Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different categories of disorders within psychiatry?

A
  • Mood Disorders
  • Anxiety Disorders
  • Thought Disorders
  • Neurodevelopmental Disorders
  • Personality Disorders
  • Trauma and Stressor Disorders
  • Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders
  • Somatic Symptom Disorders
  • Eating Disorders
  • Substance related and Addictive Disorders
  • Dissociative Disorders
  • Sleep-Wake Disorders
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2
Q

What are Mood Disorders and give some examples of them

A

Mood disorders are characterized by disturbances in a person’s emotional state, which can range from depression to mania.

Examples:

  • Major Depressive Disorder
  • Bipolar Disorder (Type I and II)
  • Dysthymic (Persistent Depressive Disorder) Disorder
  • Cyclothymic Disorder
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3
Q

What are Anxiety Disorders and give some examples of them

A

Anxiety disorders involve excessive fear or anxiety and related behavioural disturbances.

Examples:

  • Generalised Anxiety Disorder
  • Panic Disorder
  • Social Anxiety Disorder
  • Specific Phobias
  • Agoraphobia
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4
Q

What are Thought Disorders and give some examples of them

A

Thought disorders are characterized by abnormalities in thinking, perception, and behaviour, typically involving psychosis (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking).

Examples:

  • Schizophrenia
  • Schizoaffective
  • Brief Psychotic Disorder
  • Delusional Disorder
  • Depression with Psychosis
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5
Q

What are Neurodevelopmental Disorders and give some examples of them

A

These disorders typically present early in development and are characterized by developmental deficits that affect personal, social, and academic functioning.

Examples:

  • Autism Spectrum Disorder
  • ADHD
  • Intellectual Disability
  • Specific Learning Disorders
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6
Q

What are Personality Disorders and give some examples of them

A

Personality disorders involve enduring patterns of behaviour, cognition, and inner experience that deviate markedly from the expectations of the individual’s culture.

Examples:

  • Emotionally Unstable Personality Disorder (Borderline)
  • Antisocial Personality Disorder
  • Narcissistic Personality Disorder
  • Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder
  • Avoidant Personality Disorder
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7
Q

What are Trauma/Stressor Related Disorders and give some examples of them

A

These disorders develop after exposure to a traumatic or stressful event and include both psychological and physiological symptoms.

Examples:

  • Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
  • Acute Stress Reaction
  • Adjustment Disorder
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8
Q

What are Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders and give some examples of them

A

These conditions involve obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviours or other repetitive, ritualistic behaviours.

Examples:

  • Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
  • Body Dysmorphia Disorder
  • Hoarding Disorder
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9
Q

What are Somatic Symptom related Disorders and give some examples of them

A

These disorders are characterized by the presence of physical symptoms that are not explained by medical conditions and are often associated with significant psychological distress.

Examples:

  • Somatic Symptom Disorder
  • Illness Anxiety Disorder (hypochondriasis)
  • Functional Neurological Disorder
  • Factitious Disorder
  • Malingering Disorder
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10
Q

What are Eating Disorders and give some examples of them

A

Eating disorders are characterized by abnormal eating habits that negatively affect health.

Examples:

  • Anorexia Nervosa
  • Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)
  • Bulimia Nervosa
  • Binge Eating Disorder
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11
Q

What are Substance Related/Addictive Disorders and give some examples of them

A

These disorders involve the excessive use of substances (e.g., alcohol, drugs) or behaviours that lead to significant impairment or distress.

Examples:

  • Alcohol Use Disorder
  • Opioid Use Disorder
  • Gambling Disorder
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12
Q

What are Dissociative Disorders and give some examples of them

A

These disorders involve disruptions in consciousness, memory, identity, or perception.

Examples:

  • Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)
  • Dissociative Amnesia
  • Depersonalisation/Derealisation Disorder
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13
Q

What are Sleep-Wake Disorders and give some examples of them

A

Sleep disorders involve problems with the quality, timing, and amount of sleep, leading to daytime distress and impairment.

Examples:

  • Insomnia Disorder
  • Narcolepsy
  • Sleep Apnoea
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14
Q

What is the definition of ADHD?

A

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

Is a neuro-developmental disorder characterised by features relating to inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity that are persistent.

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15
Q

What is the epidemiology of ADHD?

A
  • More common in Boys (M:F 4:1)
  • Persists to adult hood in 30-50% of cases.
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16
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of ADHD?

A
  • Executive Dysfunction resulting in disruption in regulation and control of thought processes in the brain
  • Reduced levels of dopamine and noradrenaline
  • Issues in the Mesolimbic (Dopamine) and Locus Coeruleus System (Noradrenaline) which regulate executive and stress responses
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17
Q

What are the causes/risk factors for ADHD?

A

Multifactorial

  • Genetics 74% heritability
  • 3-4x risk if siblings suffer
  • Environment
  • Pregnancy issues: Alcohol, Smoking, Prematurity, Infections, Low birth weight
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18
Q

What are the Subsets of ADHD?
What are the Signs and Symptoms of ADHD?

A

Inattentive: 31%

  • Easily distracted and difficult to sustain tasks
  • Difficult to organise tasks and activities
  • Forgetful in daily activities
  • Loses things often
  • Doesn’t listen when spoken to directly
  • Doesn’t follow through on instructions

Hyperactive/Impulsive: 7%

  • Talks Excessively
  • Cannot wait their turn
  • “on the go”
  • Interruptive or intrusive to others
  • answer prematurely before questions are finished
  • Spontaneously leave their seat when expected to sit.

Combined: 62% Mix of both features

  • Emotional Dysregulation - Emotional response that doesn’t fit within traditionally accepted range.
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19
Q

What are some other disorders that ADHD patients also commonly suffer with?

A
  • Anxiety and Depression
  • Sleep disorders
  • Autism Spectrum Disorder
  • Learning Disabilities
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20
Q

What are some complications of ADHD?

A
  • Persists to adulthood in 30-50% of cases
  • Higher prevalence of Substance Abuse
  • Increased suicide rates
  • 25% incidence in prison.
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21
Q

What is the criteria used to make a diagnosis of ADHD?

A

International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11)

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22
Q

What are the criteria on the ICD-11 for a diagnosis of ADHD?

A
  • Symptoms of Inattention, Hyperactivity or impulsivity (DSM says 6/9 Sx)
  • Present for at least 6 months
  • Onset should occur during Childhood (typically before 12 years)
  • Significant Functional impairment in personal, social, academic or occupational functioning
  • Impairment present in 2 or more settings
  • Not better explained by an alternative mental health or neurodevelopmental disorder
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23
Q

What are some differentials for ADHD?

A

Learning Disabilities:
Characterised by difficulties in reading, writing, mathematics or other learning skills, often with normal attention span.

Conduct Disorder:
Presents with persistent pattern of antisocial behaviour, such as aggression or destructiveness.

Autism Spectrum Disorder:

Mood Disorders:
E.g. depression and bipolar disorder, can cause concentration problems and impulsivity

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24
Q

What screening tools may be used to aid a diagnosis of ADHD?

A

Children:

  • Strengths and Difficulties questionnaire
  • Conner’s rating Scale

Adults

  • Adult ADHD Self-Report Scale (ASRS)
  • Diagnostic Interview for ADHD in Adults (DIVA) Questionnaire
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25
Q

What investigations are done for ADHD?

A

Diagnosis is done primarily done using the ICD-11/DSM-5 criteria. But the following can also help:

  • Comprehensive history and physical examination (Clinical Interview)
  • 10 week watch and wait Observation of the individual’s behaviour and see if Sx resolve
  • Teacher and parent reports or rating scales
  • Nurse observation in classrooms
  • Neuropsychological testing
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26
Q

What is the management of ADHD?
What is first line
What referral may be made?
What medications can be used?
What monitoring is required for the medications?

A

Non-Pharmacological

  • Watchful waiting for up to 10 weeks
  • Healthy diet and exercise.
  • Behaviour management - including reward charts, positive redirection.
  • Behavioural Therapies - CBT, Psychoeducation, interpersonal therapy is first line for management

If symptoms persist

  • Referral to CAMHS

Pharmacological: Stimulant Medications (Amphetamines/Methylphenidate)

  • First Line in children in Severe/uncontrolled Sx: Methylphenidate on 6 week trial basis
  • Second line in children: Dexamfetamine or Atomoxetine
  • Cannot be given to children <5 years
  • Children should have weight and height monitored every 6 months
  • First Line in Adults: Either Methylphenidate/Lisdexamfetamine
  • Second line: Lisdexamfetamine
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27
Q

What is the Mechanism of Action of Amphetamines and Methylphenidate?

A

CNS Stimulants:
Dopamine and Noradrenaline re-uptake inhibitors

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28
Q

What monitoring is required when patients are started on Methyphenidate?

A

Methylphenidate has appetite suppressing effects and so can lead to impacts in growth and weight

  • Weight and Height should be monitored every 6 months.

A baseline ECG should also be performed as these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic.

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29
Q

What are the side effects of Amphetamines and Methylphenidate?

A
  • Cardiotoxic: perform Baseline ECG before starting treatment
  • Insomnia
  • Nausea and Vomiting
  • Decreased Appetite
  • Increased Blood pressure.
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30
Q

What is the definition of Major Depressive Disorder?

A

Major Depressive Disorder
It’s a common mental health disorder typified by persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyable

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31
Q

What is the epidemiology of depression?

A
  • Lifetime risk is around 1 in 8 (12%)
  • Increased prevalence in Females (F:M 2:1)
  • Mean age of onset is 40 years (but becoming more present in younger people)
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32
Q

What causes/risk factors depression?

A

Genetics

  • Family history of depression
  • High concordance in twins
  • Personal history of depression

Environmental:

  • Stressful life events
  • Childhood abuse
  • Substance abuse
  • Medical conditions
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33
Q

What are some key psychosocial contributors to developing depression?

A

Potential triggers (e.g. loss of a family member)
Home environment
Family relationships
Relationship with friends
Sexual relationships
School situations and pressures
Bullying
Drugs and alcohol
History of self harm
Thoughts of self harm or suicide
Family history
Parental depression
Parental drug and alcohol use
History of abuse or neglect

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34
Q

What is the Diasthesis-Stress Model?

A

A Stressful event in a person with pre-existing vulnerability has a greater likelihood of developing depression.

Therefore 2 people experiencing the same stressful event: one without pre-existing vulnerability may not develop depression whilst the other individual does.

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35
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of Major Depressive Disorder?

A

Monoamine Theory:

  • Lack of monoamine neurotransmitters: Serotonin, Dopamine, Noradrenaline
  • However low serotonin in healthy people doesn’t cause depression.

Hypothalamic Pituitary Axis Disturbance:

  • Increase cortisol, Low dexamethasone suppression.

Immune System:

  • Excessive cytokine release
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36
Q

What is the criteria used to Diagnose Major Depressive Disorder and what are the clinical features of the criteria?

A

DSM-5
Must have 5 or more /9 features Including at least 1 or more core features for 2 weeks and have clinical distress/functional impairment where the symptoms are not due to substances/other conditions

Core Features:

  • Low Mood
  • Anhedonia

Other Features:

  • Weight gain/loss
  • Sleep disturbance
  • Fatigue/low energy
  • Psychomotor retardation
  • Inappropriate guilt/worthlessness
  • Reduced concentration
  • Recurrent thoughts of death
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37
Q

What are the symptoms of Depression?

  • Core symptoms
  • Emotional Symptoms
  • Cognitive Symptoms
  • Physical Symptoms
A

Core Symptoms

  • Low mood
  • Anhedonia (a lack of pleasure or interest in activities)

Emotional symptoms include:

  • Anxiety
  • Irritability
  • Low self-esteem
  • Guilt
  • Hopelessness about the future

Cognitive symptoms include:

  • Poor concentration
  • Slow thoughts
  • Poor memory

Physical symptoms include:

  • Low energy (tired all the time)
  • Abnormal sleep (particularly early morning waking)
  • Poor appetite or overeating
  • Slow movements
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38
Q

What are 2 scales that can assess the severity of Major Depressive Disorder?

A

Patient Health Questionnaire 9 (PHQ9)

  • PHQ-9 < 16 = Less severe depression
  • PHQ-9 >16 = More severe depression

Severity

  • 5-9 indicates mild depression
  • 10-14 indicates moderate depression
  • 15-19 indicates moderately severe depression
  • 20-27 indicates severe depression

Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) Scale:

  • 14 questions - 7 for anxiety and 7 for depression
  • Each question scored from 0-3 to produce a score out of 21.
  • 0-7 normal, 8-10 borderline, 11 case
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39
Q

What are the main differentials for depression?

A

Bipolar Disorder

Anxiety Disorders

Substance/Medication-Induced Mood Disorder
Mood disturbance associated with intoxication or withdrawal from substances or side effects of medications.

Adjustment Disorders
Development of emotional or behavioural symptoms in response to identifiable stressors.

Various organic causes also need to be considered:

Neurological disorders
E.g. Parkinson’s disease, dementia, and multiple sclerosis.

Endocrine disorders especially thyroid dysfunction and hypo/hyperadrenalism (e.g., Cushing’s and Addison’s disease).

Substance use or medication side effects
e.g. steroids, isotretinoin, alcohol, beta-blockers, benzodiazepines, and methyldopa.

Chronic conditions
like diabetes and obstructive sleep apnea.

Long-standing infections

Neoplasms and cancers
low mood can theoretically be a presenting complaint in any cancer, with pancreatic cancer being a notable example.

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40
Q

What investigations are done for Depression?

A

Depression is primarily a clinical diagnosis using DSM-5 or ICD-11, with patients fulfilling the diagnostic criteria outlined above. Other investigations that are done can be:

  • Patient Health Questionaire - 9 (PHQ-9)
  • Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HAD)
  • FBC
  • TFTs
  • U+Es
  • LFTs
  • Blood glucose
  • B12/Folate Levels
  • Cortisol levels
  • Toxicology Screen
  • CNS Imaging
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41
Q

What is the Management Algorithm for Major Depressive Disorder?

A

Lifestyle Advice

First Line: Psychotherapy

  • Favoured in Under 18s
  • Should be trialled first line in less severe depression

Second Line: Mediation in combination with CBT

  • For more severe depression
  • For mild depression that hasn’t responded to psychotherapy.
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42
Q

What is the Non-Pharmacological Management of Depression?

A

Lifestyle Changes:

  • Exercise and Diet changes
  • Reduce alcohol and stop smoking
  • Stop drug use
  • Regular Schedule

Psychotherapies:
Less severe depression:

  • Guided self-help
  • Group Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)
  • Interpersonal Therapy

More severe depression:

  • Individual CBT (with medication)
  • individual behavioural activation
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43
Q

What is the Pharmacological management of depression?

A

First-line pharmacological treatment:

  • Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI): Sertraline, Citalopram, Fluoxetine
  • Fluoxetine is first line in children
  • Selective Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRI): Duloxetine, Venlafaxine (Work well in patients with associated pain disorders)

2nd line pharmacological treatment

  • Atypical Anti-depressants: Mirtazapine
  • Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs): Amitriptyline
  • Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors: Selegiline
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44
Q

What should be considered/informed when starting anti-depressant medications?

A
  • Tend to take a few months to work where symptoms may get worse before they get better
  • Continuation of antidepressants for at least six months post-remission is recommended to mitigate relapse risk.
  • Tapering should be done gradually over a four-week period when discontinuing antidepressants.
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45
Q

What is the definition of Refractory Depression?

A

Its defined as a failure to demonstrate an adequate response to an adequate treatment trial

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46
Q

How is Refractory Depression Managed?

A
  • Antipsychotics: Olanzepine, Quetiapine
  • Lithium

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) (After all other approaches have been tried). is safe and effected for Severe medication resistant and psychotic depression

  • Requires a GA
  • Electrodes trigger a short generalised seizure
  • Side effects include: Headache, Muscle Ache, Memory loss (short term)
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47
Q

What is Depression with Psychosis?

A

Involves Depression with Psychotic features:

  • Delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Thought Disorder
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48
Q

What is the management of Depression with Psychosis?

A

Combination of:

  • Antipsychotics (Olanzapine, Quetiapine)
  • Antidepressants (Sertraline, Citalopram)
  • ECT is an option
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49
Q

What is the definition of Austistic Spectrum Disorders (ASDs)?

A

ASDs are a set of complex neuro-developmental disorders, characterised by a spectrum of impaired social, communication, and behavioural deficits. and restrictive or repetitive patterns or interests

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50
Q

What is the epidemiology of Autistic Spectrum Disorders?

A
  • Higher prevalence in Males (M:F 3/4:1)
  • Prevalence of 1-2%
  • Features normally present by age 3
  • Around 50% of children with ASD have intellectual disability
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51
Q

What are some risk factors for developing an ASD?

A

Genetics:

  • Male sex
  • Advanced parental age at the time of conception
  • Certain genetic mutations
  • Maternal exposure to specific drugs or infections during pregnancy

Environment:

  • No current clear risk factors
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52
Q

What deficits in social interaction might someone with Autism show?

A
  • Lack of eye contact
  • Delay in smiling
  • Avoids physical contact
  • Unable to read non-verbal cues
  • Difficulty establishing friendships
  • Not displaying a desire to share attention (i.e. not playing with others)
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53
Q

What deficits in communication might someone with Autism show?

A
  • Delay, absence or regression in language development
  • Lack of appropriate non-verbal communication such as smiling, eye contact, responding to others and sharing interest
  • Difficulty with imaginative or imitative behaviour
  • Repetitive use of words or phrases
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54
Q

What behavioural traits may someone with Autism show?

A
  • Greater interest in objects, numbers or patterns than people
  • Stereotypical repetitive movements. There may be self-stimulating movements that are used to comfort
    themselves, such as hand-flapping or rocking.
  • Intensive and deep interests that are persistent and rigid
  • Repetitive behaviour and fixed routines
  • Anxiety and distress with experiences outside their normal routine
  • Extremely restricted food preferences
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55
Q

What criteria is used to diagnose Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

DSM-5 criteria based on 2 major areas: Impairments in

  • Social communication and Interaction
  • Restricted or Repetitive behaviour/interests/activities

With

  • Sx present in early developmental period
  • Sx cause significant impairment
  • Not better explained by intellectual disability

Diagnosis is made by an Autism Specialist

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56
Q

What other conditions are typically seen in people with ASD?

A
  • ADHD (35%)
  • Epilepsy (18%)
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57
Q

What are some differentials for ASDs?

A

Intellectual Disability
Characterised by generalised deficits in intellectual functioning and adaptive behaviour, typically lacking the social deficits seen in ASD.

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
Exhibits symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity, but does not exhibit significant social or language communication deficits as seen in ASD.

Specific Language Impairment
Characterised by difficulties in language acquisition in the absence of cognitive impairment. Unlike ASD, social interaction is not typically affected.

Childhood Schizophrenia
Characterised by hallucinations, delusions, and disorganised speech or behaviour, which are not typical in ASD.

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58
Q

How is an ASD diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis should be made through a multidisciplinary assessment completed by a specialist in autism.

This can involve:

  • Psychological evaluation
  • Speech and language assessment
  • Cognitive assessment
  • Thorough review of the child’s behaviour in different settings (home, school, etc.).
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59
Q

Who may be involved in the MDT for a patient with ASD?

A

Child and adolescent mental health services (CAMHS)
Psychologists
Speech and language specialists
Dieticians
Paediatricians
Social workers
Specially trained educators and special school environments
Charity organisations (e.g., National Autistic Society

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60
Q

What is the Management for Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

MDT approach: focussing on Behavioural interventions and Family support

  • Applied Behavioural Analysis (ABA)
  • ASD Preschool program
  • Family support and Counselling
  • Family education on interaction and acceptance of child’s behaviour
  • Medications: like SSRIs may be helpful for some symptoms
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61
Q

What is Bipolar Disorder?

A

Bipolar disorder is a chronic mental health disorder characterised by periods of mania/hypomania alongside episodes of depression

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62
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorder?

A
  • Develops in the late teen years
  • Lifetime prevalence of 2%
  • Male:Female ration of 1:1
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63
Q

What are the risk factors for developing Bipolar Disorder?

A

Genetics:

  • First degree family member = 10x risk
  • 1 parent affected = 15-30% risk
  • 2 parents affected = 50-75% risk

Environment:

  • Stressors such as death, illness, relationships or financial problems
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64
Q

What are the types of Bipolar Disorder?
what is the condition ccalled if they dont meet criteria?

A

Type I: At least 1 episode of Mania with depression that follows (most common)

Type II: At least 1 episode of Major depression and an episode of Hypomania

Cyclothymic Disorder depressive and hypomania like episodes that do not meet the DSM-5 criteria

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65
Q

What is the DSM-5 criteria for mania/hypomania?

A

Mania: 3 or more features for >7 days AND impaired function or threat to others

Hypomania: 3 or more features for >4 days that do not cause impairment but may be observable to others

Features:

  • Diminished need for sleep
  • Sense of Grandiosity
  • Pressured Speech
  • Racing thoughts/ideas/Flight of ideas
  • Distractibility
  • Goal oriented behaviour
  • Excessive pleasures

Psychosis features (delusions and hallucinations) suggest mania rather than hypomania

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66
Q

What is Mania/Hypomania?

A

Mania: Excessively elevated mood and energy that significantly impacts normal functions (caring and work responsibilities)

Hypomania: milder symptoms of mania without a significant impact on their function.

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67
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Bipolar Disorder?

A

It depends on the phase of the disorder:

Depressive Phase

  • Withdrawal
  • Tearfulness
  • Low mood
  • Poor sleep
  • Anhedonia
  • Potential suicidal ideation or attempts.

Manic Phase

  • Elevated mood
  • Irritability
  • Disinhibition and sexual inappropriateness
  • Impulsivity
  • Reduced need for sleep
  • Mood congruent delusions
  • Pressured speech
  • Flight of ideas.
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68
Q

What are some differentials for Bipolar Disorder?

A

Major Depressive Disorder
Characterised by low mood, loss of interest or pleasure, feelings of worthlessness, impaired concentration, and possible suicidality.

Schizoaffective Disorder
Presents with hallucinations, delusions, disorganised speech, disorganised behaviour, and symptoms of depression or mania.

Generalised Anxiety Disorder
Chronic and excessive worry, restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, and sleep disturbance.

Substance-Induced Mood Disorder
Mood disturbances caused by substance misuse or withdrawal.

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69
Q

How is Bipolar Disorder diagnosed?

A

ICD 10/11

  • At least 2 episodes of significant mood disturbance

ICD10

  • Where there is at least one or more episode of mania/hypomania
  • and one or more depressive episodes

ICD 11

  • Where each of the two episodes includes both Mania/hypomania and Depressive episodes

AND

  • Significant impairment in social, occupational or other important areas of functioning
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70
Q

What is the acute management for Bipolar Disorder?

Acute manic episode (what else must be remembered)
Acute Depressive Episode

A

Acute Manic Episode:

  • First Line: Antipsychotic medications: Olanzapine, Haloperidol, Risperidone
  • Existing antidepressants are Tapered and stopped
  • Other options: lithium, Sodium Valproate

Acute Depressive Episode:

  • First Line: Olanzapine PLUS Fluoxetine
  • Lamotrigine
  • Psychotherapy: CBT
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71
Q

What is the chronic management for Bipolar Disorder?

A

Long-term maintenance therapy is crucial due to high relapse risk:

Mood stabilisers

  • First line: Lithium
  • Alternatives: Anti-epileptics (Sodium Valproate, Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine), Olanzapine

High-intensity Psychotherapies

  • CBT, interpersonal therapy, or couples/family therapy better for managing depressive features

Resistant cases/very severe Bipolar disorder:

  • Electroconvulsive therapy
  • Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation
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72
Q

When should referrals be made by Primary care for Bipolar disorder?

A

Symptoms of hypomania then NICE recommend routine referral to Community Mental Health Team (CMHT)

Symptoms of Mania or Severe depression then NICE recommend urgent referral to CMHT

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73
Q

What are the side effects of Lithium?

A

LITHIUM:

Level - 0.4-1 mmol/l - Leukocytosis
Insipidus - Nephrogenic DI increasing ADH
Tremors (fine)
(de)Hydration - Dry mouth, Diarrhoea, Thirsty
Increased weight, calcium, PTH hormone and memory problems
Underactive thyroid (Decreased TSH) can also cause acute thyrotoxicosis
Mums aware - Epstein’s anomaly, Metallic Taste

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74
Q

What needs to be monitored when using Lithium?

What should be considered to avoid problems?

A

Renal and thyroid function

  • Sodium restricted diet
  • Diuretics and NSAIDs should be used with caution
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75
Q

Why are antidepressants rarely used as a monotherapy in the management of Bipolar disorder?

A

They can precipitate episodes of Mania

Fluoxetine is commonly used in combination with Olanzapine

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76
Q

Why does monitoring need to be done when taking lithium?

A

Monitoring for renal or thyroid dysfunction

  • Serum lithium levels taken 12 hours after the most recent dose.

Monitoring for Lithium Toxicity

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77
Q

What are some features of lithium Toxicity?

What are some precipitants to Lithium Toxicity?

What is the management of Lithium Toxicity?

A

Features of Toxicity (TOXIC):

  • Tremor (coarse)
  • Oliguric renal failure
  • ataXia (affects coordination, balance and speech)
  • Increased reflexes
  • Convulsions / Coma / loss of Consciousness

Precipitants: (4 D’s):

  • Dehydration
  • Drugs (NSAIDS,ACEis)
  • Diuretics
  • Depletion of Sodium

Management:

  • Stop and withdraw Lithium
  • Rehydrate with normal IV Saline Fluids
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78
Q

What considerations are made in regards to using Valproate as a mood stabiliser?

A

Valproate Pregnancy Prevention Programme

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79
Q

Define the term anxiety?

When may an individual be termed to have anxiety disorder?

A

A state of apprehension, uncertainty or uneasiness in anticipation of a real or perceived threat.

When these feelings are persistent and impact an individuals ability to function, they may be termed Anxiety disorder

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80
Q

What are some specific disorders that come under the umbrella term anxiety disorder?

A
  • Generalised Anxiety Disorder
  • Specific Phobias
  • Panic Disorder
  • Agoraphobia
  • Social Anxiety Disorder
  • PTSD
  • Separation anxiety
  • OCD
  • Selective Mutism
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81
Q

What is the definition of a Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?

A

Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) is defined as at least 6 months of excessive worry about everyday issues that is disproportionate to any inherent risk, causing distress or impairment.

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82
Q

What is the epidemiology of GAD?

A

Higher prevalence in Females

Higher prevalence in younger age groups (age of onset after 35 is more indicative of depressive disorder or organic disease).

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83
Q

What are some risk factors for GAD?

A

Comorbid anxiety disorders
Females (F:M 2:1)
Genetics: first degree relative

Childhood adversity

  • Maltreatment (e.g. sexual or physical abuse), neglect.
  • Maternal depression, family disruption (e.g. divorce).
  • Domestic violence, parental alcoholism, or drug use.

Physical, sexual, or emotional trauma

  • Physical or sexual abuse or assault.
  • Motor vehicle accident.
  • Sudden bereavement.

Sociodemographic factors

  • Separated, widowed, divorced.
  • Unemployment.
  • Low socioeconomic status.
  • Low education levels.
  • Substance dependence or exposure to organic solvents

Chronic physical condition

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84
Q

How can you distinguish between different anxiety disorders?

A

Symptoms of Anxiety

  • autonomic - palpitations, sweating, nausea, dizziness
  • Motor Tension - headaches, fidgety
  • Apprehension

Present for about a month

Panic Disorder come on acutely, in extreme bursts, no anxiety in between

Phobias come on in a particular situation/avoidance of that

GAD pervasive features present majority of the time

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85
Q

What is the criteria to diagnose GAD?

A

DSM-5 Criteria where symptoms last for 6 months with the anxiety being disproportionate to threat which has an impact on the individuals ability to function and these symptoms are not due to another medical condition or substance use

3 of the following 6 key symptoms are required for a diagnosis (only 1 in kids)

  • Restlessness or nervousness
  • Being easily fatigued
  • Poor concentration
  • Irritability
  • Muscle tension
  • Sleep disturbance
    in combination with an inability to manage their worry
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86
Q

How is GAD severity assessed?

what are the results?

A

Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7)

  • 5-9 indicates mild anxiety
  • 10-14 indicates moderate anxiety
  • 15-21 indicates severe anxiety
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87
Q

What are some differentials for GAD?

A
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Substance abuse/withdrawal
  • Panic disorder
  • Depression
  • Medications - Salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants and caffeine
  • Avoidant personality disorder
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88
Q

How is GAD managed?

A

NICE suggest Step-wise approach:

  • Step 1 (Mild GAD): Psychoeducation about Lifestyle (sleep, diet, exercise, smoking, alcohol, drugs) .Psychoeducation about GAD + active monitoring
  • Step 2 (Mild GAD): low-intensity psychological interventions (individual non-facilitated self-help or individual guided self-help or psychoeducational groups)
  • Step 3 (Moderate-severe GAD): high-intensity psychological interventions (cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation) or drug treatment.
  • Step 4 (Severe GAD): highly specialist input e.g. Multi agency teams
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89
Q

What is the Medication management of Generalised Anxiety Disorder?

A

First Line: Sertraline

Second Line: Alternative SSRI or an SNRI

Third Line: Pregabalin

Propranolol may be used to treat physical symptoms but doesn’t control underlying anxiety

Patients under 30 years should be warned of increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-half when starting medication

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90
Q

Define Panic Disorder

A

Recurrent panic attacks that may be due to a specific situation or without a trigger occurring for at least 1 month that leads to impact beyond the attacks (such as worry of having panic attacks)

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91
Q

What is the epidemiology of Panic Disorder?

A
  • 1/3 people will suffer a panic attack
  • 10% of these may have Panic Disorder
  • Onset commonly in 20s
  • More common in females
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92
Q

What are panic attacks?

A

Sudden onset intense physical and emotional symptoms of anxiety that come on within minutes and last for 10-20 minutes before the symptoms gradually fade.

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93
Q

What is the Criteria for Diagnosing Panic Disorder?

A

Recurrent panic attacks for at least 1 month where there is a sudden surge of fear/anxiety/physical discomfort which leads to the fear of having panic attacks and thus avoiding situations plus at least 4 of:

  • Palpitations
  • Sweating
  • Trembling
  • Sensation of breathlessness
  • Sensation of chocking
  • Chest pain/discomfort
  • Nausea/abdominal discomfort
  • Light-headedness
  • Chills
  • Paraesthesia
  • Derealisation
  • Fear of losing control
  • Fear of dying
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94
Q

What is the management for Panic Disorder?

A

Stepwise approach:

  • Step 1: recognition and diagnosis
  • Step 2: treatment in primary care: CBT or SSRI (sertraline)
  • Step 3: review and consideration of alternative treatments (No response after 12 weeks then try imipramine)
  • Step 4: review and referral to specialist mental health services
  • Step 5: care in specialist mental health services
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95
Q

What are the 3 common CAMHS anxiety disorders?

A

Separation anxiety
School Phobia
Selective Mutism

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96
Q

What are the features of Separation Anxiety?

A

4 week period
Most common anxiety disorder under 10

  • Developmentally inappropriate
  • Excessive worry about harm coming to primary care giver
  • Causing pronounced stress and agitation
  • Leading to inability to be separated (eg. school, bedtime)
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97
Q

What are the features of Selective Mutism?

A

Period of at least 6 months occurring most days

  • Selective mutism is related to social anxiety disorder
  • Fear of speaking in social contexts or situations
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98
Q

What are the features of School Phobia?

A

Significant anxiety symptoms
Fear of a specific part of school
Avoidance of School

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99
Q

What is the definition of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health disorder characterised by the presence of persistent obsessions and/or compulsions

These are time consuming (i.e. take more than 1 hour per day) and/or cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.

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100
Q

What are Obsessions?

A

Obsessions are unwanted and uncontrolled thoughts and intrusive images that the person finds it very difficult to ignore.

E.g. an overwhelming fear of contamination with dirt or germs; or violent or explicit images that keep appearing in their mind.

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101
Q

What are the 3 most common obsessions in OCD?

A

Contamination/Hygiene

Harm

Order/Symmetry and exactness (perfectionism)

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102
Q

What are Compulsions?

A

Compulsions are repetitive actions the person feels they must do, generating anxiety if they are not done. Often these compulsions are a way for the person to handle the obsessions.

E.g. checking that all electrical equipment is turned off to settle the anxiety of obsessing about the house burning down.

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103
Q

Describe the cycle of anxiety seen in OCD?

A

Obsessions lead to anxiety, which leads to the compulsive behaviour, which leads to a temporary relief in the anxiety.

Shortly after the temporary improvement in anxiety the obsession reappears, leading to further anxiety, further compulsive behaviour with a temporary relief.

This cycle continues and each time gets more engrained in the person’s behaviour. Without doing the compulsions, the person feels they cannot get relief from their anxiety.

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104
Q

What is the epidemiology of OCD?

A

It affects Males and Females equally (although presents earlier and more severely in males)

Affects around 3% of population

More common in pregnant and post-partum women

Bimodal age of onset, peaking at 10 and 21 years

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105
Q

What are the risk factors for developing OCD?

A
  • Family history
  • Age: peak onset is between 10-20 years
  • Pregnancy/postnatal period
  • History of abuse, bullying, neglect
  • History of anxiety disorders
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106
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for OCD?

A

OCD is a clinical diagnosis and according to the DSM-5 or ICD-11:

  • Presence of obsessions, compulsions or both
  • Time consuming (>1 hour a day) which causes clinically significant distress or functional impairment
  • Cannot be attributed to substance use or medical condition
  • Not better explained by another mental disorder
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107
Q

What scale is used to assess the severity of OCD symptoms?

A

Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS)

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108
Q

What is the management for OCD?

A

Always give education and self help resources

Mild OCD

  • First Line: CBT with exposure and response prevention ERP)
  • Second Line: Offer SSRI or more intensive CBT

Moderate OCD

  • Referral to CAMHS in children
  • First line: Offer either SSRI (Sertraline, Fluoxetine, Paroxetine) or intensive CBT including ERP
  • Second line: consider Clomipramine (if patient has previously had good response to it or SSRI is contraindicated

Severe OCD:

  • Referral to Secondary Care Mental Health Team for assessment
  • Offer combined treatment with SSRI and CBT (including ERP)
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109
Q

What is Exposure Response Prevention?

A

Used for OCD

Psychological method involving exposing a patient to anxiety provoking situations and stopping them engaging in their compulsion.

This helps to confront their anxiety and reduces the habituation of the response

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110
Q

What is the definition of Postpartum depression?

A

It’s a significant mood disorder that can develop at any time up to one year after the birth of a baby.

This condition represents a considerable aspect of maternal mental health and extends beyond the common “baby blues”.

Typically presenting with persistent depressive symptoms that may interfere with daily functioning and parenting.

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111
Q

What causes Postpartum depression?

A

Development of postpartum depression is multifactorial with a combination of Biological, Psychological, and Social factors all contributing.

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112
Q

What biological factors contribute to the development of postpartum Depression?

A
  • Hormonal fluctuations post-delivery, including sudden drops in progesterone, estrogen, and thyroid hormones.
  • Alterations in melatonin and cortisol rhythms and immune-inflammatory processes
  • Genetic predispositions
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113
Q

What Psychological factors contribute to the development of postpartum Depression?

A
  • A history of mood or anxiety disorders
  • Previous episodes of postpartum depression
  • Certain personality traits such as neuroticism
  • Psychological stress from the transition to parenthood
  • Unrealistic expectations of motherhood
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114
Q

What Social Factors contribute to the development of postpartum depression?

A
  • Lack of social support
  • Relationship issues,
  • Life stressors
  • Low socioeconomic status
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115
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of postpartum depression?

A
  • Persistent lowering of mood and reduced enjoyment or interest in activities.
  • Lowering of energy levels.
  • Biological symptoms of depression like poor appetite and disturbed sleep patterns (not associated with normal disturbed sleep patterns with a baby)
  • Concerns related to bonding with the baby, caring for the baby, and in extreme circumstances, thoughts about harming oneself or the baby.
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116
Q

What are some differentials for postpartum depression?

A

Baby blues
Characterised by mild mood swings, irritability, anxiety, and tearfulness. However, these symptoms usually present within the first two weeks after birth and resolve spontaneously.

Postpartum Psychosis

Adjustment disorders
These disorders may develop in response to a major life change or stressor, such as having a baby, but the emotional or behavioural symptoms are less severe than in depression.

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

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117
Q

What is the main screening tool for Postpartum depression?

A

Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)

A cutoff score of over 10 is used as a positive result.

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118
Q

What is the management of postpartum depression?

A

First-line treatments:

  • Self-help strategies and psychological therapies e.g. Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT) or Interpersonal Therapy (IPT).

Pharmacological treatments

  • Antidepressants considered in high risk cases

In severe cases admission to a mother and baby inpatient mental health unit might also be necessary.

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119
Q

What is the definition of Postpartum Psychosis?

A

It’s a serious psychiatric disorder that typically develops within the first two weeks following childbirth.

It is characterised by a range of psychological symptoms, including paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, mania, depression, and confusion.

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120
Q

What are the risk factors for Postpartum Psychosis?

A
  • Prior history of severe mental illnesses such as schizophrenia or bipolar affective disorder
  • Family history of postpartum psychosis
  • Previous episode of postpartum psychosis
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121
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Postpartum Psychosis?

A

Paranoia
Delusions
Hallucinations
Manic episodes
Depressive episodes
Confusion

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122
Q

What is the main differential for Postpartum Psychosis?

A

Postpartum depression with psychotic features

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123
Q

How is Postpartum depression diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is predominantly clinical, based on the presenting signs and symptoms.

It requires a thorough psychiatric evaluation.

Consideration should be given to other medical conditions that may cause similar symptoms, such as thyroid disorders or sepsis.

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124
Q

How is Postpartum psychosis managed?

A

Pharmacotherapy with:

  • Antipsychotic medications
  • Mood stabilisers in some instances

Potential referral to a specialist mother and baby inpatient mental health unit in very severe cases (when the mother experiences command hallucinations, thoughts of self-harm or suicide, or delusional beliefs regarding the baby’s role or identity).

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125
Q

What needs to be considered when prescribing medications for Postpartum Psychosis?

A

The mother’s breastfeeding status and the potential for the transfer of drugs to the nursing infant.

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126
Q

What is the definition of Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

A

A relatively common mental health condition resulting from traumatic experiences, with ongoing distressing symptoms and impaired function.

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127
Q

What is Direct Vs Indirect PTSD?

A

Direct: An individual experiences the trauma themselves

Indirect: An individual learns about the trauma from another source, witnesses the trauma happening to someone else or a loved one is affected

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128
Q

Give examples of traumatic events that may lead to PTSD?

A
  • Violence (e.g., sexual assault, domestic violence, abuse or physical attacks)
  • Major car accidents
  • Major health events (e.g., traumatic childbirth, serious illness or death of a loved one)
  • Natural disasters
  • Military, combat and war zone events

Any event the individual finds traumatic has the potential to cause PTSD

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129
Q

What is the criteria for PTSD?

A

ICD-11 Criteria:

  • Exposure to a traumatic event
  • Development of 3 core symptom clusters for at least 2 weeks
  • Re-experiencing
  • Avoidance
  • Persistent heightened current threat (hypervigilance)
  • Causing Functional Impairment
  • Not explained by another disorder or substance.
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130
Q

What are some symptoms of intrusion associated with PTSD?

A
  • Recurrent/intrusive thoughts relating to the evvent
  • Nightmares
  • Flashbacks
  • Physiological distress to reminders such as tachycardia, hypertension
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131
Q

What are some symptoms of avoidance associated with PTSD?

A
  • Avoiding stimuli such as people, events or places
  • This is to prevent reminders of the event
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132
Q

What are some Negative alterations in Mood associated with PTSD?

A
  • Unable to recall certain aspects
  • Distorted sense of self
  • Fragmented recollection
  • Fear, anger and Guilt
  • Anhedonia
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133
Q

What are some symptoms of Arousal/reactivity associated with PTSD?

A
  • Aggressive behaviour
  • Feeling on edge, irritable, easily startled
  • Hypervigilance
  • Poor sleep/concentration
  • Recklessness
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134
Q

What are some variants of PTSD?

A

Acute Stress Disorder

  • Symptoms last less than 1 month

Complex PTSD

  • Exposure to prolonged trauma
  • Have PTSD symptoms PLUS: Emotional dysregulation, significant negative identity disturbance
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135
Q

What are some Risk Factors for PTSD?

A
  • Type of Trauma: Assault based > Natural disaster base trauma
  • Females > Males
  • Pre-existing mental health conditions
  • Childhood adversity
  • Lack of social support
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136
Q

HARD

What is the clinical features of PTSD?

A

Hyperarousal/Hypervigilance: Poor sleep, irritability, poor concentration
Avoidance behaviours: avoiding people, places, events
Re-experiencing: Flashbacks, Nightmares, Repetitive and distressing intrusive images
Dull/emotional numbing: Feeling detached.

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137
Q

When is usually the time of onset for PTSD?

A

PTSD tends to develop soon after the event. It may be delayed, but delayed onset greater than a year post-trauma is very rare.

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138
Q

What are some differentials for PTSD?

A

Acute Stress reaction

Prolonged grief disorder

Depression

Adjustment disorders

Enduring personality change after catastrophic experience

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139
Q

What screening questionnaires are there for PTSD (1st line investigations)

A

Trauma Screening Questionnaire (TSQ)
A set of 10 items covering re-experiencing and arousal symptoms.

DSM-5 PTSD Checklist
A 20 item checklist assessing the symptoms of PTSD according to DSM-5.

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140
Q

What are the Non-Pharmacological managements of PTSD?

A
  1. watchful waiting for 4 weeks if traumatic event happened within the last month
  2. Psychotherapies:
  • Trauma Focused Cognitive Behavioural therapy (TF-CBT)
  • Narrative/Prolonged exposure therapy
  • Eye Movement Desensitisation and Reprocessing (EMDR) Therapy

First Line for PTSD is TF-CBT

EMDR offered to patients presenting >3 months after non-combat related trauma

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141
Q

What is the Pharmacological management of PTSD?

A

First line:

  • SSRI (e.g. sertraline/paroxetine)
  • Venlafaxine

In serious cases that haven’t responded to previous drug or psychological therapies:

  • Antipsychotics (like risperidone) in addition to psychological therapies
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142
Q

Define the term Learning Disability
Give some examples of LDs

A

It’s a general umbrella term encompassing a range of different conditions that affect the ability of the child to develop new skills.

Examples include:

  • Dyslexia
  • Dysgraphia refers to a specific difficulty in writing.
  • Dyspraxia
  • Auditory processing disorder
  • Non-verbal learning disability
  • Profound and multiple learning disability

They can vary from very mild to severe

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143
Q

What is the definition of Dyslexia?

A

It refers to a specific difficulty in reading, writing and spelling.

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144
Q

What is the definition of Dysgraphia?

A

It refers to a specific difficulty in writing.

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145
Q

What is the definition of Dyspraxia?

A

Also known as developmental co-ordination disorder.

It refers to a specific type of difficulty in physical co-ordination.

More common in boys.

It presents with delayed gross and fine motor skills and a child that appears clumsy.

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146
Q

What is the definition of Auditory processing disorder?

A

It refers to a specific difficulty in processing auditory information.

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147
Q

What is the definition of a Non-verbal learning disability?

A

It refers to a specific difficulty in processing non-verbal information, such as body language and facial expressions.

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148
Q

What is the definition of a Profound and multiple learning disability?

A

It refers to severe difficulties across multiple areas, often requiring help with all aspects of daily life.

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149
Q

How are Learning disabilities classified?

A

The severity of the learning disability is based on the IQ (intelligence quotient): < 70

55 – 70: Mild
40 – 55: Moderate
25 – 40: Severe
Under 25: Profound

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150
Q

What are the risk factors for Learning Disabilities?

A
  • Family history of learning disability
  • Abuse
  • Neglect
  • Psychological trauma
  • Toxins
  • Certain conditions
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151
Q

What conditions are associated with learning disabilities?

A
  • Genetic disorders such as Downs syndrome
  • Antenatal problems, such as foetal alcohol syndrome and maternal chickenpox
  • Problems at birth, such as prematurity and hypoxic
  • ischaemic encephalopathy
  • Problems in early childhood, such as meningitis
  • Autism
  • Epilepsy
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152
Q

What does the management of learning disabilities involve?

A

The key is a multidisciplinary approach to support the parents and child:

Health visitors
Social workers
Schools
Educational psychologists
Paediatricians, GPs and nurses
Occupational therapists
Speech and language therapists

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153
Q

What are the features required to assess if someone has capacity to make a decision?

A
  • Understand the decision that needs to be made
  • Retain the information long enough to make the decision
  • Weight up the options and the implications of choosing each option
  • Communicate their decision
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154
Q

Define Psychosis

A

Psychosis is a term used to describe a person experiencing things differently from those around them as they have lost contact with reality

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155
Q

What are the 2 main causes of Phychosis?

A

Psychosis can be due to:

  • Primary (“non-organic”) psychiatric disorders
  • Secondary to substance use or specific medical (“organic”) aetiologies
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156
Q

Give some examples of primary psychotic disorders

A

Schizophrenia (most common)

Delusional disorder

Schizoaffective disorder

Schizophreniform disorder

Brief psychotic disorder

Bipolar disorder

Puerperal Psychosis

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157
Q

What are some secondary causes of psychosis?

A
  • Brain tumours or cysts
  • epilepsy
  • Dementia
  • Parkinsons
  • MS
  • Thyroid dysfunction
  • Cushings
  • Addisons
  • CNS infections
  • Liver disease (korsakoff psychosis)
  • Substance induced
  • Alcohol
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158
Q

What are the clinical psychotic features?

A
  • Hallucinations (e.g. auditory)
  • Delusions
  • Thought disorganisation
  • Alogia: little information conveyed by speech
  • Tangentiality: answers diverge from topic
  • Clanging
  • Word salad: linking real words incoherently → nonsensical content
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159
Q

What are some common associated features of psychosis?

A
  • Agitation/aggression
  • Neurocognitive impairment (e.g. in memory, attention or executive function)
  • Depression
  • Thoughts of self-harm
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160
Q

How is Psychosis investigated?

A
  • Physical examination
    (detailed neurological examination and a complete mental status examination)
  • Complete psychiatric and medical history
    (review of head injury, seizures, cerebrovascular disease, sexually transmitted infections, and new or worsening headaches)
  • Laboratory work-up
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161
Q

What lab work should be done for a Psychosis investigation?

A

FBC
Comprehensive metabolic profile
TFTs
Urine toxicology
Parathyroid hormone
calcium
vitamin B12
folate
niacin​

Based on clinical suspicion, testing for HIV infection and hepatitis C,

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162
Q

What is the management of psychosis?

A

It depends on the underlying cause.

If Schizophrenia:

1st line is (2nd gen) atypical antipsychotics e.g. Risperidone or Olanzapine

Haloperidol is also still used

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163
Q

What is the definition of Schizophrenia?

A

It’s a severe mental disorder characterised by chronic or relapsing episodes of psychosis.

It involves altered perceptions of reality, disordered thinking, and social dysfunction.

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164
Q

Explain Schizophrenia in simple terms

A

Schizophrenia is a condition that affects how the brain processes information.

Normally, the brain is very good at understanding reality, deciding what is important and what is not, and organising thoughts in a structured way.

With schizophrenia, the brain struggles to understand the world, makes mistakes in deciding what information is important and organises thoughts in a confused way.

This can lead to strong beliefs that do not fit with reality, called delusions. They may also experience voices that are not there, called hallucinations.

The disorganised thoughts can lead to unusual speech and behaviours, which is called thought disorder.

When these symptoms occur, it is called psychosis.”

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165
Q

What are the risk factors for Schizophrenia?

A
  • Family History
    • 10% if either a parent or sibling is affected
    • 50% if both parents or a monozygotic twin
  • Childhood trauma, like poor maternal bonding, poverty, or exposure to natural disasters
  • Heavy cannabis use in childhood
  • Maternal health issues, including malnutrition and infections like rubella and cytomegalovirus
  • Birth trauma, particularly hypoxia and blood loss
  • Urban living and immigration to more developed countries
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166
Q

What are Schneider’s First Rank Symptoms?

A
  • Auditory hallucinations
  • Thought disorders
  • Passivity phenomena
  • Delusional perceptions
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167
Q

What are the specific features of Schneiders first rank symptoms?

A

Auditory Hallucinations:

  • Thought Echo: Hearing one’s own thoughts spoken aloud, as if they are echoing back.
  • Voices Commenting: Hearing voices that provide a running commentary on the person’s actions or thoughts.
  • Voices Conversing: Hearing multiple voices talking to each other, usually discussing the person in the third person.

Thought Disorder

  • Thought Insertion: The belief that thoughts are being inserted into one’s mind by an outside force.
  • Thought Withdrawal: The belief that one’s thoughts are being taken out or removed by an external force.
  • Thought Broadcasting: The belief that one’s thoughts are not private but are being broadcasted or accessible to others.

Delusional Perception:

  • The person has a normal perception (like seeing a particular object or event) but interprets it with delusional significance, such as thinking the perception has a unique or personal meaning (e.g., seeing a red car and concluding that it means they are being watched).

Passivity Phenomena (or Delusions of Control):

  • Made Actions: Belief that one’s actions are controlled by an external force, as though someone else is “making” them move.
  • Made Impulses: Belief that impulses to act are not one’s own but are imposed by an external force.
  • Made Feelings and Emotions: Belief that one’s emotions or sensations are being controlled or influenced by someone else.
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168
Q
A
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169
Q

What is the typical presentation of Schizophrenia?

A

Prodrome Phase

  • Precedes full symptoms of psychosis
  • May experience Sx such as poor memory, reduced concentration, mood swings, suspicion of others, sleep issues, social withdrawal

Psychosis and positive symptoms: (ABCD)

  • Auditory hallucinations
  • Broadcasting/insertion/blocking of thoughts
  • Control issues ie. passivity phenomena
  • Delusional perceptions
  • Ideas of reference

Negative Symptoms ‘4 A’s’

  • Alogia (Poverty of Speech)
  • Avolution (Lack of motivation)
  • Affect blunting or incongruity (Minimal emotional reaction)
  • Anhedonia (Lack of interest)

Miscellanous Symptoms ‘2 C’s’

  • Catatonia
  • Cognitive: impaired memory + attention deficit + reduced executive function
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170
Q

What is Catatonia?

A
  • Catatonia involves abnormal movement, communication and behaviour. It can present in a variety of ways.
  • Patients are awake but not behaving normally.
  • They may hold unusual postures, perform odd actions, repeat sounds or words, or remain blank and unresponsive.
  • The symptoms can vary in severity over time.
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171
Q

What are the positive symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A
  • Auditory hallucinations (hearing voices, particularly a voice narrating the patient’s actions)
  • Somatic passivity (believing that an external entity is controlling their sensations and actions)
  • Thought insertion or thought withdrawal (believing that an external entity is inserting or removing their thoughts)
  • Thought broadcasting (believing that others are overhearing their thoughts)
  • Persecutory delusions (a false belief that a person or group is going to harm them)
  • Ideas of reference (a false belief that unconnected events or details in the world directly relate to them)
  • Delusional perceptions
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172
Q

What are the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A
  • Affective flattening (minimal emotional reaction to emotive subjects or events)
  • Alogia (“poverty of speech” – reduced speech)
  • Anhedonia (lack of interest in activities)
  • Avolition (lack of motivation in working towards goals or completing tasks)
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173
Q

What are the different pattern types observed in Schizophrenia?

A
  • Continuous
  • Episodic (relapsing and remitting)
  • Single Episode Only
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174
Q

What are some differentials for Schizophrenia?

A
  • Schizoaffective Disorder
  • schizophreniform Disorder

Others:

  • Mania
  • Psychotic depression
  • Drugs (e.g., hallucinogens and cannabis)
  • Stroke
  • Brain tumours
  • Cushing’s syndrome (e.g., patients taking systemic steroids)
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Huntington’s disease
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175
Q

How long do you need to have symptoms of Schizophrenia for to be diagnosed?

A
  1. Symptoms including the prodrome phase must have been present for at least 6 months
  2. Symptoms of the active phase (delusions, hallucinations and thought disorder) must have been present for at least 1 month
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176
Q

What is the DSM-5 Criteria for a diagnosis of Schizophrenia?

A
  1. 2 or more symptoms of:
  • Delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Disorganised Speech
  • Disorganised/Catatonic Behaviour
  • Negative Symptoms
  1. Of which at least one of of either:
  • Delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Disorganised Speech
  1. Symptoms must have been actively present (most of the time) for 1 or more months
  2. Symptoms (including Prodrome) must have had significant impact for at least 6 months
  3. Symptoms cannot be due to substances or other medical conditions
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177
Q

What investigations may be done to rule out other potential differentials in Schizophrenia?

A
  • Brain imaging (CT/MRI) to rule out structural abnormalities
  • Blood tests to exclude infectious (e.g.,HIV, syphilis) or metabolic causes (e.g., thyroid function tests)
  • Drug screening to identify substance misuse
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178
Q

What is the management of Schizophrenia?

1st line
acute episodes
resistant to therapy
Other

A

1st Line:

  • Second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics e.g. Risperidone

In acute episodes:

  • Sedatives (e.g. lorazepam, promethazine, or haloperidol) to manage dangerous behaviour.

when schizophrenia is resistant to other antipsychotics (2 have been tried)

  • Clozapine is considered (Due to its potential lethal side effects, it requires intensive monitoring.)

Psychotherapy, such as cognitive-behavioural therapy offered to all patients

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179
Q

Give some examples of some Oral Antipsychotics for Schizophrenia?

What can be done if adherence is poor?

A
  • Quetiapine
  • Aripiprazole
  • Olanzapine
  • Risperidone

Depo IM injections

  • Aripiprazole
  • Flupentixol
  • Paliperidone
  • Risperidone
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180
Q

What is the definition of Schizoaffective disorder?

A

Schizoaffective disorder combines the symptoms of schizophrenia with bipolar disorder. Patients have psychosis and symptoms of depression and mania.

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181
Q

Define Schizophreniform Disorder

A

Features of Schizophrenia lasting between 1 day and 1 month

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182
Q

Define Somatisation Disorder

A

Somatic symptom disorder or Briquet’s Syndrome

  • A psychiatric condition characterized by the presence of multiple, recurrent and clinically significant somatic complaints that cannot be fully explained by any underlying medical conditions
  • Present for at least 2 years
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183
Q

What are the risk factors for Somatisation Disorders?

A
  • History of IBS
  • History of PTSD
  • History of sexual or physical abuse
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184
Q

What is the typical presentation of Somatic Syndrome?

A

Symptoms that are generally severe enough to affect work and relationships and lead the person to consult a doctor and take medication.

A lifelong history of ‘sickliness’ is often present:

Stress often worsens the symptoms.

Examples include:

  • Cardiac (SOB, Palpitations, Chest Pain)
  • GI (Vomiting, Abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhoea)
  • MSK ( Back pain, Joint pain)
  • Neurological (Headaches, dizziness, amnesia, vision changes, paralysis or muscle weakness)
  • Urogenital (Pain during urination, low libido, dyspareunia, impotence).
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185
Q

How is Somatic Syndrome Diagnosed?

A

Somatisation is often a diagnosis of exclusion but it’s much more effective to pursue a positive diagnosis when the patient presents with typical features:

  • multiple symptoms, often occurring in different organ systems.
  • Symptoms are vague or that exceed objective findings.

At least 6 months

cause significant distress and impairment

not attributed to specific medical or other psychiatric conditions

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186
Q

What is the management of Somatic Syndrome?

A

1st Line treatment is Psychotherapy, and Cognitive behavioural therapy shows the best outcomes

Pharmacological interventions show little effect on the disease although psychiatric disorders associated with somatisation like anxiety and depression can be treated with antidepressants which will often improve somatic symptoms.

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187
Q
A
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188
Q

What are the 2 families of Antipsychotics?

A

Typical Antipsychotics

Atypical Antipsychotics (Developed due to Extrapyramidal side effects associated with first gen typical antipsychotics)

189
Q

What is the Mechanism of Action of Typical and Atypical Antipsychotics?

A

Typical

  • Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists blocking transmission via the mesolimbic pathway

Atypical

  • Act of a variety of Dopamine receptors: D2, D3, D4, 5-HT
190
Q

What are the main side effects of Typical Antipsychotics?

A

Extrapyramidal Side Effects:

  • Akathisia: Psychomotor restlessness and inability to stay still
  • Dystonia: abnormal muscle tone and posturing
  • Oculogyric Crisis
  • Pseudo-parkinsonism: tremor and rigidity
  • Tardive Dyskinesia: Abnormal movements affecting the face

Hyperprolactinaemia

191
Q

What is the management of these EPSEs from Typical Antipsychotics?

  • Acute Dystonia
  • Akathisia
  • Parkinsonism
  • Tardive Dyskinesia
A

Acute Dystonia : Treat w/ Procyclidine

Akathisia Treat w/ Propranolol

Parkinsonism: Treat w/ L-Dopa

Tardive Dyskinesia Treat w/ Tetrabenazine

192
Q

What are the 2 main typical Antipsychotics?

A

Haloperidol
Chlorpromazine

193
Q

What are the main atypical antipsychotics?

A

Clozapine
Risperidone
Olanzapine
Quetiapine

194
Q

What are the side effects of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Metabolic Conditions

Weight gain
Hyperprolactinaemia
Glucose intolerance
Drowsiness
Hyperprolactinaemia
Increased appetite
Dyslipidaemia
Galactorrhoea

195
Q

Why is Clozapine a high risk medication?
What are sin some other adverse effects?

A

Has many side effects
It can only be started after two other antipsychotics have been trialled.
Causes Agranulocytosis which can lead to severe infections

Adverse Effects:

C - constipation
Lo - lower seizure threshold
Z - zzz sedation
A - agranulocytosis
P - phat weight gain
I - increased salivation
N - neutropenia
E - ECG changes (myocarditis/cardiomyopathy)

196
Q

What are the side effects relevant to all anti-psychotics?

A
  • Sedation
  • Antimuscarinic effects
  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Sexual dysfunction
  • Impaired glucose tolerance
  • Cardiac Arrhythmias
  • Reduction of seizure threshold
  • Prolonged QT (particularly Haloperidol)
197
Q

Why should Antipsychotics be used with caution in the elderly?

A
  • Increased risk of stroke
  • Increase risk of VTE
  • Increased risk of falls
198
Q

What is the most common first generation antipsychotic and what is a common cardiac side effect

A

Haloperidol

Prolonged QT

199
Q

What is the most serious complication of Antipsychotic Treatment?
What are the Clinical Features?
What are the Key Blood Test Findings

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

Clinical Features:

  • Hyporeflexia with Muscle Rigidity
  • Hyperthermia
  • Altered consciousness
  • Autonomic Dysfunction (Tachycardia, fluctuating BP)

Blood Test Findings:

  • Raised Creatinine Kinase
  • Raised White Cell Count
200
Q

What is the Management of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

A

Stopping causative mediations

Supportive care

  • IV fluids
  • Sedation with Benzodiazepines
  • Can use Dantrolene

May require Bromocriptine (Dopamine Agonist)

201
Q

What is the definition of Delusions?

A

Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that are maintained despite contradictory evidence. They are a prominent feature of numerous psychiatric conditions
E.g.
Schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and psychotic depression.

202
Q

What are these specific types of Delusions:

  • Nilhilistic
  • Grandeur
  • Control
  • Capgras
  • Persecutory
  • Somatic
A

Nihilistic delusions

  • Negative delusions typically congruent with the individual’s depressed mood. Patients may believe that they are dead or that the world has ended.

Delusions of grandeur

  • Patients believe they possess extraordinary traits or powers. Common in manic phases of bipolar disorder.

Delusions of control

  • The individual experiences a sensation that an external entity is controlling their thoughts or actions. Frequently observed in psychotic conditions.

Capgras Delusions

  • Misidentification syndrome characterised by the belief by the patient that the close person is replaced by an imposter who looks physically the same

Persecutory delusions

  • The patient believes they are being persecuted or conspired against. Common in conditions like paranoid schizophrenia.

Somatic delusions

  • Patients are convinced they have a physical, medical, or biological problem despite no medical evidence supporting their claim. These delusions can manifest as a wide range of physical symptoms.
203
Q

How are delusions classified?

A

Bizarre Vs non-bizarre
(very strange or highly unusual) Vs (plausible but incorrect)

Mood-congruent (consistent with the individual’s emotional state) Vs mood-neutral

204
Q

What are some differentials for Delusions?

A

Mood disorders with psychotic features
Delusions often mood-congruent. In depressive episodes, these might be nihilistic delusions; in manic episodes, they might be grandiose.

Neurocognitive disorders
Delusions can occur in conditions such as Alzheimer’s disease or Parkinson’s disease dementia. The delusions often involve theft or persecution.

Substance-induced psychotic disorder
Delusions might be part of a broader psychotic syndrome due to intoxication or withdrawal from substances such as alcohol, hallucinogens, or amphetamines.

205
Q

What investigations are done for delusions?

A

Clinical interview
Comprehensive psychiatric history, including onset, duration, and the impact of symptoms on functioning.

Mental state examination (MSE)
Evaluation of appearance, behaviour, speech, mood, affect, thought process, thought content, perception, cognition, insight, and judgment.

Neuropsychological assessment
To rule out neurocognitive disorders or to assess for any cognitive impairment.

206
Q

What is the management of delusions?

A

Pharmacological
Antipsychotic medication is the mainstay of treatment. The choice of medication depends on the underlying disorder.

Psychotherapy
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) can be beneficial.

Psychoeducation
Providing information to the patient and their family about the nature and management of the disorder.

207
Q

Define Personality Disorder

A

Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions where a person’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviors differ significantly from what is typically expected, leading to difficulties in relationships and everyday functioning.

208
Q

What are the 3 Categories of personality disorders?

A

Class A: Suspicious

Class B:Emotional or Impulsive

Class C Anxious

209
Q

What are the different Class A personality disorders?

A

Suspicious, Odd, Eccentric disorders:

  • Paranoid
  • Schizoid
  • Schizotypal
210
Q

What is Paranoid Personality Disorder?

A

Paranoid personality disorder features difficulty in trusting or revealing personal information to others.

211
Q

What is Schizoid Personality Disorder?

A

Schizoid personality disorder features a lack of interest or desire to form relationships with others and feelings that this is of no benefit to them.

  • Lack of interest in companionship, sexual interactions
  • few friends
  • Indifference to praise or criticism
212
Q

What is Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

A

Schizotypal personality disorder features unusual beliefs, thoughts and behaviours, as well as social anxiety that makes forming relationships difficult.

  • Odd beliefs or magical thinking
  • odd speech without coherence
  • Paranoid ideation and suspicions
213
Q

What are the different Emotional / Impulsive personality disorders?

A

Dramatic, Emotional or Erratic Disorders:

  • Antisocial
  • Borderline (Emotionally unstable)
  • Histrionic
  • Narcissistic
214
Q

What is Antisocial Personality Disorder?

A

Antisocial personality disorder features reckless and harmful behaviour, with a lack of concern for the consequences or the impact of their behaviour on other people. It often involves criminal misconduct.

215
Q

What is Borderline Personality Disorder

A

Emotionally Unstable Personality Disorder (EUPD)
Borderline personality disorder features fluctuating strong emotions and difficulties with identity and maintaining healthy relationships.

  • Strong emotional responses
  • Unstable interpersonal relationships
  • Distorted sense of self
  • Fear of abandonment
216
Q

What is Histrionic Personality Disorder?

A

Histrionic personality disorder involves the need to be the centre of attention and performing for others to maintain that attention.

  • Inappropriate sexual seductiveness
  • Centre of attention
  • Physical appearance used for attention
217
Q

What is Narcissistic Personality Disorder?

A

Narcissistic personality disorder features feelings that they are special and need others to recognise this, or else they get upset. They put themselves first.

  • Grandiose sense of self importance
  • Take advantage of others for own needs
  • Arrogant
218
Q

What are the different Anxious personality disorders?

A

Anxious or fearful disorders:

  • Obsessive-Compulsive
  • Avoidant
  • Dependent
219
Q

What is Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder?

A

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder features unrealistic expectations of how things should be done by themselves and others and catastrophising about what will happen if these expectations are not met.

220
Q

What is Dependent Personality Disorder?

A

Dependent personality disorder features a heavy reliance on others to make decisions and take responsibility for their lives, taking a very passive approach.

221
Q

What is Avoidant Personality Disorder?

A

Avoidant personality disorder features severe anxiety about rejection or disapproval and avoidance of social situations or relationships.

222
Q

What are the risk factors for personality disorders?

A

BioPsychoSocial

  • History of abuse
  • Family history of schizophrenia
  • Negative parenting interactions
  • Emotional/disruptive disorder in childhood
223
Q

What was the Old classification system for personality disorders?
What is the new classification system for personality disorders?

A

DSM-5/ICD-10 had the 3 categories (Type A, Type B and Type C)

New ICD-11 criteria has changed to Mild, Moderate and Severe

224
Q

How does the ICD-11 classify Personality Disorders?
What are the different categories

A

Mild Personality Disorder:

  • Some difficulties in certain areas, like relationships or work.
  • Others may notice the symptoms, but they don’t cause major problems.
  • The person can still maintain stable relationships and jobs.

Moderate Personality Disorder:

  • Struggles in several areas, including personal life, social interactions, and work.
  • It’s harder to maintain close relationships, with more noticeable social challenges.
  • Symptoms are distressing, but the person can manage daily life with effort or some support.

Severe Personality Disorder:

  • Serious challenges across all areas of life.
  • Major problems with relationships, sense of self, and coping.
  • Daily life is very difficult, with high levels of distress and reduced quality of life.
  • Often needs ongoing, intensive therapy.
225
Q

What are the key criteria for Personality Disorders according to the ICD 11?

A

Persistent Pattern: individual’s patterns of cognition, emotional experience, behaviour, and interpersonal functioning deviate from cultural expectations. These patterns are stable over time and span across various personal and social situations.

Impairment: The deviation results in significant problems or dysfunctions in the person’s life, especially in relationships, work, or social functioning.

Duration: These characteristics are stable over time, beginning in adolescence or early adulthood, and are not transient.

Distress or Dysfunction: The impairment may result in distress to the individual or others. These patterns are not explained by another mental disorder, a medical condition, or substance misuse.

226
Q

What Trait Domains are outlined by the ICD-11 criteria for Personality Disorders?

A

Negative Affectivity:

  • Tendency to experience a wide range of negative emotions such as anxiety, depression, guilt, and anger.
  • Individuals may be prone to mood swings, insecurity, and emotional lability.

Detachment:

  • Avoidance of social interactions, emotional withdrawal, and limited pleasure from relationships.
  • Individuals may appear cold, aloof, and isolated.

Dissociality:

  • Disregard for the rights and feelings of others, lack of empathy, and difficulty forming prosocial relationships.
  • Impulsivity and manipulative behaviours are common traits.

Disinhibition:

  • Impulsiveness, risk-taking, and difficulty controlling behaviours.
  • Individuals may struggle with planning and foresight, leading to reckless or irresponsible actions.

Anankastia:

  • Preoccupation with orderliness, control, and perfectionism.
  • Individuals may be rigid, stubborn, and excessively focused on rules and details.

Borderline Pattern:

  • An additional qualifier for those showing emotional instability, intense and unstable interpersonal relationships, a fluctuating sense of identity, and impulsivity.
227
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for personality disorders?

A

Clinical Interview

Diagnosis of personality disorders is often difficult as as these patients don’t come to the doctor for help with their personality difficulties, and may have little or no insight into their personality issues.

Diagnosis will be based on symptoms detected in talks with the patient or present in their history, whether obtained from the patient him/herself or from others who know the patient (collateral sources).

228
Q

What is the management of personality disorders?

A

Dialectical Behavioural Therapy, CBT and psychotherapy is the key management option of choice.

Risk Management: such as ongoing self-harm, suicide or harm to others

Medications are not usually used unless in CRISIS where Sedatives may be used.

229
Q

What are the main types of Antidepressants?

A
  • Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
  • Serotonin and Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
  • Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)
  • Others: Mirtazapine, Vortioxetine
230
Q

What is the mechanism of action of TCAs?

A

TCAs block the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline by the presynaptic membrane.

They also have additional actions, including blocking acetylcholine, alpha adrenergic and histamine receptors, which give them anticholinergic and sedative side effects.

231
Q

What is the mechanism of action of SSRIs and SNRIs?

A

SSRIs work by blocking the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic membrane on the axon terminal. This results in more serotonin in the synapses throughout the central nervous system, boosting the communication between neurones.

SNRIs work by blocking the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline by the presynaptic membrane. This results in more serotonin and noradrenaline in the synapses throughout the central nervous system.

232
Q

Give examples of some SSRIs

A

Sertraline
Citalopram
Escitalopram
Fluoxetine
Paroxetine

233
Q

What are some particular individual features of these SSRIs?

  • Sertraline
  • Citalopram
  • Fluoxetine
  • Paroxetine
A
  • Sertraline: Anti-anxiety effects but high rate of diarrhoea. Good in heart disease
  • Citalopram: prolong QT interval leading to torsades de pointes. bad in heart disease
  • Fluoxetine: long half life and safe in children
  • Paroxetine: cause weight gain and discontinuation symptoms but safer in pregnancy
234
Q

What are the key side effects of SSRIs?

A

SSRIs

Stomach issues - Diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, increased risk of GI bleeding
Sexual dysfunction - loss of libido, ED, orgasms
Risk of suicidal thoughts and actions increased
Irritability, agitation, anxiety (in first weeks)
SIADH leading to hyponatraemia

235
Q

Give some examples of SNRIs and some specific individual features

A

Duloxetine: Treats neuropathic pain (eg in DM)

Venlaflaxine: Used when there is an inadequate response to others. Causes discontinuation of symptoms.

236
Q

What are some side effects of SNRIs?

A

Similar to SSRIs

Increase blood pressure and therefore contraindicated in uncontrolled hypertension

237
Q

Give examples of TCAs

Sedative vs less sedative

A

Sedative:

  • Amitriptyline
  • Clomipramine
  • Dosulepin

Less Sedative:

  • Imipramine
  • Nortriptyline
238
Q

What are the side effects of TCAs?

What receptors do TCAs block?

A

Serotonin and Noradrenaline reuptake

  • similar side effects to SSRI/SNRIs

Antagonism of histamine receptors

  • Drowsiness

Antagonism of muscarinic receptors

  • dry mouth
  • blurred vision
  • constipation
  • urinary retention

Antagonism of adrenergic receptors

  • postural hypotension
  • lengthening of QT interval

Contraindicated in CVD due to causing

  • Arrhythmias,
  • Tachycardia
  • Prolonged QT
  • Bundle branch block
239
Q

What conditions are TCAs contraindicated in?

A
  • Those with previous heart disease
  • Can exacerbate schizophrenia
  • May exacerbate long QT syndrome
  • May alter blood sugar in T1 and T2 diabetes mellitus
  • May precipitate urinary retention, so avoid in men with enlarged prostates
  • Those on CP450 medications or those with liver damage (as it uses the CP450 metabolic pathway)
240
Q

What conditions are SNRIs (Serotonin and norepinephrine re-uptake inhibitors) contraindicated in?

A

Those with a history of heart disease and high blood pressure

241
Q

What kind of antidepressant is Mirtazapine?

What is its mechanism of action?

What are the key side effects?

A

Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant (NaSSA)

  • Blocking α2-adrenergic receptors, which increases the release of norepinephrine and serotonin.
  • Acting as an antagonist at specific serotonin (5-HT2 and 5-HT3) receptors, which helps reduce side effects commonly seen with SSRIs (such as nausea).
  • Also blocks H1 histamine receptors, which contributes to its sedative effects.

Highly Sedative and causes increased appetite/weight gain

242
Q

What are some considerations when starting antidepressants?

A
  • Initial period of worsened agitation, anxiety, suicidal thoughts
  • Arrange review within 2 weeks of starting or 1 week if aged 18-25
  • Usually a noticeable response within 2-4 weeks of treatment.
  • If there is an inadequate response then either switch or try something new.
243
Q

What are some considerations when swapping antidepressants?

A

SSRIs and SNRIs can be directly switched from one day to the next.
except fluoxetine

Switching between SSRIs and mirtazapine requires cross-tapering

244
Q

What are some considerations when stopping antidepressants?

A
  • Once started, they should be continued for at least 6 months after the point of remission
  • Should be reduced slowly over 4 weeks to prevent discontinuation symptoms
245
Q

What are some discontinuation symptoms of stopping antidepressants?

A

start within 2-3 days of stopping and resolve within 1-2 weeks

FINISH:

  • Flu-like symptoms
  • Insomnia, iritabilty
  • Nausea
  • Imbalance
  • Shock like sensations
  • Hyperarousal
246
Q

What is Serotonin Syndrome?

A

A condition caused by antidepressants which produces symptoms that can range from mild to life threatening

It is caused by excessive serotonin activity. It usually occurs with higher doses of antidepressants and when multiple antidepressants are used together.

247
Q

What are some causes of Serotonin Syndrome?

A
  • SSRI, SNRI and TCA overdose
  • Combinations of SSRIs
  • Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MOAs)
  • SSRIs interactions with St Johns Wort, Tramadol, antiemetics (ondansetron)
  • Ecstasy/MDMA, Amphetamines, cocain, LSD can increase serotonin release
248
Q

What are the clinical features of serotonin syndrome?

A

Triad of Neuromuscular Excitation, Autonomic NS excitation and Altered mental State

Neuromuscular excitation

  • Hyperreflexia
  • Myoclonus
  • Tremor
  • Rigidity

Autonomic nervous system excitation

  • severe Hyperthermia (> 40°)
  • Sweating
  • Tachycardia
  • Blood pressure
  • Respiratory Failure

Altered mental state

  • Confusion
  • Seizures

Hyponatramia
GI Bleeding

249
Q

What may a Severe case of Serotonin Syndrome look like?

A

Confusion, Seizures, Severe Hyperthermia (over 40 degrees) and respiratory failure

250
Q

What is the management for Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Withdrawal of causative medication
Supportive including IV fluids

  • Benzodiazepines for sedation
  • More severe cases are managed using serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine
  • May require intubation
251
Q

What is Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

A

It is a extreme treatment method that induces a generalised seizure.

252
Q

What conditions is Electroconvulsive Therapy indicated for?

A

Its indicated for:

  • Severe depressive illness or refractory depression.
  • Catatonia.
  • A prolonged or severe episode of mania that does not respond to other treatments
253
Q

What does Electroconvulsive Therapy involve?

A
  • Electrodes are placed on the skull. Either on both side or only one side.
  • Patients are given a general anaesthetic and a muscle relaxant.
  • Subsequently, an electrical current is delivered to induce a generalised seizure.
  • The patient has about 6-12 sessions (twice a week). If the patient responds, then sessions are stopped.
254
Q

What are the possible complications of Electroconvulsive Therapy?

A

Immediate:

  • Cardiovascular instability - eg, arrhythmias and hypotension.
  • Status epilepticus.
  • Laryngospasm.
  • Peripheral nerve palsies.
  • Headache.
  • Nausea.

Long term

Possible issues with short and long term memory

255
Q

What is the definition of specific Phobias?

A

Phobia: an intense, irrational fear of an object, situation, place or person that is recognised as excessive or unreasonable.

Agoraphobia and Social anxiety are classified as their own disorder

256
Q

What are these specific Phobias?

  • Acrophobia
  • Arachnophobia
  • Ophidiophobia
  • Claustrophobia
  • Glossophobia
  • Aerophobia
  • Thalassophobia
  • Trypophobia
  • Trypanophobia
A
  • Acrophobia - Fear of heights
  • Arachnophobia - Fear of Spiders
  • Ophidiophobia - Fear of Snakes
  • Claustrophobia - Fear of confined or tight spaces
  • Glossophobia - Fear of public speaking
  • Aerophobia - Fear of Flying
  • Thalassophobia - Fear of large or deep waters
  • Trypophobia - Fear of Holes
  • Trypanoboia - Fear of Needles
257
Q

What are the general features of Phobias?

A
  • Irrational excessive and persistant fear
  • Immediate anxeity response when exposed
  • Recognition the fear is excessive
  • Avoiding the phobia
  • Symptoms arent transient
  • Symptoms not accounted for by another medical or mental health condition
  • Significant functional impairment
258
Q

What is the definition of Agoraphobia?

A

Fear of being in a situation or place that an individual perceives as being unsafe with no escape

  • Open space
  • Closed space
  • Crowds
  • Public Transport

Closely liked to panic and social anxiety disorder

259
Q

What is the definition of Social Anxiety Disorder?

When does it typically develop?

A

Fear/anxiety of social or performance situations where they are exposed to potential scrutiny due to fear of humiliation and embarrassment.

  • Typically develops in late childhood/adolescence Often following a specific triggering event where there was embarrassment
260
Q

What are the symptoms of Social Anxiety Disorder?

A
  • Significant Avoidance of social situations
  • Blushing
  • Fear of vomiting
  • Palpitations
  • Trembling
  • Sweating.
261
Q

What other features of Social anxiety disorder are there?

A

It can be specific (public speaking) or generalised (any social setting)

Can be precipitated by stressful or humiliating experiences, parental death, separation, chronic stress.

May lead to alcohol or drug abuse (perpetuating the problem).

Mental state examination: may appear relaxed as the phobic object or situation is not present.

262
Q

What is the management of Phobias

A

1st Line: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy with graded eposure therapy for all Phobias:

  • Exposure techniques are the most widely used, aiming for systematic desensitization
  • Flooding (exposing someone with a fear of heights to a tower)
  • Modelling (individual observes therapist interacting with phobic stimulus).

If ineffective/severe functional impairment
SSRIs are first-line medical management

263
Q

What are the main Psychiatric Emergencies?

A

Suicide Attempts
Serotonin Syndrome
Acute Dystonia
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Tyramine Induced Hypertensive Crisis
Delirium Tremens

264
Q

What is the definition of Substance Misuse?

A

Refers to using a substance in a way that is not recommended or prescribed, but not necessarily to the level of causing harm or addiction. Misuse might involve taking higher doses, using medication for non-medical purposes, or using illegal substances recreationally.

265
Q

What is the definition of Substance Abuse?

A

use of a substance results in harm or significantly interferes with daily functioning, social obligations, or responsibilities. Abuse implies a pattern of use that leads to negative outcomes or risk of dependency.

266
Q

What is the difference between Drug misuse and Drug abuse?

A

The key difference between a person who misuses drugs and a person who abuses drugs is their intent.

Someone who misuses a drug, takes the drug to treat a specific ailment.

Whereas the latter uses a drug to elicit certain feelings.

267
Q

What is the difference between Tolerance and dependence of drugs?

A

Tolerance: loss of effect when taking the same dose. Person may keep increasing the dose to reach the desired effects

Dependence: Physiological and psychological need to keep using a drug

  • Physiological changes: notable with alcohol, opiates, benzodiazepines
  • Psychological factors: cravings and compulsions
268
Q

What are withdrawal symptoms?

A

Symptoms that occur due to physiological adaptations that have taken place in response to a drug.

269
Q

What is the Physiology/Psychology of Addictions?

A

Brain has reward pathway mesolimbic pathway
Primary neurotransmitter is dopamine

Addictive substances and behaviours release dopamine within the mesolimbic pathway providing a pleasurable reward.

Repeated exposure reduces number and sensitivity of dopamine receptors requiring an increasingly strong stimulus

Cues for substance or behaviour are embedded in the amygdala. stress and other events can act as cues triggering cravings.

270
Q

What is the criteria of Drug Dependence?

A

> 3 features means dependence in a 12 month period

  • Withdrawal Sx - use drugs to avoid withdrawal Sx onset
  • Tolerance - require higher doses to achieve same effect
  • Narrow Repetoir
  • Cravings
  • Loss of Control
  • Rapid Reinforcement - Quick return to old levels after stopping briefly
  • Primacy - Takes precedence over physiological need (eg. spend money on drugs not food)
  • Continued use despite harm
271
Q

Give examples of Opioids and their mechanism of Action

A

Examples

  • Heroin
  • Morphine
  • Oxycodone
  • Codeine

Mechanism of Action:

  • stimulates opioid receptors
272
Q

Give examples of Stimulants and their mechanism of Action

A

Examples

  • Cocaine
  • MDMA (ecstasy)
  • Methamphetamine

Mechanism of Action:

  • Cocaine blocks reuptake of dopamine by the presynaptic membrane
  • MDMA stimulates the release of serotonin and blocks its reuptake
  • Meth stimulates the release of dopamine and blocks its reuptake
273
Q

Give examples of Depressants and their mechanism of Action

A

Examples

  • Alcohol
  • Benzodiazepines

Mechanism of Action:

  • Stimulates GABA receptors
274
Q

Give examples of Hallucinogens and their mechanism of Action

A

Examples

  • LSD
  • Psilocybin

Mechanism of Action:

  • Stimulates serotonin receptors particularly 5-HT2a
275
Q

Give examples of Cannabinoids and their mechanism of Action

A

Examples

  • Cannabis

Mechanism of Action:

  • Stimulates cannabinoid receptors CB1 and CB2)
276
Q

Give examples of Anticonvulsants and their mechanism of Action

A

Examples

  • Pregabalin
  • Gabapentin

Mechanism of Action:

  • Blocks voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane reducing the release of excretory neurotransmitters
277
Q

Give examples of Nicotine and their mechanism of Action

A

Examples

  • Cigarettes
  • Vapes

Mechanism of Action:

  • Stimulates Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
278
Q

What are the features of Opioid misuse?

vs

Features of Opioid Withdrawal

A

Misuse:

  • Low BP
  • Pinpoint pupils
  • Needle Trackmarks
  • Rhinorrhoea

Withdrawal

  • Dilated Pupils
  • High BP
  • Muscle Aches/Cramps
  • Sweating
279
Q

What are some complications of opioid misuse?

A
  • Respiratory Depression
  • viral infection secondary to sharing needles: HIV, hepatitis B & C
  • Bacterial infection secondary to injection: infective endocarditis, septic arthritis, septicaemia, necrotising fasciitis
  • Venous thromboembolism
  • Overdose may lead to respiratory depression and death
  • Psychological problems: craving
  • Social problems: crime, prostitution, homelessness
280
Q

What is the emergency management of Opioid Overdose?

A

Ventilatory Support
Is the most important intervention, and must be done as fast as possible.

Admission of Naloxone
Usually done IV
If needed, repeated doses of Naloxone can be done every 2-3 mins

281
Q

What are the features of Opiate withdrawal?

A

Agitation
Anxiety
Muscle aches or cramps
Chills
Runny eyes and nose
Sweating
Yawning
Insomnia
Gastrointestinal disturbance
Dilated pupils
‘Goose bump’ skin
Increased heart rate and blood pressure

Symptoms usually occur within 12 hours of stopping the drug. The withdrawal syndrome is unpleasant but not life-threatening.

282
Q

What are the first line treatments for opioid detoxification/withdrawal?

A

First Line:

  • Methadone: Full agonist
  • Buprenorphine: Partial Agonist

Second Line:

  • Naltrexone: Opioid antagonist for relapse prevention as it blocks euphoria

Detoxification should last 4 weeks as inpatient and 12 weeks in community

283
Q

What are the clinical features of cannabis intoxication?

A

Drowsiness
Impaired memory
Slowed reflexes and motor skills
Bloodshot eyes
Increased appetite
Dry mouth
Increased heart rate
Paranoia

Cannabis acts at cannabinoid receptors.

284
Q

What are the Somatic Symptoms of LSD intoxication?

A
  • Nausea
  • Headache
  • Palpitations
  • Dry mouth
  • Drowsiness
  • Tremors
285
Q

What are the clinical signs of LSD intoxication?

A

Rapid speech
Large pupils
Agitation and restlessness
High BP.

286
Q

What are the Psychoactive symptoms of LSD intoxication?

(Lysergic Acid Diethylamide)

A

Variable subjective experiences
Impaired judgements which can lead to injury
Amplification of current mood which leads to euphoria or dysphoria
Agitation, appearing withdrawn - especially in inexperienced users
Drug-induced psychosis

287
Q

What is the management of LSD intoxication?

A

First line: Supportive reassurance, calm and stress free environment
Second Line: Benzodiazepines

LSD induced Psychosis may require antipsychotics

288
Q

What are the clinical features of stimulant intoxication (e.g. Cocaine)?

A
  • Euphoria
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased temperature
  • A feeling of increased concentration and focus.
289
Q

What is the management for cannabis, hallucinogen and stimulant abuse (including cocaine)?

A

Psychosocial Interventions are the main treatment.

These can include:
Counselling
Cognitive behavioural therapy
Supportive help (for example with housing and benefits).

290
Q

What are the risk factors for substance abuse/misuse?

A
  • History of alcohol or other drug misuse
  • History of mental illness
  • Male Sex
  • Family history of addiction
  • Unemployment/Homelessness
291
Q

What investigations are done for substance abuse/misuse?

A
  • Comprehensive history to establish the extent of the drug abuse problem / dependence.
  • Urine Toxicology
  • Blood tests - FBC, LFTs, U+Es, etc…
292
Q

What is the management for Drug/Substance misuse/abuse?

A

Referral to drug and alcohol services if the patient is open to this (Often self referral)

  • Detoxification (may be coordinated at home or as an inpatient)
  • Medication to help maintain abstinence
  • Psychological and behavioural therapies (e.g., cognitive behavioural therapy)
  • Ongoing support (e.g., a recovery coordinator and support groups)
293
Q

What investigations are done for an opioid overdose?

A

1st Line:

  • Therapeutic Trial of Naloxone (Overdose patients will show improvement of symptoms)
  • ECG (can show things like QRS prolongation and evidence of myocardial ischaemia)
294
Q

What are some differentials for opioid overdose?

A

GHB or GBL overdose
Very closely mimic an opioid overdose, but will show little / no responce to naloxone.

Clonidine/Imidazolines overdose
Presents with more profound bradycardia and hypotension than opioid overdose. And will also show only limited responce to naloxone.

Antipsychotic Overdose
Presents with hypotension and tachycardia, but will not have the profound bradypnoea seen in opioid overdose. No response to naloxone.

295
Q

What is the definition of harmful drinking?

A

It’s defined as a pattern of alcohol consumption causing health problems directly related to alcohol.

This could include psychological problems such as depression, alcohol-related accidents or physical illness such as acute pancreatitis.

296
Q

What is the criteria for alcohol dependence syndrome?

A

ICD 10 Criteria for diagnosis requires 3 of the following:

  • Craving (desire or compulsion to take the substance)
  • Difficulties in controlling intake
  • Physiological withdrawal
  • Tolerance (more needed to achieve the same effect)
  • Priority is given to substance, with neglect to other aspects of life
  • Persistence despite being aware of the harm the substance causes

Patients can be dependent but have no physiological dependence on alcohol (no withdrawal or tolerance)

297
Q

What is the definition of an Alcohol use disorder?

A

It’s defined as clinically significant impairment or psychosocial stress in the previous 12 months as a direct result from alcohol?

This term encompasses both harmful drinking and alcohol dependence.

298
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Alcohol?

A
  • Alcohol is a depressant
  • Stimulates GABA receptors which have a relaxing affect.
  • Inhibits Glutamate receptors (NMDA) which also have a relaxing affect

Long term alcohol use results in GABA system being down regulated and Glutamate system being upregulated to balance the alcohol effects.

299
Q

What is the Recommended Alcohol Consumption?

A
  • Not more than 14 units per week
  • Spread evenly over 3 or more days
  • Not more than 5 units in a single day
300
Q

What classifies as Binge Drinking for men and women?

A

Men: 8 or more units in a single session
Women: 6 or more units in a single session

301
Q

How do you calculate units of alcohol?

A

[Volume (ml) X Alcohol Content (%)]/ 1000 = Units

302
Q

Why should alcohol be avoided completely in pregnancy?

A

Increased risk of:

  • Miscarriage
  • SGA
  • Preterm delivery
  • Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
303
Q

What are the risk factors for developing an alcohol use disorder?

A
  • Family history of alcohol-use disorder
  • Antisocial behaviour (pre-morbid)
  • High trait anxiety level
  • Low response to the effects of alcohol
  • Depression
304
Q

How can Alcohol Use Disorders be screened for?

A

AUDIT Questionnaire

  • 10 questions with multiple choice
  • Score of 8 or more indicates harmful use

CAGE Questionnaire

  • CUT DOWN? Do you ever think you should cut down?
  • ANNOYED? Do you get annoyed at others commenting on your drinking?
  • GUILTY? Do you ever feel guilty about drinking?
  • EYE OPENER? Do you ever drink in the morning to help your hangover or nerves?

TWEAK Questionnaire

305
Q

What are some examination findings of Excess alcohol?

A
  • Smelling of alcohol
  • Slurred speech
  • Bloodshot eyes
  • Dilated capillaries on the face (telangiectasia)
  • Tremor
306
Q

What are the blood results that suggest Alcohol excess?

A
  • Raised mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
  • Raised alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transferase (AST)
  • AST:ALT ratio above 1.5 particularly suggests alcohol-related liver disease
  • Raised gamma-glutamyl transferase (gamma-GT) (particularly notable with alcohol-related liver disease)
307
Q

When do Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms typically present?

A

6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, headache, craving and anxiety, palpitations

36 hours: seizures
48-72 hours: delirium tremens

308
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Alcohol Withdrawal?

A

due to overactivation of the adrenergic system but glutamate upregulation following GABA downregulation

Simple Withdrawal

Insomnia
Tremors
Anxiety
Agitation
Nausea and vomiting
Sweating
Palpitations

309
Q

What is Alcohol Hallucinosis and when does it present?

A

It’s a rare complication of alcohol withdrawal characterised predominantly by auditory hallucinations

It typically presents 12-24 hours post drink

310
Q

What is the presentation of Delirium Tremens?

A

Is another rare complication of alcohol withdrawal and typically presents 48-72 hours post drink

It is caused by the overactivation of the adrenergic system from glutamate up-regulation and GABA depression

Symptoms

  • Severe agitation
  • Delusions and hallucinations
    • Formication Hallucinations feeling like bugs are crawling under the skin
    • Lilliputian Hallucinations (small people or objects)
  • Confusion
  • Coarse Tremor
  • Seizures

Signs

  • Ataxia
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperthermia
  • Arrhythmias
311
Q

What are some differentials of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Benzodiazepine withdrawal
Similar symptoms to alcohol withdrawal, but may also include perceptual changes, depersonalization, derealization, hypersensitivity to light and sound, and numbness/tingling in extremities.

Drug-induced delirium
Characterised by fluctuating mental status, inattention, and a disturbed sleep-wake cycle.

Other conditions causing delirium

312
Q

What are the indications for inpatient withdrawal treatment?

A
  • Patients drinking >30 units per day
  • Scoring over 30 on the SADQ score
  • High risk of alcohol withdrawal seizures (previous alcohol withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens, or history of epilepsy)
  • Concurrent withdrawal from benzodiazepines
  • Significant medical or psychiatric comorbidity
  • Vulnerable patients
  • Patients under 18
313
Q

What Screening tools are used to assess for Alcohol Dependence?

What screening tools are used to assess the severity of alcohol dependence if identified?

A

Screening for dependence

  • AUDIT Questionnaire (AUDIT-C in time limited scenarious)
  • CAGE Questionnaire

Screening for Severity

  • SADQ (Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire)
  • Leeds Dependence Questionnaire (LDQ
314
Q

What is the management for Alcohol Withdrawal?
What tool is used to assess withdrawal symptoms in patients?

A

CIWA-Ar (Clinical institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol, Revised)

  • Chlordiazepoxide (Diazepam is a less commonly used alternative) is a benzodiazepine used to combat the effects of alcohol withdrawal.
    It is given orally as a reducing regime
  • High-dose B vitamins (Pabrinex) are given intramuscularly or intravenously, followed by long-term oral thiamine. This is used to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
315
Q

What is the management for Delerium Tremens?

A

Oral Benzodiazepines as the first-line treatment for delirium tremens.

Chlordiazepoxide, Lorazepam, Diazepam

With parenteral lorazepam offered if oral treatment is declined or symptoms persist.

316
Q

What is the management for Chronic Alcohol Abuse?

What medications can be used and what is their role?

A
  • Specialist alcohol service
  • Alcohol detoxification programme
  • Oral thiamine (pabrinex)
  • Psychological therapy
  • Inform the DVLA

Medications:

  • Disulfiram - increases sensitivity to alcohol - causes unpleasant symptoms after drinking (induces nausea, vomiting and facial flushing)
  • Acamprosate - reduces cravings (prevents alcohol relapse)
  • Naltrexone - reduces pleasurable effects of alcohol
  • Diazepam - anxiolytic but can also be used in reducing regime in drug detox
317
Q

What is a major complication of Alcohol Excess

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

  • Alcohol excess leads to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency.
  • Thiamine is poorly absorbed in the presence of alcohol.
  • Alcoholics often have poor diets and get many of their calories from alcohol.
  • Thiamine deficiency leads to Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome.
318
Q

What are the features of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
What are the Features of Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy (COAT)

  • Confusion
  • Ophthalmoplegia and Nystagmus
  • Ataxia
  • Thiamine Deficiency

Korsakoff Syndrome (RACK)

  • Retrograde and anterograde amnesia
  • Altered temper/behavioural changes
  • Confabulation
  • Korsakoff Psychosis
319
Q

What is the definition of Self-Harm?

A

Self-harm refers to an intentional act of self-poisoning or self-injury without suicidal intent, irrespective of the motivation or apparent purpose of the act.

It is an expression of emotional distress

320
Q

What different methods of Self-Harm are there?

A
  • A behaviour (eg, self-cutting) intended to cause self-harm.
  • Ingesting a substance in excess of the prescribed or generally recognised therapeutic dose.
  • Ingesting a recreational or illicit drug that was an act that the person regarded as self-harm.
  • Ingesting a non-ingestible substance or object.
321
Q

What is the epidemiology of Self-Harm?

A

It’s most common among younger people, especially younger / teenage girls.

Self-harm increases the likelihood that the person will eventually die by suicide by between 50- and 100-fold.

322
Q

What are the risk factors for self-harm?

A
  • Younger age <25 years
  • Females
  • Psychiatric problems like borderline personality disorder, depression, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, eating disorders, drug misuse and alcohol abuse
  • Domestic violence
  • Socio-economic disadvantage
323
Q

What is the cycle of self harm?

A
  1. Emotional Suffering
  2. Emotional Overload
  3. Panic
  4. Self-harming
  5. Temporary relief
  6. Shame and Guilt - causing emotional suffering
324
Q

What is the initial management of Self-Harm?

A

Safety netting, a Safety Plan and follow up must be considered
Safeguarding issues may be considered

  • Urgent referral to the emergency department if required. Once there they will be seen by the Mental Health Team
  • For drugs taken in overdose / poisoning; Activated charcoal is the first line management (preferably within one hour of ingestion) for many substances
325
Q

What are some management considerations for Self-harm?

A
  • Empathy, supportive communication and building rapport
  • Identifying triggers for episodes
  • Separating the means of self-harm (e.g., removing blades or medications from the environment)
  • Discussing strategies for avoiding further episodes (e.g., distractions, alternative coping strategies and getting help)
  • Providing details for support services in a crisis (e.g., mental health services, Samaritans and Shout)
  • Treating underlying mental health conditions (e.g., depression and anxiety)
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy
326
Q

What further interventions should be offered to those who self-harm?

A

Assessment of needs
Includes an evaluation of the social, psychological and motivational factors specific to the act of self-harm, current suicidal intent and hopelessness, as well as a full mental health and social needs assessment.

Suicide Risk Assessment

Psychological Intervention
NICE recommends 3-12 sessions specifically structured for self-harm

Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
It’s based on cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but is specially adapted for people who feel emotions very intensely.

327
Q

What is the epidemiology of a paracetamol overdose?

A

Paracetamol is the most common agent for intentional self-harm in the UK.

Paracetamol overdose accounts for 44% of all adult self-poisoning cases in the UK.

328
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a paracetamol overdose?

A

A paracetamol overdose involves the buildup of a toxic substance called NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone-imine).

Normally, NAPQI is inactivated by glutathione, but during an overdose, glutathione stores are rapidly depleted, leaving NAPQI unmetabolised and resulting in liver and kidney damage.

329
Q

What are the clinical features of a paracetamol overdose?

A

No symptoms
Nausea and vomiting
Loin pain
Haematuria and proteinuria
Jaundice
Abdominal pain
Coma
Severe metabolic acidosis

330
Q

What are some differentials of a paracetamol overdose?

A

Acute gastritis/gastroenteritis

Renal colic

Liver diseases

Metabolic acidosis

331
Q

What investigations are done for a paracetamol overdose?

A

Paracetamol level
Full Blood Count (FBC)
Urea and Electrolytes
Clotting Screen
Liver Function Tests
Venous Blood Gas

Decisions on treatment are guided by a nomogram which plots paracetamol levels.

332
Q

What is the management for Paracetamol Overdose?

A

Patient presents <1 hour after ingestion: Give Activated Charcoal

N-Acetylcysteine should be given if:

  • Plasma PCM concentration is on or > single treatment line of 100mg/L at 4 hours and 15ml/L at 15 hours.
  • Staggered overdose or doubt over time of PCM ingestion
  • Patient presents 8-24 hours after ingestion of 150mg/kg
  • Patients who present >24 hours after ingestion if clearly jaundiced, have RUQ tenderness or ALT is > normal levels
333
Q

What is the standard N-Acetylcysteine infusion regime?

A

Over 21 hours

  • 1st infusion - 150 mg/kg over 1 hour (loading dose)
  • 2nd infusion - 50 mg/kg over 4 hours
  • 3rd infusion - 100 mg/kg over 16 hours
334
Q

What is Paracetamol overdose the most common cause of?

A

Acute Liver Failure

335
Q

What is the definition of Suicide?

A

It can be described as a fatal act of self-harm initiated with the intention of ending one’s own life

336
Q

What are some factors that increase the risk of someone attempting suicide?

A
  • Male sex
  • History of deliberate self-harm/suicide attempts
  • History of alcohol or drug misuse
  • History of mental illness: Depression, Schizophrenia
  • History of chronic disease
  • Advancing age
  • Unemployment or social isolation/living alone
  • Being unmarried, divorced or widowed
337
Q

What are the factors that increase the risk of someone completing a suicide attempt in the future?

A
  • Previous Suicide attempts
  • Efforts to avoid discovery
  • Planning/preparation
  • Leaving a written note
  • Final acts such as sorting out finances
  • Violent method
  • Feelings of hopelessness, impulsiveness
338
Q

What are some protective factors for Suicide?

A
  • A strong religious faith.
  • Family support to find alternative solutions to their problems.
  • Having children at home.
  • Access to mental health support
  • A sense of responsibility for others.
  • Resilience, Coping mechanisms, Problem-solving skills.
339
Q

What is the best way of establishing whether a patient has suicidal intent?

A

A comprehensive clinical interview

(NICE recommends that no score systems should be used)

340
Q

What does a suicide risk assessment involve?

A

Introduction
Establish rapport, develop a trusting relationship.
Establish current anxieties or problems.
Observe behaviour and be alert to any mismatch between words and behaviour. Suicidal intent be denied.

Assess Risk Factors

Assess Current Plans and Intent
‘Red flags’ to consider may include a sense of hopelessness, a feeling of entrapment, well-formed plans, perception of no social support, distressing psychotic phenomena and significant pain/physical chronic illness.

Assess Needs
Social problems.
Untreated mental health disorders.
Physical symptoms and disorders.
Coping strategies.
Skills, strengths and assets.
Psychosocial and occupational functioning.
Personal and financial difficulties.
Needs of dependants.

341
Q

What does the management of suicidal patients involve?

A

Once a risk assessment has been performed, subsequent action will depend on the level of risk believed to be present.

Formulate a Care Plan (including a risk management and crisis plan)

Specific treatment e.g.
Medication
Counselling
Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)

Provide follow up at regular intervals

342
Q

What should be the first step considering management when a patient presents with an Overdose of a substance?

A

Check TOXBASE

  • Activated charcoal can also be given within 1 hours of overdose to reduce absorption for:
  • Paracetamol
  • Aspirin
  • SSRIs
  • TCAs
  • Antipsychotics
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Quinine
343
Q

What is the management for Paracetamol Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • Activated Charcoal if ingested <1 hour ago
  • N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)
  • Liver Transplantation
344
Q

What is the management for Salicylate Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • Urinary alkalinisation with IV Bicarbonate
  • Haemodialysis
345
Q

What is the management for Opiate Overdose/Poisoning?

A

Naloxone

346
Q

What is the management for Benzodiazepines Overdose/Poisoning?

A

Flumazenil
Carries a high risk of seizures

347
Q

What is the management for TCA Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • IV Bicarbonate
348
Q

What is the management for Lithium Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • Mild/Moderate: Volume resuscitation with normal saline
  • Severe may need haemodialysis
349
Q

What is the management for Methanol (solvents/fuels) or Ethylene Glycol (antifreeze) Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • Fomepizole or Ethanol
  • Haemodialysis
350
Q

What is the management for Warfarin Overdose/Poisoning?

A

Vitamin K or Prothrombin complex

351
Q

What is the management for Heparin Overdose/Poisoning?

A

Protamine Sulphate

352
Q

What is the management for Beta blockers Overdose/Poisoning?

A

If bradycardic then Atropine
If HF or cardiogenic shock then Glucagon

353
Q

What is the management for Cocaine Overdose/Poisoning?

A

Diazepam

354
Q

What is the management for Cyanide Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • Dicobalt edetate
  • Hydroxycobalamin
355
Q

What is the management for Calcium channel blockers Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • Calcium chloride
  • Calcium gluconate
356
Q

What is the management for Carbon monoxide Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • 100% oxygen
  • Hyperbaric oxygen
357
Q

What is the management for Organophosphate/ insecticide Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • Atropine
358
Q

What is the management for Iron Overdose/Poisoning?

A

Desferroxamine

359
Q

What is the management for Lead Overdose/Poisoning?

A
  • Dimercaprol
  • Calcium edetate
360
Q

What is the management for Digoxin Overdose/Poisoning?

A

Digoxin-specific antibody fragments

361
Q

What is the 1983 Mental Health Act (MHA)?

A

It provides legal structures to define and manage procedures associated with the treatment and rights of people with mental health disorders.

362
Q

What is an AMHP?

A

Approved Mental Health Professional

  • Primary person making an MHA assessment and organising the admission
363
Q

Define these terms:

Section 12 doctor

The responsible clinician

Nearest Relative

Independent Mental Health Advocate (IMHA)

A

A Section 12 doctor is a qualified and approved doctor (usually a psychiatrist) who can undertake Mental Health Act assessments.

The Responsible Clinician is the person with overall responsibility for the patient’s care (generally the consultant).

The Nearest Relative is someone close to the patient who is responsible for looking out for the patient’s interests. The Mental Health Act has an ordered list that dictates who fits this role.

An Independent Mental Health Advocate (IMHA) is an independent person allocated to a patient being detained under the Mental Health Act. Their role is to support the person, help them understand the situation, and express themselves.

364
Q

Who is required to carry out a MHA assessment?

A

2 doctors

  • One must be a “Section 12 doctor”
  • Another doctor (preferably with involvement with the patients care)

An AMHP

365
Q

What are the guiding principles of the Mental Health Act?

A
  • Least Restrictive Option and Maximising Independence
  • Empowerment and Involvement
  • Respect and Dignity
  • Purpose and Effectiveness
  • Efficiency and Equity
366
Q

What is the definition of ‘Involuntary Commitment’ or Sectioning?

A

It is a legal process through which an individual who is deemed by a qualified agent to have symptoms of severe mental disorder is detained in a psychiatric hospital where they can be treated involuntarily.

367
Q

What is in Section 2 of the MHA?

A

Compulsory admission for mental health assessment for up to 28 days,

  • Non-renewable - must end in either discharge or detainment under section 3
  • For assessment (may be followed by treatment)
  • Requires 2 doctors and an AMHP
368
Q

What is in Section 3 of the MHA?

A

Compulsory admission for Treatment

  • Maximum period of 6 months
  • Can then be renewed if requiring further treatment
  • Nearest Relative can object
369
Q

What is in Section 4 of the MHA?

A

Used to detain patients for up to 72 hours in urgent scenarios

  • Used where other procedures cannot be arranged in time.
  • It requires an AMHP and one doctor.
  • It is followed by a Mental Health Act assessment.

Designed for emergencies when applying Section 2 would cause an unnecessary delay.

370
Q

What is in Section 5(2) of the MHA?
What is a Section 5(4) of the MHA?

A

Enables a doctor to legally detain a patient who attended the hospital voluntarily (already in hospital)

  • For a period of 72 hours.
  • Only requires 1 Doctor

Section 5(4) enables 1 nurse to do the same for 6 hours

These are followed by a MHA Assessment

371
Q

What is in Section 17 of the MHA?

A

Allows for a Supervised Community Treatment (also known as a Community Treatment Order).

372
Q

What is in Section 135 of the MHA?

A

Court order enabling the police to enter a property to escort a person to a Place of Safety (either the police station or, more commonly, an Accident and Emergency Department (A&E)).

373
Q

What is in Section 136 of the MHA?

A

Provides police officers the authority to take an individual, who seems to be suffering from a mental disorder and is in a public place, to a Place of Safety.

  • Lasts up to 24 hours
  • Followed by a MHA Assessment
374
Q

What is a Section 37/41?

A

Section 37: Hospital Order

  • Court can order an individual with a mental disorder to be detained in a hospital instead of serving a prison sentence
  • Initial duration is up to 6 months but can be reviewed

Section 41: Restriction order

  • Applied when the court deems it necessary to protect the public
  • Ministry of Justice must be involved in decisions about a patients leave, transfer or discharge.
375
Q

What are the most common causes of cognitive impairment?

A

Common

  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • Depression

Infrequent

  • Vascular dementia
  • Fibromyalgia
  • Lewy body dementia
  • Chronic fatigue syndrome
  • Normal pressure hydrocephalus

Rare

  • Frontotemporal lobar degeneration
  • Huntington’s disease
  • Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
  • Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  • Wilson’s disease
376
Q

What is Cognitive Behavioural Therapy?

A

CBT is a term that has come to be used to refer to behavioural therapy, cognitive therapy and therapy that combines both of these approaches.

377
Q

What is the definition of Behavioural Therapy?

A

It is a treatment approach based on clinically applying theories of behaviour that have been extensively researched over many years.

378
Q

What is the definition of Cognitive Therapy?

A

Is a treatment focussing on the role of cognitions in the development of emotional disorders.

379
Q

What conditions can be treated with CBT?

A
  • Depression
  • Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) and panic disorder
  • OCD
  • Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)
  • Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
  • Suicide/self harm
380
Q

What does Cognitive Behavioural Therapy Involve?

A
  • Identify negative thought patterns that contribute to emotional distress.
  • Challenge these thoughts by examining evidence for and against them.
  • Develop more balanced thinking and coping strategies such as changing behaviours
  • Apply new skills in real-world situations, leading to lasting change.
381
Q

What are Hypnotic Drugs?

A

Hypnotics are a class of drugs that will produce drowsiness and facilitates sleep and maintains sleep

382
Q

What are anxiolytic (‘sedatives) Drugs?

A

Anxiolytics are drugs that will decrease activity, relax the patient and calm the recipient

383
Q

What is the most common anxiolytic/hypnotic drug?

A

Benzodiazepines

Fall into the category of both anxiolytic and hypnotic drugs

384
Q

What is the mode of action of Benzodiazepines?

A

Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) by increasing the frequency of chloride channels.

385
Q

What are some purposes of Benzodiazepines?

A

sedation
hypnotic
anxiolytic
anticonvulsant
muscle relaxant

386
Q

How long can Benzodiazepines be prescribed for?

A

2-4 weeks

This is because patients commonly develop a tolerance and dependence to benzodiazepines.

387
Q

(PIT)² SAD

What are the clinical symptoms of Benzodiazepine Withdrawal Syndrome?

A

It presents very similarly to Alcohol Withdrawal syndrome

Perspiration
Perceptual disturbance
Insomnia
Irritability
Tinnitus
Tremors

Seizures
Anxiety
Decreased appetite

388
Q

What are the main types of Eating Disorder?

A
  • Anorexia Nervosa
  • Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)
  • Bulimia Nervosa
  • Binge Eating Disorder
389
Q

What is the most common eating disorder?

A

Anorexia Nervosa

It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards

390
Q

Who is most commonly affected by eating disorders?

A

Females
Teenagers/Young adults

391
Q

What is anorexia nervosa?

A

Person feels they are overweight despite evidence of normal/low body weight.

392
Q

What is the epidemiology of anorexia nervosa?

A
  • 90% of patients are female
  • Affects teenage-young adults
393
Q

What is the ICD-11 criteria for anorexia nervosa?

A
  1. Significantly Low Body Weight (BMI < 18.5)
  2. Low body weight not caused by another medical condition or unavailability of food
  3. Persistent pattern of restrictive eating often associated with intense fear of weight gain
  4. Excessive Preoccupation with body weight or shape (such as weighing themselves excessively)
  5. Significant functional impairment
394
Q

What are the clinical features of anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Weight loss/reduced BMI
  • Amenorrhoea
  • Lanugo hair (fine, soft hair across most of the body)
  • Hypotension
  • Hypothermia
  • Mood changes, including anxiety and depression
395
Q

What are some physiological abnormalities in anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Low FSH, LH, Oestrogen, Testosterone
  • Raised cortisol and GH
  • Impaired glucose tolerance
  • Low T3
  • Hypercholesterolaemia, Hypercarotinaemia
396
Q

What are the main complications of Anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Amenorrhoea due to disruption of HPG axis. (Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism)
  • Cardiac complications: arrhythmia, cardiac atrophy, sudden cardiac death
  • Low bone mineral density
397
Q

What is the Management of Anorexia Nervosa in children?

A

First Line: Anorexia Focused Family Therapy

Second Line: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy - Eating disorder focused

398
Q

What is the management of anorexia nervosa in adults?

A
  • Individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED)
  • Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA)
  • Specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM).
399
Q

What is the management of anorexia nervosa in severe cases?

A

Admission for observation of refeeding and monitoring for refeeding syndrome
Typically when BMI is less than BMI <13

400
Q

What is Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)?

A

An eating disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inadequate eating typically due to avoidance of certain textures, colours, smells or appearance

401
Q

What are the clinical features of ARFID?

A

Limited Food Selection: Eating only a few specific foods, often with little variety in textures or types.

Strong Reactions to Certain Foods: Extreme aversion or disgust to specific foods, which can provoke anxiety, gagging, or even vomiting.

No Concern for Body Image: Unlike anorexia nervosa, individuals with ARFID typically do not have a distorted body image or fear of weight gain

Physical Symptoms: Possible physical health complications arising from nutritional deficiencies, such as fatigue, weakness, or gastrointestinal issues.

402
Q

What is the ICD 11 criteria for ARFID?

A
  • Avoidance or restriction of food intake
  • Insufficient quantity or variety of food for nutritional requirements
  • Significant functional impairment
  • Pattern of eating is not motivated by preoccupation of food
  • Restricted intake leads to health problems
403
Q

What is the management of ARFID?

A
  • Nutritional Counselling
  • Family Focused Therapy and CBT
  • Exposure Therapy
404
Q

What is Bulimia nervosa?

A

An eating disorder characterised by episodes of binge eating followed by intentional vomiting or other purgative behaviour

405
Q

What are the clinical features of Bulimia nervosa?

A
  • Erosion of teeth
  • Swollen salivary glands
  • Mouth Ulcers
  • GORD
  • Calluses on Knuckles Russel’s Sign

Often have a normal body weight

Alkalosis due to repeated vomiting of HCL from the stomach

406
Q

What is the ICD-11 criteria for Bulimia nervosa?

A
  1. Frequent recurrent episodes of Binge eating (> 1x per week for 1 month)
  2. Repeated inappropriate compensatory behaviours to prevent weight gain (> 1x per week for 1 month)
  3. Excessive preoccupation with body weight or shape
  4. Significant impairment in personal, family, social or occupational areas
  5. Doesnt meet criteria for Anorexia Nervosa
407
Q

What is the management for Bulimia nervosa in children?

A

Bulimia nervosa focused family therapy

408
Q

What is the management for Bulimia nervosa in adults?

A

First Line:

  • Bulimia focused guided self-help
  • Trialled for 4 weeks of treatment

Second Line:

  • Eating Disorder focused Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
  • If 1st line not effected after 4 weeks
409
Q

What is Binge Eating Disorder?

A

Characterised by episodes where the person excessively over-eats often due to underlying psychological distress.

410
Q

What is the criteria for Binge eating disorder?

A
  • recurrent episodes of binge eating (1 or more episodes a week) for at least 3 months
  • Feelings of loss of control over eating
  • Not regularly associated with purgative behaviours
  • Not explained by a medical condition (Prader will)
  • Causes significant distress or impairment
411
Q

What is the ICD 11 criteria for PICA?

A
  • Regular consumption of non-nutritional/non-food sources
  • Ingestion is persistent or severe enough to require medical attention
  • Occurs at age which would be inappropriate (> 2 years)
  • Symptoms or behaviours not attributed to another medical condition
412
Q

What are some common substances ingested in PICA?

A

clay, soil, chalk, plaster, plastic, metal and paper

413
Q

What are the possible blood test findings for restrictive eating disorders (anorexia and bulimia)

A

Anaemia (normochromic, normocytic)
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Hypokalaemia

414
Q

What is a key concern when treating restrictive eating disorders?

A

Refeeding syndrome

415
Q

What is the pathophysiology of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Occurs when someone of severe nutritional deficit resumes eating.
    During prolonged starvation, intracellular potassium, phosphate, magnesium are delpleted as the ions move into the blood to maintain normal levels
  • refeeding causes salt shifts due to insulin driving the ions back into cells and sodium out of cells.
  • This leads to Hypomagnesaemia, Hypokalaemia, Hypophosphataemia, Fluid overload
416
Q

What is the overall effect of Refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Hypomagnesaemia (low serum magnesium)
  • Hypokalaemia (low serum potassium)
  • Hypophosphataemia (low serum phosphate)
  • Fluid overload (due to water following the extra sodium into the extracellular space)
417
Q

What are the risks of Re-feeding syndrome?

A

Arrhythmia
Heart failure
Death

418
Q

What is the management of Refeeding Syndrome?

A
  • Slowly reintroduce food with limited calories
  • Supplementation with electrolytes and vitamins (B and Thiamine)
  • Magnesium, potassium, phosphate, glucose monitoring
  • Fluid balance monitoring
  • ECG monitoring for cardiac complications
419
Q

What are Dissociative Disorders?

A

Disorders of consciousness, memory, identity or perception

Often occurring as a coping mechanism following significant trauma or distress

420
Q

What are the types of Dissociative Disorder?

A
  • Depersonalisation-Derealisation Disorder
  • Dissociative Amnesia
  • Dissociative Identity Disorder
421
Q

What Psychiatric conditions may have aspects of Dissociative disorders?

A
  • Borderline Personality Disorder
  • Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
422
Q

What is Depersonalisation-Derealisation Disorder?

A

Depersonalisation which is a feeling of being separated or outside of their body and derealisation where they feel the world is not real

423
Q

What is Dissociative Amnesia Disorder?

A

Involves forgetting autobiographic information (details about themselves or events that happened to them) often following a traumatic experience leading to gaps in their memory

424
Q

What is Dissociative Identity Disorder?

A

Multiple Personality Disorder

  • Involves a lack of clear individual identity.
  • Multiple separate identities with unique names, personalities and memories
  • Often associated with severe stress and childhood trauma
425
Q

What is Catatonia?

What is the management of Catatonia?

A

Abnormal movement, communication and behaviour

  • Patients are awake but don’t behave normally
  • May hold unusual postures, perform odd actions or remain blank and unresponsive

Management: Benzodiazepines (Lorazepam) is first line

426
Q

What are some common causes of Catatonia?

A
  • Severe Depression
  • Bipolar Disorder
  • Psychosis and Schizophrenia
427
Q

What is Factitious Disorder?

A

Munchhausen Syndrome:

  • Compelled to fake illness and take on the sick role, seek medical attention for sympathy
  • Symptoms are invented, exaggerated or self induced
  • Get satisfaction from puzzling medical professionals
428
Q

What is Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy?

A

Where a person fakes or produces symptoms in someone else (often their child) to get attention

429
Q

What is Malingering Disorder?

A

fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain

430
Q

What is Alien Hand Syndrome?

A
  • Patient loses control of one of their hands
  • Acts with a mind of its own performing spontaneous actions such as touching or grabbing
  • Often result of underlying brain lesions
431
Q

What is Cotard Delusion?

A
  • False belief (delusion) that they are dead or actively dying.
  • Known as Walking Corpse Syndrome
  • Caused by Depression, Schizophrenia, brain lesions
432
Q

What is Capgras Syndrome?

A
  • Delusion than in identical duplicate has replaced someone close to them
  • Person may be suspicious or aggressive towards the imposter
433
Q

What is De Clerambault’s Syndrome?

A

Also called Erotomania
Delusion that a famous or high social status individual is in love with the patient.

434
Q

What is Alice in Wonderland Syndrome?

A

Todd Syndrome
Incorrectly perceiving the size of body parts or objects.

  • Associated with perception of time changes
  • Associated with symptoms of migraines
435
Q

What is Koro syndrome?

A

Delusion that the sex organs are retracting/shrinking and ultimately disappear.

  • This often leads to panic attacks.
436
Q

What is Functional Neurological Disorder?

A

Conversion Disorder
Sensory and motor symptoms that are not explained by any neurological disease and may be due to psychological factors.

437
Q

What are some symptoms of FND?

A
  • Weakness
  • Gait disturbance
  • Seizures
  • Loss of sensations
  • visual disturbances.
438
Q

What is Illness Anxiety Disorder?

A

Hypochondriasis

  • Persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious DISEASE, e.g. cancer
  • Patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results
439
Q

What is Somatisation Disorder?

A
  • Multiple physical SYMPTOMS present for at least 2 years
  • Patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results
440
Q

What are the components of a Mental State Examination?

A

Appearance:

  • General appearance
  • Hygiene
  • Clothing
  • Weight

Behaviour:

  • Engagement
  • Eye contact
  • Facial Expression
  • Body Language
  • Psychomotor activity
  • Abnormal movements/postures

Speech:

  • Rate: pressure, slow
  • Quantity: Poverty/Excessive speech
  • Tone: Monotonous, Tremulous
  • Volume: Quiet/Loud
  • Fluency: Stammering, Slurred, Stilted(thought blocked)

Mood and Affect:

  • Mood: subjective how the patient feels
  • Affect: Observational such as facial expressions
  • Intensity: Blunted/flat/heightened
  • Congruency

Thought Form:

  • Speed of thoughts: racing
  • Flow and coherence: circumstantiality, tangentality, flight of ideas etc.

Thought Content:

  • Delusions
  • Obsessions
  • Compulsions
  • Overvalued Ideas
  • Suicidal ideation
  • Violent thoughts

Thought Possession:

  • Thought insertion
  • Thought withdrawal
  • Thought Broadcasting

Perception:

  • Hallucinations
  • Pseudohallucinations
  • Illusions
  • Depersonalisation
  • Derealisation

Cognition

  • Orientated to time, place, person
  • Attention span
  • Short term memory
  • AMTs

Insight:

  • Do they understand that they have a mental health problem

Judgement:

  • Make considered decisions and sensible conclusions

Risk to Self and others:

  • Thoughts of self-harm
  • Substance mis-use
  • Self-neglect
  • Thoughts of harming others
441
Q

Define the term Concrete thinking?

A

Reasoning that’s based on what you can see, hear, feel, and experience in the here and now.

442
Q

Define the term Loosening of association?

A

moving rapidly from one topic to another with no apparent connection between the topics.

443
Q

Define the term Confabulation

A

A neuropsychiatric disorder wherein a patient generates a false memory without the intention of deceit

444
Q

Define the term Passivity phenomenon

A

A Schneiderian first-rank symptom in which a patient has the impression that his or her feelings or actions are those of another or others, usually an unknown outside power

Eg. somatic passivity is experiencing actions, thoughts, emotions that are not their own

445
Q

Define the term flattening of affect

A

when you feel emotions but show practically nothing visually

446
Q

Define the term incongruity of affect

A

Where a patients affect does not match the content of their speech:

eg. appearing happy and laughing when talking about something distressing or depressive

447
Q

Define the term blunting of affect?

A

A decreased ability to express emotion through your facial expressions, tone of voice, and physical movements.

448
Q

Define the term Belle Indifference?

A

A paradoxical absence of psychological distress despite a serious medical illness or symptoms of a health condition.

449
Q

define pyschomotor retardation and restlessness

A
  • Psychomotor retardation: associated with a paucity of movement and delayed responses to questions.
  • Restlessness: the patient may continuously fidget, pace and refuse to sit still.
450
Q

Define the term circumstantial thoughts

A

these are thoughts which include lots of irrelevant and unnecessary details but do eventually come back to the point.Def

451
Q

Define the term Tangential thoughts

A

digressions from the main conversation subject, introducing thoughts that seem unrelated, oblique, and irrelevant.

452
Q

Define the term flight of ideas

A

seen with fast, pressured speech. Ideas run into one another, making it difficult for the observer to follow the flow of speech

453
Q

Define the term thought blocking

A

sudden cessation of thought, typically mid-sentence, with the patient unable to recover what was previously said.

454
Q

Define the term perseveration?

A

refers to the repetition of a particular response (such as a word, phrase or gesture) despite the absence/removal of the stimulus (e.g. a patient is asked what their name is, and they then continue to repeat their name as the answer to all further questions).

455
Q

Define the term Neologisms

A

words a patient has made up which are unintelligible to another person.

456
Q

Define the term word salad

A

speaking a random string of words without relation to one another.

457
Q

What is an over-valued idea?

A

a solitary, abnormal belief that is neither delusional nor obsessional but preoccupying to the extent of dominating the person’s life (e.g. the perception of being overweight in a patient with anorexia nervosa)

458
Q

What is a Delusion?

A

a firm, fixed belief based on inadequate grounds, not amenable to a rational argument or evidence to the contrary and not in sync with regional and cultural norms.

459
Q

What is a pseudohallucination?

A

the same as a hallucination, but the patient knows it is not real.

460
Q

What is an illusion?

A

the misinterpretation of an external stimulus (e.g. mistaking a shadow for a person).

461
Q

What is depersonalisation?

A

the patient feels that they are no longer their ‘true’ self and are someone different or strange.

462
Q

What is derealisation?

A

a sense that the world around them is not a true reality.

463
Q

What is Tourette’s Syndrome?

A

Development of Tics that are persistent for over a year

464
Q

What are tics?

A

Involuntary movements or sounds that are performed repetitively throughout the day.

They become more prominent when the individual is under pressure or excited.

465
Q

Give examples of simple tics

A

Clearing throat
Blinking
Head jerking
Sniffing
Grunting
Eye rolling

466
Q

Give examples of Complex tics

A

Performing physical movements, such as twirling on the spot or touching objects
Copropraxia involves making obscene gestures
Coprolalia involves saying obscene words
Echolalia involves repeating other people’s words

467
Q

What is the management of Tics?

A

Mild tics/no underlying disease

  • May only require monitoring and reassurance
  • Take measures to reduce stress, anxiety and triggers

Severe or troublesome tics

  • Referral to a specialist
  • Habit reversal training
  • Exposure with response prevention
  • Medications - used in very severe cases (often use antipsychotics)
468
Q
A