the CAF triangle?

A

Child’s developmental needs: health, education, identity
Parenting capacity: stimulation, ensuring safety, guidance and boundaries
Family and environmental factors: housing, employment, family’s social integration

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12
Q

A male neonate is reviewed on the postnatal ward eight hours after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 38 weeks gestation. The paediatrician notices that his sclerae and skin appear yellow. Give causes of neonatal jaundice relevant to this patient

A
Rhesus haemolytic disease 
ABO incompatibility
G6PD deficiency 
Congenital spherocytosis 
Sepsis - TORCH infections
Gilbert's syndrome
Crigler-Nijar syndrome
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13
Q

What is the most important immediate blood test which will help determine management in a case of neonatal jaundice?

A

Bilirubin levels - conjugated/unconjugated

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14
Q

A male neonate is reviewed on the postnatal ward eight hours after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 38 weeks gestation. The paediatrician notices that his sclerae and skin appear yellow. List investigations that should be requested in this patient to help determine the cause of the jaundice?

A
Bilirubin 
FBC
Blood film
Blood group - ABO
Rhesus status
Direct antiglobulin/Coombs test
LFTs 
G6PD enzyme test
Blood culture
Urine dipstick/MC and S
Viral serology - TORCH/hepatitis
TORCH screen
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15
Q

Give interventions for managing neonatal jaundice. How would you decide which of these to use?

A

Phototherapy
Exchange transfusion
Plot bilirubin levels and look at relationship to nomogram/treatment lines

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16
Q

What serious complication of neonatal jaundice may develop if left untreated?

A

Kernicterus (bilirubin encephalopathy)

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17
Q

What do you look for on observation of an infant in a neuro examination?

A

Posture: flexed? Frog-like? Extended? Asymmetrical?
Supine: moving all 4 limbs against gravity, tremors, hand clenching, thumb adduction, rhythmic mouthing, cycling or swimming movements of the limbs?
Ventral Suspension and Pull to Sit/Stand
Hand regard and playing with feet. Visually active?
Attempting to roll? Any abnormal movement / muscle wasting etc?

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18
Q

What do you need to examine in an infant top to toe exam of the head in a neuro exam?

A

Palpate head (Fontanelles, Sutures) and consider shape
Plot head circumference on a centile chart, Compare with previous measures- micro or macrocephaly?
Signs of Meningism (often subtle in younger children/infants)
Eyes: visually alert, fixes and follows, any nystagmus/squint/cataract? Reactive to light? Ptosis?
Face: Dysmorphism, facial asymmetry. Any reciprocal smile? Cleft
palate?
Vocalising and cooing? Turning towards noise?

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19
Q

What neuro cutaneous stigmata might you look for in an infant neuro exam?

A

Depigmented patches
Café-au-lait spots
Trigeminal port-wine stain

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20
Q

By when should the Moro reflex integrate?

A

2 to 4 months

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21
Q

By when should the rooting reflex integrate?

A

3 to 4 months

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22
Q

By when should the palmer reflex integrate?

A

5 to 6 months

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23
Q

By when should the ATNR reflex integrate?

A

6 months

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24
Q

By when should the spinal gallant reflex integrate?

A

3 to 9 months

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25
Q

By when should the TNR reflex integrate?

A

3 and a half years

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26
Q

By when should the landau reflex integrate?

A

1 year

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27
Q

By when should the STNR reflex integrate?

A

9 to 11 months

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28
Q

What is the palmer reflex?

A

Palmar grasp - primitive

When object placed in infants hand and strokes palm, fingers close and they grasp it

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29
Q

What is the ATNR reflex?

A

Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

Fencing reflex - face turned to one side when lying on back - arm and leg on same side extend, opposite arm and leg flex

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30
Q

What is the spinal galant reflex?

A

Baby curves hip outward if lower back stroked next to spine

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31
Q

What is the TLR reflex?

A

Tonic labyrinthine reflex
Supine- Titling head back while lying on back causes back to stiffen and arch backwards, legs straighten stiffen and push together, toes point, arms bend at elbows and wrists and hands become fisted
Prone - hip knee flexion with shoulder protraction and further flexion

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32
Q

What is the landau reflex?

A

Hold baby in air in prone position

Maintain convex arc with head raised and legs slightly flexed

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33
Q

What is the STNR reflex?

A

Symmetrical tonic neck reflex
Important in transition from lying on floor
When head flexes, arms flex, legs extend
When head extends, arms extend and legs flex

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34
Q

What do you assess in the limbs in a neuro exam of an infant?

A

Look for asymmetry in tone, bulk and power
Assess by degree of elbow and knee flexion during arm and leg traction. Note the speed of recoil
Look for coordination and function during play and use of objects
Examine hips for increased adductor tone
Look for clonus: sudden stretching on hypertonic muscle produces reflex contraction- a measure of reflex excitability

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35
Q

What do you assess in the neck and trunk in a neuro exam of an infant?

A

Head control is assessed by the ability to return the head to
the vertical after allowing it to fall forwards and then back in asitting position. Assess head control
Assess flexor and extensor muscles when pulling to sit and in ventral suspension
Is posture developmentally appropriate for age?

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36
Q

What primitive and postural reflexes are assessed for in an infant neuro exam?

A
Suck
Rooting
Grasp
Moro
Asymmetrical tonic neck
Plantar
Stepping
Parachute
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37
Q

What are key areas of a paediatric history?

A

Antenatal
Birth history
Developmental history
Family history

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38
Q

What are important parts of a general examination in a child?

A
Head circumference - parents and child
Distinctive features - dysmorphism, special needs
Assess growth - height and weight
Skin - neurocutaneous markers, scars 
Eye - movements, asymmetry, red reflex, squint, vascular lesions 
Spine - scoliosis, scars
Abdomen - scars, organomegaly 
Equipment/aids
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39
Q

What are important examination assessments in a newborn?

A
Head circumference and shape
Posture 
Movement 
Limb and truncal tone 
Reflexes and neuro behaviour - sleep/cry/feeding/interaction
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40
Q

What further assessment should be done for a neuro exam in an infant?

A

Any hand dominance?
Can the infant support weight when prone?
Check spine for kyphoscoliosis, meningomyelocoele, sacral pit, tuft of hair
Can the infant weight bear? Crawl, Cruise? Walk with support?
Do the findings match with the child’s chronological and expected developmental age in all areas?

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41
Q

What are common CNS causes of hypotonia in a child?

A
Chromosome disorders i.e. Prader-Willi
Metabolic diseases
Spinal cord injuries
Cerebral dysgenesis 
Hypoxic ischaemia injuries
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42
Q

What are common nerve causes of hypotonia in a child?

A

Congenital hypomyelinating neuropathy
Familial dysautonomia
Infantile neuraxonal degeneration

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43
Q

What are common neuromuscular junction causes of hypotonia?

A

Congenital and transient myasthenia gravis

Infantile botulism

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44
Q

What are common muscle causes of hypotonia?

A

Muscular dystrophies
Metabolic myopathies
Central core disease/ fibre myopathies

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45
Q

If a baby is floppy and strong, where is the problem?

A

Central nervous system

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46
Q

If a baby is floppy and weak where is the problem?

A

Peripheral nervous system

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47
Q

What are important aspects in a history of a floppy baby?

A
Reduced foetal movements
Polyhydramnios
Needing prolonged resuscitation/artificial ventilation
Poor feeding/choking/aspiration
Poor cry
Poor movements
Alert/not alert
Fasciculations
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48
Q

With a central nervous system problem causing a floppy baby, what signs might you find?

A
Increased tendon reflexes
Extensor plantar response
Sustained ankle clonus 
Global developmental delay 
Microcephaly/dysmorphism
Prolonged seizures
Axial weakness
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49
Q

What could be some causes of a central nervous system problem leading to a floppy baby?

A
Hypoxic ishaemic encephalopathy 
Hypoglycaemia 
Down's syndrome
Prader-Willi syndrome
Cerebral malformations
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50
Q

With a peripheral nervous system problem causing a floppy baby, what signs might you find?

A
Hypo-areflexia
Selective motor delay
Normal head circumference and growth
Preserved social interaction
Weakness of limbs 
Low pitched weak cry
Tongue fasciculations
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51
Q

What could be some causes of a peripheral nervous system problem leading to a floppy baby?

A
Congenital myopathy
Myotonic dystrophy
Myasthenia gravis 
Motor sensory neuropathy
Spinal muscular atrophy
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52
Q

What additional assessments need to be done in a neuro exam of an older child?

A
Cerebellar function 
Gowers test 
Test sensation
Cognitive functioning
Cranial nerves
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53
Q

What is gowers sign?

A

Weakness of proximal muscles

Patient has to use arms to walk up their body from squatting position due to lack of hip and thigh strength

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54
Q

What might you look for around the room when assessing a child’s neuro status?

A
Mobility aids
Splints
Oxygen
Suction
Feed pump
Medication 
Drips
Orthotic boots 
Wheelchair 
Glasses
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55
Q

If a child is sitting in a wheelchair what should you assess on general inspection?

A
Posture - flexed or extended
Central/truncal tone
Head position/support
Type of wheelchair
Attachments
Communication aids
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56
Q

What do you look for in an examination of lower limb neuro in a child?

A
Posture - adducted and extended, frog leg, short leg adducted
Scars - tendon releases
Muscle bulk - wasting, inverted champagne bottle, high foot arch, calf hypertrophy
Skin - neuro cutaneous markers
Symmetry - limb hypertrophy 
Spine
Tone
Clonus 
Power
Reflexes 
Sensation 
Pain and temp
Light touch and proprioception 
Gait
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57
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

Primary abnormality of movement and posture secondary to non progressive lesion of developing brain

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58
Q

What are the different types of cerebral palsy? Where is the problem?

A

Ataxic - cerebellum
Spastic - pyramidal system
Dyskinetic - separated into athetoid and dystonic - basal ganglia

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59
Q

What is the GMFCS?

A

Gross motor function classification system
Get an idea of how self sufficient a child can be at home, school etc
Head control, movement transition, walking, gross motor skills
Levels 1 (normal) to 5 (transported in manual wheelchair in all settings)

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60
Q

What problems are associated with cerebral palsy?

A
Motor - gross and fine
Vision and hearing
Speech
Epilepsy 
Feeding
Gastro oesophageal reflux
Constipation/incontinence
Secondary disability - hips, spine, arthritis 
Learning disabilities
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61
Q

What are treatment aims for cerebral palsy?

A

Treat spasticity - physio, systemic local and intrathecal drugs, orthopaedic surgery, nerve and spinal root surgery
Treat associated problems
Enhance quality of life

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62
Q

What is an epileptic seizure?

A

Transient occurrence of signs/symptoms, result of a primary change to electrical activity, abnormally excessive or synchronous, in the brain

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63
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Recurrent unprovoked seizures due to abnormal hyper-synchronous discharge of cortical neurons

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64
Q

What are differential diagnoses for epilepsy?

A
Dystopia 
Movement disorder
Febrile seizure
Non epileptic event
Vaso vagal syncope 
Reflex anoxic seizures 
Cardiac arrhythmia 
Sleep associated disorders
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65
Q

What are different classifications of generalised seizures?

A
Myoclonic
Atonic
Tonic
Tonic clonic
Infantile spasms
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66
Q

What are causes of epilepsy?

A
Genetic 
Structural 
Metabolic
Immune
Infectious 
Unknown
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67
Q

What factors are important in an epilepsy history?

A

DESSCRIBE
Description
Epileptic or non epileptic
Seizure type - focal or generalised, behaviour change, sensory
Syndrome - age of onset, clinical features, EEG
Cause
Relevant - impairment, behaviour, education

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68
Q

What is important in a history when you are getting a patient to describe their epilepsy episodes?

A
Witnessed
When, where, how long
Before, during, after
LOC
Limb jerking movements, which muscle groups
Have they happened before, were they the same
Triggers
Prodromal period hours or days before
Aura immediately preceding
Residual muscle weakness 
Tongue biting
Bladder/bowel incontinence
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69
Q

What are other key questions in a child with epilepsy to evaluate other differentials?

A
Family history of early adult death
Palpitations
Headache
Vomiting 
Paraesthesia
Regression of skills
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70
Q

What is childhood absence epilepsy? What are the features?

A
Vacant episodes sometimes associated with eye flickering 
Abrupt start and stop 
No post event drowsiness
Brief - 5 to 15 secs 
Occur in clusters
Precipitated by hyperventilation
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71
Q

In which age of child is childhood absence epilepsy least prevalent?

A

Uncommon before 5 years old

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72
Q

What will an EEG show in childhood absence epilepsy?

A

3/sec spike and wave

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73
Q

What are differentials for absence seizures?

A

Day dreaming

Behavioural

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74
Q

What is treatment for childhood absence epilepsy?

A

Sodium valproate

Ethosuximide

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75
Q

What is prognosis for childhood absence epilepsy?

A

Rapid remission with treatment in 80% children

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76
Q

What is west syndrome?

A

Severe epilepsy syndrome composed of triad of infantile spasms, an interictal electroencephalogram (EEG) pattern of hypsarrhythmia (chaotic background), and mental retardation

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77
Q

What is the age of onset of west syndrome?

A

3 to 12 months

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78
Q

What is an infantile spasm?

A

Sudden generalised symmetrical contractions of muscles of limb (extensor), trunk (flexor) and neck occurring in clusters lasting 0.2-2 secs

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79
Q

What are causes of west syndrome?

A
Hypoxic ishaemic encephalopathy 
Infections
Acquired brain injury 
Cortical malformations 
Tuberous sclerosis
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80
Q

What is the treatment for west syndrome?

A

Steroid
Vigabatrin
Multiple anti epileptic medications
Ketogenic diet

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81
Q

What is the prognosis for west syndrome?

A

Poor with developmental delay/neurological impairment

Spasms resolve with treatment but other seizure types develop

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82
Q

What is juvenile absence epilepsy?

A

Absence seizures with age of onset of 9-13 years
3-4Hz spike wave on EEG
Generalised tonic clonic seizures may occur

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83
Q

What is juvenile myoclonic epilepsy? What does EEG show?

A

Characterised by myoclonic seizures that occur most commonly after waking, age of onset 5-20+ years
Absence and generalised tonic clonic seizures may occur in between 50-80% of people with JME
EEG shows 3-6Hz generalised polyspike and wave activity

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84
Q

What is benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes?

A

Rolandic epilepsy
5-14 years onset
Characterised by focal motor and secondary generalised seizures, majority from sleep in otherwise normal individual with centrotemportal spikes on EEG

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85
Q

What investigations can be done to evaluate epilepsy?

A
Witnessed history
Video
Diary of episodes
Investigations of other causes
Bloods: baseline, genetics, metabolic
ECG
EEG
MRI
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86
Q

What are treatments for epilepsy?

A

Anti epileptic medication
Ketogenic diet
Vagal nerve stimulator
Epilepsy surgery

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87
Q

What is a focal seizure?

A

Originates in networks limited to one hemisphere

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88
Q

What is a generalised seizure?

A

Originates in and rapidly engages bilaterally distributed networks

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89
Q

What is a generalised tonic clonic seizure?

A

Sudden onset involving generalised stiffening and subsequent rhythmic jerking of the limbs as a result of widespread engagement of bilateral cortical and subcritical networks

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90
Q

What is a myoclonic seizure?

A

Sudden brief and almost shock like involuntary single or multiple jerks due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity associated with poly spikes on EEG

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91
Q

What is a tonic seizure?

A

Abrupt generalised muscle stiffening possibly causing a fall
Usually lasts 2-10 secs

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92
Q

What is an atonic seizure?

A

Generalised seizure characterised by sudden onset of loss of muscle tone

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93
Q

What is a febrile seizure?

A

Seizure precipitated by fever without evidence of cns infection or another defined cause
Onset 6 months to 6 years
Usually brief, generalised, tonic clonic

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94
Q

What is todds paresis associated with in febrile seizures?

A

Higher risk of epilepsy

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95
Q

What are differentials for a febrile seizure?

A

Meningitis

Meningo encephalitis

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96
Q

What are treatments for febrile seizures?

A

Treat the focus
Reassurance
Parent education
Control temp with anti pyretics and cooling measures

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97
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

Any seizure lasting duration of 30 mins or repeated seizures lasting 30 mins or longer from which the patient doesn’t regain consciousness

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98
Q

In which patients are convulsive status episodes most common?

A

Children and those over 60

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99
Q

Why does injury to the brain occur in status epilepticus?

A

Underlying disorder
Systemic complications of the convulsions - hypoxia from airway obstruction and acidosis when hypotension occurs
Direct injury from repetitive neuronal discharge

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100
Q

What areas of the brain can be damaged by status epilepticus?

A
Hippocampus
Amygdala
Cerebellum
Thalamus 
Cerebral cortex
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101
Q

What is management of status epilepticus?

A

ABC - check BM and treat if less than 3
Oxygen
Vascular access: midazolam/diazepam/lorazepam. Repeat after 5 mins. If no response after 5 mins - phenytoin or phenobarbital. Wait 20 mins if no response, rapid sequence induction with thiopentone or propofol
No vascular access: midazolam IM, buccal or intranasal. Repeat after 10 mins. If no response after 10 mins, paraldehyde PR. Then rapid sequence induction
Call outreach team for PICU
Reassess ABC
Monitor for respiratory depression post benzo
Regular neuro obs and monitor glucose
Restrict fluids to 60% of maintenance and monitor urine output
Consider NG to aspirate stomach contents
Consider CT head

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102
Q

What are complications of status epilepticus?

A
Airway obstruction
Hypoxia
Aspiration
Respiratory depression secondary to excess benzodiazepines
Cardiac arrhythmias
Pulmonary oedema 
Hyperthermia 
Hypertension 
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
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103
Q

What factors effect choice of medication in epilepsy?

A
Seizure type
Epilepsy syndrome
Co medication and co morbidity 
Lifestyle
Child and family preferences
Monotherapy wherever possible 
Formulations
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104
Q

When should anticonvulsants be initiated? And how?

A

If diagnosis of epilepsy established
After discussion of potential side effects and management plan
Discuss SUDEP - sudden unexpected death in epilepsy
Start at subtherapeutic dose and increase slowly in 1-2 week intervals until therapeutic window
Monitor response 3-12 monthly

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105
Q

When can you withdraw epilepsy medication?

A

Wean treatment after 2-3 years seizure freedom
Drugs gradually withdrawn over last 2-3 months by reducing daily dose by 10-25% at intervals of 1-2 weeks
Benzos may take longer

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106
Q

What are side effects of anti epileptic drugs?

A
GI side effects
Allergic rash 
Severe immune reactions - SJS
Weight gain /loss
Behavioural
Liver/renal toxicity 
Tremors
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107
Q

The 4 month old baby daughter of a HIV positive mother is admitted with seizures. She has neonatal jaundice and microcephaly. What has caused this?

A

Cytomegalovirus

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108
Q

What might be some features of cytomegalovirus inclusion disease?

A
Microcephaly 
Seizures
Neonatal jaundice
Hepatosplenomegaly 
Deafness 
Mental retardation
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109
Q

What is Ebsteins anomaly? How does it present?

A

Congenital heart defect where septal and posterior leaflets of tricuspid valve displaced towards apex of right ventricle
Large right atrium, small right ventricle
S3 and S4 heart sounds
Systolic murmur along left lower sternal border
Wolff Parkinson white syndrome often accompanies

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110
Q

Which drug taken by a mother whilst pregnant may contribute to the baby developing Ebsteins anomaly?

A

Lithium

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111
Q

If spontaneous closure of a patent ductus arteriosus does not occur, when is surgical closure recommended?

A

Between 6 months to 1 year

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112
Q

Up to what size of ASD may spontaneously close without intervention?

A

8mm

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113
Q

If a child with a congenital heart defect is described as squatting, what do they likely have?

A

Tetralogy of fallot

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114
Q

Why do children with tetralogy of fallot squat?

A

Squatting increases peripheral vascular resistance so decreases magnitude of right to left shunt across VSD and therefore increase pulmonary blood flow

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115
Q

What are the four abnormalities in tetralogy of fallot?

A

VSD
Overriding aorta
Right ventricular outflow obstuction - pulmonary stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy

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116
Q

What causes right ventricular outflow tract obstruction in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Failure of rotation by pulmonary artery during its development
Causes infundibular obstruction - entrance to pulmonary artery just before valve

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117
Q

Why is dyspnoea and cyanosis much worse on exertion in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction is variable because of its infundibular nature
Tissue below pulmonary valve is muscular so responds to sympathetic stimulation
This can cause it to contact during exertion and so worsen the obstruction
This increases the flow of deoxygenated blood across the VSD and up the left ventricular outflow tract

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118
Q

What happens to the murmur in tetralogy of fallot during cyanotic episodes (tet spells)?

A

Murmur becomes quieter or disappear as there is reduced flow across the stenosed valve as more blood is shunted through the VSD

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119
Q

What is a boot shaped heart sign (coeur en sabot) indicative of?

A

Tetralogy of fallot

Product of small pulmonary tree and enlarged right ventricle

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120
Q

What is Eisenmengers syndrome?

A

Process in which a long standing left to right cardiac shunt caused by congenital heart defect (VSD, ASD or PDA) causes pulmonary HTN and eventually a reversal of the shunt into a cyanotic right to left shunt

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121
Q

What factors imply significant shunting across a VSD?

A

Heart failure
Pulmonary plethora
Mid diastolic murmur due to increased flow across the mitral valve
Loud second heart sound

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122
Q

Give some causes of neonatal goitre

A

Maternal drugs: carbimazole, iodine containing compounds
Pendreds syndrome: bilateral hearing loss and goitre
Maternal Graves: passage of TSH antibodies across placenta

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123
Q

Which is the most common congenital obstruction of the stomach and intestines?

A

Pyloric stenosis

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124
Q

What is the incidence of pyloric stenosis?

A

1 in 400

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125
Q

Is pyloric stenosis more common in males or females?

A

Males - 4/5x more common

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126
Q

What is the main presenting complaint with pyloric stenosis?

A

Projectile vomiting starting in 2/3rd week of life

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127
Q

What causes pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of antrum of stomach

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128
Q

What electrolyte abnormality might present in pyloric stenosis?

A

Hyponatraemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypochloraemia
Metabolic acidosis

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129
Q

A 4 day old boy has failed to pass meconium and has a distended abdomen. What would be on your differential list?

A

Hirschsprung’s disease
Anorectal malformations: imperforate anus, colonic atresia, colonic stenosis
Meconium plug/Small left colon syndrome
Hypoganglionosis
Neuronal intestinal dysplasia
Megacystis-microcolon-intestinal hypoperistalsis syndrome

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130
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Congential aganglionic section of colon that starts at anus and progresses upwards
Children present with bowel obstruction in first few weeks of life

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131
Q

What is meconium plug syndrome?

A

Functional colonic obstruction in a newborn due to an obstructing meconium plug

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132
Q

What is Hypoganglionsosis?

A

Reduced number of nerves in the intestinal wall

May present like Hirschsprung’s disease

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133
Q

What is Neuroal intestinal dysplasia?

A

Problem with the motor neurons that lead to the intestine, inhibiting this process and thus preventing digestion
May present like Hirschsprung’s disease

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134
Q

What is Berdon syndrome?

A

Megacystis-microcolon-intestinal hypoperistalsis syndrome
Constipation and urinary retention, microcolon, giant bladder (megacystis), intestinal hypoperistalis, hydronephrosis, and dilated small bowel
Abundance of ganglion cells in both dilated and narrow areas of the intestine

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135
Q

A 1 year old girl has presented with severe cramping abdominal pain. She has passed a stool mixed with blood and mucus. On examination there is a sausage shaped mass in the upper abdomen. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Intussusception

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136
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Telescoping of one portion of the bowel into an immediately adjacent segment

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137
Q

What is the commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years?

A

Intussusception

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138
Q

A 15 year old boy has presented with weight loss and increasing bowel frequency and diarrhoea. On examination he has apthous ulcers and perianal fistulae. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Crohn’s disease

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139
Q

What are characteristics of achondroplasia?

A
Macrocephaly
Frontal bossing
Depressed nasal bridge
Rhizomelic dwarfism 
Unusually prominent abdomen and buttocks
Short hands with trident fingers during extension
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140
Q

What is McArdles disease?

A

Glycogen storage disease that results in mild lactic acidosis with exercise

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141
Q

A newborn boy presents with mild abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium after 24 hours. X-ray shows dilated bowel loops and fluid levels, the anus is normally located. What is it?

A

Hirschprungs disease

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142
Q

What is a Wilms tumour? When does it present?

A

Nephroblastoma

Usually in first 4 years of life

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143
Q

A 6 day old baby was born prematurely at 33 weeks. He has been suffering from respiratory distress syndrome and has been receiving ventilatory support on NICU. He has developed abdominal distension and is increasingly septic. Ultrasound of the abdomen shows free fluid and evidence of small bowel dilatation. His blood pressure has remained labile despite inotropic support. What is the diagnosis and how is it managed?

A

Necrotising enterocolitis and whilst this is often initially managed medically a laparotomy is required if the situation deteriorates

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144
Q

A 5-year-old child has been unwell with a sore throat and fever for several days. He progresses to develop periumbilical abdominal discomfort and passes diarrhoea. This becomes blood stained. The paediatricians call you because the ultrasound has shown a ‘target sign’. What is the diagnosis and how is it managed?

A

Intussusception. The lymphadenopathy will have initiated it. A target sign is seen on ultrasound and is the side on view of multiple layers of bowel wall. Reduction using fluoroscopy with air is the usual first line management. Ileo-colic intussceceptions are generally most reliably reduced using this method, long ileo-ileal intussceceptions usually result in surgery

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145
Q

What is the treatment for pyloric stenosis?

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy (open or laparoscopic)

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146
Q

What are red flags for speech development?

A

Loss of developmental skills at any age
No vocalising by 3 months
No babbling by 10 months
Not responding to name by 12 months

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147
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of peutz jeghers syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant

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148
Q

An 18 month old boy is referred with loss of consciousness on 6 occasions. Each was preceded by a tantrum. What is the diagnosis?

A

Blue breath holding episodes

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149
Q

What are the different types of breath holding spells?

A

Simple: no major alteration in circulation or oxygenation, spontaneous recovery
Cyanotic/blue: precipitated by anger, cries, forced expiration, loss of muscle tone, loss of consciousness
Pallid/pale: painful event, pale, loses consciousness with little or no crying
Complicated: begins as blue or pale but then associated with seizure activity

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150
Q

How does congenital adrenal hyperplasia present?

A

Vomiting
Weight loss
Dehydration
Girls with virilised genitalia

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151
Q

How does hirschsprungs disease present?

A

Constipation
Generalised abdominal distension
Rectum empty
Palpable faecal mass

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152
Q

How’s does meckels diverticulum present?

A

Rectal bleeding
Intussusception
Like appendicitis

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153
Q

How does nephroblastoma present?

A
Wilms tumour 
Abdominal pain
Vomiting 
Palpable abdominal lump
Hypertensive
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154
Q

How does neuroblastoma present?

A

Asymptomatic mass

Pallor and hypotension if it bleeds

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155
Q

What is the maximum age by which intervention should ideally be in place if a pre lingually deaf child is to acquire language in a manner as close as possible to a hearing child?

A

12 months

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156
Q

What intervention is required to correct a congenital hearing loss in a child?

A

Hearing aid fitted initially to allow available sound to be delivered to child’s developing auditory system
For children with severe-profound hearing loss for whom hearing aids are insufficient, cochlear implantation should be considered

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157
Q

Why is tetracycline contraindicated in children?

A

Side effects affecting bones and teeth discoloration and growth

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158
Q

How would salt losing congenital adrenal hyperplasia present?

A
Failure to thrive
Vomiting
Dehydration 
Shocked
Low sodium
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159
Q

What are risk factors for neonatal hearing loss?

A
Family history of hearing loss
Prematurity
Low birth weight
Neonatal jaundice
Rubella 
Non bacterial intrauterine infection
Anoxia 
Craniofacial deformity
Bacterial meningitis
Apgar score of 0-3
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160
Q

What proportion of children with born with a hearing impairment are detected by high risk screening programmes?

A

Half

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161
Q

What is the most common drug responsible for fatal poisonings in children?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

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162
Q

What causes a barking cough in children?

A

Croup

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163
Q

What is the treatment for croup?

A

Humidified oxygen

If more severe - dexamethasone

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164
Q

What are treatments for bronchiolitis?

A

Supportive: humidified oxygen and supporting feeding

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165
Q

What is McArdles disease?

A
Painful muscle cramps 
Myoglobinuria 
After intense exercise 
Autosomal recessive condition
Myophosphorylase deficiency which leads to inability to utilise glucose
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166
Q

What is chondromalacia patellae?

A

Softening of cartilage of patella
Common in teenage girls
Anterior knee pain on walking up and down stairs and rising from prolonged sitting

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167
Q

What is osgood schlatter disease?

A

Tibial apophysitis
Seen in sporty teenagers
Pain, tenderness and swelling over tibial tubercle

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168
Q

An 18 day old breast fed boy who has gained 300g since birth has no other problems but jaundice with yellow stools. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Breastfeeding jaundice

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169
Q

A 10 day old baby has shown no weight gain since birth and has jaundice associated with clay coloured stools, what is the likely diagnosis?

A

Biliary atresia

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170
Q

What is osteochondritis dissecans?

A

Pain after exercise

Intermittent swelling and locking

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171
Q

A 1 day baby born at term is noted to be developing increasing jaundice. What is the likely cause?

A

Rhesus incompatibility

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172
Q

An 8 year old boy presents with puffy eyes, ascites and scrotal swelling following an URTI. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Minimal change glomerulonephritis

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173
Q

A 4 year old child was seen in a refugee camp. He has angular stomatitis, hyperkeratosis with desquamation rash, sparse hair and ascites. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Kwashiorkor - protein energy malnutrition

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174
Q

What is Dubin Johnson syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder
Increase in conjugated bilirubin
Black liver
Defect in ability of hepatocytes to secrete conjugated bilirubin into bile due to mutation in multiple drug resistance protein 2 in canalicular membrane

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175
Q

What is rotor syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive bilirubin disorder causing increased conjugated bilirubin
Liver appears normal (in contrast to dubin Johnson)
Mutations in transport proteins so liver cannot remove bilirubin

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176
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

Reduced activity of glucuronyltransferase which conjugates bilirubin so causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

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177
Q

What is G6PD deficiency?

A

X linked recessive inborn error of metabolism predisposing to haemolysis and jaundice
Triggered by food, illness or medication
Low levels of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase which is involved in pentose phosphate pathway

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178
Q

How can G6PD deficiency manifest/be complicated?

A
Prolonged neonatal jaundice 
Kernicterus 
Haemolytic crises 
Diabetic ketoacidosis 
Acute kidney failure
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179
Q

What is favism?

A

Haemolytic response to consumption of fava beans associated with G6PD deficiency

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180
Q

What are some triggers of haemolytic crises in G6PD deficiency?

A

Fava beans
Drugs: antimalarials, sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin
Stress: bacterial or viral infection

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181
Q

What are features of Klinefelters syndrome?

A
Tall
Reduced muscle control and coordination 
Reduced secondary sexual characteristics
Gynaecomastia 
Infertility 
Microorchidism
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182
Q

What is the karyotype of klinefelters?

A

47 XXY

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183
Q

What are features of fragile x syndrome?

A
Behavioural problems 
Intellectual disability/learning difficulties 
Developmental delay 
Low muscle tone
Long narrow face, prominent ears
High palate 
Large testicles 
Mitral valve prolapse
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184
Q

What are features of Kallmanns syndrome?

A
Anosmia 
Cleft palate 
Renal agenesis/aplasia 
Failure to start or complete puberty
Lack of testicle development 
Primary amenorrhoea 
Infertility
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185
Q

What is Kallmanns syndrome?

A

Failure of hypothalamus to release GnRH at appropriate time due to GnRH releasing neurons not migrating into correct location during embryonic development
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

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186
Q

What is the most common extracutanous site for chickenpox virus in children?

A

Cerebellar ataxia

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187
Q

What is Rett syndrome?

A
Cerebroatrophic hyperammonaemia 
Post natal neurological disorder of grey matter seen in females 
Small hands and feet
Deceleration of rate of head growth 
Repetitive stereotyped hand movements 
Associated with autism
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188
Q

What is the management for a child under 3 months with a temperature of over 38?

A

Urgent referral to paediatrician

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189
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease? How does it present?

A

Absence of ganglion cells in neural plexus of intestinal wall
More common in boys than girls
Delayed passage of meconium and abdo distension

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190
Q

In who is necrotising enterocolitis more common?

A

Premature infants

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191
Q

Why does necrotising enterocolitis cause sepsis?

A

Mesenteric ischaemia causes bacterial invasion of mucosa leading to sepsis

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192
Q

Which regions of the bowel are commonly affected in necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Terminal ileum
Caecum
Distal colon

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193
Q

How does necrotising enterocolitis present?

A

Distended tense abdomen
Passage of blood and mucus per rectum
Signs of sepsis

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194
Q

Which condition is associated with meconium ileus?

A

Cystic fibrosis

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195
Q

Why does cystic fibrosis cause meconium ileus?

A

Deficient intestinal secretions leading to abnormal bulky and viscid meconium

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196
Q

How is a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis made?

A

Test feed or USS

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197
Q

What is the treatment for pyloric stenosis?

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

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198
Q

When and how does pyloric stenosis usually present?

A

4-6 weeks of life

Projectile non bile stained vomiting

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199
Q

How does intussusception usually present?

A
Child age 6-9 months 
Colicky pain
Diarrhoea and vomiting 
Sausage shaped mass
Red jelly stool
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200
Q

What is the treatment for intussusception?

A

Reduction with air insufflation

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201
Q

What is oesophageal atresia associated with?

A

Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

Polyhydramnios

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202
Q

How does biliary atresia usually present?

A

Jaundice >14 days after birth

Increased conjugated bilirubin

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203
Q

How is biliary atresia treated?

A

Urgent Kasai procedure - small intestine pulled up and used to create bile duct
Roux en Y connection of duodenum to newly inserted small bowel

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204
Q

What are causes of constipation in children?

A
Idiopathic 
Dehydration
Low fibre diet
Medications: opiates
Anal fissure
Over enthusiastic potty training
Hypothyroidism
Hirschsprung's disease 
Hypercalcaemia 
Learning disabilities
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205
Q

What are some red flags in terms of stools and constipation in children?

A

Reported from birth or first few weeks of life
Meconium passed after 48 hours
Ribbon stools
Faltering growth
Previously unknown weakness in legs, locomotor delay
Abdomen distension

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206
Q

What factors in a child suggest faecal impaction?

A

Symptoms of severe constipation
Overflow soiling
Faecal mass palpable in abdomen

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207
Q

What is the management if faecal impaction is present in a child?

A

Polyethylene glycol 3350 and electrolytes using escalating dose regimen (movicol paediatric plain)
Add stimulant laxative if not disimpacted after 2 weeks
Substitute stimulant laxative +/- osmotic laxative if MPP not tolerated
Inform family that disimpaction can initially increase symptoms of soiling and abdominal pain

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208
Q

What does WETFLAG stand for in paediatric life support?

A
Weight: 0-12 months (0.5 x age in months) +4
1-5 years (2x age) +8
6-12 years (3x age) +7
Energy: 4 joules/kg
Tube: age/4 +4
Fluids: illness 20ml/kg, trauma 10ml/kg
Lorazepam: 0.1ml/kg IV or IO
Adrenaline: 0.1ml/kg IV or IO 1:10000
Glucose: 2ml/kg 10% dextrose
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209
Q

How does step 3 of asthma management differ in children?

A

5 or over: add LABA

Under 5: add leukotriene antagonist

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210
Q

What are risk factors for neonatal meningitis?

A
Low birth weight
Prematurity 
Traumatic delivery 
Foetal hypoxia 
Maternal peripartum infection
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211
Q

Which causative organisms are neonates at risk of developing meningitis from?

A

Group B strep
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes

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212
Q

At what point should a child with an undescended testis be referred?

A

3 months of age

Should be seen before 6 months

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213
Q

What is the management for nocturnal enuresis?

A

Look for underlying causes: constipation, diabetes, UTI
Advise on fluid intake, diet and toiletting before bedtime
Reward systems: stars for using the toilet before sleep
Child under 7: enuresis alarm
7 or over: desmopressin

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214
Q

At what age should children be offered an influenza vaccine?

A

Intranasally at 2-3 years

Annually after that

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215
Q

What are contraindications to a child receiving an influenza vaccine?

A

Immunocompromised
Aged <2
Current febrile illness/blocked nose
Current wheeze or history of severe asthma
Egg allergy
Pregnancy/breastfeeding
If child is taking aspirin - Kawasaki disease, due to risk of Reye’s syndrome

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216
Q

What vaccines should a child have at birth?

A

BCG/hep B if risk factors

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217
Q

What vaccines should a child have at 2 months?

A

DTaP/IPV/Hib
PCV
Oral rotavirus
Men B

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218
Q

What vaccines should a child have at 3 months?

A

DTaP/IPV/Hib

Oral rotavirus

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219
Q

What vaccines should a child have at 4 months?

A

DTaP/IPV/Hib
PCV
Men B

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220
Q

What vaccines should a child have at 12-13 months?

A

Hib/Men C
MMR
PCV
Men B

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221
Q

What vaccines should a child have at 2- 7 years?

A

annual flu vaccine

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222
Q

What vaccines should a child have at 3-4 years?

A

MMR and DTaP/IPV

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223
Q

What vaccines should a child have at 12-13 years?

A

HPV vaccine for girls

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224
Q

What vaccines should a child have at 13 - 18 years?

A

DT/IPV

Men ACWY

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225
Q

What is the management for croup?

A

Oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg single dose
High flow oxygen
Nebulised adrenaline

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226
Q

What are features of patau syndrome?

A
Microcephaly 
Small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions
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227
Q

What is patau syndrome?

A

Trisomy 13

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228
Q

What are features of Edwards syndrome?

A

Micrognathia
Low set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlapping of fingers

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229
Q

What is Edwards syndrome?

A

Trisomy 18

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230
Q

What are features of fragile x?

A
Learning difficulties 
Macrocephaly 
Long face
Large ears
Macro orchidism
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231
Q

What are features of noonan syndrome?

A

Webbed neck
Pectus excavatum
Short stature
Pulmonary stenosis

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232
Q

What are features of Pierre robin syndrome?

A

Micrognathia
Posterior displacement of tongue
Cleft palate

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233
Q

What are features of prader Willi syndrome?

A

Hypotonia
Hypogonadism
Obesity

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234
Q

What are features of Williams syndrome?

A
Short stature
Learning difficulties 
Friendly extrovert personality
Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia 
Supravalvular aortic stenosis
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235
Q

What causes headlice?

A

Pediculosis capitis

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236
Q

How are head lice diagnosed?

A

Fine toothed combing of wet or dry hair

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237
Q

What is the management of head lice?

A

Treatment only indicated if living lice found

Choice should be offered: malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myrisate and cyclomethicone

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238
Q

Which patients typically get Wilms tumours?

A

Under 5 years, median age 3

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239
Q

How does a wilms tumour usually present?

A
Abdo mass
Painless haematuria
Flank pain
Anorexia
Fever
Mets: usually lung
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240
Q

What is the management of a wilms tumour?

A

Nephrectomy
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy if advanced

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241
Q

Under what age can a child not consent to sex?

A

Under 13

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242
Q

What is talipes equinovarus?

A

Club foot

Inverted and plantar flexed foot

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243
Q

What are associations with club foot?

A
Spina bifida
Cerebral palsy
Edwards syndrome
Oligohydramnios
Arthrogryposis
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244
Q

What is the ponseti method?

A

Manipulative technique that corrects congenital club foot without invasive surgery
Manipulation and progressive casting starting soon after birth
Usually corrected after 6-10 weeks
Achilles tenotomy required in 85%
Night time braces required until age 4

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245
Q

What type of diet can be useful in patients with difficult to treat epilepsy?

A

Ketogenic diet: high fat, low carb, controlled protein

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246
Q

What is wests syndrome?

A

Infantile spasms
Childhood epilepsy presents in first 4-8 months of life
More common in males
Characteristic salaam attacks: flexion of head, trunk and arms followed by extension of arms
Progressive mental handicap

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247
Q

What would an EEG show in an infant with west syndrome?

A

Hypsarrhythmia - high amplitude irregular waves and spikes in background of chaotic and disorganised activity

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248
Q

What are clinical features of tuberous sclerosis?

A
Ash leaf spots
Adenoma sebaceum
Shagreen patches
Subungual fibromata 
Epilepsy
Developmental problems 
Retinal hamartomas
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249
Q

What are risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A
Female 
Breech presentation
Positive family history
Firstborn 
Oligohydramnios
Birth weight >5kg 
Congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity
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250
Q

What is the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Most will spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks
Pavlik harness in children younger than 4-5 months
Older children may require surgery

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251
Q

Which hearing test is used in newborn babies?

A

Automated otoacoustic emissions test

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252
Q

What is the classic triad of problems in haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Haemolytic anaemia
Renal failure
Thrombocytopenia

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253
Q

Which bug usually causes haemolytic anaemic syndrome?

A

E. coli 0157

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254
Q

What needs to be done about a suspected case of female genital mutilation?

A

Inform medical team and police - child protection and safeguarding issues

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255
Q

What is a cephalohaematoma?

A

Swelling on newborns head
Develops hours after delivery
Due to bleeding between periosteum and skull
Most commonly in parietal region

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256
Q

What is caput succedaneum?

A

Serosanguinous subcutaneous extraperiosteal fluid collection with poorly defined margins caused by pressure of presenting part of scalp against dilating cervix

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257
Q

What is a chignon?

A

Temporary swelling left on infants head after a ventouse suction cup has been used for delivery

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258
Q

What is a subaponeurotic haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding in potential space between periosteum and subgaleal aponeurosis
Boggy swelling that grows insidiously and is not confined to skull sutures
May present as haemorrhagic shock

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259
Q

How should a child aged less than 3 months be managed if they have a UTI?

A

Refer immediately to paediatrician

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260
Q

What is the management for cradle cap (seborrhoeic dermatitis)?

A

Mild to moderate: baby shampoo and baby oils

Severe: mild topical steroids e.g. 1% hydrocortisone

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261
Q

What is bardet Biedl syndrome?

A

Polydactyly
Obesity
Retinitis pigmentosa

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262
Q

What are causes of neonatal jaundice in the first 24 hours of life?

A

Rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
Hereditary spherocytosis
G6PD deficiency

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263
Q

What is done if jaundice is still present after 14 days in a neonate?

A
Measure conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin 
Direct antiglobulin test 
TFTs
FBC and blood film
Urine for MC and S and reducing sugars
U and Es
LFTs
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264
Q

What are causes of prolonged jaundice in a newborn?

A
Biliary atresia
Hypothyroidism
Galactosaemia
Urinary tract infection 
Breast milk jaundice
Congenital infection: CMV, toxoplasmosis
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265
Q

What is the management for severe croup?

A

Steroids

Nebulised adrenaline

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266
Q

What is Kawasaki disease?

A
Small vessel vasculitis 
Prolonged fever 
Children under 5 
Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome 
Rash, lymphadenopathy, red eyes, dry cracked lips, red fingers and toes
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267
Q

What is the management for viral induced wheeze?

A

Salbutamol inhaler

If this isn’t helping, add oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroid

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268
Q

What are features of Kawasaki disease?

A
High grade fever >5 days 
Conjunctival injection 
Bright red, cracked lips
Strawberry tongue
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Red palms and soles which later peel
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269
Q

What is the management of Kawasaki disease?

A

High dose aspirin
IV immunoglobulin
Echo to screen for coronary artery aneurysms

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270
Q

What is G6PD?

A

X linked disorder affecting red cell enzymes
Reduced ability of red cells to respond to oxidative stress so have shorter life span and are more susceptible to haemolysis particularly in response to drugs, infection, acidosis and fava beans
Red cell fragments: Heinz bodies

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271
Q

What are features of G6PD deficiency?

A
Neonatal jaundice
Intravascular haemolysis 
Gallstones
Splenomegaly
Heinz bodies on blood film
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272
Q

What is eneuresis?

A

Involuntary discharge of urine day or night or both in a child aged 5 or over in absence of congenital or acquired defects of nervous system or urinary tract

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273
Q

What is the management of whooping cough?

A

Oral macrolide: clarithromycin, azithromycin, erythromycin if onset of cough is within previous 21 days

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274
Q

What are complications of whooping cough?

A

Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Pneumonia
Bronchiectasis
Seizures

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275
Q

What are features of Bartter syndrome?

A

Neonatal: polyhydramnios, polyuria, polydipsia, hypocalcaemia, nephrocalcinosis
Classic: polyuria, polydipsia, vomiting, growth retardation, hypokalaemia, alkalosis, low BP

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276
Q

Until what age are up going plantars normal?

A

1 year

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277
Q

At how many months do infant IgM levels reach that of adult?

A

2-5 months

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278
Q

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

279
Q

What is Kallmanns syndrome?

A

Failure to start puberty and anosmia
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
GnRH releasing neurones prevented from reaching hypothalamus or cribriform plate

280
Q

What is Noonan syndrome?

A
Pulmonary stenosis 
ASD 
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 
Short stature
Learning difficulty 
Pectus excavatum 
Webbed neck
Flat nose bridge
281
Q

What is a congenital undescended testis?

A

One that has failed to reach the bottom of the scrotum by 3 months of age

282
Q

Which congenital defects may be associated with undescended testis?

A
Patent processus vaginalis 
Abnormal epididymis 
Cerebral palsy
Mental retardation 
Wilms tumour
Abdominal wall defect
283
Q

What are reasons for correcting cryptorchidism?

A

Reduce risk of infertility
Allows testis to be examined for cancer
Avoid torsion
Cosmetic appearance

284
Q

What is the treatment for cryptorchidism?

A

Orchidopexy at 6-18 months of age

After age of 2 if untreated, Sertoli cells degrade and so may be better to do orchidectomy

285
Q

Which congenital abnormality is associated with holoprosencephaly and cyclops?

A

Trisomy 13: patau syndrome

286
Q

Which congenital abnormality is associated with dysplastic heart valves and oesophageal atresia?

A

Trisomy 18: Edwards syndrome

287
Q

Which conditions are screened for on a neonatal blood spot screening?

A
Congenital hypothyroidism
Cystic fibrosis
Sickle cell
Phenylketonuria 
Medium chain acyl coA dehydrogenase deficiency
Maple syrup urine disease
Isovolaemic acidaemia
Glutaric aciduria type 1
Homocystinuria
288
Q

When is neonatal blood spot screening performed?

A

Between 5th and 9th day of life

289
Q

What is a Wilms tumour?

A

Nephroblastoma seen in children

Usually presents as painless palpable abdominal mass, anorexia, haematuria, HTN

290
Q

What are some associations of a Wilms tumour?

A

Beckwith wiedemann syndrome
WAGR syndrome
Hemihypertrophy
Loss of function in WT1 gene

291
Q

How does listeriosis present in a neonate?

A

Multi organ disease

Granulomata on skin

292
Q

How does toxoplasmosis present in a neonate?

A

Hydrocephaly
Seizures
Chorioretinitis

293
Q

What advice can be given to a mother during pregnancy to try and avoid toxoplasmosis in a baby?

A

Wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter

Cook meat thoroughly

294
Q

How does cytomegalovirus present in a neonate?

A

Jaundice
Hepatosplenomegaly
Microcephaly

295
Q

How does neonatal varicella infection present?

A
Cerebral cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia
Microcephaly
Convulsions
Limb hypoplasia
Rudimentary digits
296
Q

How does neonatal rubella present?

A
Cataracts
Cardiac abnormalities
Thrombocytopenia 
Cerebral calcification 
Deafness
297
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for whooping cough?

A

Erythromycin

298
Q

What is gnathopathy?

A

Protrusion of upper teeth

Feature of sickle cell

299
Q

What order do features of male puberty develop in?

A

Testicular enlargement
Secondary sexual characteristics: public hair, axillary hair, body odour, deepening of voice
Growth spurt 18 months after onset

300
Q

What order do features of female puberty develop in?

A

Breast development
Axillary and pubic hair
Growth spurt
Menarche

301
Q

In which groups does puberty usually occur earlier?

A

Afro American children
Obese
Due to raised oestrogen levels

302
Q

What is pendred syndrome?

A

Congenital bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and goitre with euthyroid or mild hypothyroidism

303
Q

The presence of what features alongside meconium would warrant assessment by the neonatal team?

A
Resp rate above 60
Grunting
Heart rate below 100 or over 160
Cap refil over 3
Temp 38 or above or 37.5 on 2 occasions 30 mins apart
Sats below 95%
Central cyanosis
304
Q

What is the most common cause of stridor in infants?

A

Laryngomalacia

305
Q

What is laryngomalacia?

A

Floppy epiglottis which folds into airway on inspiration

306
Q

Which are cyanotic heart defects?

A
Tetralogy of Fallot 
Transposition of great vessels
Hypoplastic left heart 
Tricuspid atresia 
Eisenmengers complex
307
Q

What is eisenmengers syndrome?

A

Reversal of a shunt due to pulmonary hypertension

308
Q

What are causes of neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A
Maternal diabetes mellitus 
Prematurity
IUGR
Hypothermia
Neonatal sepsis
Inborn errors of metabolism
Nesidioblastosis
Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome
309
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A
Thymic aplasia with agammaglobulinaemia 
Congenital heart problems
Frequent infections 
Developmental delay 
22q11.2 deletion syndrome
310
Q

What is Wiskott Aldrich syndrome?

A

X linked immunodeficiency disorder characterised by lymphopenia and recurrent bacterial infections

311
Q

What are some predisposing conditions for intussusception?

A

Enlarged peyers patches
Meckels diverticula
Tumour
Haematoma complicating HSP

312
Q

In which age group does intussusception tend to present?

A

3 months to 3 years

313
Q

What are key features of the children’s flu vaccine?

A

Intranasal
First dose at 2-3 years then annually after that
Live vaccine

314
Q

What are contraindications to the children’s flu vaccine?

A

Immunocompromised
Aged <2 years
Current febrile illness or blocked nose rhinorrhoea
Current wheeze or hx severe asthma
Egg allergy
Pregnancy/breastfeeding
If child is taking asthma due to risk of Reyes

315
Q

What are side effects of flu vaccine?

A

Blocked nose/rhinorrhoea
Headache
Anorexia

316
Q

What are features of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A
Hyperuricaemia 
Gout
Choreoathetosis 
Spasticity 
Mental deficiency
Behavioural disturbance (particularly self mutilation)
317
Q

What is the epidemiology of autism?

A

75% male

Usually develops before age 3

318
Q

What features must be present for a diagnosis of autism to be made?

A

Global impairment of language and communication
Impairment of social relationships
Ritualistic and compulsive behaviour

319
Q

Which conditions are particularly associated with autism?

A

Fragile x syndrome

Retts syndrome

320
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for a neonate with otitis media?

A

IV cefotaxime

321
Q

How will a child with foetal alcohol syndrome present?

A
Short stature
Short palpebral fissures
Flat philtrum 
Thin upper lip vermillion 
Neurocognitive problems: hyperactivity, delinquent behaviour
322
Q

Which criteria are used to give a diagnosis of marfans syndrome?

A

Ghent criteria

Two cardinal features: dilated aortic root and displacement of optic lens

323
Q

How often would you expect a 2 month old to feed and how many wet nappies should usually go with this?

A

Feed 8-10 times a day for 5-10 mins at a time

5-6 wet nappies with 3-4 stools

324
Q

Why do patients with kallmans syndrome get anosmia and primary amenorrhoea?

A

Failure of development of olfactory bulb

Failure of production of gonadotrophin releasing hormone

325
Q

Which drug can be used to close a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Indomethacin

326
Q

Which immune cells are deficient in DiGeorge syndrome?

A

T cells due to failure of thymic development

327
Q

What are features of Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

Obesity due to compulsive food consumption

Mental retardation

328
Q

What are features of Kawasaki disease?

A
High grade fever which lasts >5 days, resistant to antipyretics
Conjunctival injection
Bright red, cracked lips
Strawberry tongue
Cervical lymphadenopathy 
Red palms and soles which later peel
329
Q

What is the management of Kawasaki disease?

A

High dose aspirin
IV immunoglobulin
Echo to screen for coronary artery aneurysm

330
Q

At what point should a baby be referred if they have an undescended testicle?

A

Consider from 3 months
Ideally should see surgeon before 6 months
Usually procedure at around 1 year

331
Q

What is the emergency management of a child with severe croup?

A

Oxygen and nebulised adrenaline

332
Q

How is a diagnosis of pertussis confirmed?

A

Nasal secretions - culture

333
Q

In what age are breath holding attacks most common?

A

6 months to 5 years

334
Q

What are clinical features of turners syndrome?

A
Delayed secondary sexual characteristics
Webbed neck
Systolic murmur 
Broad shield chest with widely spaced nipples
Cubitus valgus 
Short fourth metacarpal 
Low set ears
Low hairline
Hypoplastic nails
Short stature
335
Q

What treatments are used in turners syndrome?

A

Growth hormone
Anabolic steroids
Oestrogen/progesterone

336
Q

What are possible features of galactosaemia?

A
Vomiting 
Diarrhoea 
Jaundice 
Lethargy 
Hypotonia 
Failure to thrive 
Cataracts 
Mental retardation 
Seizures
Complement deficiency
337
Q

What is galactosaemia?

A

Rare metabolic genetic disorder that affects ability to metabolise galactose properly
Autosomal recessive deficiency in enzyme needed to break down galactose

338
Q

What is a cephalohaematoma?

A

Haemorrhage of blood between skull and periosteum due to rupture of vessels crossing periosteum

339
Q

What are causes of cephalohaematoma?

A

Prolonged second stage labour

Instrumental delivery, particularly ventouse

340
Q

What are symptoms of cephalohaematoma?

A
Jaundice
Anaemia
Hypotension 
Infection 
Unnatural bulges
341
Q

When does a cephalohaematoma usually manifest?

A

Several hours after delivery

342
Q

Over how long will a cephalohaematoma take to resolve?

A

3 months

343
Q

Which disorders can cause hair on end appearance on skull X-ray?

A
SHITE
Sickle cell anemia
Hereditary spherocytosis 
Iron deficiency anemia
Thalassemia 
Enzyme deficiency (G6PD)
344
Q

Why do patients with thalassemia get cirrhosis and iron overload?

A

Multiple transfusions

345
Q

When does jaundice start in babies with beta thalassemia?

A

3 months because haemoglobin f is still predominant in neonates

346
Q

In a child that has been dry for some time, what may be causes of new onset bed wetting?

A

Psychological
UTI
Diabetes

347
Q

What are features of patau syndrome (trisomy 13)?

A
Midline defects
Hypotelorism 
Cleft palate 
Microphthalmia 
Cyclopia
348
Q

How is a patent ductus arteriosus closed?

A

COX inhibitor infusion to block synthesis of prostaglandins which keep it open

349
Q

What are some causes of polyhydramnios?

A
Maternal diabetes 
Rhesus incompatibility
Duodenal atresia
GI obstruction
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula 
Anencephaly
350
Q

How is hereditary spherocytosis inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant

351
Q

Which treatment can lead to a normal life for patients with hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Splenectomy

Done after 5 years when chances of life threatening encapsulated bacterial infection reduce

352
Q

When is the peak age for sudden infant death syndrome?

A

Under 6 months

Particularly second month

353
Q

In which babies is sudden infant death syndrome most likely?

A
Low birth weight 
Premature
Twins
Boys 
Babies born to young mothers 
Low socio economic class 
Smokers in household 
Sleeping prone
Co sleeping with parents
History of drug or alcohol misuse in family
354
Q

What are treatment options for minimal change disease?

A

Diuretics
Salt restriction
Steroids

355
Q

What are complications of minimal change disease?

A

Venous thrombosis
Sepsis
Acute renal failure
Renal vein thrombosis

356
Q

Why does congenital adrenal hyperplasia lead to accelerated bone age?

A

21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency results in increased production of androgens which drive bone proliferation, particularly at puberty

357
Q

What does small for gestational age mean?

A

Birth weight below the 10th centile for gestational age and sex

358
Q

What is intrauterine growth retardation?

A

Decrease in foetal growth rate that prevents infant obtaining genetic growth potential

359
Q

What are potential complications of intrauterine growth retardation?

A
Perinatal asphyxia 
Meconium aspiration
Electrolyte imbalance 
Metabolic acidosis 
Polycythemia 
Hypoglycaemia
360
Q

At what age would you refer a child if they were unable to speak in intelligible short sentences?

A

3 years

361
Q

At what age would you refer a child if they were not reliably dry at night whilst continent of urine and faeces?

A

6 years

362
Q

At what age would you refer a child who was unable to sit unsupported?

A

10 months

363
Q

What is Gaucher’s disease?

A

Genetic disorder where glucocerebroside accumulates in cells and organs
Characterised by bruising, fatigue, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal disorder, neuropathy, pingueculae in cornea

364
Q

At what age would you refer a child if they were unable to walk independently?

A

18 months

365
Q

At what age would you refer a child if they were unable to smile?

A

2 months

366
Q

What is the name of the eye infection caused by vertical transmission of neisseria gonorrhoea to a neonate?

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum

367
Q

What are features of HSP?

A
Palpable purpuric rash over buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs
Abdominal pain
Polyarthritis 
Haematuria 
Renal failure
368
Q

What proportion of patients will have a relapse of their HSP?

A

1/3

369
Q

What is the management for mild croup?

A

Oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg single dose and review

370
Q

What is the management for severe croup?

A

Systemic dexamethasone and nebulised adrenaline 5ml of 1:1000
Oxygen

371
Q

How long do children need to be kept out of school if they have whooping cough?

A

Five days from commencing antibiotics

372
Q

How long does a child need to be excluded from school if they have roseola inantum?

A

No exclusion

373
Q

How long does a child need to be excluded from school if they have diarrhoea and vomiting?

A

Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours

374
Q

Which protein is defected in Marfans syndrome?

A

Fibrillin

375
Q

What is the immediate management of necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics

376
Q

What is the treatment for impetigo?

A

Topical fusidic acid

377
Q

How does diphtheria present?

A
Grey membrane on tonsils 
Recent visitors to Eastern Europe/Russia/Asia
Sore throat
Bulky cervical lymphadenopathy
Neuritis
Heart block
378
Q

What are features of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

Microcephaly
Hydrocephalus
Cerebral calcification
Choroidoretinitis

379
Q

How might a baby who was exposed to cytomegalovirus during pregnancy present?

A

Neonatal jaundice
Deafness
Microcephaly

380
Q

What is wiskott Aldrich syndrome?

A

Rare X-linked recessive disease characterized by eczema, thrombocytopenia, immune deficiency, and bloody diarrhoea secondary to the thrombocytopenia

381
Q

When are doses of MMR vaccine given?

A

12-15 months

3-4 years

382
Q

What are contraindications to MMR vaccine?

A

Severe immunosuppression
Allergy to neomycin
Children who have received another live vaccine within 4 weeks
Pregnancy should be avoided for 1 month after
Immunoglobulin therapy within past 3 months

383
Q

What are the criteria for immediate head CT in a child after head injury?

A

Loss of consciousness more than 5 mins
Amnesia lasting more than 5 mins
Abnormal drowsiness
Three or more episodes of vomiting
Clinical suspicion of NAI
Post traumatic seizure with no Hx epilepsy
GCS <14 or for baby under 1 GCS <15 in ED
Suspicion of open or depressed skull injury or tense fontanelle
Basal skull fracture: haemotympanum, panda eyes, CSF rhinorrhoea, battles sign
Focal neurological deficit
If under 1: bruise, swelling or laceration more than 5cm on head
Dangerous mechanism of injury: high speed road accident, fall from height greater than 3cm, high speed injury from projectile

384
Q

What are cutaneous features of tuberous sclerosis?

A

Depigmented ash leaf spots
Roughened patches of skin over lumbar spine (shagreen patches)
Adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas over nose)
Subungual fibromata
Cafe au lait spots

385
Q

What is the most common cause of a persistent watery eye in an infant?

A

Nasolacrimal duct obstruction

386
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome?

A

Severe inflammatory progressive encephalitic illness of children often accompanied by fatty infiltration

387
Q

What is McArdles disease?

A

Inherited disorder resulting in rhabdomyolysis with minor illness or mild/moderate exertion
Inherited defect in gene for muscle phosphorylase enzyme

388
Q

What are causes of jaundice in first 24 hours of life?

A

Rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
Hereditary spherocytosis
G6PD deficiency

389
Q

What are some causes of prolonged jaundice in a newborn? (Beyond 14 days)

A
Biliary atresia
Hypothyroidism
Galactosaemia
UTI
Breast milk jaundice
Congenital infection e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis
390
Q

When is the rotavirus vaccine given?

A

2 months and 3 months

391
Q

Why should the rotavirus vaccine not be given after 23 weeks and 6 days?

A

Theoretical risk of intussusception

392
Q

Which babies are most likely to have a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Premature
Born at high altitude
Maternal rubella infection in first trimester

393
Q

What are features of a PDA?

A
Left subclavicular thrill
Continuous machinery murmur
Large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
Wide pulse pressure
Heaving apex beat
394
Q

What is the management of PDA?

A

Indomethacin

395
Q

What does a combination of scaphoid abdomen and bilious vomiting suggest?

A

Intestinal malrotation and volvulus

396
Q

What should be given to a baby who has a high risk of vertical transmission of hep b?

A

Hep b vaccine and 0.5ml HBIG within 12 hours of birth
Hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months
Vaccine at 6 months

397
Q

What is a neonatal death? What is the difference between early and late neonatal death?

A

Death within 28 days of delivery of a live born foetus regardless of gestation
Early: 0-6 days
Late: 7-27 days

398
Q

When should the fontanelles close?

A

Posterior: 8 weeks
Anterior: 12 and 18 months

399
Q

How is a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease made?

A

Prolonged fever more than 5 days
Typical mucocutaneous changes: desquamation of fingers and toes including palms and soles
Lymphadenopathy

400
Q

What is a NIPE? When should it be done?

A

Newborn and infant physical examination

Within 72 hours of birth unless sick baby then within 24 hours

401
Q

What is choanal atresia?

A

Congenital disorder
Posterior nasal airway occluded by soft tissue or bone
Episodes of cyanosis worst during feeding made better by crying

402
Q

What are signs of respiratory distress syndrome in a neonate?

A
Cyanosis 
Tachypnoea 
Nasal flaring
Grunting 
Intercostal/subcostal recession 
Apnoea
403
Q

What causes tracheal tug?

A

Aneurysm of aortic arch

404
Q

What is Rett syndrome?

A

Genetic disorder which affects brain development primarily in females
Development proceeds in normal fashion for 6-18 months then change in behaviour with regression or loss of abilities including gross motor, speech, reasoning and hand use
They typically have repetition of gestures e.g. Hand ringing or hand washing

405
Q

What are features of prader Willi syndrome?

A

Compulsive eating
Childhood obesity
Developmental delay
Chromosome 15 abnormalities

406
Q

What is Harrison’s sulcus?

A

Horizontal groove along lower border of thorax corresponding to costal insertion of diaphragm
Usually caused by chronic asthma or COPD, can also appear in rickets due to defective mineralisation of bones so diaphragm pulls softened bone inwards

407
Q

Why are newborns vitamin k deficient?

A

Immature hepatic metabolism
Low placental transfer
No oral intake of vitamin k or precursors
Lack of gastrointestinal bacterial colonisation

408
Q

Why is intramuscular vitamin k given to newborns at birth?

A

Reduce vitamin k deficiency bleeding - haemorrhagic disease of newborn

409
Q

What are features of digeorge syndrome?

A

CATCH 22
Cardiac abnormalities
Abnormal facies (high broad nose, low set ears, small teeth, narrow eyes)
Thymic hypoplasia
Hypocalcaemia (poor development of parathyroid)
Deletion on chromosome 22

410
Q

What are features of fragile x syndrome?

A
Tall
High arched palate
Long ears
Long face
Macro orchidism 
Learning difficulties
411
Q

How is otitis media in a neonate managed?

A

IV cefotaxime

412
Q

What is the leading cause of death in ITP?

A

Intracranial haemorrhage

413
Q

What is the treatment of choice for a patient with massive haemorrhage in ITP?

A

Platelet transfusion
Intravenous methylprednisolone
IV immune globulin
Splenectomy

414
Q

Why can pyloric stenosis lead to hypocalcaemia?

A

Worsening alkalosis means increasing bicarbonate levels combine with calcium and so reduce serum ionised calcium

415
Q

What are sequelae of mumps?

A
Meningoencephalitis
Arthritis 
Transverse myelitis 
Cerebellar ataxia
Deafness
416
Q

What causes degranulation of mast cells?

A

Crosslinking of IgE

417
Q

What causes hereditary angio oedema?

A

Autosomal dominant condition associated with deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor

418
Q

What is distal intestinal obstruction syndrome?

A

Occurs in CF patients

Accumulation of viscous mucus and faecal material in terminal ileum, caecum and ascending colon

419
Q

What are features of cows milk protein intolerance/allergy?

A
Regurgitation and vomiting
Diarrhoea
Urticaria 
Atopic eczema
Colic: irritability, crying
Wheeze
Chronic cough
Rarely angioedema and anaphylaxis
420
Q

How do you investigate cows milk protein intolerance?

A

Improvement with cows milk protein elimination
Skin prick/patch testing
Total IgE and specific IgE for cows milk protein (RAST)

421
Q

How is cows milk protein intolerance managed?

A

Refer to paeds if failure to thrive
Formula fed: extensive hydrolysed formula, amino acid based formula
Breast fed: continue breast feeding, eliminate cows milk protein from maternal diet, use extensive hydrolysed milk when breast feeding stops until 12 months

422
Q

Hand preference before what age may indicate cerebral palsy?

A

12 months

423
Q

What are symptoms of threadworm infection?

A

Perianal itching particularly at night

Girls may have vulval symptoms

424
Q

What are risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A
Female sex
Breech presentation
Positive family history 
Firstborn 
Oligohydramnios
Birth weight >5kg
Congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity
425
Q

What is management for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Most unstable hips spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks
Pavlik harness (flexion abduction orthosis) in children younger than 4-5 months
Older children may need surgery

426
Q

What are poor prognostic factors for ALL?

A
Age <2 or >10 
WBC >20 at diagnosis
T or B cell surface markers
Non Caucasian
Male sex
427
Q

What test is used for newborn hearing screening?

A

Otoacoustic emission test
Computer generated click played through small ear piece
Presence of soft echo indicates healthy cochlea

428
Q

What test is done if otoacoustic emission test has an abnormal result in a newborn?

A

Auditory brainstem response test

429
Q

What is the problem in prader willi syndrome?

A

Deletion of chromosome 15 paternal gene not received

430
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in males?

A

Testicular growth at around 12 years

Volume >4ml indicates puberty

431
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in females?

A

Breast development at around 11.5 years

432
Q

What are features of bartters syndrome?

A
Failure to thrive
Polyuria 
Polydipsia 
Hypokalaemia
Normotension
Weakness
433
Q

What are features of peutz jeghers syndrome?

A

Hamartomatous polyps in GI tract
Pigmented lesions on lips, oral mucosa, face, palms and soles
Intestinal obstruction: intussusception
GI bleeding

434
Q

What are some causes of minimal change nephropathy?

A

Idiopathic
Drugs: NSAIDs, rifampicin
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Infectious mononucleosis

435
Q

What is the pathophysiology of minimal change nephropathy?

A

T cell and cytokine mediated damage to glomerular basement membrane - polyanion loss
Reduction of electrostatic charge - increased glomerular permeability to serum albumin

436
Q

What are features of minimal change nephropathy?

A

Nephrotic syndrome
Normotension
Highly selective proteinuria
Electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes

437
Q

What is the most useful investigation to screen for complication of Kawasaki disease?

A

Echo to look for coronary artery aneurysm

438
Q

What are features of Kawasaki disease?

A

High grade fever lasting over 5 days, resistant to antipyretics
Conjunctival injection
Bright red, cracked lips
Strawberry tongue
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Red palms of hands and soles which later peel

439
Q

What is the management of kawasaki disease?

A

High dose aspirin
IV immunoglobulin
Echo

440
Q

What is a suitable screening test for childhood squints?

A

Corneal light reflection test

441
Q

What is the difference between a concomitant and paralytic squint?

A

Concomitant: imbalance in extraocular muscles, convergent more common
Paralytic: paralysis of extraocular muscles

442
Q

What test is used to identify the nature of a squint in a child?

A

Cover test

443
Q

What is the management of squint in children?

A

Eye patches to prevent amblyopia

Referral to secondary care

444
Q

What is the most common cause of death in the first year of life?

A

Sudden infant death syndrome

445
Q

What are risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome?

A
Prematurity
Parental smoking
Hyperthermia 
Putting baby to sleep prone
Male 
Multiple births
Bottle feeding
Social class IV and V
Maternal drug use 
Winter
446
Q

What are risk factors for surfactant deficient lung disease?

A
Prematurity 
Male 
Diabetic mother
C section 
Second born of premature twins
447
Q

What is management of surfactant deficient lung disease?

A

Maternal steroids to induce lung maturation
Oxygen
Assisted ventilation
Exogenous surfactant given via endotracheal tube

448
Q

What are the different classifications of squint?

A

Esotropia: towards nose
Exotropia: temporally
Hypertropia: superior
Hypotropia: inferior

449
Q

What are features of fragile x in males?

A
Learning difficulties 
Large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate
Macroorchidism 
Hypotonia 
Autism
Mitral valve prolapse
450
Q

What is palivizumab and what is it used for?

A

Monoclonal antibody used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus in children at increased risk of severe disease: premature, lung or heart abnormality, immunocompromise

451
Q

What is precocious puberty?

A

Development of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years in females and 9 years in males

452
Q

What are features of HSP?

A

Palpable purpuric rash over buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs
Abdominal pain
Polyarthritis
Features of IgA nephropathy: haematuria, renal failure

453
Q

What is the management for HSP?

A

Analgesia for arthralgia

Supportive treatment for nephropathy

454
Q

What is an umbilical granuloma?

A

Overgrowth of tissue which occurs during the healing process of the umbilicus
Common in first few weeks of life
Small red growth, usually wet and leaks clear or yellow fluid

455
Q

What are features of acute epiglottis?

A

Rapid onset
High temperature
Stridor
Drooling of saliva

456
Q

How are paediatric maintenance fluids calculated?

A

100ml/kg/day for 0-10kg
50ml/kg/day for 11-20kg
20ml/kg/day beyond that

457
Q

What is the triad of symptoms seen in haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Acute renal failure
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Thrombocytopenia

458
Q

What are causes of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A
Post dysentery - E. coli 
Tumours 
Pregnancy 
Ciclosporin 
COCP 
SLE 
HIV
459
Q

What is the management of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Fluids
Blood transfusion
Dialysis

460
Q

What is toddlers diarrhoea?

A

Stools containing undigested food
Chronic non specific diarrhoea
Should remit as child grows up
More common in boys age 1-5

461
Q

What are causes of neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A
Maternal diabetes mellitus 
Prematurity
IUGR 
Hypothermia 
Neonatal sepsis 
Inborn errors of metabolism
Beckwith wiedemann syndrome
462
Q

What is beckwith wiedemann syndrome?

A
Overgrowth disorder present at birth 
Increased risk of childhood cancer
Macroglossia 
Macrosomia 
Microcephaly 
Neonatal hypoglycaemia 
Hepatoblastoma
463
Q

What dysmorphic features are associated with Down’s syndrome?

A
Hypertelorism (wide spaced eyes)
Downward slanting palpebral fissures
Epicanthal folds
Short broad nose
Deeply grooved philtrum 
Small chin and short neck 
Full lips with high wide peaks to vermillion border of upper lip 
Low set ears
Single palmer crease
Sandal gap - wide space between first and second toe
464
Q

What infections do infants with SCID usually present with?

A

Secondary to lack of T cell function: pneumocystis jirovecii, systemic candidiasis, generalised herpetic infections

465
Q

What is the most common cause of vomiting in infancy?

A

GORD

466
Q

What are risk factors for GORD in infants?

A

Preterm delivery

Neurological disorders

467
Q

How should GORD in infants be managed?

A

Advise regarding head position during feeds - 30 degree head up
Sleep on backs
Ensure not being over fed, consider trial of smaller more frequent meals
Trial thickened formula
Trial of alginate therapy (gaviscon)
PPI or H2 antagonist if unexplained feeding difficulty, distressed, faltering growth

468
Q

What are complications of GORD in infants?

A
Distress
Failure to thrive
Aspiration
Frequent otitis media
Dental erosion
469
Q

What is ebsteins anomaly?

A

Posterior leaflets of tricuspid valve displaced anteriorly towards apex of right ventricle
Tricuspid regurg (pan systolic murmur)
Tricuspid stenosis (mid diastolic murmur)
Enlargement of right atrium

470
Q

With which drug used during pregnancy is ebsteins anomaly associated?

A

Lithium

471
Q

When does the Moro reflex usually disappear?

A

3-4 months

472
Q

What are brushfield spots and in which condition are they seen?

A

White/grey spots on periphery of iris due to aggregation of connective tissue
Seen in Down’s syndrome

473
Q

What are the different types of JIA? How common are they?

A
Oligoarticular JIA (50% of JIA)
Polyarticular JIA - RF negative (25%)
Polyarticular JIA - RF positive (5%)
Systemic-onset JIA (5-10%)
Juvenile psoriatic arthritis (2-15%)
Enthesitis-related arthritis (2-10%)
Undifferentiated arthritis (1-10%)
474
Q

What is Quebec scoring for congenital hypothyroidism?

A
Feeding problems
Constipation
Lethargy
Hypotonia
Coarse facies (3)
Macroglossia
Open posterior fontanel (1.5)
Dry skin (1.5)
Mottling of skin
Umbilical hernia 
If score is >4/13 hypothyroidism is suspected
475
Q

How does oligoarticular JIA present?

A

Arthritis affecting 1-4 joints in the first six months. 70% patients are ANA positive
Extended oligoarthritis: more than four joints affected after six months
Persistent oligoarthritis: no more than four joints affected after six months
It usually presents in those under 6 years old and is more common in females.
It typically presents with one or two swollen joints causing stiffness and reduced movement but often not much pain. The child usually feels well.
The knee and ankle are most commonly affected.

476
Q

What features of a murmur in a newborn suggest that it is innocent?

A
Sensitive: changes with position or respiration
Short duration: not holosystolic
Single: no associated clicks or gallops
Small: small area or non radiating
Soft: low amplitude
Sweet: not harsh sounding
Systolic
477
Q

What complications can children with Down’s syndrome get?

A
Heart defects
Coeliac disease
Imperforate anus 
Hirschsprung's disease 
Cataracts
Nystagmus 
Hearing loss
Hypothyroidism 
Alzheimer's 
Acute leukaemia: mainly ALL
Epilepsy
478
Q

What is langerhans cell histiocytosis?

A

Clonal proliferation of langerhans cells capable of migrating from skin to lymph nodes, bones, pituitary and thyroid

479
Q

What chest xray findings might you expect to see with coarctation of the aorta?

A

Cardiomegaly

Increased pulmonary vascular markings

480
Q

What chest xray findings might you expect to see with tetralogy of fallot?

A

Concavity of left heart border - boot shape

Decreased pulmonary vascular markings

481
Q

What are features of kawasaki disease?

A
High grade fever lasting >5 days which is resistant to antipyretics
Conjunctival injection
Bright red cracked lips
Strawberry tongue
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Red palms and soles which later peel
482
Q

What is the management of kawasaki disease?

A

High dose aspirin
IV immunoglobulin
Echo to screen for coronary aneurysms

483
Q

When does newborn blood spot screening occur?

A

Day 5

484
Q

Which disorders are tested for on a newborn blood spot test?

A
PKU
Congenital hypothyroidism 
Sickle cell disease
Cystic fibrosis
MCADD (medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
Maple syrup urine disease
Isovlaeric acidaemia
Glutaric aciduria type 1
Homocystinuria
485
Q

What test is done for newborn hearing screening?

A

Automated otoacoustic emissions

486
Q

Which test is used if an automated otoacoustic emissions screening test shows no clear response?

A

Automated auditory brain stem response

487
Q

What is a Morgagni hernia?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

Usually right sided containing transverse colon

488
Q

What is a bochdalek hernia?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

Tend to be left sided containing stomach

489
Q

What are protective factors for successful development in a child?

A
Good parent-child relationship
Easy, outgoing temperament
Positive peer influence
Successful school experiences
Caring adult role models
Participation in pro-social groups
Access to needed services, e.g. healthcare, mental health, crisis intervention
490
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability?

A

IQ 70 or less on an individually administered IQ test
Onset before age 18 years
Concurrent deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning in at least two of these areas: communication, self care, home living, social and interpersonal skills, use of community resources, self direction, functional
academic skills, work, leisure, health, or safety

491
Q

What is the definition of mild, moderate and severe intellectual disability?

A

Mild ID: IQ 50/55 to 70. School may acquire skills up to 6th grade level. Social and Communication Skills develop spontaneously. May first be detected in school. May acquire vocational skills and be self-supportive
Moderate ID: IQ 35/40 to 50/55. Social and Communication Skills develop, but impaired. Early detection (before entering school). School unlikely to progress past 2nd grade level. May work under close supervision (sheltered workshop)
Severe ID: IQ 20/25 to 35/40. School May learn to sight-read (survival
words). Social/Communication Skills little or no communicative speech. Often display poor motor development. May acquire elementary hygiene skills and perform simple tasks; unable to benefit from vocational training
Profound ID: IQ Below 20/25, Social and Communication Skills rarely have communicative speech efforts; minimal sensorimotor abilities. Require constant aid and supervision; nursing care

492
Q

What are examples of pervasive developmental disorders?

A

Autism Spectrum disorder
Rett’s Disorder
Childhood Integrative Disorder
PDD, not otherwise specified

493
Q

What are some organic associations with autism?

A

Congenital Rubella
PKU
Tuberous Sclerosis
Fragile X Syndrome

494
Q

What is Aspergers disorder?

A

High functioning autism
Impaired use of non-verbal communication (gaze, posture, gestures regulating to social interaction)
Lack of interactive play, impaired peer relations
Stereotypic, repetitive mannerisms
No delays in language and cognitive development

495
Q

What is the management of autism?

A

Mainstay: Early intervention; speech and language services; structured behavioral and educational programs; OT, PT
Medications: To control seizures, hyperactivity, severe aggression, SIB, repetitive behaviors or mood disorders

496
Q

What is ADHD?

A

Persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity more frequent and severe than istypical of children at a similar level of development
Onset before age 7
Impairment in at least two settings: social, academic, or work
Duration at least six months
Inattention, Hyperactivity, Impulsivity

497
Q

What are management options for ADHD?

A

Stimulants: Methylphenidate, Dextroamphetamine
Non-Stimulants: Atomoxetine, Clonidine, Guanfacine, Bupropion, TCAs (atypical antipsychotics for treatment unresponsive cases)
Psychotherapy: Behavioral modifications, environmental structuring, parental Education and training, social skills training

498
Q

What is a tic?

A

Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic, stereotyped motor movements or vocalizations

499
Q

What are different DSM diagnoses for tic disorders?

A

Tourette’s Syndrome
Chronic Motor Tic DisorderChronic Vocal Tic Disorder
Transient Tic Disorder
Tic Disorder NOS

500
Q

What is oppositional defiant disorder?

A

Recurrent pattern of negativistic, defiant, disobedient and hostile behavior towards authority figures
Duration > 6 Months
Impairment in social, academic and work settings
Symptoms not part of the mood or thought disorder

501
Q

What is treatment for oppositional defiant disorder?

A

Parent training (PCIT)
Individual psychotherapy
Family Therapy

502
Q

What is conduct disorder?

A

Aggression to people and animals
Destruction of property
Deceitfulness or theft
Serious violation of rules

503
Q

What are treatment options for conduct disorder?

A
Multimodality treatment programs
Environmental structuring
Family Therapy
Group Therapy
Ind. Therapy – problem solving skills
Medications as adjuncts
504
Q

What is separation anxiety disorder?

A

Developmentally inappropriate and excessive anxiety about separation from caretakers or home, of at least 4 weeks duration with onset before 18 years
Can lead to school refusal (school phobia)
Associated with physical complaints, fear of sleeping alone, worries about parent’s safety

505
Q

How does childhood depression present?

A
Irritability
Sleep cycle disturbance
Oppositional behavior
Social isolation
Crying spells
506
Q

What treatment options are used for childhood mental health problems?

A

Psychotherapy: Individual Therapies (play, behavioral, cognitive, supportive, dynamic), Family Therapy and Parent Training, Group Therapy - especially important for adolescents
Pharmacological: SSRIs, Ritalin, valproate, lithium, TCAs, antipsychotics

507
Q

Which professionals are involved in CAMHs services?

A
Psychiatrists 
Psychologists 
Social workers 
Nurses
Psychological therapists – this may include child psychotherapists, family psychotherapists, play therapists and creative art therapists 
Support workers 
Occupational therapists 
Primary mental health link workers 
Specialist substance misuse workers 
Peads
508
Q

Who can refer to CAMHS?

A

GP
School or college – for example, a teacher, pastoral lead, school nurse or special educational needs co-ordinator (SENCO)
Health visitors
General hospitals

509
Q

What are criteria for urgent admission in a child with pneumonia symptoms?

A
Tachypnoea, measured as: <6 months RR >55/60. <2 years RR >40. <6 years RR >34
Nasal flaring
In-drawing chest
Cyanosis
Significant crepitations
Oxygen saturation 95% or less
510
Q

What are worrying features for meningococcal meningitis?

A
Non-blanching rash, particularly with one or more of the following:
An ill-looking child
CRT 3 or more seconds
Lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter (purpura)
Neck stiffness
Decreased level of consciousness
Bulging fontanelle
Convulsive status epilepticus
Photophobia
511
Q

What features might make you think of herpes simplex encephalitis?

A
Focal neurological signs
Focal seizures
Decreased level of consciousness
Recent herpes infection in household / nursery / school
Immunosuppression
512
Q

What proportion of children who have a febrile convulsion will go on to have further episodes?

A

1/3

513
Q

By what age do febrile convulsions usually stop?

A

By age 6

514
Q

Under what circumstances does a febrile convulsion warrant a 999 call?

A

First fit
Signs of underlying meningitis or encephalitis
Seizure not terminating within 5 mins, risk of status epilepticus
Respiratory involvement call 999
Specialist care will assess, take urinalysis and may do EEG / LP at first fit

515
Q

When should a complicated UTI be considered in a child?

A
children >3 months if fever plus:
Persistent vomiting
Lethargy
Irritability
Abdominal pain or tenderness
Urinary frequency or dysuria
Offensive urine or haematuria
516
Q

What is Kawasaki disease?

A

Medium vessel vasculitis
Fever lasting longer than 5 days and at least four of following:
Bilateral conjunctival injection
Change in peripheral extremities e.g oedema, erythema or desquamation
Change in upper respiratory tract mucous membranes e.g injected pharynx, dry cracked lips or strawberry tongue
Polymorphous rash
Cervical lymphadenopathy

517
Q

What is the management of measles exposure?

A

Notifiable disease, swab
MMR vaccination (over 6 months old), ideally within 72 hours of exposure
Human normal immunoglobulin, within five days of exposure for children and adults with compromised immune systems
Pregnant women who are exposed to measles may also be considered for IM normal immunoglobulin

518
Q

What is the management for rubella?

A

Keep child away from school for seven days after rash appears
Use antipyretics for fever - avoid aspirin in children, due to danger of Reye’s syndrome
Ask about any contact with pregnant women
Notifiable

519
Q

What is the management for scarlet fever?

A

Penicillin or azithromycin if penicillin-allergic for 10 days
Notifiable

520
Q

What factors lead to spread of scabies?

A

Poverty and overcrowding
Institutional care, such as rest homes, hospitals, prisons
Refugee camps
Individuals with immune deficiency

521
Q

How do you catch scabies?

A

Nearly always acquired by skin-to-skin contact with someone else with scabies
Contact may be quite brief such as holding hands with an infested child
Sometimes sexually transmitted
Occasionally scabies is acquired via bedding or furnishings

522
Q

Why does the scabies rash appear 4-6 weeks after infestation?

A

Hypersensitivity reaction

523
Q

What is the management of scabies?

A

Treat whole family simultaneously
Warn patients that itch persists for few weeks after mites killed
Use parasitacide: 1st line Permethrin liquid or cream, apply once weekly for 2 doses to whole body, then wash off after 8hours
Or Malathion

524
Q

What are causative organisms of cellulitis?

A

Streptococcus or Staphylococcus spp

525
Q

What are risk factors for cellulitis?

A

Immunosuppression, wounds, toe web intertrigo, minor skin injury, Diabetes, venous insufficiency, lymphoedema

526
Q

What is the management of cellulitis?

A

Elevation of any affected limbs
Prescribe analgesia as necessary (paracetamol or ibuprofen)
Flucloxacillin 500 mg four times daily (in adults) is usually given as first-line in uncomplicated infection. In sufficient doses, this covers both beta-haemolytic streptococci and penicillinase-resistant staphylococci
Erythromycin 500 mg four times daily can be used if the patient is penicillin-allergic and clarithromycin (500 mg twice daily) if patient is intolerant to erythromycin

527
Q

What is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

Production of epidermolytic toxin from benzylpenicillin-resistant (coagulase positive) staphylococci infection
Develops within a few hours to a few days
Develop fever, irritability, widespread skin erythema, then fluid-
filled blisters which rupture to leave area that looks like a burn
Perioral crusting is typical
Lesions are very painful

528
Q

What is the management of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

Admission
IV Antibiotics – flucloxacillin, clindamycin
Analgesia
Skin care

529
Q

How can a correct diagnosis of fungal infection be confirmed?

A

Skin scrapings, hair or nail clippings, skin swabs

530
Q

What is pityriasis versicolor?

A

Non contagious, superficial yeast infection
Can lead to temporary hypopigmentation
Pityrosporumovale is normal commensal - becomes a pathogen if increased humidity at skin surface and/or increased sebum production

531
Q

What is management of pityriasis versicolor?

A

Ketoconazole or Selenium Sulphide shampoo overnight then wash off, apply twice weekly for 3 weeks
Topical imidazole antifungals an alternative

532
Q

What are exacerbating factors for atopic eczema?

A
Infections
Allergens
Sweating
Heat
Stress
533
Q

What is the management of eczema?

A

General measures: Avoid known exacerbating factors, Regular emollients, Soap substitutes
Topical therapies: Steroids, Immunomodulators eg tacrolimus, pimecrolimus
Oral therapies: Antihistamine for symptomatic relief, Antibiotics/fungal for secondary infection
Phototherapy
Immunosuppressants: Oral prednisolone, Ciclosporin, Azathioprine

534
Q

Which heart abnormalities are associated with Down’s syndrome?

A

AVSD
VSD
Tetralogy of fallot

535
Q

Which heart abnormalities are associated with Edwards and patau syndromes?

A

VSD

Other various defects

536
Q

Which heart defects are associated with turners syndrome?

A

Coarctation of aorta

Aortic stenosis

537
Q

Which heart defects are associated with diGeorge syndrome?

A

Truncus arteriosus
Interrupted aortic arch
Tetralogy of fallot

538
Q

Which heart defect is associated with Williams syndrome?

A

Supravalvar aortic stenosis

539
Q

Which congenital heart defects are associated with maternal diabetes?

A

Transposition of great arteries
VSD
HOCM

540
Q

With which foetal heart problem is maternal SLE associated?

A

Heart block

541
Q

With which heart defects is teratogenic exposure to rubella associated?

A

Coarctation of aorta
VSD
Patent ductus arteriosus

542
Q

With which heart defect is teratogenic exposure to lithium associated?

A

Ebsteins anomaly

543
Q

What are clinical manifestations of congenital heart disease?

A

Cardiac failure: Lt to Rt shunt – first few months
LV outflow obstruction – few days/weeks
Functional failure-cardiomyopathy– tachypnoea, tachycardia, poor feeding, vomiting, sweating, failure to thrive, hepatomegaly
Central Cyanosis: poor lung perfusion Rt to Lt shunt, duct dependant -acutely unwell neonate– cyanotic spells - Tetralogy of fallot

544
Q

Which congenital heart diseases cause cyanosis?

A
5 Ts: 
Tetralogy of fallot 
Transposition great arteries 
Tricuspid atresia
Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage 
Truncus Arteriosus
Pulmonary atresia
545
Q

What is a stills murmur?

A
Functional heart murmur 
Commonest age group 3-7yr
Vibratory/musical in quality 
At apex, radiation to carotids 
May only be audible in supine position
546
Q

What are features of innocent murmurs?

A
Change in intensity with posture 
Always systolic (except venous hum –continuous)
ASYMPTOMATIC
547
Q

What investigations should be done if a baby is found to have a murmur?

A

Chest X-ray – cardiac size, lung vascularity (left to right shunt, pulmonary plethora)
ECG – chamber enlargement
Hyperoxia test - to differentiate between cardiac and pulmonary cause of cyanosis in neonate
Echocardiography - definitive diagnosis
Consider chromosomal analysis (T21, 22q11)

548
Q

Which acyanotic heart defects cause pulmonary plethora?

A

VSD
ASD
PDA
Severe LV outflow obstruction/ hypoplastic left heart

549
Q

Which cyanotic heart defects cause pulmonary oligaemia?

A

Severe PS/atresia

TOF

550
Q

How should a duct be kept open in a neonate with a duct dependent lesion?

A

PGE1 infusion

551
Q

Which heart defects are duct dependent?

A
Coarctation of aorta
Interrupted aortic arch
Critical aortic stenosis
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
TGA
552
Q

Why does squatting help cyanotic spells in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Increase systemic resistance, increase return to right heart so increase pulmonary blood flow

553
Q

What are components of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Pulmonary stenosis
Large VSD
Overriding aorta
RVH

554
Q

What are neonatal fluid requirements from birth?

A

Day 1: 60mls/kg/day
Day 2: 90mls/kg/day
Day 3: 120mls/kg/day
Day 4: 150mls/kg/day
Day they are born is day 0 age but day 1 fluids
Use birth weight for calculation until regained birth weight

555
Q

What size fluid bolus should be given to a shocked child?

A

20mls/kg 0.9% saline

Unless DKA/Trauma/cardiac – 10mls/kg

556
Q

How do you calculate maintenance fluids for a child?

A

0.9% saline with 5% dextrose +/- 10 mmol KCl per 500ml bag
100mls/kg for first 10kg
50mls/kg for second 10kg
20mls/kg after this

557
Q

How do you calculate rehydration fluids in a child?

A

If shocked add 100mls/kg to maintenance requirements. If not shocked add 50mls/kg or
Weight x 10 x percentage dehydration

558
Q

What can be used as oral rehydration fluids in a child?

A

Normal milk
Oral rehydration salts
Avoid fruit juices. fizzy drinks, plain water

559
Q

How much loss of birth weight is acceptable in a newborn?

A

Loss of up to 8% birth weight is acceptable. Any more is too much, are they dehydrated? Failing to thrive

560
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

Primary abnormality of movement and posture secondary to a non-progressive lesion of a developing brain

561
Q

Which brain regions can be affected in cerebral palsy and what defects does this lead to?

A

Injury to extrapyramidal system causes- dystonic CP (basal ganglia) or ataxic CP (cerebellum)
Injury to Pyramidal system (corticospinal tract) causes Spastic CP-Diplegia, Quadriplegia

562
Q

What are some causes of cerebral palsy?

A
Prematurity: 20% at 28/40 Vs 4% at 32/40
LBW 
Infection/Inflammation
Coagulopathy
Antenatal bleeding
Pregnancy induced hypertension/Pre-Eclampsia
Multiple pregnancy
Foetal distress
Sepsis
Kernicterus (Severe unconjugated jaundice)
Severe and prolonged hypoglycaemia
563
Q

What problems are associated with cerebral palsy?

A
Motor –gross, fine motor
Vision and Hearing
Speech
Epilepsy
Feeding 
Gastro Oesophageal Reflux
Constipation/Incontinence
Secondary disabilities – hips, spine, arthritis
Learning disabilities
564
Q

What are management options for cerebral palsy?

A

Treatment of Spasticity- Physiotherapy, Pharmacology- Systemic, Local, Intrathecal, Surgery- Orthopaedic, Peripheral Nerves, Spinal Roots
Treatment of Associated Problems
Enhancing quality of life

565
Q

What is a febrile seizure?

A

Seizures precipitated by fever without evidence of CNS infection or another defined cause

566
Q

What are atypical features of a febrile seizure?

A

Prolonged, Focal or associated with Todd’s paresis

567
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Recurrent, Unprovoked Seizures due to abnormal hyper-synchronous discharge of cortical neurons

568
Q

What are different forms of generalised epilepsy?

A
Myoclonic
Atonic
Tonic
Tonic clonic
Infantile Spasms
569
Q

At what age goes childhood absence epilepsy usually occur?

A

Uncommon before age 5

570
Q

What are features of childhood absence epilepsy?

A

Vacant episodes, absence, sometimes associated with eye flickering
Abrupt start and stop, No post event drowsiness
Very brief lasting 5 to 15 seconds
Occurs in clusters (multiple)
Precipitated by hyperventilation
EEG-3 /seconds spike and wave

571
Q

What is west syndrome?

A

Epileptic Encephalopathy
Age of onset: 3 to 12 months (90% before 1 yr of age)
Infantile Spasm: Sudden, Generalised, Symmetrical Contractions of muscles of limb, trunk and neck occuring in clusters
EEG- Hypsarrhythmia-Chaotic Background

572
Q

What are some causes of West syndrome?

A

Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy, Infections, Acquired Brain Injury, Cortical malformations, Tuberous Sclerosis

573
Q

Which antiepileptics are used in absence seizures?

A

Sodium Valproate, Ethosuximide

574
Q

What treatments are used for west syndrome?

A

Steroid (ACTH), Vigabatrin, Multiple Antiepileptic medications

575
Q

What features are important to ask about in a floppy baby?

A
Hypotonia
Reduced foetal movements
Polyhydramnios
Needing prolonged resuscitation/Artificial Ventilation
Poor feeding/Choking/Aspiration
Poor cry
Poor movements
Alert/ not alert
Fasciculation
576
Q

What might be features of a floppy but strong baby?

A
UMN lesion 
Increased tendon reflexes
Extensor plantar response
Sustained ankle clonus
Global developmental delay
Microcephaly +/-Dysmorphism
Prolonged Seizures
Axial weakness a significant feature
577
Q

What may be causes of a floppy but strong baby?

A

Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy, Hypoglycaemia, Chronic Encephalopathies, Down’s Syndrome, Prader Willi Syndrome, Cerebral Malformations

578
Q

What might be features of a floppy and weak baby?

A
Lower motor neuron disorder
Hypo- to areflexia
Selective motor delay
Normal head circumference and growth
Preserved social interaction
Weakness of limb muscles
Low pitched weak cry
Tongue fasciculations
579
Q

What are some causes of a floppy and weak baby?

A

Neuro-muscular-Congenital Myopathy, Myotonic dystrophy, Myaesthenia, Motor Sensory Neuropathy, Spinal muscular atrophy

580
Q

What investigations would you do for a floppy baby?

A
Bloods: Creatine Kinase, TFT, Congenital Infections (TORCH), Genetics, Metabolic
EMG
Nerve Conduction Studies
ECG
MRI Brain
Nerve/Muscle Biopsy
581
Q

What are management options for a floppy baby?

A

Physio to prevent contractures
OT to facilitate activities of daily living
Prevention/Treatment of Scoliosis
Evaluation and treatment of associated cardiac dysfunction
Feeding
Management of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux
Orthopaedic Interventions
Prevention and prompt treatment of respiratory infections

582
Q

What is the algorithm for paediatric basic life support?

A
Safe, Stimulate, Shout
Airway opening manoeuvres 
Check for breaths (Look/Listen/Feel)
5 rescue breaths
Check signs of life – if absent 
15:2 COMPRESSIONS:BREATHS
583
Q

What equations can be used to estimate a child’s weight?

A

For Infants <12 months: Weight (kg) = (age in months + 9)/2
For Children aged 1-5 years: Weight (kg) = 2 x (age in years +5)
For Children aged 5-14 years: Weight (kg) = 4 x age in years

584
Q

What is life threatening asthma?

A
Sats <92% 
Silent chest
Poor respiratory effort
Altered consciousness
Cyanosis
PEFR <33% best/predicted
585
Q

What is acute severe asthma?

A
PEFR 33-50% best or predicted
Sats 92% or above
Can't complete sentences
Resp rate 25 or more
Pulse 110 or more
586
Q

What is asthma emergency management?

A
High Flow Oxygen
Nebulised Salbutamol 
Nebulised Ipratropium Bromide
Prednisolone/Hydrocortisone
IV Magnesium
IV Salbutamol bolus/infusion
IV Aminophylline
Nurse in HDU 
Continuous monitoring – Sats/Pulse
Repeated nebulisation depending on response
Consider CXR and blood gas
Daily prednisolone for 3-5 days
May need to discuss with ICU
587
Q

What are signs of respiratory distress in an infant?

A
Tachypnoea
Subcostal/intercostal recessions
Tracheal tug
Head bobbing
Nasal flaring
Grunting
588
Q

What is the management of bronchiolitis?

A

High flow O2 – humidified
Hydration – NG feeding or IV fluids
May need to consider high-flow or CPAP
Worst on day 4

589
Q

What is the management of shock in children?

A

High flow oxygen
Venous access – glucose, blood gas
Fluids 20 ml/Kg 0.9% NaCl (except in trauma - 10ml/kg)
Treat low glucose
Involve senior help early
May need inotropic support - central lines
Specific treatment: Iv abx/antivirals if sepsis, IM adrenalin if anaphylaxis

590
Q

Why should you have a higher index of suspicion for sepsis in a child less than 8 weeks old with a temperature?

A

Not yet immunised

591
Q

What septic screen should be performed on a child?

A

Blood – culture, GLUCOSE, gas, FBC/CRP
CXR
Urine
LP if stable enough and no purpuric rash

592
Q

What is the most important and possibly fatal problem associated with DKA?

A

Cerebral oedema from correcting fluids too quickly

593
Q

What can be done to manage cerebral oedema?

A

Mannitol or hypertonic saline
Head up
Intubate and ventilate, keep CO2 low normal
ITU

594
Q

What is round pneumonia?

A

Defined well rounded opacities representing regions of infective consolidation usually only seen in children due to immature airways - lack of development of interalveolar communication and collateral airways
Repeat xray in 4-6 weeks, if it is pneumonia it should have resolved. If not resolved, explore other options

595
Q

What are normal chest X-ray features in a child?

A

Cardiothoracic ratio 60%
Kink of trachea to the right due to prominent thymus
Diaphragm lies at the level of 6th anterior rib
Thymus

596
Q

What is the sail sign on a child’s chest X-ray?

A

Thymus shadow - normal

597
Q

What are radiographic findings of acute respiratory distress syndrome in an infant?

A

Diffuse symmetric reticulogranular densities
Prominent central air bronchograms
Generalised hypoventilation

598
Q

What are complications of respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Compliance of lungs is too low, or mean airway pressure is too high, barotrauma will result
Signs of barotrauma should be identified on neonatal CXR: Pneumothorax, Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE)
Results from rupture of alveoli with air accumulating in peribronchial and perivascular spaces

599
Q

What is the deep sulcus sign?

A

Deep lucent ipsilateral costophrenic angle within nondependent portions of pleural space
Indicator of pneumothorax on a supine chest X-ray

600
Q

What might be seen on an abdominal film in a neonate with necrotising enterocolitis?

A
Dilated loops of bowel
Intramural gas
Portal venous gas
Pneumoperitoneum - football sign 
Riglers sign
601
Q

Which injuries can be picked up on imaging that may suggest NAI?

A

Metaphyseal corner fractures
Fractures and history not consistent with development
Rib fractures – especially posterior and lateral ribs
Subdural haematoma and skull fractures
Other neurological injury – hypoxic ischaemic brain injury, vertebral fractures, spinal haematoma
Fractures healing at different stages

602
Q

What are chest manifestations of cystic fibrosis?

A

Bronchiectasis
Pneumothorax
Infection (consolidation)
Collapse secondary to mucus plugging

603
Q

What does a double bubble sign suggest?

A

Prominent stomach and first part of duodenum

Duodenal atresia

604
Q

What does rickets look like on an X-ray?

A

Cupped and frayed metaphyses

605
Q

What are signs of clinical dehydration in a child?

A
Altered responsiveness
Skin colour unchanged 
Warm extremities 
Sunken eyes 
Dry mucous membranes 
Tachycardia 
Tachypnoea 
Normal peripheral pulses 
Normal capillary refill time      
Reduced skin turgor 
Normal blood pressure
606
Q

What are signs of clinical shock in a child?

A
Decreased level of consciousness 
Pale or mottled skin 
Cold extremities 
Sunken eyes
Dry mucous membranes 
Tachycardia 
Tachypnoea 
Weak peripheral pulses 
Prolonged capillary refill time
Reduced skin turgor 
Hypotension
607
Q

What is the management for a child with acute gastroenteritis with no signs of clinical dehydration?

A

Rehydrate orally using ORS
Frequent small volumes of ORS (5-10 mL every 5 min)
Continue breast feeding
Discourage Fruit juices and carbonated drinks
Continue to supplement with ORS for each watery stool/vomit (5-10 mL/kg per watery stool)
Do not withhold food unless vomiting
Full feeding appropriate for age, well tolerated with no adverse effects

608
Q

What is the management for a child with acute gastroenteritis with signs of clinical dehydration?

A

ORS 50 mL/kg oral over 4 hours for deficit as well as maintenance fluids
If not tolerating oral rehydration (refuses, vomits, takes insufficient
volume), use NG tube
Review after 4 hr when rehydrated start a normal diet, and continue maintenance fluids and supplementary ORS for each watery stool
Consider IV rehydration if not improving
Consider Oral Ondansetron

609
Q

What are causes of chronic diarrhoea (>4 weeks) in a child?

A

Infections
Endocrine: Hyperthyroidism, Adrenal insufficiency
Chronic nonspecific diarrhoea
Coeliac disease
IBS
IBD
Infections
Carbohydrates malabsorption: Lactase deficiency, Glucose-glactose
malabsorption
Dietary: Cow’s Milk/soy protein intolerance
Immune defects: Agammaglobulinemia, IgA deficiency, AIDS
Metabolic: Familial chloride diarrhoea
Cystic fibrosis

610
Q

What proportion of children with constipation will develop chronic symptoms requiring referral?

A

1/3

611
Q

What are normal bowel habits for babies?

A

Significant variation in babies : stool with each feed or a stool every few days
Breast fed: lots of variability in bowel habit, more than formula fed

612
Q

What are causes of constipation in children?

A

Idiopathic: Diet, Stool holding, Emotional problems/phobia (autism)
Due to underlying disease: Neurological conditions (Spina bifida, cerebral palsy), Cystic Fibrosis, Hirsprungs or abnormal bowel development (Meconium >48 hours - delayed, Ribbon stools)
Side effects of medications
Maltreatment or abuse

613
Q

What features in a child under 1 would indicate constipation?

A
<3 type 3 or type 4 stools/week (excl. Breast fed babies after 
6wk) 
Passage of hard large stools
Type 1  ‘rabbit droppings’ 
Distress on stooling 
Bleeding with hard stool 
Straining 
Anal fissures
614
Q

What findings would indicate constipation in a child over 1?

A
<3 type 3/4 stools/week 
Overflow/soiling/smelly 
Type 1 rabbit droppings 
Large infrequent stools that block the toilet 
Poor appetite  
Waxing and waning abdo pain 
Retentive posturing  
Straining /anal pain 
Anal fissures 
Blood with bowel movements
615
Q

What are red and amber flags for constipation in a child?

A

Red Flags: Present at birth /first few weeks of life, Failure to pass meconium within 48hrs of birth, Ribbon stools, Previously unknown/undiagnosed leg weakness or motor delay, Abdo distension and vomiting, Abnormal appearance/position/patency of anus, Abnormal spinal examination, Lower limb deformities, Abnormal reflexes
Amber Flags: Faltering growth, Disclosure /evidence raising concerns over maltreatment

616
Q

What tips can be given for early management of constipation in a child?

A

Drinks: Ensure adequate fluid intake, Additional water between feeds, Diluted fruit juice or pureed fruit/veg, Avoid fizzy/sugary drinks/milk to quench thirst, Fruit juices containing fructose/sorbitol have a laxative action
Diet: High fibre diet, Offer fruit with meals, Add powered bran to foods Regular toileting: A set time, not rushed, Reward system when stool passed in toilet/potty, Remain relaxed when accidents happen

617
Q

What is the management of impacted constipation in a child?

A

Movicol Paediatric Plain, Escalating dose regime mixed with a cold drink
If no disimpaction after 2 weeks add stimulant laxative
If unable to tolerate Movicol, Substitute stimulant laxative +/- osmotic laxative
Once disimpacted, maintenance doses approx half disimpaction dose
Continue at maintenance dose for several weeks after regular bowel habit established
Gradual reduction thereafter, over months
Rare occasions where laxatives may be required for years

618
Q

What investigations should be done for a child presenting with faltering growth?

A
FBC 
U+E
LFT
TFT 
ESR, CRP 
Ig G,A,M 
FAB (functional antibody test)
Anti TTG 
Urine 
CXR, T-spot, Mantoux
619
Q

How does coeliac usually present in children?

A
Classically presents at 6-18 m of age once gluten is introduced 
Most common gastrointestinal manifestations 
Diarrhoea 
Vomiting 
FTT or weight loss 
Distended abdomen 
Abdominal pain 
Constipation
620
Q

What pathological changes are seen in coeliac disease?

A
Villous atrophy 
Crypt hyperplasia 
Loss of enterocyte height 
Lamina propria infiltration 
Increased intra-epithelial lymphocytes
621
Q

How is diagnosis of coeliac disease made?

A
Gliadin IgA/IgG  
Endomysial IgA   
Tissue Transglutaminase IgA  (Anti body test of choice) 
IgA deficiency:  False-negatives 
HLA typing  
Duodenal biopsy (Gold standard test)
622
Q

What conditions are associated with coeliac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis
IgA deficiency (3-5%)
Autoimmune conditions: Thyroid disease, Type 1 diabetes, Addison’s, Sjogrens syndrome

623
Q

What investigations should be done in a child suspected of having IBD?

A
FBC 
ESR 
LFTs including Albumin
CRP 
pANCA (CD) 
GI endoscopy 
Radiology: Strictures, toxic megacolon
624
Q

What is the treatment of pyloric stenosis?

A

Fluid resuscitation
Correct electrolyte imbalances
Pyloromyotomy

625
Q

When does laryngomalacia usually resolve by?

A

Usually before 2 years

626
Q

What are reasons that childhood deaths from infections have decreased in recent years?

A

Improved nutrition
Vaccination
Improved housing / hygiene
Antibiotics

627
Q

What may be presenting symptoms of UTI in a child?

A
Fever 
Vomiting 
Anorexia 
Rigors 
Abdominal pain
628
Q

What are causative organisms of pneumonia in children?

A

Other than neonatal period, viruses (eg RSV) are most common cause
Streptococcus pneumoniae (~70%)
Haemophilus influenzae
Atypical bacteria : Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila pneumoniae

629
Q

Which antibiotics are used to manage pneumonia in children?

A

First line – Amoxicillin
In penicillin allergy or fail to respond – Macrolides
Atypical pneumonia - Macrolide

630
Q

What is di George syndrome?

A

Microdeletion Chromosome 22
Hypocalcemia, recurrent infection (due to problems with T cell mediated response due to hypoplastic thymus), Cleft palate, low set ears, learning problems, Aortic arch anomalies (Rt sided aortic arch, inturrepted AA), Trucal arteriosis, VSD, PDA, TOF

631
Q

What does TGA look like on a chest X-ray?

A

Egg on side shaped

Increased pulmonary marking

632
Q

What are the 3 types of total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage?

A

Supracardiac
Cardiac
Infracardiac

633
Q

What sign on chest X-ray suggests total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage?

A

Snowman sign/figure of 8

634
Q

What are causes of cardiomegaly in a neonate?

A
Heart failure 
HOCM/DCM 
Pericardial effusion 
Significant Lt to Rt shunts 
Ebstein Anomaly
635
Q

What are differentials for a widespread rash in a child?

A
Viral Rash
Drug Rash
Allergic Rash
Scabies
Erythema multiforme
ITP 
Meningococcal
Scarlet fever 
Urticaria 
Measles 
Rubella 
Chicken pox
636
Q

What is heat rash/miliaria?

A

Occurs secondary to heat (warm climates)
Due to obstruction of sweat ducts with leakage of sweat into dermis/epidermis
Common in infant due to underdeveloped sweat glands

637
Q

What is milia?

A
Epidermal inclusion cysts 
Pearly, yellow, 1-3mm diameter papules 
Face, chin, forehead 
50% newborns 
Usually resolve in first month without treatment, but may persist for several months
638
Q

What is a Mongolian blue spot?

A

Blue/black macular discolouration at base of spine and on buttocks
Occasionally on legs or other parts
Usually in dark skin, Afro-Caribbean or Asians
Fades slowly over few days to 1 yr

639
Q

What is Vernix Caseosa?

A

Whitish greasy coat produced by epithelial cell breakdown in newborns
Protect skin from amniotic fluid in utero

640
Q

What is erythema toxicum?

A

Benign Common after 2-3 days of life
Also called neonatal urticaria
White pinpoint papule with erythematous base
Fluid contain eosinophil
Comes and goes
Resolve without any treatment self limiting in 2-4 days

641
Q

What is the most common benign tumour of infancy?

A

Hemangioma (Strawberry Naevus)

642
Q

What is the natural history of a strawberry naevus?

A

Begin as barely visible telangiectasia or red macules and grow in size until 9 month, then regress
60% occur on head and neck area
All gone by age 5yrs

643
Q

How can large strawberry naevi be managed?

A

steriods or interferon-alpha

644
Q

What is a salmon patch?

A

Naevus simplex
Common (40% newborns)
Small flat patches pink or red, poorly defined borders
Nape of neck (stork mark), forehead (angel kiss), eyelids and sacrum
Worse with crying
Not associated with extracutaneous findings
Fade during first month of life

645
Q

What is a port wine stain?

A

Naevus flammeus
Less common than salmon patch, but permanent
Present at birth and darken with age
Large flat patch of purple or dark red skin with well defined borders
Persist in childhood then darkens and thickens
Extracutaneous defects Association: Glaucoma
Along Trigeminal (sturge-weber syndrome) may associate
with intracranial vascular anomalies/epilepsy
Laser Therapy for Cosmetic benefit

646
Q

What are 2 different types of nappy rash?

A

Irritant rash(contact): most common occur when nappies not changed frequently (urine). Skin Flexures (Intertriginous areas) usually spared. Treat with emollient (aquous cream), barrier
cream (Zinc oxide), Nappy free period, Hydrocartisone cream
Candidal Rash involve skin flexures and associated satellite lesions. Treat with topical antifungal agents +/- hydrocortisone

647
Q

What are the presenting features of HSP?

A

Rash: buttocks, extensor surfaces of legs and arms
Joint pain/swelling: knees and ankles
Abdominal pain: haematemesis, melaena, intussusception
Renal: Haematuria, nephrotic syndrome

648
Q

What is the most common vasculitis in childhood?

A

HSP

649
Q

What is the natural history of chickenpox?

A

Begins as itchy red papules progressing to vesicles on bright red base (dew drops on a rose petal) on stomach, back and face, and then spreading to other parts of body
Central umbilication of blisters follows rapidly, crusting and desquamation within 10 days

650
Q

What are complications of chickenpox?

A
Bacterial superinfection
Encephalitis 
Aseptic meningitis
Pneumonitis 
DIC
651
Q

What are the different types of impetigo?

A

Impetigo contagiosa and Bullous Impetigo

652
Q

What causes impetigo?

A

Strep pyogenes or staph aureus

653
Q

What is management of impetigo?

A

Advice about avoiding spread
Localised lesion- topical antibiotic eg Fucidin, mupircin cream
Remove crust with gentle washing
Widespread infection - oral flucloxacillin or erythromycin/augmentin

654
Q

What are prodromal features of measles?

A
Fever
Malasie
Dry cough
Coryza
Conjunctivitis
Photophobia
655
Q

When are patients with measles infectious?

A

Contagious 4 days before rash and 4 days after

656
Q

What are complications of measles?

A
Pneumonia
Otitis media
Tracheitis 
Febrile convulsions
Encephalitis 
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Diarrhoea
Hepatitis
Appendicitis
Corneal ulceration
Myocarditis
657
Q

What causes roseola infantum?

A

Human Herpes virus 6

658
Q

What causes slapped cheek?

A

parvovirus B19

659
Q

What causes molluscum contagiosum?

A

DNA pox virus

660
Q

What are common features of turners?

A
Lymphoedema of hands and feet 
Short Stature 
Webbing of Neck  
Wide carrying Angle (cubitus valgus)
Coarctation of Aorta 
Delayed Puberty-Amenorrhea 
Ovarian dysgenesis (infertility) 
Hypothyroidism 
Renal Anomalies-horseshoe kidney
661
Q

What feature distinguishes noonan syndrome in a male from turners in a female?

A

Noonan: Rt sided PS

662
Q

What are features of achondroplasia?

A
Short stature
Macrocephaly
Flat midface with prominent forehead 
Associated hydrocephalus
Dental malocclusion
Hearing loss  
Normal intelligence and normal lifespans
663
Q

What are features of Williams syndrome?

A
Moderate Developmental Delay
Typical personality (Cocktail)
Characteristic facial features: Periorbital fullness, Stellate iris, Prominent lips/open mouth, Depressed nasal bridge 
Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Hypercalcemia 
Renal anomalies 
Hoarse voice 
Microdeletion 7q11.3
664
Q

What are features of DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Physical Birth Defects: congenital heart disease, cleft lip and palate
Medical Complications: endocrine, immune, skeletal, neurologic, GI
Communication Disorders: Velopharyngeal inadequacy, language delays
Developmental Delays / LD
Social/Behavioural Difficulties
Increased risk for psychiatric illness (25% lifetime)

665
Q

What are features of foetal alcohol syndrome?

A
Saddle shaped nose 
Short palpebral fissures
Epicanthal folds
Indistinct philtrum 
Thin upper lip
Mid facial hypoplasia/microcephaly 
Maxillary hypoplasia 
Developmental delay
666
Q

What are markers of asthma from a peak flow chart?

A

Diurnal variation peak flow greater than 20% for at least 3 days in a week
Or improvement 10 mins after bronchodilator

667
Q

What are the 3 pathological features of asthma?

A

Bronchospasm
Mucosal oedema
Mucous plugging
Which cause obstruction of expiration. Can breathe in but not breathe out which leads to hyperinflation

668
Q

What are side effects of salbutamol?

A

tachycardia, tremor, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia

669
Q

What is the asthma ladder for 5-12 year olds?

A

Inhaled SABA as required
Add inhaled steroid 200-400micrograms/day
Add LABA, if control not adequate can increase steroid to 400. If control not adequate, stop LABA, increase dose, add other agent - leukotriene or theophylline
Increase steroid to 800 micrograms
Refer to paeds, use steroid tablets

670
Q

What is the asthma ladder for under 5s?

A

Inhaled SABA as required
Add inhaled steroid 200-400micrograms or leukotriene antagonist
In those taking steroid, add leukotriene. In those on leukotriene add steroid. If under 2 proceed to referral
Refer to paeds

671
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive
Mutation in CTFR gene: chloride channel
Absence / defect in channel leads to thicker mucous
Most common mutation is delta F508, part of Newborn Blood Spot screening

672
Q

How can cystic fibrosis be diagnosed?

A
Sweat test (>60mmol/l Cl-suggests CF) 
Genetic testing
673
Q

What are important management steps for cystic fibrosis?

A

Nebulised saline / antibiotics /mucolytics
Supplementation: pancreatic enzymes, fat-soluble vitamins, nutritional support
Chest physio
Aggressive treatment of chest infections with IV antibiotics

674
Q

What are clinical signs of dehydration in a neonate?

A

Mild (5%): restlessness, slightly dry mucous membranes, normal skin elasticity, oliguria
Moderate (5-9%): sunken eyes, depressed fontanelle, decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes
Severe (10%): drowsy, irritable with signs of circulatory collapse (rapid weak pulses, delayed cap refil, low BP), sunken eyes, decreased skin turgor

675
Q

What are risk factors for surfactant deficient lung disease/acute respiratory distress syndrome?

A
Prematurity 
Male sex
Diabetic mother
C section
Second born of premature twins
676
Q

What is a chest X-ray appearance in ARDS?

A

Ground glass appearance
Indistinct heart border
Low volumes
Bell shaped thorax

677
Q

What is management of ARDS?

A

Prevention during pregnancy: maternal corticosteroids
Oxygen
Assisted ventilation
Exogenous surfactant given via endotracheal tube

678
Q

How is persistent pulmonary HTN treated?

A

Nitric oxide - pulmonary vasodilation

679
Q

What is persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn?

A

Problem at birth meaning that lungs don’t properly fill with air and pressure remains high in vessels so blood can’t get in to pick up oxygen

680
Q

What factors are associated with persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn?

A
Meconium aspiration
Infection - PROM, GBS
Congenital abnormalities of heart and lungs
Hyaline membrane disease 
Oligohydramnios
681
Q

What are risk factors for meconium aspiration?

A
Pre eclampsia 
Maternal HTN
Oligohydramnios
Maternal infections
Maternal drug use
Placental insufficiency
IUGR 
Post dates
682
Q

What are causes of oligohydramios?

A

Foetal chromosomal abnormalities
Intrauterine infections
Drugs: PG inhibitors, ACE inhibitors
Renal agenesis or obstruction to urinary tract
IUGR
Post dates
Amnion nodosum: failure of secretion by cells of amnion

683
Q

What are causes of polyhydramnios?

A
Intrauterine infections 
Rhesus isoimmunisation
Chorioangioma of placenta
Gut atresia 
Hydrops fetalis 
Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
Maternal cardiac/renal problems
Diabetes
684
Q

In which babies is PDA more common?

A

Premature
Born at high altitude
Maternal rubella infection in first trimester

685
Q

What are features of PDA?

A
Left subclavicular thrill
Continuous machinery murmur
Large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse 
Wide pulse pressure
Heaving apex beat
686
Q

What is the management of PDA?

A

Indomethacin closes connection in majority of cases

If associated with another heart defect amenable to surgery, PGE1 useful to keep duct open until after surgical repair

687
Q

What are features of congenital CMV infection?

A
Growth retardation
Pinpoint petechial “blueberry muffin” skin lesions
Microcephaly
Sensorineural deafness
Encephalitis 
Hepatosplenomegaly
688
Q

What are cutaneous features of tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Ash leaf spots which fluoresce under UV light
Shagreen patches (rough patches over lumbar spine)
Adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas)
Subungual fibromata
Cafe au lait spots

689
Q

What are neurological features of tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Developmental delay
Epilepsy (infantile spasms or partial)
Intellectual impairment

690
Q

What is cyclical vomiting syndrome?

A

Commonly associated migraines
Severe nausea and sudden vomiting lasting hours to days
Prodromal intense sweating and nausea
Well between episodes

691
Q

What are the most common heart problems in Down’s syndrome?

A
AVSD
VSD
PDA
TOF
ASD
692
Q

What is an indication to start steroids in ITP?

A

If child develops bleeding complications

693
Q

What is PKU?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of phenylalanine metabolism due to defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase
High levels of phenylalanine lead to learning difficulties, seizures (infantile spasms)
Other features fair hair, blue eyes, eczema, musty odour to urine and sweat