Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Define Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Alzheimer’s disease is a chronic, neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive accumulation of abnormal protein deposits, primarily amyloid plaques and tau tangles, in the brain.

This leads to the deterioration of cognitive function, memory loss, and various behavioural and psychological symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Dementia

Define MCI

A
  • A state characterised by impairment of 2 or more cognitive domains
  • presenting for more than 6 months
  • severe enough to impact on function
  • That is not primarily attributable to underlying condition

MCI: impairment of 1 or more cognitive domain that is not severe enough to impact function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Increasing prevalence with age
Women more commonly affected than men
APOE Gene

Alzheimer’s is the most common cause of dementia (>50%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Amyloid Plaques: The accumulation of beta-amyloid protein fragments outside nerve cells in the form of plaques is a hallmark feature. These abnormal protein deposits are believed to disrupt neuronal communication, trigger inflammation, and ultimately lead to cell death.

Tau Tangles: Inside nerve cells, abnormal tau protein accumulates, forming neurofibrillary tangles.

Neuronal Loss and Brain Atrophy: As the disease progresses, significant neuronal loss occurs, particularly in brain regions responsible for memory and cognitive function, such as the hippocampus and the cerebral cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give some risk factors for Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Age: Advanced age is the most significant risk factor >65yrs

Genetic Predisposition: apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene, Down’s syndrome

Family History: Having a first-degree relative with Alzheimer’s disease

Cardiovascular Risk Factors: Conditions like hypertension, diabetes, obesity, and hypercholesterolemia

Lifestyle Factors: Physical inactivity, smoking, and a diet high in saturated fats may contribute to increased risk.

Traumatic Brain Injury: A history of head injuries, particularly repeated concussions, has been linked to a higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease.

Low Educational Attainment: Lower levels of education may be associated with an increased risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some clinical features of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Cognitive impairment

  • memory loss
    • generally affects recent events more than distant memories
    • difficulty learning new information
    • the person may defer to family members when answering questions,
    • vague with dates
  • problems with reasoning and communication
  • difficulty in making decisions/executive function
  • nominal dysphasia

Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD):

  • Aggitation
  • Depression
  • Psychosis
  • Apathy
  • Disinhibition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give some examples of behavioural changes you may see in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Agitation
Aggression
Apathy
Mood swings
Irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give some examples of Psychological symptoms you may see in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Hallucinations
Delusions
Paranoia (in later stages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Vascular Dementia
Lewy Body Dementia
Frontotemporal Dementia
Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)
Normal Age related Decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the first line investigations for Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

History - Cognitive decline questionnaire (MMSE)
Examination - Neurological Exam
Blood tests - Confusion Screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the lab tests involved in a confusion screen?

A
  • FBC (e.g. infection, anaemia, malignancy)
  • U&Es (e.g. hyponatraemia, hypernatraemia)
  • LFTs (e.g. liver failure with secondary encephalopathy)
  • Coagulation/INR (e.g. intracranial bleeding)
  • TFTs (e.g. hypothyroidism)
    Calcium (e.g. hypercalcaemia)
  • B12 + folate/haematinics (e.g. B12/folate deficiency)
  • Glucose (e.g. hypoglycaemia/hyperglycaemia)
  • Blood cultures (e.g. sepsis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations for Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Once reversible courses of confusion are eliminated and dementia is still suspected:

Brain imaging - MRI or PET scan
CSF Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the management of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Non-pharmacological:

  • Psychological Interventions
  • Cognitive stimulation therapy

Pharmacological:

  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (Donepezil or Rivastigmine)
  • NDMA antagonists (memantine)
  • If they have BPSD - low dose anti-psychotic (risperidone)

There is no curative treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Parkinson’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurological condition

There is a progressive reduction in dopamine in the basal ganglia which leads to disordered control of bodily movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the epidemiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A

The second most common neurodegenerative disorder after Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the aetiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Unknown however the pathophysiology is well established and correlated to lewy body dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some risk factors for developing Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Male (twice as common)

Increasing age (>65 years)

Family History - though it isn’t a genetic condition this can increase risk

Previous Head injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some protective factors for Parkinson’s disease?

A

Smoking
Caffeine intake
Physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the characteristic triad of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Resting tremor
Rigidity (resisting passive movement)
Bradykinesia (slowness of movement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the clinical features of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Motor Features:

  • Asymmetrical Pin-rolling Tremor - worse on one side
  • Rigidity - “Cogwheel Rigidity, Lead pipe arm”
  • Bradykinesia - Shuffling gait, Micrographia, Poverty of movement

Other Features:

  • REM Sleep Behaviour Disturbance and insomnia
  • Anosmia (loss of sense of smell)
  • Autonomic Dysfunction - Postural hypotension, constipation and ED.
  • Psychiatric features - Depression, Hallucinations, Anxiety
  • Postural instability (a Late feature of Parkinson’s)
  • Hypomimia (lack of facial expression)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some different presentations of Bradykinesia in Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Handwriting gets smaller and smaller (micrographia)
  • Small steps when walking (“shuffling” gait)
  • Rapid frequency of steps to compensate for the small steps and avoid falling (“festinating” gait)
  • Difficulty initiating movement (e.g., going from standing still to walking)
  • Difficulty in turning around when standing and having to take lots of little steps to turn
  • Reduced facial movements and facial expressions (hypomimia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symmetry, Hertz, At Rest, Movement, Additional features, Alcohol

What are the features of the Parkinson’s Tremor?

A

Asymmetrical
4-6 Hertz
Worse at rest
Improves with intentional movement
Additional Features Present
No change with Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symmetry, Hertz, At Rest, Movement, Additional features, Alcohol

What are the features of a Benign Essential Tremor?

A

Symmetrical
6-12 Hertz
Improves at rest
Worse with intentional movement
Additional Features Absent
Improves with Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some Parkinson’s-Plus Syndromes?

What are the characteristic features?

A

Multiple System Atrophy

  • Presents with early autonomic dysfunction
  • Constipation, Postural hypotension, Sweating, Sexual dysfunction.
  • Postural instability compared to PD

Lewy Body Dementia

  • Early and prominent cognitive dysfunction before parkinsonism traits.
  • Visual Hallucinations

Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

  • Verticle Gaze Palsy
  • Postural instability

Corticobasal Degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Benign Essential Tremor
  • Multiple System Atrophy (MSA): Very prominent autonomic dysfunction, early postural instability, poor response to levodopa
  • Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB): Early and prominent cognitive dysfunction, visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognition
  • Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP): Early gait instability and falls, vertical gaze palsy, prominent axial rigidity
  • Corticobasilar Degeneration: May have predominant apraxia, aphasia and ‘alien hand’ syndrome
  • Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH): Presents with Magnetic gait, urinary incontinence and memory problems
  • Wilson’s Disease: May be associated with signs of liver disease
  • Dementia Pugilistica: Secondary to repeated head trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some side effects of Levodopa?

A

LEVODOPA:

Lunacy - psychosis, hallucinations
End dose weaning
inVoluntary movements - dyskinesia, Chorea, Athetosis
Orthostatic hypotension
Dry mouth/drooling
On off phenomenon
Palpitations
Anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give an example of a Catechol-o-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor?

A

Entacapone
Tolcapone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give an example of a Monoamine Oxidase B (MOA) inhibitor?

A

Selegiline
Rasagiline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the investigations for Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Parkinson’s disease is primarily a clinical diagnosis, supported by positive response to treatment trials.

An absolute failure to respond to 1-1.5g of levodopa daily almost excludes a diagnosis of idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

Other investigations such as MRI Head or a Dopamine Transporter Scan (DaT scan) can be considered in atypical cases.

The NICE guidelines recommend that the diagnosis is made using the UK Parkinson’s Disease Society Brain Bank Clinical Diagnostic Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the management of Parkinsons?

Motor Sx
Persistent Sx
Non-responsive

A

Motor Symptoms significantly affecting QoL

  • First line: Levodopa (often in combination with decarboxylase inhibitors is first line)
  • Dopamine agonists tend to be added later down the line for most people.

Motor Symptoms not affecting QoL

  • Dopamine Agonists (non-ergot derived)
  • Levodopa (+decarboxylase inhibitors)
  • Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

Patients have symptoms despite optimal Levodopa Treatment then use adjuncts:

  • Dopamine Agonists
  • MOA inhibitors
  • COMT inhibitors
  • Amantadine (when motor symptoms persist and adjuncts haven’t helped)

If people have fluctuating symptoms but tend to respond well to medications then you can use Deep Brain Stimulation to improve the length of time the medications work for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give Some examples of Dopamine Agonists and a key side effect?

A

Non-Ergo:

  • Rotigotine
  • Ropinirole
  • Apomorphine

Non-ergo DAs are used in parkinsons disease

Ergot:

  • Bromocriptine
  • Pergolide
  • Cabergoline

Side effect of Pulmonary Fibrosis in prolonged use of Ergot dopamine agonists hence no the main ones used are non-ergot

All can cause hallucinations and impulse disorders (Gambling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define Essential Tremor?

A

Benign essential tremor is a relatively common condition chronic neurological condition associated with older age.

Autosomal Dominant Inheritance in > 50% of cases

It is characterised by a fine tremor affecting all the voluntary muscles. It is most notable in the hands but can affect other areas, for example, causing a head tremor, jaw tremor and vocal tremor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Essential Tremor?

A

ET is one of the most prevalent movement disorders, with the incidence increasing with age.

The condition may manifest at any age, from childhood to adulthood.

The age of onset tends to be earlier in those with a positive family history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the Aetiology of Essential Tremor?

A

Aetiology is complex and not fully understood

Multifactorial - Genetic and Environmental Factors

50% of cases - ET is inherited via an Autosomal Dominant Trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are some medications combined with levodopa?

What are some medications for the autonomic features of Parkinson’s?

A

Levodopa is always combined with Dopa-Decarboxylase inhibitors to prevent peripheral metabolism of L-Dopa

Levodopa (combined with Decarboxylase inhibitors Carbidopa / Benserazide)

  • Co-beneldopa (levodopa and benserazide), with the trade name Madopa
  • Co-careldopa (levodopa and carbidopa), with the trade name Sinemet

Specific Autonomic Symptoms

  • REM Sleep disorder: Modafinil
  • Orthostatic Hypotension: Midodrine
  • Drooling: Glycopyrronium bromide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the clinical Features of Essential Tremor?

A

A postural or kinetic tremor, which predominantly affects the upper limbs distally.

Additional symptoms may include:

  • Involvement of the head, lower limbs, voice, tongue, face, and the trunk, although less common.
  • Increased tremor amplitude over time, causing difficulty with tasks such as writing, eating, holding objects, dressing, and speaking.
  • Exacerbation of tremor during situations of anxiety, stress, and social interaction.
  • Potential development of severe psychosocial disability, including depression, particularly in patients with head and voice tremors.

Improved with Alcohol Consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Essential Tremor?

A
  • Parkinson’s disease: Resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity, postural instability.
  • Hyperthyroidism-associated tremor: Palpitations, heat intolerance, weight loss, anxiety.
  • Dystonic tremor: Abnormal posturing, muscle contractions, worsened by voluntary movement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the investigations for Essential Tremor?

A

Mainly a Clinical Diagnosis

Further investigations, such as blood tests or neuroimaging, may be warranted to rule out other potential causes of tremor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the Management of Essential Tremor?

A

No definitive treatment for Essential Tremor

Medications that may improve symptoms are:

  • Propranolol is first line
  • Primidone (a barbiturate anti-epileptic medication)
  • Topiramate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define Motor Neurone Disease?

A

Motor neurone disease is a term that encompasses a variety of specific diseases affecting the motor nerves.

Motor neurone disease is a progressive, eventually fatal condition where the motor neurones stop functioning.

There is no effect on the sensory neurones. Sensory symptoms suggest an alternate diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the epidemiology of MND?

A

2:1 Male predominance
Mean age of Onset 50-60 yrs
90% of cases are Sporadic with only 10% familial

Notable overlap with Frontotemporal Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are some potential genetics of MND?

A

Associated with the misfolding of the TDP-43 Protein

2% of cases associated with a mutation in the SOD-1 gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some risk factors for MND?

A

Increased age >60 yrs
Male
FHx
Smoking
RUGBY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the most common type of Motor neurone Disease?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

Accounts for 50% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the different types of MND?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS): UMN and LMN signs

Progressive Muscular Atrophy (PMA): LMN signs only (best prognosis)

Primary Lateral Sclerosis (PLS): UMN signs only

Progressive Bulbar Palsy (PBP): CN9-12 affected. Speech and swallowing issues (worst prognosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of MND?

A

Degenerative condition selectively affecting motor neurons (cortical and bulbar tracts) mainly in the anterior horn cells, motor cortex or cranial nerve nuclei

There is relentless and UNEXPLAINED destruction of UMN and anterior horn cells in the brain and spinal cord

Causes both UMN and LMN dysfunction

  • UMN and LMN affected but no sensory or sphincter loss – distinguishes from MS
  • Never affects eye movements – distinguishable from myasthenia gravis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the signs of Upper Motor neuron lesions?

A

Hypertonia
Rigidity + spasticity
Hyperreflexia
Babinski Reflex Positive - Big toe goes up when stroking foot

Power:
Arms - Flexors > Extensors
Legs - Flexors < Extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the signs of Lower Motor neuron lesions?

A

Hypotonia
Flaccidity + muscle wasting
Hyporeflexia
Fasciculations
Babinski Reflex Negative - big toe goes down when stroking foot

Generally loss of power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is not affected in MND?

A

Eye muscles and Sphincters generally spared (affected in MS and Myasthenia Gravis)

Sensory function (affected in MS and polyneuropathies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Give a characteristic presentation of MND?

A

The typical patient is a late middle-aged (e.g., 60) man,
possibly with an affected relative.

There is an insidious, progressive weakness of the muscles throughout the body, affecting the limbs, trunk, face and speech.

The weakness is often first noticed in the upper limbs. There may be increased fatigue when exercising.

They may complain of clumsiness, dropping things more often or tripping over. They can develop slurred speech (dysarthria).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the clinical signs of MND?

A
  • Fasciculations
  • Asymmetric limb weakness is common in ALS
  • Mixed UMN and LMN signs
  • Dysarthria / Dysphagia
  • Split Hand Sign - Disproportionate wasting of thenar muscles compared to hypothenar muscles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are some differential Diagnosis of MND?

A
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • Myasthenia Gravis
  • Thyrotoxicosis
  • Brainstem lesions (TIA/Stroke)
  • Cervical Spondylopathy
  • Paraproteinaemias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is MND Diagnosed?

What are some observed findings?

A

The diagnosis needs to be made very carefully. It is based on the clinical presentation after excluding other conditions. It should only be made by a specialist when there is certainty. The diagnosis is often delayed, causing stress.

  • LMN/UMN signs in 3 regions
  • Nerve conduction studies will show normal motor conduction and can help exclude a neuropathy.
  • Electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude.
  • MRI is usually performed to exclude the differential diagnosis of cervical cord compression and myelopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are some investigations to rule out reversable differential diagnoses of MND?

A

TFTs: Rule out Thyrotoxicosis

Protein Electrophoresis: Rule out Paraproteinemia’s

MRI brain and spinal cord: Assess for brainstem lesions or Cervical Spondyloarthropathy

EMG and Nerve conduction studies: Rule out Myasthenia gravis or multifocal mononeuropathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the management of MND?

Symptom control?

A

No effective treatments for halting or preventing progression of MND

Riluzole can slow progression by a couple of months

NIV (non-invasive ventilation) BIPAP can be used to support breathing

PEG is the preferred way to support nutrition

Symptom Control:

  • MDT input
  • Baclofen for muscle spasticity
  • Benzodiazepines for breathlessness due to anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the prognosis of MND

What are some management considerations to make due to the prognosis?

A
  • PMA has the best prognosis
  • PBP has the worst prognosis
  • Average prognosis is 2-3 years after diagnosis

Considerations

  • Breaking bad news effectively and supportively
  • Multidisciplinary team (MDT) input to support and maintain their quality of life
  • Symptom control (e.g., baclofen for muscle spasticity and antimuscarinic medical for excessive saliva)
  • Benzodiazepines may help breathlessness worsened by anxiety
  • Advanced directives to document their wishes as the disease progresses
  • End-of-life care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Define Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

A

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic and progressive autoimmune condition involving demyelination in the central nervous system.

The immune system attacks the myelin sheath of the myelinated neurones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the pathophysiology of MS?

A

Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system (the oligodendrocytes)

  • Type IV Hypersensitivity Rxn
  • T-cell mediated – T cells activate B cells to produce auto-antibodies against Basic myelin protein of oligodendrocytes
  • The Abs will bind to the basic myelin protein and target oligodendrocytes for destruction by macrophages
  • T Lymphocytes manage to cross the BBB, they can cause a cascade of destruction to the neuronal cells (oligodendrocytes) in the brain by recruiting other immune cells
  • This results in plaques of demyelination and inflammation and therefore conduction disruption along axons
  • In early disease, the myelin sheath can regenerate and symptoms somewhat resolve, however the new myelin is less efficient and temperature dependent
  • Therefore Symptoms are exacerbated by heat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are some causes of MS?

A

The cause of the multiple sclerosis is unclear, but there is growing evidence that it may be influenced by:

Multiple genes
Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)
Low vitamin D
Smoking
Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the Epidemiology of MS?

A
  • 3 times more common in women
  • most commonly diagnosed in people aged 20-40 years
  • much more common at higher latitudes (5 times more common than in tropics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is characteristic about the symptom onset in MS?

A
  • Symptoms usually progress over more than 24 hours.
  • 75% have significant Lethargy
  • Symptoms tend to last days to weeks at the first presentation and then improve.
  • Later in the disease the symptoms become more permanent

There are many ways MS can present, depending on the location of the lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the most common presentation of MS?

A

Optic Neuritis: demyelination of the optic nerve and presents with unilateral reduced vision, developing over hours to days

Key features include:

  • Central scotoma (an enlarged central blind spot)
  • Pain with eye movement
  • Impaired colour vision
  • Relative afferent pupillary defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are some other causes of Optic Neuritis?

A

Sarcoidosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Syphilis
Measles or mumps
Neuromyelitis optica
Lyme disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of MS?

Visual
Sensory
Motor
Cerebellar
Other

A

Visual

  • optic neuritis: common presenting feature
  • optic atrophy
  • Uhthoff’s phenomenon: worsening of vision following rise in body temperature
  • internuclear ophthalmoplegia

Sensory

  • pins/needles
  • numbness
  • trigeminal neuralgia
    Lhermitte’s syndrome: paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion

Motor

  • spastic weakness: most commonly seen in the legs

Cerebellar

  • ataxia: more often seen during an acute relapse than as a presenting symptom
    tremor

Others

  • urinary incontinence
  • sexual dysfunction
  • intellectual deterioration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is Uhthoff’s Phenomenon?

A

A worsening of neurological symptoms related to a demyelinating disorder such as multiple sclerosis when the body overheated in hot weather, exercise, fever, saunas, or hot tubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the classifications of MS?

A

Multiple sclerosis may be divided into two groups:

Relapsing-remitting (which may become secondarily progressive)

Primary progressive

  • Relapsing remitting MS makes up 80% of disease at presentation, compared with primary progressive which is <10%.
  • The remaining 10% fall into a difficult to classify intermediate group of progressive-relapsing disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What investigations are done in MS?

2 main tests?

Other?

A

Clinical History and Examination

MRI Scan

  • high signal T2 lesions
  • periventricular plaques
  • Dawson fingers: often seen on FLAIR images - hyperintense lesions penpendicular to the corpus callosum

Lumbar Puncture

  • IgG Oligoclonal Bands in CSF

Visual Evoked Potentials

  • Delayed but well preserved waveform
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What diagnostic Criteria is used in MS?

A

McDonald Criteria:

  • 2 or more attacks + 1 Objective clinical Lesion

OR

  • 1 attack + 2 Objective clinical Lesions

Objective clinical lesions must be disseminated in time and space demonstrated by MRI or positive CSF findings

For the purposes of the McDonald’s criteria, there must be lesions in two of the four regions of the central nervous system which satisfy dissemination in space; juxtacortical, subcortical, infratentorial and spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the Acute management for MS?

A

Glucocorticoids

  • 500mg orally daily for 5 days
  • 1g Methylprednisolone intravenously daily for 3–5 days (where oral treatment has previously failed or where relapses are severe)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the Chronic management of MS?

Additional Management?

A

Disease Modifying therapies:

Biologics:

  • Natalizumab is first line
  • Ocrelizumab, Alemtuzumab

Symptomatic Control:

  • Exercise to maintain activity and strength
  • Fatigue may be managed with amantadine, modafinil or SSRIs
  • Neuropathic pain may be managed with medication (e.g., amitriptyline or gabapentin)
  • Depression may be managed with antidepressants, such as SSRIs
  • Urge incontinence may be managed with antimuscarinic medications (e.g., solifenacin)
  • Spasticity may be managed with baclofen or gabapentin
  • Oscillopsia may be managed with gabapentin or memantine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What may indicate a worse prognosis in MS?

A

Older age of Onset

Male Gender

Primary Progressive MS

High relapse rate

Smoking

Comorbidities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Define Muscular Dystrophy

A

Muscular dystrophy refers to a group of inherited genetic disorders characterized by the progressive degeneration and weakening of the body’s muscles.

The disease is categorized into various types, the most common being Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Becker muscular dystrophy, distinguished primarily by the severity and onset age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Muscular Dystrophy?

A
  • The most common form of muscular dystrophy is Duchenne muscular dystrophy (1 in 3,500-6,000 male births)
  • Becker muscular dystrophy is less common, (1 in 18,000-30,000 male births)

These conditions are X-linked recessive disorders, males are predominantly affected while females are usually carriers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the aetiology of Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Mutations in the dystrophin gene, leading to reduced expression of dystrophin, a crucial protein involved in muscle contraction and stability.

In Duchenne’s, the protein is virtually absent

In Becker’s, the protein is expressed at lower levels or the protein is dysfunctional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the clinical features of Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A
  • Presents in early childhood with muscle wasting and weakness
  • Children usually become wheelchair-bound before puberty and often succumb to respiratory failure by their early twenties
  • May present with hypertrophic calves, as degenerated muscle is replaced by fat
  • Notable signs include a positive Gower’s manoeuvre and difficulty in lifting the child due to proximal muscle weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the clinical features of Becker’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A
  • Presents later in childhood with muscle wasting and weakness
  • Patients commonly become wheelchair-bound in their teens and can survive into their thirties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophy: Characterized by weakness and wasting of the proximal muscles, specifically around the hips and shoulders. (autosomal inheritance)

Spinal Muscular Atrophy

Myopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the investigations for Muscular Dystrophy?

A
  • Creatine Kinase Measurement - First line screening as levels are significantly raised in muscular dystrophy
  • Genetic Testing is Gold standard for diagnosis
  • Muscle Biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the management of Muscular Dystrophy?

A

MDT input to maximise quality of life and minimise disease progression.

  • Glucocorticoids slow muscle degeneration
  • Physical Therapy to maintain mobility
  • Genetic Counselling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the prognosis of Muscular Dystophy?

A
  • Patients with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy typically survive into their early twenties
  • Patients with Becker’s muscular dystrophy can live into their thirties.
  • The leading causes of mortality are respiratory complications and dilated cardiomyopathy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Define Huntington’s Chorea?

A

Huntington’s disease (also called Huntington’s chorea) is an autosomal dominant genetic condition that causes progressive neurological dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the epidemiology of Huntington’s disease?

A

It is one of the most common hereditary neurodegenerative disorders
1 in 10,000-20,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the Genetics of Huntington’s disease?

A

It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder involving a genetic mutation in the HTT gene on chromosome 4, which codes for the huntingtin (HTT) protein.

CAG > 38 repeats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Give some examples of other Trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

Fragile X syndrome
Spinocerebellar ataxia
Myotonic dystrophy
Friedrich ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is Anticipation in genetics?

A

Anticipation is a feature of trinucleotide repeat disorders, where successive generations have more repeats in the gene, resulting in:

Earlier age of onset
Increased severity of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Huntington’s disease?

A

Faulty Huntingtin protein builds up in the striatum causing cell death and loss of cholinergic and GABA-nergic neurons 🡪 decreased ACH and GABA synthesis in striatum

Less GABA causes less regulation of dopamine to striatum causing increased dopamine levels resulting in excessive thalamic stimulation and subsequently increased movement (chorea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the presentation of Huntington’s disease?

A

Features typical develop after 35 years of age

  • chorea
  • personality changes (e.g. irritability, apathy, depression) and intellectual impairment
  • dystonia
  • saccadic eye movements
  • Dysarthria/Dysphagia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the movement disorders associated with Huntington’s disease?

A

Chorea (involuntary, random, irregular and abnormal body movements)
Dystonia (abnormal muscle tone, leading to abnormal postures)
Rigidity (increased resistance to the passive movement of a joint)
Eye movement disorders
Dysarthria (speech difficulties)
Dysphagia (swallowing difficulties)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are some differential Diagnosis for Huntington’s disease?

A

Parkinson’s disease: Characterized by bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, and postural instability

Wilson’s disease: Presents with liver disease, Kayser-Fleischer rings in the eye, and neurological symptoms such as dystonia, tremor, and dysarthria

Huntington’s disease-like disorders (HDL1, HDL2, HDL3, and HDL4): Present with a similar clinical picture but have different genetic backgrounds

Neuroacanthocytosis syndromes: Characterized by movement disorders and spiculated red blood cells (acanthocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the investigations for Huntington’s disease?

A

Neuroimaging: MRI and CT scans may show loss of striatal volume and an enlarged frontal horn of the lateral ventricles in severe disease stages.

Genetic Testing: confirmatory and allows for predictive testing in at risk family members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the management of Huntington’s disease?

A

No curative or preventative treatments

  • Breaking bad news effectively and supportively
  • Genetic counselling regarding relatives, pregnancy and children
  • Multidisciplinary team (MDT) input to support and maintain their quality of life
  • Physiotherapy to improve mobility, maintain joint function and prevent contractures
  • Speech and language therapy where there are speech and swallowing difficulties
  • Tetrabenazine may be used for chorea symptoms
  • Antidepressants (e.g., SSRIs) for depression
  • Advanced directives to document their wishes as the disease progresses
  • End-of-life care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the prognosis for a patient with Huntington’s disease?

What are the common complications?

A

The prognosis for Huntington’s disease is poor, with an invariable decline in physical and cognitive abilities.

Death usually occurs due to complications:
Aspiration pneumonia
suicide is the second most common cause of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Define a Brain Abscess?

A

A brain abscess is a pus-filled swelling in the brain.

It usually occurs when bacteria or fungi enter the brain tissue after an infection or severe head injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Causes of Brain Abscesses?

A
  • Extension of sepsis from middle ear or sinuses,
  • Trauma or surgery to the scalp
  • Penetrating head injuries
  • Embolic events from endocarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the clinical features of Brain Abscesses?

A

The presenting symptoms will depend upon the site of the abscess (those in critical areas e.g. motor cortex) will present earlier. Abscesses have a considerable mass effect in the brain and raised intracranial pressure is common.

  • headache - often dull, persistent
  • fever - may be absent and usually not the swinging pyrexia seen with abscesses at other sites
  • focal neurology - e.g. oculomotor nerve palsy or abducens nerve palsy secondary to raised intracranial pressure

Other features consistent with raised intracranial pressure

  • Nausea
  • Papilloedema
  • Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the investigations for a Brain Abscess?

A
  • FBC
  • ESR/CRP
  • Neuroimagining: MRI may show a ring enhancing lesion with surrounding oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the management for a Brain Abscess?

A

Surgery: a craniotomy is performed and the abscess cavity debrided

IV antibiotics: IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin + metronidazole

Intracranial pressure management: e.g. dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Define Meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges from both infective and non-infective causes.

This is a notifiable condition to PHE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the different infective causes of Meningitis?

A

Viral:
Enterovirus (coxsackie)
HSV2
VZV

Bacterial:
N. Meningitidis
S. pneumonia

Fungal: Cryptococcus Neoformans (primary in the immunosuppressed population)

Parasitic: Amoeba, Toxoplasma Gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in children and adults?

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in neonates?

A

Group B Streptococcus - Streptococcus Agalactiae
E.coli
Strep. pneumonia
Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are some non-infective causes of Meningitis?

A
  • Malignancies such as leukemia, lymphoma, and other tumors
  • Chemical meningitis
  • Certain drugs, including NSAIDs and trimethoprim
  • Systemic inflammatory diseases such as sarcoidosis,
  • Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, Behcet’s disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis?

A

Viral infection (Most commonly enteroviruses)

More common but less severe than bacterial causes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the main risk factors for meningitis?

A

Extremes of age (Infant/elderly)
Immunocompromised
Pregnancy
Travel
Crowded environment - barracks/uni
Non-vaccinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What vaccines are available for meningitis coverage?

A

N. Meningitidis - Men B + Men C + Men ACWY

S. pneumoniae - PCV Vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the symptoms of Meningitis?

A

Meningism:
Headache, Fever, Neck stiffness

Non-Blanching Purpuric Rash
Nausea + Vomiting
Seizures
Photophobia

Purpuric Rash - Bacterial Meningitis
Non-Blanching Purpuric Rash - Meningococcal Septicaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What does the Non-blanching Purpuric Rash indicate in Meningitis?

A

Bacterial Meningococcal Septicaemia:
This rash indicates the infection has caused disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) and subcutaneous haemorrhages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the presentation of Meningitis in Neonates?

A

Neonates and babies can present with very non-specific signs and symptoms:

  • Hypotonia
  • Poor feeding
  • Lethargy
  • Hypothermia
  • Bulging Fontanelle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the clinical signs of meningitis?

A

Kernig’s Sign:
When the hip is flexed and the knee is at 90°, extension of the knee results in pain

Brudzinski Sign:
Severe neck stiffness causes the hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the primary investigations in meningitis?

A

1st Line: Bloods
FBC - raised WCC
CRP - raised
Blood glucose - compared with CSF
Blood culture - to determine viral/bacterial

CT Head - Look for Brain Lesions/Abscesses/CIs for LP

Lumbar Puncture (LP) + CSF Analysis (Gold Standard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are some contraindications for a lumbar puncture?

A

Raised ICP
GCS <9
Focal Neurological signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

In Paediatric cases of fever and general unwellness what does NICE recommend as an important investigation?

A

A Lumber Puncture in all children:

  • Under 1 month presenting with fever
  • 1 to 3 months with fever and are unwell
  • Under 1 year with unexplained fever and other features of serious illness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture usually taken from?

A

Between L3/L4
Since spinal cord ends L1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Meningitis?

A
  • Encephalitis
  • Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
  • Brain Abscess
  • Sinusitis
  • Migraine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What would the results of CSF analysis be in Bacterial, Viral and Fungal Meningitis?

A

Fungal:

  • Lymphocytosis
  • Increased Protein Concentration
  • Decreased Glucose Concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the management of Bacterial Meningitis in the community?

A

STAT dose of IM Benzylpenicillin and immediate transfer to hospital

In True Penicillin allergy then immediate transfer to hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the management of Bacterial Meningitis in the Hospital?

A

Ideally perform a blood culture and a lumbar puncture prior to starting Abx unless the patient is acutely unwell.

Broad Spec Abx - Cover All Likely Organisms:
1st Line - Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime (as they get through the BBB)

WTIH OR AFTER
IV Dexamethasone - Prevent neurological sequelae

2nd Line: Chloramphenicol

Once Blood cultures have been done then can tailor Abx:
Eg. IV Benzylpenicillin for N.Meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What antibiotics should be used to treat bacterial meningitis in children?

A

Under 3 Months: Cefotaxime and Amoxicillin (covers for listeria)

Over 3 Months: Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What Post Exposure Prophylaxis should be done in Meningitis cases?

A

Contact Tracing:

  • This risk is highest for people that have had close prolonged contact within the 7 days prior to the onset of the illness.
  • The risk decreases 7 days after exposure. Therefore, if no symptoms have developed 7 days after exposure they are unlikely to develop the illness.

A single dose of ciprofloxacin. It should be given as soon as possible and ideally within 24 hours of the initial diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the management of Viral Meningitis?

A

Usually only requires Supportive treatment

Acyclovir can be used to treated suspected or confirmed HSV/VZV infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are some complications of Meningitis?

A
  • Hearing loss is a key complication
  • Seizures and epilepsy
  • Cognitive impairment and learning disability
  • Memory loss
  • Cerebral palsy, with focal neurological deficits such as limb weakness or spasticity
  • Septic Shock and DIC
  • Coma and Death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Define Encephalitis?

A

Encephalitis is a pathological condition characterised by inflammation of the brain parenchyma, also known as the “encephalon”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the aetiology of Encephalitis?

A
  • Predominantly Viral Infection
  • Bacterial and fungal pathogens can also lead to encephalitis (Rarely in the UK)
  • Autoimmune Encephalitis - NMDA receptor antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the most common Viral causes of Encephalitis?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV-1)

Others:

  • HSV-2
  • CMV
  • EBV
  • VZV
  • HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are the clinical features of Encephalitis?

A

Altered Mental Status
Fever
Flu-like prodromal illness
Seizures
Acute onset Focal neurological deficits
Headaches
Behavioural changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What investigations are done in Encephalitis?

A

Encephalitis should be suspected in any patient presenting with sudden onset behavioural changes, new seizures, and unexplained acute headache

  • A routine panel of blood tests
  • Blood cultures and viral PCR
  • Lumbar Puncture + Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis with viral PCR
  • Consideration for malaria blood films in case of exposure risk

CNS Imaging: CT/MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What may be seen on MRI in Encephalitis?

A

Temporal lobes affected
Bilateral Multifocal Haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the management of Encephalitis?

A

Intravenous antiviral medications are used to treat the suspected or confirmed underlying cause:

Aciclovir treats herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella zoster virus (VZV)

Ganciclovir treats cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Supportive management of complications:
Anti-convulsant for seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are some side effects of Aciclovir?

A

Common

  • Generalised fatigue/malaise
  • Gastrointestinal disturbance
  • Photosensitivity and urticarial rash

Others:

  • Acute renal failure
  • Haematological abnormalities
  • Hepatitis
  • Neurological reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are some complications of Encephalitis?

A

Lasting fatigue and prolonged recovery
Change in personality or mood
Changes to memory and cognition
Learning disability
Headaches
Chronic pain
Movement disorders
Sensory disturbance
Seizures
Hormonal imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Define Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection (classically Campylobacter jejuni)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the pathophysiology of GBS?

A

Guillain-Barré is thought to occur due to a process called molecular mimicry.

Antibodies against the pathogen aslo react to gangliosides (anti-ganglioside antibodies) which are components of cell membranes and myelin sheath.

This leads to demyelination and a peripheral polyneuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are the clinical forms of GBS?

A
  • Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
  • Acute motor axonal neuropathy
  • Acute Sensory and motor axonal neuropathy
  • Miller-Fisher variant characterised by ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and areflexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is Miller-Fischer Syndrome?

A

Variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome
associated with ophthalmoplegia, areflexia and ataxia.

  • The eye muscles are typically affected first
  • Usually presents as a descending paralysis rather than ascending
  • Anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the Aetiology of GBS?

A

Typically occurs 1-3 weeks following an infection

  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Epstein Barr Virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is the symptomatic progression of GBS?

A
  • Gastroenteritis
  • 1-3 weeks later: Neurological Symptoms start
  • 2-4 weeks later: Symptoms Peak
  • Months to years: Recovery period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the clinical features of GBS?

A

Symptoms occuring 3-4 weeks post infection:

  • Progressive ascending symmetrical limb weakness
  • Lower back pain due to radiculopathty
  • Paraesthesia preceding motor symptoms
  • hyporeflexia
  • Cranial Nerve Signs - Ophthalmoplegia, facial nerve palsy.
  • Autonomic Dysfunction - Urinary retention, diarrhoea, Arrhythmias
  • Potential respiratory distress in severe cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Guillain Barre Syndrome?

A

Brainstem strokes
Polio
Lyme Disease
CMV
HIV
TB
Transverse Myelitis
Myasthenia Gravis
Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Sydrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What criteria is used to diagnose GBS?

A

Brighton Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are the investigations for GBS?

First line
Other?

A

Nerve Conduction studies

  • Reduced signal conduction velocity
  • Prolonged distal motor latency
  • Increased F wave latency

Lumbar Puncture + CSF analysis

  • raised protein with normal cell count and glucose

Other:

  • Spirometry
  • Monitoring of FVC for respiratory muscle involvement
  • Serological - Anti-ganglioside antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the management of GBS?

A

Management for Severe cases: (eg inability to walk)

  • IV Immunoglobulins are first line
  • Plasmapheresis is second line

Other:

  • Supportive care
  • VTE Prophylaxis - TEDS + LMWH
  • Monitoring FVC for respiratory failure
  • Analgesia - NSAIDS or Opiates for Radiculopathy pain
  • Manage complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the leading cause of death in GBS?

A

Pulmonary Embolism hence the VTE prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the prognosis of GBS?

A

Recovery can take months to years
Most patients make a fully recovery

5% mortality due to respiratory or cardiovascular complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Define Bulbar Palsy?

A

A subtype of lower motor neurone lesion impacting the Glossopharyngeal, Vagus and Hypoglossal cranial nerves.

This leads to impairments of speech and swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the aetiology of Bulbar Palsy?

A
  • Motor Neurone Disease - primarily PBP
  • Myasthenia Gravis
  • Guillain Barre Syndrome
  • Brainstem Stroke - Lateral medullary Syndrome or Wallenberg’s Syndrome
  • Syringobulbia - Fluid-fillled cavity within the spinal cord.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are the clinical features of Bulbar Palsy?

A
  • Absent or normal Jaw Jerk Reflex
  • Absent Gag Reflex
  • Flaccid fasciculating tongue
  • Nasal speech (often quiet)
  • Signs of the underlying cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Bulbar palsy?

A
  • Pseudobulbar Palsy: Upper motor neurone lesion of cranial nerves causing dysarthria and dysphagia
  • Brainstem tumour
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • Polymyositis and Dermatomyositis: Muscle weakness of the pharyngeal muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What are the investigations for Bulbar Palsy?

A

Aim at establishing underlying aetiology

  • Neurological Examination - Cranial Nerve Exam
  • EMG and Nerve Conduction Studies - Help diagnose MG or MND
  • Blood tests and antibody screening
  • MRI to identify brainstem lesions or presence of a syrinx
  • Lumbar puncture to rule out infective or autoimmune causes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the management of Bulbar Palsy?

A

Symptomatic relief and management of underlying cause

  • Speech and swallowing therapy
  • Nutritional support due to Dysphagia and poor oral intake
  • Regular Monitoring to assess progression and manage complications
  • Pharmacological management of underlying cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Define Cerebellar Syndrome?

A

A cluster of clinical manifestations resulting impaired function of the cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

VIITAMIN C

What are some causes of Cerebellar Dysfunction?

A
  • Vascular: Stroke of posterior circulation
  • Infectious: Lyme disease, Cerebellar Abscess
  • Inflammatory: Multiple Sclerosis
  • Traumatic: Trauma to posterior fossa
  • Alcohol
  • Metabolic: Hypothyroidism
  • Iatrogenic: Phenytoin, Carbamazepine
  • Neoplastic: Primary and Secondary Tumours
  • Congenital: Friedrich’s Ataxia, Spinocerebellar Ataxias (eg. SPG7)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

VANISHED

What are the clinical Manifestations of Cerebellar Dysfunction?

A

Vertigninous Symptoms
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Intention Tremor
Slurred Staccato Speech (dysarthria)
Hypotonia
Exaggerated Broad Based Gait
Dysdiadochokinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What symptoms arise from cerebellar vermis lesions?

A

Truncal Ataxia
Gait instability

Few cerebellar signs in the limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What symptoms arise from cerebellar hemisphere lesions?

A

VANISHED signs in Ipsilateral Limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Cerebellar Dysfunction?

A
  • Stroke
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • Posterior Fossa Tumour
  • Alcoholism
  • Medication side effects: Phenytoin, Carbamazepine
  • Tumours
  • Hereditary conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are the investigations for Cerebellar Dysfunction?

A

History: Alcohol intake, Head injury, infection

Neuroimaging: CT or MRI to identify stroke, tumour, trauma

Serological Tests: Identify infectious or inflammatory causes

Lumbar Puncture: Evidence of infection, inflammation or malignancy

Genetic Testing: Diagnose hereditary conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is the management of Cerebellar Dysfunction?

A

Treat Underlying Cause

  • Medications - manage symptoms
  • Surgery to remove tumours or address trauma
  • Rehabilitation therapies - physical, speech, occupational
  • Lifestyle modifications - Alcohol cessation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus?

A

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) describes the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

It accounts for around 10% of case of shingles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are the clinical features of Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus?

A
  • Vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself
  • Hutchinson’s sign: rash on the tip or side of the nose. Indicates nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the management of Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus?

A
  • Oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days
    • Ideally started within 72 hours
    • Intravenous antivirals may be given for very severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised
  • Topical antiviral treatment is not given in HZO
  • Topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye
  • Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are some complications of Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus?

A
  • Ocular: Conjunctivitis, Keratitis, Episcleritis, Uveitis
  • Ptosis
  • Post herpatic Neuralgia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Herpes Zoster Oticus is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the Facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What are the clinical features of Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A
  • Auricular Pain - often the first feature
  • Vesicular rash around the ear canal, pinna and can extend to the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue and hard palate
  • Facial Nerve Palsy
  • Vertigo and tinnitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is a typical patient presenting with Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Patient with facial nerve palsy, auricular pain and a vesicular rash around their ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is the management of Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Treatment should be initiated within 72 hours
Oral Aciclovir and Corticosteroids (prednisolone)

May also require lubricating eye drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Define Cerebral Palsy?

A

A Permanent disorder of movement and posture due to a non-progressive lesion of the motor pathways in the developing brain.

It is not a progressive condition, however the nature of the symptoms and problems may change over time during growth and development.

There is huge variation in the severity and type of symptoms, ranging from completely wheelchair bound and dependent on others for all activities of daily living, to para-Olympic athletes with only subtle problems with coordination or mobility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Cerebral Palsy?

A

2/3 in 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What are some causes of Cerebral Palsy?

A

Antenatal (80%):

  • Maternal infections: Rubella, CMV, Toxoplasmosis
  • Trauma during pregnancy
  • Cerebral Malformation

Perinatal (10%):

  • Birth asphyxia (Hypoxic Ischemic Encephalopathy)
  • Pre-term birth
  • Intrumental Delivery

Postnatal (10%):

  • Meningitis
  • Intraventricular Haemorrhage
  • Kernicterus (Severe neonatal jaundice)
  • Head injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What are the types of Cerebral Palsy?

A

Spastic: hypertonia (90%) (increased tone) and reduced function resulting from damage to upper motor neurones

  • Hemiplegic
  • Diplegic
  • Quadriplegic

Dyskinetic: problems controlling muscle tone, with hypertonia and hypotonia, causing athetoid movements and oro-motor problems. This is the result of damage to the basal ganglia.

Ataxic: problems with coordinated movement resulting from damage to the cerebellum

Mixed: a mix of spastic, dyskinetic and/or ataxic features

Spastic CP is also known as pyramidal CP. Dyskinetic CP is also known as athetoid CP and extrapyramidal CP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are some clinical features of Cerebral Palsy?

A
  • Motor Problems
  • Abnormal tone early infancy
  • Delayed motor milestones
  • Abnormal gait - Hemiplegic/Diplegic Gait
  • Feeding difficulties.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are some non-motor problems associated with Cerebral Palsy?

A
  • Learning Difficulties (60%)
  • Epilepsy (30%)
  • Squints (30%)
  • Hearing Impairments (20%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are some differential diagnoses to Cerebral Palsy?

A
  • Muscular Dystrophies
  • Metabolic Disorders
  • Hereditary spastic paraplegia
  • Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are some investigations performed in suspected Cerebral Palsy?

A

Clinical Diagnosis often

  • Neuroimaging: MRI to visualise the extent and nature of the brain lesions
  • Genetic Testing: considered for differential diagnoses when there is a suspicion of an underlying genetic disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is the management of Cerebral Palsy?

A

Requires a Multidisciplinary Team Approach

  • Paediatricians: Optimise Medications:
    • Muscle Relaxants - Baclofen
    • Anti-epileptic Drugs
    • Glycopyrronium Bromide - For excessive drooling
  • Surgery: Musculoskeletal deformity correction / Tendon release
  • Physiotherapy: Stretch and strengthen muscles and maximise function
  • Occupational Therapy: Manage patients everyday lives and ADLs
  • Speech and Language Therapy: Aid with speech and swallowing problems as some patients may require an NG or PEG tube (requires dieticians)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are some complications of Cerebral Palsy?

A
  • Learning disability
  • Epilepsy
  • Kyphoscoliosis
  • Muscle contractures
  • Hearing and visual impairment
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Define Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy (HIE)?

A

A form of brain damage that occurs due to antenatal or perinatal hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the epidemiology of HIE?

A

1-2 per 1000

Incidence is higher in premature and low birth weight infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What are some causes of Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy?

A

Pre-partum

  • Placental Abruption
  • Maternal Shock

Intrapartum

  • Intrapartum haemorrhage
  • Cord compression
  • Prolapsed cord
  • Nuchal Cord

Post Partum

  • Prolonged Respiratory Arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy?

A

A lack of oxygen in the foetal circulation which leads to an insufficient oxygen supply to the brain

This ischaemia culminates in irreversible brain damage both from primary neuronal death and secondary reperfusion injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What are the clinical features of HIE?

A

Presentation varies along with the degree of neurological damage.

Mild: Irritability, Slight changes in behaviour

Severe: Hypotonia, Poor responsiveness to stimuli, Severe prolonged seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for HIE?

A

Meningitis

Metabolic Disorders

Intracranial Haemorrhage

Drug withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What are the investigations performed in suspected HIE?

A

EEG Monitoring: Evaluate seizure activity and brain function

Multiple MRI Scans: To assess extent of brain injury and areas affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is the management of HIE?

A

Depends on presentation and systemic complications:

  • Respiratory Support
  • Anticonvulsant therapy: To control Seizures
  • Careful fluid balance: To prevent further complications
  • Cooling Therapy: To induce mild hypothermia and prevent further damage from secondary reperfusion injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Define Malaria?

A

Malaria is an infectious disease caused by members of the Plasmodium family of protozoan parasites.

Protozoa are single-celled organisms.

The most severe and dangerous type is Plasmodium falciparum, which accounts for about 80% of malaria cases in the UK.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

How is Malaria spread?

A

Through bites from the Female Anopheles Mosquitoes that carry the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What are the different types of plasmodium that can cause Malaria?

A
  • Plasmodium falciparum (the most common and severe form)
  • Plasmodium vivax
  • Plasmodium ovale
  • Plasmodium malariae
  • Plasmodium knowlesi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is the lifecycle for Malaria?

A
  1. Inoculation of parasites (sporozoites) passed from the blood to the liver
  2. Asexual division in the liver maturing into Schizonts
  3. Parasite emerges from the liver to infect red blood cells as mature Merozoites

P. vivax and P. ovale lay down Hypnozoites in the liver that remain dormant and are immune to conventional anti-malarial drugs and so can reactivate years later

  1. Infected RBCs rupture releasing loads of merozoites into the blood and cause Haemolytic Anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

How many hours do P. vivax, P. ovale and P. falciparum infect RBCs for before they rupture?

A

P. vivax and P. ovale - 48 hours cyclical fever spikes

P. falciparum - More frequent and irregular fever spikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What are some protective factors for malaria?

A

Sickle Cell Disease
G6PD Deficiency
HLA-B53
Absence of Duffy Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What are the clinical features of Malaria?

A

Non-specific symptoms:
Fever (often cyclical every 48 hours)
Fatigue
Myalgia
Headache
Nausea and Vomiting

Signs:
Pallor due to haemolytic anaemia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Jaundice due to the rupture of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for Malaria?

A

Malaria Blood Film:

  • Thick - Sensitive to Malaria
  • Thin - Used to determine Species

3 Negative samples taken over 3 consecutive days are required to exclude malaria due to the cyclical release of parasites from the blood every 48-72 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is the management of Malaria?

A

Anti-malarials:

Artesunate or Chloroquine

  • Quinine plus Doxycycline
  • Quinine plus clindamycin

There are increasing rates of resistance to chloroquine where Artesunate should be used

Artesunate is AVOIDED in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is the treatment for complicated malaria often due to P. falciparum infection?

A
  • Admitted to HDU/ICU and monitored for complications
  • Artesunate is first line

Quinine dihydrochloride may also be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What are some complications of P. falciparum Malaria?

A
  • Cerebral malaria: seizures, coma
  • Acute renal failure: blackwater fever, secondary to intravascular haemolysis, mechanism unknown
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What are the features of Cerebral Malaria?

A

Altered consciousness that can range from confusion to deep coma

Seizures

Neurological deficits

This is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What are the different Primary Brain Tumours?

A
  • Gliomas (Astrocytoma, Ependymoma, Oligodendroma, Glioblastoma
  • Meningioma
  • Schwannoma
  • Pituitary adenoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What is the most common Primary Brain Tumour in Adults and in Children?

A

Adults: Glioblastoma followed by Meningioma
Children: Astrocytoma and Craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What is the most common form of brain tumour?

A

Metastatic brain cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What are the cancers that will most commonly spread to the brain to cause metastatic brain cancer?

A

Lung cancer (Most common)
Breast
Bowel
Skin (melanoma)
Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What are the clinical features of brain tumours?

A

Wide range of symptoms depending on location and size

  • Headaches: Often severe and constant that are worse in the mornings and when lying down
  • Nausea and Vomiting accompanying the headaches
  • Seizures: often the first sign of a brain tumour
  • Cognitive changes: Memory loss, confusion, difficulty concentrating
  • Focal Neurological Deficits: Motor and sensory symptoms
  • Visual changes: if pressing on the optic chiasm or nerve
  • Personality changes: irritability, mood swings, depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What are the red flag signs for brain tumours?

A

New Headaches:

  • Severe and persistent
  • Woken by headache
  • Worse in morning
  • Worse Lying down
  • Associated with N+V
  • Exacerbated by coughing, sneezing and drowsiness

Features of raised ICP (papilloedema)
Focal neurology (motor, sensory, visual)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What is a Glioblastoma Multiforme?

A

Glioblastoma (GBM), also referred to as a grade IV astrocytoma, is a fast-growing and aggressive brain tumour
Most common primary tumour in adults
Often fatal within 1 year of Dx

  • On imaging they are solid tumours with central necrosis and a rim that enhances with contrast.
  • Disruption of the blood-brain barrier and therefore are associated with vasogenic oedema.
  • Histology: Pleomorphic tumour cells border necrotic areas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What is a meningioma?

A

Second most common primary brain tumour in adults

Benign extrinsic tumours arising from the meninges.

CT/MRI scan with show contrast enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What is a Pilocytic Astrocytoma?

Finding on histology?

A

Most common primary brain tumour in children
Has Rosenthal fibres (corkscrew eosinophilic bundles) on histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What is a Medulloblastoma?

A
  • A medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment. It spreads through the CSF system. Treatment is surgical resection and chemotherapy.
  • Histology: Small, blue cells. Rosette pattern of cells with many mitotic figures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is an Ependymoma?

A
  • Commonly seen in the 4th ventricle
  • May cause hydrocephalus
  • Histology: perivascular pseudorosettes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What is an Oligodendroma?

Findings on histology

A
  • Benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes
  • Histology: Calcifications with ‘fried-egg’ appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What is a Haemangioblastoma?

A
  • Vascular tumour of the cerebellum
  • Associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
  • Histology: foam cells and high vascularity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What is a Craniopharyngioma?

Derived from?
Presentation?

A

Most common paediatric supratentorial tumour

Solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region (Sellar turcica) derived from Rathke’s pouch

  • Presents with Hormonal disturbance, hydrocephalus and bitemporal hemianopia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What are the investigations for a brain tumour?

A

MRI head - locate tumour
Biopsy - determine grade

Fundoscopy - Papilloedema due to raised ICP

NO LP as this is CI in raised ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What is the management of brain tumours?

A

Depends on Type, Grade and Site:
Tx is non-curative except for Grade I tumours

Surgical removal if possible/reduce ICP (dexamethasone to reduce oedema)

Chemotherapy/Radiotherapy Before/during/after surgery.
(Radiotherapy is mainstay of treatment)

Palliative Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What are the differential Diagnoses of a brain tumour?

A

Aneurysm
Abscess
Cyst
Haemorrhage
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What are Pituitary Tumours?

A
  • Pituitary gland – sits in pituitary fossa (behind nose and below base of brain)
  • Tumours are almost always benign and usually curable
  • Excessive effects of tumour
  • Local effects of tumour – bitemporal hemianopia
  • Inadequate hormone production by the remaining pituitary gland
  • Treated with Transsphenoidal surgical resection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What is an Acoustic Neuroma?

A

Vestibular Schwannoma (previously termed acoustic neuroma)

  • A benign tumour of schwaan cells forming the myelin sheath arising from the auditory (vestibulocochlear) nerve often found at the cerebellopontine angle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Where do acoustic neuromas occur?

A

From the vestibulocochlear nerve at the cerebellopontine angle

(sometimes referred to as cerebellopontine angle tumours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What are the clinical features of an Acoustic Neuroma?

A

40-60 years presenting with gradual onset classically presenting with:

  • Unilateral sensorineural Hearing loss (often first symptom)
  • Vertigo
  • Unilateral Tinnitus
  • Absent Corneal Reflex

Other features:

  • Dizziness or imbalance
  • Sensation of fullness in the ear
  • Facial nerve palsy - due to compression if the tumour grows large enough
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What is the pathophysiology of the features of Vestibular Schwannomas?

A

Features can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves

  • cranial nerve VIII: vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral tinnitus
  • cranial nerve V: absent corneal reflex
  • cranial nerve VII: facial palsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What condition is associated with vestibular schwannomas?

A

Neurofibromatosis type II
Bilateral acoustic neuromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What are the investigations for an Acoustic neuroma?

A

MRI of the cerebellopontine angle is the investigation of choice

Audiometry: pattern of sensorineural hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What may be seen on histology in an Acoustic neuroma?

A

Antoni A or B patterns
Verocay bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What is the treatment for an Acoustic Neuroma?

A

Observation (watch and wait)
Radiotherapy to reduce growth
Surgery to remove the tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What are some complications of an Acoustic Neuroma?

A
  • Vestibulocochlear nerve injury, with permanent hearing loss or dizziness
  • Facial nerve injury, with facial weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Define Bell’s Palsy?

A

Defined as an acute, unilateral lower motor neuron palsy causing facial nerve paralysis without sparing the extraocular muscles and muscles of mastication.

Often Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What is the Aetiology of Bell’s Palsy?

A

Largely idiopathic

Viral infections have been implicated as a particular cause

  • Reactivation of HSV 1
  • EBV
  • VZV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What are the clinical features of Bell’s Palsy?

A

Acute (but NOT sudden; around 72 hours) onset of unilateral lower motor neurone facial weakness

  • lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy → forehead affected
    • in contrast, an upper motor neuron lesion ‘spares’ the upper face
  • post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis)
  • altered taste
  • dry eyes
  • hyperacusis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What are some other causes of facial nerve palsy?

A
  • Bell’s palsy (pregnancy, DM)
  • Ramsay Hunt syndrome
  • Parotid gland tumour
  • Otitis media, cholesteatoma
  • Cerebello-pontine angle tumour
  • Stroke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What are the investigations for Bell’s Palsy?

A

Primarily a clinical diagnosisof exclusion

  • Full Blood Count
  • ESR and CRP
  • Viral Serology
  • Lyme serology
  • Otoscopy
  • EMG
  • MRI/CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What is the management of Bell’s Palsy?

1st line
Supportive Mx?

A
  • Prompt administration (Within 72 hours) of Oral steroids: 50mg of oral prednisolone or prednisone once daily for 10 days, followed by a taper.
  • Aciclovir can be considered in select cases

Supportive Treatments:

  • Artificial tears and ocular lubricants
  • Eye patch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What is the prognosis of Bell’s Palsy?

A

Complete Recovery: 70-80% within 34 months

Incomplete recovery: some patients may experience residual weakness or persistent facial symptoms

Increased age and severity are associated with increased risk of incomplete recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Define Epilepsy

A

Epilepsy is an umbrella term for a neurological condition where there is a tendency to generate epileptic seizures.

>2 episodes more than 24 hours a part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Define a seizure

A

Seizures are transient episodes of signs and/or symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What is the epidemiology of Epilepsy?

A
  • Epilepsy affects approximately 50 million people worldwide, making it one of the most common neurological diseases.
  • Incidence rates vary depending on age, with higher rates in the very young and the elderly.
  • Both males and females are affected equally.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What is an epileptic seizure?

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes of behaviour, sensation or cognitive processes are caused by excessive (too much voltage), hypersynchronous neuronal discharges in the brain (unprovoked)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What is a Pseudoseizure (non-epileptic seizure)?

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes in behaviour, sensation and cognitive function caused by mental processes associated with psychosocial distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

What is the aetiology of Epilepsy?

A

Epilepsy can be idiopathic, cryptogenic, or symptomatic.

Factors such as genetic predisposition, brain trauma, tumours, strokes, infectious diseases, or developmental disorders can contribute to the onset of epilepsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

What are some risk factors for Epilepsy?

A

Family History
Head Trauma
Premature babies
Cerebral Infections
Dementia (10x more likely)
Drug use - cocaine
Cerebrovascular events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

VITAMIN DE

List some causes of seizures?

A

Vascular - Stroke, HTN
Infection - Meningitis, Encephalitis
Trauma/Toxins - Drugs/alcohol
Autoimmune - SLE
Metabolic - Hypocalcaemia, Hypoglycaemia, Hypo/hypernatraemia
Idiopathic - Epilepsy
Neoplasms
Dementia + Drugs (cocaine)
Eclampsia + everything else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What are the different types of Seizure?

A
  • Generalised Seizure: Excessive neuronal activity across the whole brain
  • Focal (partial) seizure: Excessive neuronal activity in a specific part of the brain
    • Simple Focal
    • Complex Focal
    • Focal-Bilateral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

What is a generalised Seizure?

A

A seizure that starts within both hemispheres of the brain at onset.

They are bilateral
ALWAYS a loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

What are the different types of a Generalised Seizure?

A

Non-Motor:

  • Absence seizures (petit mal): brief pauses for less than 10 seconds.

Motor:

  • Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) seizures: characterized by loss of consciousness, stiffening (tonic), and jerking (clonic) of limbs. Post-ictal confusion is common.
  • Myoclonic seizures: sudden jerks of a limb, trunk, or face.
  • Atonic seizures: sudden loss of muscle tone, causing the patient to fall, with consciousness retained.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What is an Absence Seizure?

A
  • Absence seizures typically happen in children.
  • The patient becomes blank, stares into space and then abruptly returns to normal.
  • During the episode they are unaware of their surroundings and won’t respond.
  • These typically only lasts 10 to 20 seconds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

What is an Atonic Seizure?

What condition is typically associated with Atonic Seizures?

A
  • Atonic seizures are also known as drop attacks.
  • They are characterised by brief lapses in muscle tone.
  • These don’t usually last more than 3 minutes.
  • They typically begin in childhood.
  • They may be indicative of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

What is Todd’s Paralysis?

A

Period after an epileptic seizure in which the patient experiences temporary paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

What are Focal Seizures?

A

Seizures that originate within one side of the brain and are usually confined to one region.

They may progress to secondary lobes (Focal-bilateral seizures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What are the different types of Focal Seizure?

A

With impaired consciousness (complex):

  • Patients lose consciousness, usually post an aura or at seizure onset.
  • Commonly originate from the temporal lobe,
  • post-ictal symptoms such as confusion are common.

Without impaired consciousness (simple):

  • Patients retain consciousness, experiencing only focal symptoms.
  • Post-ictal symptoms are absent

Evolving to a bilateral

  • convulsive seizure (‘secondary generalised’):
  • patients first experience a focal seizure that evolves into a generalized seizure, typically tonic-clonic.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

What are the symptoms of a focal seizure that arises from the Temporal Lobes?

A

They affect hearing, speech, memory and emotions. There are various ways that focal seizures can present:

  • Hallucinations (auditory, gustatory, olfactory)
  • Memory flashbacks
  • Déjà vu
  • Automatisms (Lip smacking, grabbing, plucking)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

What is the Jacksonian March?

A

Where Focal Seizures may start with one muscle group being affected however this then spreads to involve other muscle groups as the abnormal electrical activity spreads.

Associated with Frontal lobe focal seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

How are seizures classified?

A

Where the seizures began

Level of awareness during the seizure

Other features of the seizure e.g. motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

What are the characteristics of an Epileptic Seizure?

A
  • Duration – 30-120 seconds
  • Positive ictal symptoms – excess of something
    • Seeing/hearing something that isn’t there
    • Feeling touch when you aren’t being touched
  • Positive postictal symptoms
  • May occur from sleep
  • May be associated with other brain dysfunction – bleeds, stroke, tumours etc.
  • Tongue Biting
  • Incontinence
  • Typical seizure phenomena – lateral tongue bite, déjà v
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

What are the characteristics of a Pseudoseizure (non-epileptic)?

A
  • Situational
  • Duration 1 – 20 mins
  • Dramatic motor phenomena or prolonged atonia (Pelvic Thrusting)
  • Eyes closed
  • Ictal crying and speaking
  • Surprisingly rapid or slow postictal recovery
  • History of psychiatric illness, other somatoform disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Epilepsy?

A
  • Syncope: characterized by a sudden, transient loss of consciousness and postural tone followed by spontaneous recovery. Triggered by low blood flow to the brain.
  • Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): brief episodes of focal neurologic dysfunction caused by ischemia that does not cause lasting brain injury. Symptoms depend on the brain area affected.
  • Migraines: characterized by recurrent headaches often accompanied by a variety of symptoms such as visual disturbances (auras), nausea, vomiting, dizziness, extreme sensitivity to sound, light, touch and smell, and tingling or numbness in the extremities or face.
  • Panic Disorder: sudden periods of intense fear that may include palpitations, sweating, shaking, shortness of breath, numbness, or a feeling that something terrible is going to happen.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What are the investigations for seizures and epilepsy?

A

Electroencephalogram (EEG) shows different wave patterns for different forms of epilepsy

MRI brain is used to diagnose structural pathology (e.g., tumours).

Additional investigations can be considered to exclude associated pathology:

  • ECG
  • Serum electrolytes, including sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium
  • Blood glucose for hypoglycaemia and diabetes
  • Blood cultures, urine cultures and lumbar puncture where sepsis, encephalitis or meningitis is suspected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

When is Neuroimaging indicated in the investigations of seizures?

A

The first seizure is in children under 2 years old

Focal seizures

There is no response to first line anti-epileptic medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

What are the goals of epilepsy treatment?

A
  • Aim for optimum quality of life through seizure control, balanced against potential side effects, particularly teratogenesis in women of childbearing age.
  • Initiation of medication may not always be appropriate after a “provoked” first seizure; discuss such cases with a specialist.
  • The choice of antiepileptic drugs involves complexity due to the lack of head-to-head trials comparing different medications.
  • Interactions with other medications, particularly with phenytoin and carbamazepine, should be considered.
  • Issues regarding teratogenicity, particularly with valproate, which carries a high risk of neural tube defects, should be considered. Lamotrigine is a better choice for women of childbearing age.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

What is the management of Focal seizures?

A

Monotherapy up to 3rd line should be considered and then adjunctive therapy

1st Line: Lamotrigine or Levetiracetam

2nd Line: Carbamazepine, Oxcarnazepine, Zonisamide

3rd Line: Lacosamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What is the management for Generalised Tonic-clonic seizures?

A

1st Line: Male = Sodium Valproate, Female = Lamotrigine/Levetiracetam

2nd Line: Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam

Lamotrigine or Levetiracetam is first line in women of childbearing age who can have children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What is the management of an Generalised Absence Seizure?

A

1st Line: Ethosuximide

2nd Line: Sodium Valproate (male), Levetiracetam/Lamotrigine (female)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

What general advice should be given to patients and families presenting with seizures?

A

recognising, managing and reporting further seizures. Avoid situations where a seizure will put the patient at risk

  • Take showers rather than baths
  • Be very cautious with swimming unless seizures are well controlled and they are closely supervised
  • Be cautious with heights
  • Be cautious with traffic
  • Be cautious with any heavy, hot or electrical equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

What are some notable side effects of sodium valproate?

A

Teratogenic, so patients need careful advice about contraception
Liver damage and hepatitis
Hair loss
Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What are some notable side effects of Carbamazepine?

A

Agranulocytosis
Exacerbate Absence seizures
Aplastic anaemia
Induces the P450 system so there are many drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What are some notable side effects of Phenytoin?

A

Enzyme Inducer
Dizziness
Folate and vitamin D deficiency

  • Megaloblastic anaemia (folate deficiency)
  • Osteomalacia (vitamin D deficiency)

Gingival hyperplasia

262
Q

What are some notable side effects of Ethosuximide?

A

Night terrors
Rashes

263
Q

What are some notable side effects of Lamotrigine?

A
  • Stevens-Johnson Syndrome or DRESS syndrome: Life threatening skin rashes
  • Leukopenia
264
Q

What is the acute management of seizures whilst the patient is experiencing an episode?

A
  • Put the patient in a safe position (e.g. on a carpeted floor)
  • Place in the recovery position if possible
  • Put something soft under their head to protect against head injury
  • Remove obstacles that could lead to injury
  • Make a note of the time at the start and end of the seizure
  • Call an ambulance if lasting more than 5 minutes or this is their first seizure.
265
Q

What are some complications of Epilepsy?

A
  • Status epilepticus: Seizures lasting more than 5 minutes, necessitating immediate medical intervention.
  • Psychiatric complications: Increased risk of depression and suicide.
  • Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP): Thought to occur due to excessive electrical activity inducing a cardiac arrhythmia and subsequent death.
266
Q

What is the DVLA guidance on epilepsy?

A

You must stop driving straight away and inform DVLA

First unprovoked/isolated seizure

  • 6 months off if no relevant structural abnormalities on imaging or no definite epileptic form on EEG.
  • If conditions not met then increased to 12 months

Established Epilepsy or multiple unprovoked seizures:

  • Apply for license after seizure free for 12 months
  • If no seizures for 5 years then a til 70 license is restored

Withdrawal of epilepsy medication:

  • Should not drive during withdrawal of epilepsy medication
  • Should not drive for 6 months after last dose
267
Q

What is Status Epilepticus?

A

Status epilepticus is defined as a seizure lasting 5 minutes or more OR multiple seizures over 5 minutes without returning to a full level of consciousness between episodes

268
Q

What is the management of Status Epilepticus?

A
  • Secure the airway
  • Give high-concentration oxygen
  • Assess cardiac and respiratory function
  • Check blood glucose levels and give glucose if patient is Hypoglycaemic
  • If suspiscion of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition then give Pabrinex (thiamine replacement)
  • Gain intravenous access (insert a cannula)
  • IV lorazepam 4mg Bolus, repeated after 10 minutes if the seizure continues
  • If seizure is persistent then IV Phenytoin
  • If no response (refractory) within 45 minutes of onset then Induce GA or give Phenobarbitol
269
Q

What are some medical options for management of status epilepticus in the community?

A

Buccal midazolam 10mg
Rectal diazepam 10-20mg

270
Q

What are the investigations done in status epilepticus?

A

Check patients Oxygen saturations and blood glucose as these are common and rapidly reversible causes of seizures

Blood tests: ABG, FBC, U&E, LFT, CRP, Ca, Mg, Clotting

271
Q

What is a Stroke?

A

A sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain that leads to infarction of brain tissue.

272
Q

What is a Febrile Convulsion?

A

Seizures that occur in children whilst they have a fever

They are not caused by epilepsy or other underlying neurological pathology.

273
Q

What is the definition of an Ischaemic stroke?

A

A sudden onset focal neurological deficit of vascular aetiology brought on by transient decrease in blood flow commonly due to a blockage.

With symptoms lasting >24 hours (or with evidence of infarction on imaging).

274
Q

What are the main causes of an Ischaemic Stroke?

A
  • Large Vessel Atherosclerosis (50%)
  • Intracranial small vessel atherosclerosis (25%)
  • Cardio-embolic (AF) (20%)
275
Q

What are the risk factors for an ischaemic stroke?

A
  • older age
  • male sex
  • family history of ischaemic stroke
  • Previous stroke or TIA
  • hypertension
  • smoking
  • diabetes mellitus
  • atrial fibrillation.

Weaker risk factors: hypercholesterolaemia, obesity, poor diet, oestrogen-containing therapy, and migraine

276
Q

What are the clinical features of a stroke?

A
  • Limb weakness
  • Facial weakness
  • Dysphasia (speech dioxfsturbance)
  • Visual field defects
  • Sensory loss
  • Ataxia and vertigo (posterior circulation infarction)

Stroke symptoms are usually asymmetrical

277
Q

What is the first line investigation for someone presenting with a stroke?

A

Non-contrast Head CT Scan

(very sensitive to haemmorhagic, but will appear normal in the first few hours of an ischaemic stroke)

278
Q

What assessment criteria is used in ED to assess for stroke?

A

ROSIER Score (Recognition of Stroke in Emergency Room)

  • Loss of consciousness or syncope (-1 point)
  • Seizure activity (-1 point)

New, acute onset of:

  • asymmetric facial weakness (+ 1 point)
  • asymmetric arm weakness (+ 1 point)
  • asymmetric leg weakness (+ 1 point)
  • speech disturbance (+ 1 point)
  • visual field defect (+ 1 point)

Stroke is likely if score > 0

279
Q

What is the most sensitive test for confirming an TIA?

A

Diffusion Weighted MRI
Performed after specialist assessment in TIA clinic to determine the territory of ischaemia

NICE suggests to not offer CT brain scan in suspected TIA unless suspicion of alternative diagnosis

280
Q

What are some post-acute ischaemic stroke investigations?

A
  • Carotid Imaging: ultrasound/CT/MRI or angiogram (critical carotid artery stenosis)
  • ECG (often ambulatory)

Others:

  • CT/MR angiography (intracranial and extracranial stenosis)
  • Vasculitis and Thrombophilia screens (in young patients)
281
Q

What are some post-acute Haemmorhagic stroke investigations?

A

Serum toxicology screen

(sympathomimetic drugs (e.g. cocaine) are a strong risk factor)

282
Q

What is the acute management of an ischaemic stroke?

A

Once a head CT has ruled out haemorrhage:
Exclude Hypoglycaemia

  • 300mg Aspirin for 2 weeks started ASAP once haemorrhagic stroke is ruled out
  • Admission to specialist stroke centre

THROMBOLYSIS (ATLEPLASE) IF: (Assuming no contraindications, and haemorrhagic stroke excluded).

  • Within 4.5h since symptom onset
  • Between 4.5-9h since symptom onset AND imaging shows potential to salvage tissue
  • If woken with symptoms: Within 9h of midpoint of sleep AND potential to salvage tissue

MECHANICAL THROMBECTOMY IF: (Assuming adequate pre-stroke functional status).

  • Within 6h of symptom onset, with occlusion of proximal anterior circulation
  • Between 6-24h of symptom onset/wellness, with occlusion of proximal anterior circulation AND potential to salvage brain tissue
  • Within 24h of symptom onset/wellness, with occlusion of proximal posterior circulation (i.e. basilar / posterior cerebral atery) AND potential to salvage brain tissue

If a person meets criteria for thrombolysis and mechanical thrombectomy, both can be given.

MOST IMPORTANT:

  • Within 4.5h, exclude haemorrhage, then give thrombolysis.
  • Within 6h, if proximal anterior circulation stroke, do mechanical thrombectomy.
    (Do both if both apply).

Beyond this, you need to do a CT perfusion / diffusion-weighted MRI scan to assess the potential to salvage brain tissue.

283
Q

What anti-coagulation should be given to patients who have an ischaemic stroke/TIA and AF?

A

After a stroke/TIA stop anticoagulation before haemorrhagic stroke is ruled out
Once haemorrhagic stroke is ruled out:

  • TIA: Start DOAC immediately and no need to change anything else
  • Stroke: 2 weeks Clopidogrel then stop clop and restart DOAC again
284
Q

Give some absolute contraindications for thrombolysis

A
  • active internal bleeding
  • recent haemorrhage, trauma or surgery (including dental extraction)
  • coagulation and bleeding disorders
  • intracranial neoplasm
  • stroke < 3 months
  • aortic dissection
  • recent head injury
  • severe hypertension
285
Q

What are the key steps for secondary stroke prevention?

A
  • Hypertension Control - Anti-hypertensive therapy should be initiated 2 weeks post-stroke.
  • Antiplatelet therapy - Clopidogrel (75 mg once daily) or aspirin + Dipyridamole if clopidogrel is CI/ not tolerated
  • Lipid-lowering therapy - High dose Atorvostatin (20-80mg) once nightly (delayed at least 48 hours)

Address Modifiable Risk Factors:

  • Tobacco - smoking cessation
  • Sugar - Diabetes Screen
  • Exercise
  • Surgery - Carotid endarectomy in patients with ipsilateral carotid artery stenosis
286
Q
A
287
Q

What are some stroke differential diagnoses?

A
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Drugs / Alcohol
  • Seizure
  • Migraine
  • Bell’s Palsy
  • Tumour / Space occupying lesion
  • Meningitis / Encephalitis
288
Q

What is the definition of a Haemmorhagic Stroke?

A

A cerebrovascular event that occurs when the wall of a blood vessel in the brain weakens and ruptures.

This rupture causes bleeding in the brain, leading to haematoma formation, and, consequently, neuronal injury.

289
Q

What is the epidemiology of haemmorhagic strokes?

A

They make up 15% of all strokes (the other 85% being ischaemic)

  • Increasing prevalence with age
  • More common in men
  • Intra-cerebral haemmorhages more common in Asians.

Three quarters are intra-cerebral haemmorhages and the rest are sub-arachnoid.

290
Q

What are the risk factors for a haemmorhagic stroke?

A
  • Age
  • Chronic Hypertension
  • Male sex
  • Family history of haemorrhagic stroke
  • Haemophilia
  • Hereditary Polycystic Kidney disease and Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
  • Cerebral amyloid angiopathy/hypertension
  • Anticoagulation therapy
  • Illicit sympathomimetic drugs (e.g. cocaine and amphetamines)
  • Vascular malformations (younger patients)

Weaker RFs include: NSAIDs, Heavy alcohol use and
Thrombocytopenia

291
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a Sub-arachnoid Haemmorhage?

A
  • Severe “Thunderclap” Headache
  • Neck Stiffness and Photophobia
  • Kernig’s sign
  • Brudinski’s sign
292
Q

What is the general clinical presentation for a haemmorhagic stroke?

A
  • Severe headache
  • Altered consciousness, ranging from drowsiness to coma
  • Vomiting
  • Focal neurologic signs
  • Seizures
  • Hypertension
293
Q

What investigations should be done when a haemmorhagic stroke is suspected

A

Head CT - Is first line and diagnostic

MRI of the head - Can help identify underlying causes

MR Angiogram or Digital Substraction Angiography - Helps to identify vascular abnormalities that could have caused the bleed

294
Q

What is the management for a haemmorhagic stroke?

A

After a head CT: STOP anticoagulant drugs + Vit K to reverse them

Surgical:

  • Burr Hole Craniotomy (for Subdural haemmorhage)
  • Surgical Clipping or endovascular coiling (for Subarachnoid haemmorhage)

Pharmacological

  • Hypertensive control
  • IV Fluids - To maintain cerebral perfusion
  • Nimlodipine (CCB) - Reduces cerebral artery spasm (subarachnoid)
  • IV Mannitol - Reduces Intra-cranial pressure (Sub and extra dural)
295
Q

What is the definition of a TIA?

A

A sudden-onset focal neurological deficit with vascular aetiology, typically with symptoms resolving in less than 1 hour.

It’s caused by focal brain, spinal chord or retinal ischaemia without evidence of acute infarction.

296
Q

What are the risk factors for a TIA?

A
  • Increased age
  • Male sex
  • hypertension
  • diabetes mellitus
  • high cholesterol
  • atrial fibrillation and carotid stenosis
  • smoking,
  • History of past TIAs / Strokes or cardio-embolic events.
  • Family history of cardiovascular disease / stroke
297
Q

What are the clinical features of a TIA?

A

Sudden onset neurological deficits (Most resolving within 1 hour)

  • Speech difficulty (dysphasia)
  • Arm or leg weakness
  • Sensory changes
  • Ataxia, vertigo or loss of balance
  • Visual disturbances: Homonymous hemianopia, diplopia or Amaurosis Fungax
298
Q

What is Amaurosis Fugax?

A

The sudden painless loss of vision in 1 eye

Caused by an emboli passing into the retinal, ophthalmic or ciliary artery; causing temporary retinal hypoxia.

299
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for a TIA?

A

Ischaemic Stroke

Haemorrhagic Stroke

Migraine with Aura

Focal Motor Seizures

300
Q

What is the main diagnostic investigation for a TIA?

A

Diffusion weighted MRI Scan

301
Q

What other investigations are recommended for a TIA?

A

Carotid Ultrasound

Echocardiogram (looking for cardiac thrombus)

24 Hour Tape (looking for AF)

Blood Tests (glucose, lipid profile, clotting factors)

302
Q

What is the management for a TIA?

Initial Mx
Assessment of Underlying Cause
Secondary Prevention?
Specialist initiated therapy?
DVLA Rules?

A

Immediate assessment (ideally within 24 hrs of symptoms)

  • 300mg Aspirin immediately unless CI
  • Referral for specialist assessment within 24 hrs (within 7 days if TIA more than 7 days ago)

Assessment of Underlying Cause

  • Carotid Imaging (and subsequent intervention if significant stenosis)
  • ECG/ambulatory ECG

Secondary Prevention:
Lifestyle modification

  • Regular exercise
  • Smoking cessation
  • Healthy Diet

Control of vascular risk factors

  • Hypertension (ACE inhibitor (e.g. ramipril), or ARB (e.g. candesartan)
  • Diabetes
  • Cholesterol (Atorvastatin 80mg OD)

Specialist initiated Antiplatelet Therapy started within 24 hours Given as long as no CI/high risk of bleeding

  • Patients within 24hr onset of TIA with low risk of bleeding given DAPT:
    • Clopidogrel ( initial 300mg then 75mg OD) + Aspirin (initial 300mg then 75mg OD) for 21 days
    • Followed by Clopidogrel monotherapy 75mg OD
    • Alternative is Ticagrelor + clopidogrel for 30 days
  • If not appropriate for DAPT
    • Clopidogrel 300mg loading dose followed by 75mg OD
  • PPI considered for DAPT therapy.

No driving until seen by specialist

  • 1 TIA = 1 month no driving and no DVLA informed
  • Multiple TIAs = 3 months no drive and inform DVLA
303
Q

What is the classification of Strokes?

A

Oxford Stroke Classification also known as Bamford

LOOK, MOVE, SPEAK

  • Homonymous hemianopia
  • Hemiparesis/Hemisensory loss of face, arm & leg
  • High cognitive dysfunction (eg. dysphasia)
304
Q

What are the features of an Anterior Cerebral Artery Infarct?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, lower extremity > upper

305
Q

What are the features of a Middle Cerebral Artery Infarct?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Aphasia

306
Q

What are the features of a Posterior Cerebral Artery Infarct?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Visual agnosia

307
Q

What is a Total Anterior Circulation Infarct (TACI) defined by?

A
  • Contralateral hemiplegia or hemiparesis, AND
  • Contralateral homonymous hemianopia, AND
  • Higher cerebral dysfunction (e.g. aphasia, neglect)

A TACI involves the anterior AND middle cerebral arteries on the affected side.

308
Q

What is a Partial Anterior Circulation Infarct (PACI) defined by?

A
  • 2 of the factors for a TACI OR
  • Higher cerebral dysfunction alone.

A PACI involves the anterior OR middle cerebral artery on the affected side.

309
Q

What is a Lacunar Infarct defined by?

A

A LACI affects small deep perforating arteries, typically supplying internal capsule or thalamus.

It can be any of:

  • A pure motor stroke
  • Pure sensory stroke
  • Sensorimotor stroke
  • Ataxic hemiparesis
  • Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome.
310
Q

What is a Posterior Circulation Infarct (POCI) defined by?

A

A POCI involves the vertebrobasilar arteries and associated branches (supplying the cerebellum, brainstem, and occipital lobe).

Presents with 1 of the following:

  • Cerebellar or brainstem syndromes
  • Loss of consciousness
  • Isolated homonymous hemianopia
311
Q

What are the 4 Posterior Stroke Syndromes?

A
  • Basillar Artery Occlusion - Causes locked in syndrome, loss of consciousness or sudden death
  • Wallenberg’s syndrome (lateral medullary syndrome) caused by occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
  • Lateral pontine syndrome - Caused by occlusion of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery
  • Weber’s syndrome/ Medial Midbrain Syndrome - Caused by occlusion of the paramedian branches of the upper basilar and proximal posterior cerebral arteries
312
Q

Define Locked in Syndrome

A

It’s Quadriparesis with preserved consciousness and ocular movements.

Its caused by Basillar Artery Occlusion

313
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Lateral Medullary Syndrome (Wallenbergs)?

A

Crossed sensory findings:

  • Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation on the face
  • Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation over the contralateral body.

Cerebellar Features:

  • Ataxia
  • Nystagmus

Cranial Nerve Involvement::

  • Dysphagia
  • Hoarseness
  • Horners Syndrome - due to damage of the lateral medulla which controls sympathetic 1st order neurones
314
Q

Describe Kernig’s Sign

A

The patient is positioned lying on their back with both the hip and knee flexed at 90 degrees.

The examiner then attempts to extend the patient’s knee. If the patient experiences pain and resistance to knee extension, especially when attempting to straighten the leg, it is considered a positive Kernig’s sign.

This sign suggests meningeal irritation or inflammation.

315
Q

Describe Brudzinski’s Sign

A

The examiner gently flexes the patient’s neck forward toward the chest while the patient is lying on their back.

If the patient involuntarily flexes their hips and knees in response to neck flexion, it is considered a positive Brudzinski’s sign.

316
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Lateral Pontine Syndrome?

A

Its the same as Wallenberg’s Syndrome, but with additional involvement of pontine cranial nerve nuclei (CN 5, 6,7)

Leading to additional:

  • Ipsilateral facial paralysis
  • Ipsilateral Deafness
317
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Weber’s Syndrome?

A

It causes an ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis.

318
Q

Define Haemorrhage?

A

An active ongoing bleed

319
Q

Define Haematoma

A

A bleed that has mostly clotted and hardened

320
Q

Where can intracranial haemorrhages occur?

A

Extradural
Subdural
Subarachnoid
Intracerebral

321
Q

What are the main blood vessels within the meninges?

A

Extradural – middle meningeal artery - from maxillary artery
Subdural – bridging veins
Subarachnoid – circle of Willis
Pia – no vessels as it forms part of the blood-brain barrier

322
Q

What is an Extradural Haematoma (EHD)?

A

A pathological condition where blood collects between the dura mater, the outermost meningeal layer, and the inner surface of the skull.

This condition is commonly arterial in origin, with the middle meningeal artery often implicated.

323
Q

What is the epidemiology of an EDH?

A

EDH predominantly affects young patients who have experienced a head injury, such as during sports or road traffic accidents.

324
Q

What is the Aetiology of an EDH?

A

EDH is almost always trauma-related, specifically severe head trauma that results in a tear of the middle meningeal artery.

The cause of an EDH is typically an identifiable traumatic event

325
Q

What is the most common artery damaged in an EDH?

A

Middle Meningeal Artery due to damage to the temporoparietal region

326
Q

What are some rarer non-traumatic causes of an EDH?

A

Haemorrhagic tumour
Coagulopathy
Infection
Vascular Malformation

327
Q

What are the risk factors for an EDH?

A

Younger age (20-30)
Male
Anticoagulant usage
High contact/dangerous sports

328
Q

Why is an EDH less likely to occur in the elderly?

A

The Dura matter is more firmly adhered to the skull so blood is less likely to accumulate in this region.

329
Q

What is the typical presentation of an Extradural bleed?

A

Patients with EDH often present with a characteristic clinical course:

  • Initial brief loss of consciousness following the trauma
  • A period of regained consciousness and apparent recovery (the lucid interval)
  • Subsequent deterioration of consciousness and the onset of a headache and signs of raised ICP such as fixed and dilated pupil
330
Q

Why do you get a fixed and dilated pupil in and EDH?

A

Expanding haematoma leads to brain herniation.
The uncus of the temporal lob herniates around the tentorium cerebelli
Compresses parasympathetic fibres of CN3 leading to a fixed and dilated pupil

331
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for an EDH?

A
  • Subdural haematoma: Presents with fluctuating levels of consciousness, memory impairment, and headache. This is more common in older patients, often with a history of minor head trauma.
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage: Characterized by a sudden, severe headache (often described as a ‘thunderclap’ headache), nausea, vomiting, and neck stiffness.
  • Intracerebral haemorrhage: Presents with sudden onset severe headache, vomiting, high blood pressure, and signs of increased intracranial pressure.
  • Cerebral contusion: Might manifest with loss of consciousness, seizures, and neurological deficits specific to the affected cerebral region.
332
Q

What is the first line and diagnostic investigation for an extradural haemorrhage?

A

Head CT Scan

  • Shows a lentiform/biconvex hyperdense extra-axial collection (usually unilateral and supratentorial)
  • Collection is often confined within suture lines
  • Secondary features: Midline shift, Uncal herniation
333
Q

What does this show?

A

CT head showing an Extradural Haemorrhage

334
Q

What is the management of an EDH?

A

Management of EDH depends on the severity of the symptoms and the extent of the mass effect on the brain.

  • Stabilise the patient: ABCDE management
  • Urgent neurosurgical referral:
    • Burr hole craniotomy
    • Ligation of bleeding vessels
  • IV mannitol to reduce ICP
335
Q

What are some complications of an EDH?

A

Cerebral oedema
Raised intracranial pressure and herniation
Ischaemia: can occur due to mass effect, herniation, hypoperfusion, vasospasm
Seizures
Infection

336
Q

Define a subdural haemorrhage (SDH)?

A

An accumulation of venous blood in the potential space between the dura mater and arachnoid mater of the brain.

337
Q

How can SDH be classifed?

A

Acute: Symptoms usually develop within 48 hours of injury, characterised by rapid neurological deterioration
Subacute: Symptoms manifest within days to weeks post-injury, with a more gradual progression.
Chronic: Common in the elderly, developing over weeks to months. Patients may not recall a specific head injury.

338
Q

What is the epidemiology of a subdural haemorrhage?

A

Typically occurs at extremes of age (mainly elderly) and is the result of a minor trauma causing shearing forces and bridging vein tears.

339
Q

What are the risk factors for a SDH?

A
  • Advancing age >65yrs
  • Bleeding disorders or anticoagulation use
  • Dementia (causes brain atrophy)
  • Chronic Alcohol use
  • Recent head trauma
  • Abused children (Shaken baby syndrome)

The patients typically have atrophied brains which makes the vessels more prone to rupture

340
Q

What blood vessel is the common culprit in a subdural haemorrhage?

A

Tearing of bridging veins due to shearing or deceleration injury

341
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a Subdural haemorrhage?

A
  • Trauma either due to deceleration due to violent injury or due to dural metastases results in bleeding from bridging veins between cortex and venous sinuses
  • Bridging veins bleed and form a haematoma (solid swelling of clotted blood) between the dura and arachnoid
  • This reduces pressure 🡪 bleeding stops
  • Days/weeks later the haematoma starts to autolyse due to the massive increase in oncotic and osmotic pressure 🡪 water is sucked into the haematoma 🡪 haematoma enlargement 🡪 gradual rise in intra-cranial pressure (ICP) over many weeks
  • This shifts midline structures away from the side of the clot and can lead to tectorial herniation and coning (brain herniates through foramen magnum) if left untreated
342
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a subdural haemorhage?

Neuroogical Symptoms
Physical Examination Findings
Behavioural changes
Associated Features

A

Neurological Symptoms:

  • Altered Mental Status: Ranging from mild confusion to deep coma. Fluctuations in the level of consciousness are common.
  • Focal Neurological Deficits: Weakness on one side of the body, aphasia, or visual field defects, depending on the haematoma’s location.
  • Headache: Often localised to one side, worsening over time.
  • Seizures: May occur, particularly in acute or expanding hematomas.

Physical Examination Findings:

  • Papilloedema: Indicates raised intracranial pressure.
  • Pupil Changes: Unilateral dilated pupil, especially on the side of the haematoma, indicating compression of the third cranial nerve.
  • Gait Abnormalities: Including ataxia or weakness in one leg.
  • Hemiparesis or Hemiplegia: Reflecting the mass effect and midline shift.

Behavioural and Cognitive Changes:

  • Memory Loss: Especially in chronic SDH.
  • Personality Changes: Irritability, apathy, or depression.
  • Cognitive Impairment: Difficulty with attention, problem-solving, and other executive functions.

Other Associated Features:

  • Nausea and Vomiting: Secondary to increased intracranial pressure.
  • Drowsiness: Progressing to stupor and coma in severe cases.
  • Signs of Increased Intracranial Pressure: Such as bradycardia, hypertension, and respiratory irregularities (Cushing’s triad).
343
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for a subdural haemorhage?

A
  • Epidural haematoma: Characterized by a brief loss of consciousness, followed by a “lucid interval” and then rapid neurological deterioration.
  • Traumatic brain injury: Symptoms may include headache, confusion, lightheadedness, dizziness, blurred vision, or tired eyes.
  • Stroke: Presents with sudden numbness or weakness, especially on one side of the body, confusion, trouble speaking or understanding, trouble seeing in one or both eyes, and trouble walking, dizziness, or loss of balance or coordination.
  • Migraine: Recurrent headaches that might be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound.
344
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for a subdural haemorrhage?

What is seen at the different time intervals?

A

Head CT Scan: The appearance of the clot varies based on its age:

  • Hyperacute phase (<1 hour): The clot may appear isodense, with underlying cerebral oedema.
  • Acute phase (<3 days): The clot appears as a crescent-shaped hyperdense extra-axial collection over the affected hemisphere.
  • Sub-acute phase (3 days to 3 weeks): The clot appears more isodense compared to the adjacent cortex, making identification more difficult. Contrast-enhanced CT or MRI can aid identification. There may be associated mass effect causing midline shift and sulcal effacement.
  • Chronic phase (>3 weeks): The haematoma appears hypodense relative to the adjacent cortex.
345
Q

What does this show?

A

A Subdural Haemorrhage

346
Q

What percentage of Subdural haemorrhages are bilateral in nature?

A

15% in adults
80% in infants

347
Q

What is the management of a Subdural Haemorrhage?

A

The management of a subdural haematoma depends on its stage:

Surgical Decompression:

  • Acute haemorrhages: Craniotomy is the preferred method.
  • Chronic haemorrhages: Burr holes are typically recommended.

The overall goal is to relieve pressure on the brain and to treat or prevent any related neurological symptoms or complications.

348
Q

Define a Subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

A Subarachnoid Haemorrhage (SAH) is a bleed that occurs in the subarachnoid space, which lies beneath the arachnoid mater, one of the protective layers of the brain.

349
Q

What is the epidemiology of an SAH?

A

Typical age 35-65 – mean age 50
Account for ~5% of strokes
50% die straight away or soon after
8-12 per 100, 000/year

350
Q

Who do SAHs more commonly affect?

A

Black patients
Female patients
Age 45-70

351
Q

What is the commonest cause on an SAH?

A

Head Trauma causing a traumatic SAH.

Spontaneous SAH

  • 80% of SAH is due to a ruptured berry aneurysm without trauma
352
Q

What are possible causes of an SAH?

A

Traumatic SAH: Caused by trauma

Spontaneous SAH:

  • Berry aneurysm rupture
  • Idiopathic
  • AVM
  • Pituitary apoplexy
353
Q

What are some risk factors for SAH?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Adult polycystic kidney disease
  • Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
  • Increased Age >50yrs
  • Family History
  • Excessive alcohol consumption
  • Smoking

Strong associations with cocaine use and sickle cell disease

354
Q

Where do berry aneurysms often occur?

A

At junctions of arteries within the Circle of Willis
Most commonly the Anterior Communicating Artery

355
Q

What is the clinical presentation of an SAH?

A
  • Sudden onset severe headache described as the worst headache of the patient’s life
  • History of physical exertion or coitus prior to onset
  • Possible loss of consciousness or vomiting
  • A previous ‘sentinel headache’ that was similar but not as severe
  • Reduced level of consciousness (reduced GCS)
  • Meningism (e.g., neck rigidity)
  • Nausea and Vomiting
  • Seizures and Coma
  • Retinal haemorrhages as seen with ophthalmoscope examination
  • Localising focal neurological signs depending on the location of the bleed
356
Q

What are some signs of an SAH?

A

Meningeal irritation:

  • Kernig’s sign
  • Brudzinski’s sign

Sub-hyaloid haemorrhages (bleeding between retina and vitreous membrane) ± papilloedema

357
Q

What are the characteristics of the headache experienced in an SAH?

A

Occipital Thunderclap Headache
Sudden onset
Worst headache of their life (0-10 instantly)

May have a sentinel headache preceding this

358
Q

Why may you get nerve palsies in SAH?

A

3rd nerve palsy:
An aneurysm arising from the posterior communicating artery will press on the 3rd nerve, causing a palsy with a fixed dilated pupil

6th nerve palsy:
A non-specific sign which indicates raised intracranial pressure

359
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for an SAH?

A
  • Migraine: Characterised by recurrent, severe, pulsating headache lasting from 4 to 72 hours. May be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia.
  • Tension headache: Presents with bilateral, pressing or tightening pain that does not worsen with physical activity. The intensity of the pain is usually mild to moderate.
  • Intracerebral haemorrhage (ICH): Accompanied by sudden onset of headache, nausea, vomiting, and neurological deficits based on the location of the haemorrhage.
  • Meningitis: Fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, and altered mental status are typical signs.
360
Q

What is the first line investigation for an SAH?

A
  • Non-contrast CT head is the first-line investigation due to its high sensitivity, especially within the first 24 hours of symptom onset.
  • Star shaped sign
  • Hyperdense blood distributed in basal cisterns
  • Diagnostic with 100% sensitivity if performed within 6 hours of onset.
361
Q

What is the investigation structure for an SAH?

A
  • CT head is the first-line investigation

If CT head is done < 6 hours after onset and is normal

  • Consider alternative Diagnosis

If CT head is done > 6 hours after onset and is normal

  • Do a lumber puncture (LP):
  • LP should be performed at least 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to allow the development of xanthochromia (the result of red blood cell breakdown).
  • xanthochromia helps to distinguish true SAH
  • A normal or raised opening pressure

After SAH is confirmed then Ix to find causative pathology

  • CT- angiogram for evidence of berry aneurysms/AVM
362
Q

What does this show?

A

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

363
Q

What is the management of an SAH?

A

1st line - Neurosurgery Referral:

  • 1st - Endovascular coiling
  • 2nd - Surgical clipping

Medical Management:

  • Give immediate Nimodipine (CCB) 60mg for 3 weeks - prevents vasospasm (only in critical care setting)
  • IV Fluids - maintain cerebral perfusion and for resuscitation
  • Monitoring for complications

Supportive

  • bed rest
  • analgesia
  • venous thromboembolism prophylaxis
  • discontinuation of antithrombotics (reversal of anticoagulation if present)
364
Q

What is the prognosis of an SAH?

A

Mortality is 50% with a significant proportion not reaching the hospital

Patients admitted with a GCS of >14 have a >90% survival and experience low morbidity

365
Q

What are some complications of an SAH?

A

Re-bleeding
Cerebral ischaemia - due to vasospasm
Hydrocephalus – due to blockage of arachnoid granulations
Hyponatraemia - often due to SIADH
Seizures

366
Q

What is the Cushing’s Triad?

A

Hypertension (Wide Systolic Pulse Pressure)
Bradycardia
Respiratory irregularity

367
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of Cushing’s Triad

A
  • Increased ICP - exceeds MABP of cerebral vessels - causes cerebral ischaemia
  • Cerebral ischaemia activates Symp NS - Increases adrenergic action on alpha1 receptors - increases vasoconstriction causing HTN
  • HTN activates baroreceptors of aortic arch - activates P.symp NS to decrease HR (bradycardia)
  • HTN presses on respiratory centre - causes irregular breathing
368
Q

What is an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding within the brain tissue

They present similarly to an ischaemic stroke with sudden onset focal neurological symptoms.

They may occur spontaneously or secondary to ischaemic stroke, tumours or aneurysm rupture

369
Q

Where do intracerebral haemorrhages occur?

A
  • Lobar intracerebral haemorrhage
  • Deep intracerebral haemorrhage
  • Intraventricular haemorrhage
  • Basal ganglia haemorrhage
  • Cerebellar haemorrhage
370
Q

Define Giant Cell Arteritis?

A

Giant cell arteritis (GCA), also known as temporal arteritis, is a condition where the arteries, particularly those at the side of the head (the temples), become inflamed.

371
Q

What is the epidemiology of GCA?

A
  • GCA is the most common type of primary vasculitis.
  • It affects adults over the age of 50 and has a female preponderance.
  • Caucasian individuals have the highest incidence of disease.
  • Often associated with Polymyalgia Rheumatica
372
Q

What are the clinical features of GCA?

A
  • Temporal headache: GCA can cause blindness and stroke, so should be considered in elderly people with any headache
  • Jaw claudication: Pain on chewing food
  • Amaurosis fugax: transient monocular blindness, often described as a dark curtain descending vertically
  • Systemic features: these are common and include fatigue, fevers, weight loss and malaise

The onset can be acute or insidious.
In addition, GCA and polymyalgia rheumatica often occur together, so symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and oligoarthritis may occur.

373
Q

What may be found on examination in GCA?

A
  • Thickened, tender temporal artery on examination, which may be pulseless
  • Scalp tenderness
  • (Rarely) arterial bruits, asymmetrical blood pressure and absent pulses
374
Q

What are some complications of GCA?

A

Permanent monocular blindness
Stroke
Aortic aneurysms

375
Q

What are the first line investigations for GCA?

A
  • Inflammatory marker blood tests (ESR and CRP)
  • FBC: patients often have normochromic, normocytic anaemia
  • LFTs: 1/3rd have mildly abnormal LFTs
376
Q

What is the gold standard investigation to diagnose GCA?

A

Temporal Artery Biopsy

  • Granulomatous inflammation
  • Infiltration of giant cells
  • 3-5cm of the artery should be biopsied due to skip lesions
  • A negative biopsy does not rule out disease

Doppler Ultrasonography

  • Halo sign in the vessel wall
377
Q

What is the management of GCA?

A

Immediate High dose Steroids

  • 40-60mg oral prednisolone OD: if no visual symptoms
  • 500mg-1000mg IV Methylprednisolone if visual symptoms
  • Taper steroids gradually over 1-2 years once symptoms resolved

Urgen Ophthalmology Review

Other Medications:

  • Bisphosphonates + Ca and Vit D for bone protection whilst on steroids
  • PPIs (Omeprazole) for gastric protection whilst on steroids
  • Low-dose Aspirin to further reduce risk of stroke and blindness
378
Q

What are some complications of GCA?

A

Steroid-related complications (e.g., weight gain, diabetes and osteoporosis)
Visual loss
Cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

379
Q

Define Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterised by a set of signs and symptoms that occur due to a disruption in the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye.

The syndrome can be categorised into pre-ganglionic, post-ganglionic, and central causes, depending on the location of the sympathetic nerve interruption.

380
Q

What is the aetiology of Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Pancoast tumour: This non-small cell lung carcinoma located at the superior sulcus of the lung affects the lower roots of the brachial plexus and the sympathetic chain.
  • Stroke: Specifically lateral medullary infarction or Wallenberg’s syndrome can affect the central neuron.
  • Carotid artery dissection: Especially prevalent in younger patients, this factor can be a significant cause. Accompanying neck pain can be a red flag symptom.
  • Additional factors: Neck trauma, surgeries, or tumours affecting the sympathetic chain.
381
Q

What are the clinical features of Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Ptosis: Drooping of the upper eyelid
  • Miosis: Constriction of the pupil
  • Anhidrosis: Lack of sweating on the affected side of the face

Others:

  • Enophthalmos: In certain cases, the eye may appear sunken
  • Heterochromia: Eye colour may change, more commonly observed in congenital Horner’s syndrome
382
Q

What condition is shown here?

A

Horner’s Syndrome:

  • Ptosis
  • Miosis
  • Anhidrosis
383
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Oculomotor nerve palsy: In addition to ptosis and pupillary abnormalities, patients typically exhibit ophthalmoplegia.
  • Myasthenia gravis: Apart from ptosis, which often varies throughout the day, symptoms include muscle weakness and fatigue.
  • Bell’s palsy: Facial droop is present but it involves the entire side of the face and is usually accompanied by loss of taste on the front two-thirds of the tongue and hyperacusis on the affected side.
384
Q

What are the investigations for Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Imaging: MRI or CT of the head, neck and chest to identify potential structural causes such as tumour or vascular anomalies

Blood tests: to assess for conditions that may be released to the underlying causes such as diabetes or autoimmune disorders

385
Q

How can Horner’s Syndrome lesion be localised?

A

Central Lesions:
Anhidrosis of face, arm and trunk

  • Stroke
  • Syringomyelia
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • Tumour
  • Encephalitis

Preganglionic lesions:
Anhidrosis of the face

  • Pancoast’s Tumour
  • Thyroidectomy
  • Trauma
  • Cervical Rib

Post-ganglionic Lesions:
No anhidrosis

  • Carotid Artery Dissection
  • Carotid Aneurysm
  • Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
  • Cluster headache
386
Q

What is the management for Horner’s Syndrome?

A

The management of Horner’s syndrome primarily targets the underlying cause:

  • Pancoast tumour: Treatment may involve surgery, chemotherapy, and/or radiation therapy.
  • Stroke:stroke management protocol is followed
  • Carotid artery dissection: Depending on the severity, the patient may require anticoagulation therapy or carotid artery surgery.
  • No underlying cause can be identified: Observation and regular follow-up appointments may be sufficient.
387
Q

What are the primary headaches?

A

No underlying causes associated:

  • Tension Headache
  • Migraine
  • Cluster Headache
  • Trigeminal Neuralgia
388
Q

What are some causes of secondary headaches?

A

Due to an underlying cause:

  • Medication Overuse Headache
  • Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
  • Vasculitis (Giant Cell Arteritis)
  • Sinusitis
  • Illness
  • Brain tumours
  • Raised ICP
  • Meningitis/Encephalitis
  • Head Injury
  • Hormones
389
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Tension headaches?

A
  • Tension headaches are the most common cause of chronic recurring head pain
  • More likely to affect women.
  • They have a lifetime prevalence of 30-70%.
390
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Tension Headaches?

A
  • Bilateral, non-pulsatile headaches
  • Tightness/pressing sensation, like a band around the head
  • Scalp muscle tenderness
  • Resolve gradually and do not produce any visual symptoms
391
Q

What are some potential triggers for Tension Headaches?

A

Stress
Depression
Alcohol
Skipping meals
Dehydration

392
Q

What is the management of Tension Headaches?

A
  • Reassurance
  • Simple Analgesia: Paracetamol, Ibuprofen
  • Addressing potential triggers such as stress

Prophylaxis Recommended by NICE includes 10 sessions of acupuncture

393
Q

What medication may be used if Tension headaches are frequent or chronic?

A

Amitriptyline

394
Q

What are Cluster Headaches?

A

Cluster headaches are severe and unbearable unilateral headaches, usually centred around the eye.

395
Q

What is the epidemiology of Cluster Headaches?

A

Typically affect 30-50 year old males
Males 3:1
Smokers

396
Q

What are some potential triggers for Cluster Headaches?

A

Alcohol
Strong Smells
Exercise

397
Q

What are the clinical features of Cluster headaches?

A

Headache:

  • Recurrent severe unilateral headache centred around one eye (periorbital)
  • Sensation of a boring hot poker
  • Headache duration of 15mins to 3 hours occuring once or twice daily over 4-12 weeks. This is followed by a pain free period of several months

Associated symptoms are typically unilateral:

  • Red, swollen and watering eye
  • Pupil constriction (miosis)
  • Eyelid drooping (ptosis)
  • Nasal discharge
  • Facial sweating
398
Q

What are some investigations that may be used in Cluster Headaches?

A

Neuroimaging is often used to assess for underlying brain lesions

  • MRI with gadolinium contrast is the Ix of choice
399
Q

What is the management of Cluster Headaches?

A
  • Avoid Triggers
  • Acute Attacks: 15L 100% oxygen via a non-rebreathable mask and Subcutaneous Triptans
  • Prophylaxis: Verapamil
400
Q

Define Migraines?

A
  • Migraines are a neurological condition often characterised by intense, debilitating headaches, usually unilateral and pulsating in nature.
  • Symptoms may be preceded by an ‘aura’ which manifests as visual disturbances or sensory changes.
  • The pain usually lasts from 4-72 hours
  • Can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia.
401
Q

What is the epidemiology of migraines?

A
  • Migraines are one of the most prevalent neurological disorders worldwide, affecting roughly 12% of the global population.
  • It is more common in women, with a male to female ratio of approximately 1:3, likely related to hormonal influences.
  • The peak incidence occurs between the ages of 30-39.
402
Q

What is the Aetiology of Migraines?

A

Not fully understood.

Likely combination or genetic and environmental triggering factors

403
Q

CHOCOLATES

What are some potential triggers of Migraines?

A

Chocolate
Hangovers
Orgasms
Cheese
Oral contraceptives
Lie ins and disrupted sleep
Alcohol
Tumult (loud noise) and bright lightts
Exercise
Stress

404
Q

What are the different types of Migraine?

A

Migraine without aura
Migraine with aura
Silent migraine (migraine with aura but without a headache)
Hemiplegic migraine

405
Q

What are the main stages of a Migraine with an aura?

A
  • Prodromal stage (can begin several days before the headache)
  • Aura (lasting up to 60 minutes)
  • Headache stage (lasts 4 to 72 hours)
  • Resolution stage (the headache may fade away or be relieved abruptly by vomiting or sleeping)
  • Postdromal or recovery phase
406
Q

What is a Hemiplegic Migraine?

A
  • The main feature of hemiplegic migraines is hemiplegia (unilateral limb weakness). Other symptoms may include ataxia (loss of coordination) and impaired consciousness.
  • Familial hemiplegic migraine is an autosomal dominant genetic condition characterised by hemiplegic migraines that run in families.
  • However, hemiplegic migraines also occur without any genetic link or family history.
  • Hemiplegic migraines can mimic a stroke or TIA. It is essential to exclude a stroke with sudden-onset hemiplegia.
407
Q

What are the clinical features of a Migraine with aura?

A

Aura (usually visual or sensory symptoms preceding the headache)
Unilateral throbbing/pulsatile headache lasting 4-72 hours
Photophobia and phonophobia
Nausea and/or vomiting

408
Q

What are some potential symptoms experienced in the aura before a Migraine?

A

Aura can affect vision, sensation or language.
Visual symptoms are the most common:

  • Sparks in the vision
  • Blurred vision
  • Lines across the vision
  • Loss of visual fields (e.g., scotoma)

Sensation changes may include tingling or numbness.
Language symptoms include dysphasia (difficulty speaking).

409
Q

What is the International Headache Society Criteria for Migraines without Aura?

A

A. At least 5 attacks fulfilling criteria B-D

B. Headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours (untreated or unsuccessfully treated)

C. Headache has at least two of the following four characteristics:

  • Unilateral location
  • Pulsating quality
  • Moderate to severe pain intensity
  • Aggravation by or causing avoidance of routine physical activity

D. During headache, at least one of the following:

  • Nausea and/or Vomiting
  • Photophobia and Phonophobia

E. Not better accounted for by another ICHD-3 Diagnosis

410
Q

What are some differential diagnosis for Migraines?

A
  • Tension-type headache: Bilateral, band-like pressure or tightness, not worsened with physical activity, no associated nausea or vomiting.
  • Cluster headache: Severe, unilateral, orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain lasting 15-180 minutes, occurring up to 8 times a day, associated with autonomic symptoms like ptosis, miosis, lacrimation.
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage: Sudden-onset severe headache, often described as “the worst headache of my life”, associated with nausea, vomiting, and possible loss of consciousness.
  • Giant cell arteritis: New headache in a person over 50 years, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, elevated ESR and CRP.
411
Q

What are the investigations for Migraines?

A

Primarily a clinical diagnosis based on the history and examination

  • If secondary causes of headaches are suspected then Neuroimaging (CT/MRI) and blood tests (ESR, CRP for GCA)
412
Q

What is the acute management of Migraines?

A
  • Avoidance of Triggers

Acute Management:

  • Triptans (sumatriptan)
  • In addition: Paracetamol or NSAIDs
  • Female patients experiencing migraines with aura are advised against taking the OCP
413
Q

What preventative measures can be taken for Migraines?

A

Prophylaxis:

  • Propranolol
  • Topiramate
  • Amitriptyline

NICE 2023:

  • Rimegepant is an option for preventing episodic migraine in adults where at least 3 previous preventive treatments have failed.
    • Adults must have at least 4 migraine attacks per month but less than 15.
414
Q

What condition may Triptans be contra-indicated in and why?

A

Ischaemic Heart Disease

They are 5-HT receptor agonists and therefore can induce vasoconstriction increasing the risk of stroke

415
Q

What are medication overuse headaches?

A

Medication overuse headache is associated with long-term use of analgesics.

416
Q

What are the features of a Medication Overuse Headache?

A
  • Present for 15 days or more per month
  • Developed or worsened whilst taking regular symptomatic medication
  • Patients using opioids and triptans are at most risk
  • May be psychiatric co-morbidity
417
Q

What is the management of Medication overuse headaches?

A

The cornerstone of management involves discontinuation or reduction of the overused medication.

Simple Analgesia and Triptans should be withdrawn abruptly

Opioid Analgesia should be gradually withdrawn

418
Q

Define Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

A chronic pain condition characterized by severe, sudden, and brief bouts of shooting or stabbing pain that follow the distribution of one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve, affecting the patient’s facial region.

419
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A
  • Trigeminal neuralgia typically affects adults over the age of 50
  • Higher prevalence in women.
420
Q

What is the Aetiology of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Primary (idiopathic)

Secondary:

  • Malignancy: can lead to nerve compression or infiltration, resulting in pain
  • Arteriovenous malformation: abnormal, tangled blood vessels can compress the trigeminal nerve
  • Multiple sclerosis: demyelination in this condition can affect the trigeminal nerve
  • Sarcoidosis: granulomatous lesions can affect the trigeminal nerve
  • Lyme disease: infection and subsequent inflammation can affect the trigeminal nerve
421
Q

What are the clinical features of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A
  • Unilateral facial pain that is sudden, severe, and brief.
  • Pain is felt in the divisions of the Trigeminal nerve
  • The pain is often described as shooting or stabbing, and can be triggered by lightly touching the affected side of the face, eating, or wind blowing on the face.
  • Neurological examination in these patients is typically normal.
422
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A
  • Postherpetic neuralgia: presents with persistent pain following the resolution of a shingles rash. The pain is typically continuous, aching, burning, or throbbing.
  • Temporomandibular joint disorders: presents with pain in the jaw joint and muscles controlling jaw movement. Other symptoms include difficulty chewing and joint locking.
  • Giant cell arteritis: presents with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, and visual symptoms. Other symptoms include fatigue, loss of appetite, and fever.
  • Cluster headache: presents with severe, unilateral headaches occurring in clusters. Other symptoms include eye watering, nasal congestion, and ptosis on the affected side.
423
Q

What are the investigations for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A
  • Trigeminal neuralgia is largely a clinical diagnosis, but investigations may be performed to rule out other causes of facial pain.
  • Neuroimaging such as MRI can be used to exclude secondary causes, including tumors or vascular compression.
424
Q

What is the management of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Medical management:

  • Carbamazepine (first-line treatment)
  • Phenytoin
  • Lamotrigine
  • Gabapentin

Surgical management includes:

  • Microvascular decompression: a procedure to remove or relocate blood vessels that are in contact with the trigeminal root
  • Treatment of the underlying cause: such as removing a tumour or addressing an arteriovenous malformation
  • Alcohol or glycerol injections: used to damage the trigeminal nerve and reduce pain signals
425
Q

What are some key Red flags associated with headaches?

A
  • Fever, photophobia or neck stiffness (meningitis, encephalitis or brain abscess)
  • New neurological symptoms (haemorrhage or tumours)
  • Visual disturbance (giant cell arteritis, glaucoma or tumours)
  • Sudden-onset occipital headache (subarachnoid haemorrhage)
  • Worse on coughing or straining (raised intracranial pressure)
  • Postural, worse on standing, lying or bending over (raised intracranial pressure)
  • Vomiting (raised intracranial pressure or carbon monoxide poisoning)
  • History of trauma (intracranial haemorrhage)
  • History of cancer (brain metastasis)
  • Pregnancy (pre-eclampsia)
  • Fundoscopy showing Papilloedema suggests raised ICP due to either brain tumour, benign intracranial hypertension or an intracranial bleed
426
Q

Define Diabetic Neuropathy?

A

Diabetic peripheral neuropathy (DPN) represents a spectrum of peripheral nerve disorders stemming from diabetes. The central driver behind their development is believed to be chronic hyperglycaemia.

427
Q

What is the epidemiology of diabetic neuropathy?

A

DPN is a common complication of both type 1 and type 2 diabetes, with approximately 50% of long-term diabetic patients developing the condition.

The risk increases with the duration of diabetes and poor glycaemic control.

428
Q

What is the aetiology of diabetic neuropathy?

A

Chronic hyperglycaemia in diabetes is the primary cause of DPN, leading to damage to peripheral nerves through various mechanisms:

  • Accumulation of advanced glycation end products
  • Oxidative stress
  • Inflammatory pathways.
429
Q

What are the different categories of diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

A
  • Distal Symmetrical Sensory Neuropathy
  • Small-fibre Predominant Neuropathy
  • Diabetic Amyotrophy
  • Mononeuritis Multiplex
  • Autonomic Neuropathy
430
Q

What is the most common type of diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

A

Distal Symmetrical Sensory Neuropathy

431
Q

How does Distal Symmetrical Sensory Neuropathy present?

A
  • Resulting from loss of large sensory fibres.
  • Presents with sensory loss in a ‘glove and stocking’ distribution, typically affecting touch, vibration and proprioception.
432
Q

How does Small-fibre Predominant Neuropathy present?

A
  • Due to the loss of small sensory fibres.
  • Manifests as deficits in pain and temperature sensationin a ‘glove and stocking’ distribution, often accompanied by episodes of burning pain.
433
Q

How does Diabetic Amyotrophy present?

A
  • Originates from inflammation of the lumbosacral plexus or cervical plexus.
  • Characterised by severe pain around the thighs and hips, along with proximal weakness.
434
Q

How does Mononeuritis Multiplex present?

A
  • Typically painful.
  • Defined as neuropathies involving two or more distinct peripheral nerves.
435
Q

How does Autonomic Neuropathy present?

A

Presents with postural hypotension, gastroparesis, constipation, urinary retention, arrhythmias, and erectile dysfunction.

436
Q

What are some differential diagnoses to diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

A
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency: Can present with peripheral neuropathy, typically in a glove and stocking distribution. May also feature megaloblastic anaemia and glossitis.
  • Alcohol-induced peripheral neuropathy: Presents similarly to DPN but may also have accompanying signs of chronic alcohol misuse.
  • Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP): Often presents with both sensory loss and motor weakness, typically in a proximal and distal distribution.
  • Hypothyroidism: Can present with neuropathy, usually accompanied by other symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance.
437
Q

What are the investigations for diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

A
  • Neurological examination: To assess the extent of sensory and motor deficits.
  • Nerve conduction studies: To evaluate the nature and extent of neuropathy.
  • Blood tests: Including glucose levels, HbA1c, B12 levels, thyroid function tests, and liver function tests, to identify potential differential diagnoses or contributory conditions.
438
Q

What are some complications of diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

A
  • Foot ulcers
  • Cardiac, GI and genitourinary disturbances due to autonomic neuropathy
439
Q

What is the management of Diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

A

Control of blood glucose levels to slow disease progression

Pain control: Amitriptyline, Gabapentin, Pregabalin, Duloxetine

  • If first line doesn’t work then try one of the other 3 drugs
440
Q

What is Charcot Arthropathy?

A

Charcot arthropathy, also known as Charcot joint or neuropathic arthropathy, is a chronic, progressive condition characterised by painful or painless bone and joint destruction in the limbs that have lost sensory innervation.

The condition primarily affects patients with peripheral neuropathy.

441
Q

What is the aetiology of Charcot Arthropathy?

A

Charcot arthropathy is primarily neuropathy. The most common cause of this is diabetes mellitus, which leads to microvascular disease, autonomic neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy, resulting in cumulative damage to the joints.

Other:

  • Syringomyelia
  • Chronic alcohol abuse
  • Syphilis (Tabes Dorsalis)
442
Q

What are the clinical features of Charcot Arthropathy?

A

Charcot arthropathy often presents with the ‘6Ds‘(some of which are imaging features):

Destruction of bone and joint
Deformity
Degeneration
Dense bones
Debris of bone fragments
Dislocation

It classically affects the tarsometatarsal joints, but it can involve any joint in a limb that has lost sensation due to neuropathy.

443
Q

What is the main differential diagnosis to rule out in Charcot Arthropathy?

A

Osteomyelitis

Will typically also cause systemic symptoms and increase inflammatory markers

444
Q

What are the investigations for Charcot Arthropathy?

A

Clinical Diagnosis

  • X-rays are usually the first-line imaging study. They can demonstrate bone destruction, debris, sclerosis (dense bones), and dislocation.
  • MRI can provide more detailed imaging, particularly in early disease or when osteomyelitis is suspected.
  • Bone scans may be used in complex cases or when other imaging is inconclusive.
445
Q

What is the conservative management of Charcot Arthropathy?

A
  • Prolonged off-loading, often involving special footwear or plaster casts, to allow healing and prevent further damage.
  • Use of orthotics for long-term management and prevention of recurrences.
446
Q

What is the medical management for Charcot Arthropathy?

A
  • Bisphosphonates can help slow down the process of bone destruction.
  • Neuropathic pain agents, such as gabapentin or pregabalin, for pain management.
  • Topical anaesthetics can also be used to manage pain.
447
Q

What is the surgical management of Charcot Arthropathy?

A
  • Resection of bony prominences to prevent ulcers or improve fitting of footwear.
  • Correction of severe deformities, usually after the acute phase has settled.
  • Amputation may be required in severe cases or when there is a concurrent uncontrolled infection.
448
Q

Define Meniere’s Disease?

A

Ménière’s disease is a long-term inner ear disorder that causes recurrent attacks of vertigo, and symptoms of hearing loss, tinnitus and a feeling of fullness in the ear

It is caused by a build up of endolymph in the labyrinth of the inner ear

449
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of Meniere’s Disease?

A
  • The excessive build-up of endolymph in the labyrinth of the inner ear
  • Causes a higher pressure than normal and disrupting the sensory signals.
  • This increased pressure of the endolymph is called endolymphatic hydrops.
450
Q

What is the epidemiology of Meniere’s disease?

A
  • Individuals between 30-60
  • Predominantly affects only one ear
451
Q

What is the Aetiology of Meniere’s Disease?

A

Exact cause is Unknown

Believed to be associated with the dilation of the endolymphatic spaces of the membranous labyrinth. This dilation leads to an increased fluid pressure within the inner ear, causing the characteristic symptoms of the disease.

452
Q

What is the classical triad of symptoms caused by Meniere’s disease?

A

Recurrent episodes of:

  • Hearing loss
  • Vertigo (most prominent symptom)
  • Tinnitus
453
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Meniere’s disease?

A

30-60yrs old with Unilateral episodes of:

  • Vertigo: Usually lasts for 20 mins to a few hours before settling. Episodes come in clusters over several weeks with periods (Months) of no vertiginous symptoms. Vertigo is NOT triggered by movement
  • Hearing Loss: unilateral sensorineural loss that fluctuates at first and gradually becomes more permanent. Affects low frequencies first.
  • Tinnitus: occurs with episodes of vertigo before becoming more permanent. It is usually unilateral

Other symptoms:

  • Sensation of fullness in the ear
  • Unexplained falls (Drop attacks) without LOC
  • Imbalance that can persist after vertiginous episodes have resolved
  • Nausea and vomiting
454
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Meniere’s disease?

A
  • Vestibular neuritis: Characterized by sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness
  • Labyrinthitis: Presents with vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus
  • Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV): Characterized by brief episodes of mild to intense dizziness triggered by specific changes in the position of the head
455
Q

What are the investigations for Meniere’s disease?

A

Clinical Diagnosis usually made by an ENT specialist

  • Examination (Rinnes and Webers Tests)
  • Audiometric testing
  • Other imaging or laboratory tests may be used to rule out other potential causes of symptoms
456
Q

What is the management for Meniere’s Disease?

Prophylaxis
Acute attacks

A
  • Prophylactic use of Betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation to reduce the frequency of attacks
  • Acute use of prochlorperazine to manage symptoms during attacks
  • Surgical approaches are available, but currently lack a strong evidence base.
457
Q

What is the definition of Delirium?

A

It’s an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention and cognition.

Often accompanied by a change in consciousness.

It is typically reversible and frequently seen in the elderly.

458
Q

What is the epidemiology of Delirium?

A

The prevalence increases with age, severity of illness and the presence of pre-existing cognitive impairment.

459
Q

PHONED CHIMPS

What are the main causes of Delirium?

A

Pain
Hypothermia/Pyrexia
Organ dysfunction (renal or hepatic impairment)
Nutrion
Environmental changes
Drugs and alcohol (OTC, illicit, Anti-cholinergics, Opiates, Anti-convulsants)

Constipation
Hypoxia
Infection
Metabolic disturbance (Electrolyte imbalance, Endocrinological issues, Wernicke’s Encephalopathy)
Prescriptions
Sleep deprivation

460
Q

Where THE F AM I

What is the clinical presentation of Delirium?

A

Where: Disorientation

Thought disorganisation
Hallucinations
Energy Changes: Can by hyperactive or hypoactive

Fluctuating

Acute and Altered sleep
Memory problems

Inattention

461
Q

What are some differential diagnoses of Delirium?

A

Dementia

Psychosis

Depression

Stroke

462
Q

What initial investigations should be done for Delirium?

A
  • Comprehensive physical examination and infection screen
  • Confusion Screen (including bloods and urinalysis)
  • Imaging (possibly Head CT/MRI, Chest XRay or ultrasound of the abdomen depending on scenario)
  • ECG
463
Q

What is the non-pharmacological management of Delirium?

A
  • Providing an environment with good lighting
  • Maintaining a regular sleep-wake cycle
  • Regular orientation and reassurance
  • Ensuring the patient’s glasses and hearing aids are used if needed
464
Q

What pharmacological management can be used for delirium?

A

Haloperidol 0.5mg is first line

To be used with caution and only in patients who are extremely agitated and present a danger to themselves or others

465
Q

What blood tests are involved in Confusion Screen?

A
  • FBC (infection, anaemia, malignancy)
  • U&Es (hyponatraemia, hypernatraemia)
  • LFTs (liver failure with secondary encephalopathy)
  • Coagulation/INR (intracranial bleeding)
  • TFTs (hypothyroidism)
  • Calcium (hypercalcaemia)
  • B12 + folate/haematinics (B12/folate deficiency)
  • Glucose (hypoglycaemia/hyperglycaemia)
  • Blood cultures (sepsis)
466
Q

Define Chronic Fatigue Syndrome (CFS)

A

Also known as Myalgic Encephalomyelitis (ME)

CFS is a chronic, disabling condition that significantly impacts productivity.

It is characterised by profound fatigue and impairment following minimal physical or cognitive effort.

467
Q

What gender is more commonly affected by CFS?

A

Women more than men

468
Q

What is the aetiology of CFS?

A

Exact cause remains unclear but potential triggers:

  • Viral and bacterial infections (EBV etc)
  • Genetic predisposition
  • Environmental influences
  • Psychological stress
469
Q

What are the clinical features of CFS?

A
  • Extreme fatigue
  • Post-exertional malaise
  • Sleep disturbances: Insomnia, Hypersomnia, Unrefreshing sleep
  • Cognitive impairment
470
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome?

A
  • Fibromyalgia: Characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and mood and sleep disturbances. Unlike CFS, exertional exhaustion is less pronounced.
  • Major depressive disorder: Features persistent feelings of sadness, loss of interest or pleasure in activities, and fatigue. However, it lacks the post-exertional malaise seen in CFS.
  • Hypothyroidism: Presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and depression. Distinguished from CFS by the presence of abnormal thyroid hormone levels.
471
Q

What are the investigations for CFS?

A

Clinical diagnosis based on the patients history and symptoms persisting for >3 months

Blood Tests to rule out other pathology

  • FBC
  • U&E
  • LFT
  • TFT
  • Glucose
  • ESR/CRP
  • Calcium
  • CK
  • Iron studies
  • Coeliac Screen
472
Q

What is the management of CFS?

A

MDT Approach

  • Referral to PT, OT, social care to help guide disease

Energy Management:

  • Self management strategy to manage activities within their energy limits
  • Establish baseline of achievable exercise and physical activity
  • “Pacing” self management for activities

Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT): A form of talk therapy that can help patients manage their symptoms.

Symptom control: This may involve medications for pain, sleep disturbances, and other co-existing conditions.

473
Q

Define Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency manifesting in a triad of specific clinical symptoms: ataxia, confusion, and ocular abnormalities.

474
Q

What are the primary causes of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A
  • Chronic alcohol abuse: Alcohol interferes with thiamine absorption and utilization.
  • Malnutrition: This can occur due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption disorders, or increased requirements.
  • Bariatric surgery: Rapid weight loss and reduced nutrient absorption can lead to thiamine deficiency.
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum: Persistent severe vomiting in pregnancy may lead to nutrient deficiencies, including thiamine.
475
Q

What are the clinical features of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?
What are the features of Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy (COAT)

  • Confusion
  • Ophthalmoplegia and Nystagmus
  • Ataxia
  • Thiamine Deficiency

Korsakoff Syndrome (RACK)

  • Retrograde and anterograde amnesia
  • Altered temper/behavioural changes
  • Confabulation
  • Korsakoff Psychosis
476
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A
  • Meningitis: Presents with fever, headache, neck stiffness, and altered mental status.
  • Stroke: Sudden onset of focal neurological deficits, which may include difficulty speaking, face drooping, arm weakness.
  • Encephalitis: Characterized by fever, headache, behavioural changes, and sometimes, seizures.
  • Korsakoff’s syndrome: Notable for severe anterograde and retrograde memory loss, often seen as a progression from untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
477
Q

What are the investigations for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

Clinical Diagnosis

Investigations that may be done:

  • Blood tests: Thiamine levels, BMs, LFTs,
  • Neurological examination: Assessment of the characteristic triad of symptoms.
  • MRI Head: May show characteristic changes in specific brain regions, such as the mammillary bodies and periaqueductal area.
478
Q

What is the management of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

IV Pabrinex (High dose thiamine replacement)

479
Q

What is the primary complication of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

Korsakoff Syndrome:
Wernicke’s if left untreated will lead to damage to the mammillary bodies and cause irreversible anterograde and retrograde memory impairment. It will also cause behavioural changes

480
Q

Define Narcolepsy

A

A chronic neurological disorder characterised by disruption of the sleep wake cycle and REM sleep intrusion leading to excessive daytime sleepiness

481
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Narcolepsy?

A

Loss of hypocretin producing neurons in the hypothalamus leads to the dysregulation of wakefulness and sleep.

482
Q

What is the epidemiology of Narcolepsy?

A
  • It is a relatively rare condition
  • The second most common cause of disabling daytime sleepiness after OSA
  • Slight male predominance
  • Peak incidence is 20-30 years old
483
Q

What is the Aetiology and some Risk factors for Narcolepsy?

A

Unknown Aetiology

Risk Factors:

  • Low CSF Hypocretin
  • HLA DQB1
  • Prader-Willi Syndrome
  • Neimann-Pick Disease
484
Q

What are the clinical features of Narcolepsy?

A

Tetrad of:

  • Excessive Daytime Sleepiness (Hypersolmnence): Uncontrollable urge to sleep during the day, resulting in sudden and involuntary episodes of sleep known as ‘sleep attacks.
  • Cataplexy: Sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by strong emotions such as laughter, anger, or surprise, leading to partial or complete collapse without loss of consciousness.
  • Sleep Paralysis: Transient inability to move or speak upon awakening from sleep or while falling asleep
  • Hypnagogic/Hypnopompic Hallucinations: Hypnagogic hallucinations occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, while hypnopompic hallucinations take place upon awakening from sleep. These vivid and often frightening sensory experiences may involve visual, auditory, or tactile sensations
485
Q

What are some other effects on the patient caused by Narcolepsy?

A

Chronic fatigue and tiredness
Poor performance at work
Poor memory and concentration
Car accidents

486
Q

What are the investigations for Narcolepsy?

A

1st Line:

  • Acitgraphy and sleep diary
  • Overnight Polysomnography
  • Multiple Sleep Latency EEG Tests (MSLT)
487
Q

What investigation may be indicated if Polysomnography and MSLT are unequivocal in investigating Narcolepsy?

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid Hypocretin-1 Level:

Deficiency of this is firmly established as a cause of Narcolepsy type 1 and is a diagnostic marker

488
Q

What is the conservative management of Narcolepsy?

A

Sleep hygiene and Lifestyle changes

  • Strict sleep schedule
  • Avoid sleep deprivation
  • Avoid alcohol, caffeine and smoking
  • Avoid late night exercise
489
Q

What is the Medical management of Narcolepsy?

A

Treatment of Excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS):

  • CNS stimulants: Modafinil, Pitolisant, Sodium Oxybate

Treatment of Cataplexy:

  • 1st Line: Sodium Oxybate
  • 2nd Lie: SNRIs (venlaflaxine) /SSRIs/TCAs
490
Q

Define Myasthenia Gravis

A

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease marked by the production of antibodies that target the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on muscle fibres.

This immune-mediated interference reduces the ability of acetylcholine to trigger muscle contraction, resulting in muscle weakness.

491
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Generally more common in Females

Female peak (20-30yrs) - associated with autoimmune disease

Male peak (50-60yrs) - associated with Thymoma

492
Q

What type of Hypersensitivity reaction is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Type 2

493
Q

What are the risk factors for MG?

A

Females
FHx
Autoimmunity
Thymoma/ Thymic Hyperplasia

494
Q

What is the pathophysiology of MG?

A

85% Anti-nACh Receptors:

  • Bind to post synaptic receptor and competitively inhibit ACh binding.
  • ACh cannot bind during exertion and therefore there is progressive weakness of muscles
  • Auto-ABs Will also bind to complement factors and cause NMJ destruction

15% Anti MuSK:

  • Inhibit MuSK from synthesising ACh Receptors so there is reduced expression on post synaptic membrane.
495
Q

What are the clinical features of Myasthenia Gravis?

A
  • Limb muscle weakness
  • Extra-ocular muscle involvement leading to drooping eyelids, diplopia
  • Facial muscle involvement causing difficulty in smiling or chewing
  • Bulbar muscle involvement causing a change in speech or difficulty swallowing
  • Fatigable muscle weakness, bilateral ptosis, a myasthenic snarl, head droop, and bulbar features on examination
496
Q

Give some examples of drugs that can exacerbate Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Pills likely to produce bad quality myasthenia gravis

Penicillamine, Lithium, Tetracycline Procainamide, Beta blockers, Quinolones, Macrolides, Gentamicin

497
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Myasthenia Gravis?

A
  • Lambert-Eaton syndrome: is a fluctuating weakness that improves with exercise, differentiating it from MG. This is usually due to underlying malignancy, most commonly small-cell lung cancer. It affects voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane.
  • Brainstem gliomas: are malignant tumours that present with bulbar symptoms, weakness, numbness, balance problems, and seizures depending on its location and structures affected. The symptoms are persistent and usually present with headaches and signs of increased intracranial pressure.
  • Multiple sclerosis: can present with any neurological sign that may fluctuate or persist over hours to days to weeks secondary to demyelination in the central nervous system.
  • Botulism: presents with ptosis, double vision, progressive weakness, and pupillary abnormalities accompanied by systemic symptoms. Ingestion of honey or contaminated foods may be elicited in the patient’s history.
  • Polymyositis and dermatomyositis: cause proximal muscle weakness and is usually associated with pain. The pathology is the inflammation of the muscle itself.
  • Graves ophthalmopathy: presents with eyelid retraction and widened palpebral fissure. These are caused by autoantibodies targeted toward the structures of the eye.
498
Q

What are the primary investigations for Myasthenia Gravis?

A

1st Line:

  • serum acetylcholine receptor antibody (AChR)
  • Serum Muscle-specific tyrosine kinase antibodies (MuSK)
  • Serial Pulmonary Function Test

Other Investigations

Imaging investigations: CT scan of the chest to identify thymic hyperplasia or thymoma

Nerve Conduction Studies/EMG: Repetitive nerve stimulation testing leads to a decrement in evoked potential

499
Q

What is the management of Myasthenia Gravis?

Medical Mx 1st, 2nd, 3rd line
Acute Crisis

A

Regular Medical Reviews
MDT involvement.

Medical management:

  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: Pyridostigmine is first line
  • Second Line: Immunosuppressive Steroid therapy: Prednisolone
  • Third Line: Immunosuppressant: Azathioprine, Ciclosporin, Rituximab

Acute Crisis:

  • Require intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) or plasmapheresis in severe, steroid-refractory, cases.

Surgical management:

  • Thymectomy may be considered in patients with thymic hyperplasia or thymoma.
500
Q

What is the main complication of MG?

A

Myasthenic Crisis:
Severe acute worsening of Sx
Often Triggered by another illness (URTI)
Severe Respiratory weakness

501
Q

What is the Treatment for Myasthenic Crisis?

A

IV Ig (immunoglobulin) and Plasmapheresis

In a myasthenic crisis, serial pulmonary function tests (spirometry) are performed. If the forced vital capacity is 15 mL/kg or less, the patient should be considered for mechanical ventilation.

502
Q

What is Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A

A NMJ syndrome which has similar Sx to MG.

Autoimmunity against VG-Ca channels thereby reducing ACh release at the NMJ causing muscle weakness.

503
Q

What is the cause of Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A

Unclear but likely a paraneoplastic syndrome:
Typically occurs in Px with Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC)

504
Q

What is the presentation of Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A

Proximal muscle weakness that develops more slowly

Sx start at extremities and progress towards the head

Shares most of same Sx with MG

505
Q

What is the difference between MG and Lambert Eaton Syndrome clinically?

A

Lambert Eaton Syndrome symptoms tend to improve following a period of strong muscle contraction.

Post Tetanic Potentiation

506
Q

What is the Treatment for Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A

Dx and Tx underlying condition (often SCLC)

Amifampridine - blocks K+ channels and increases ACh release

+ Steroids and Immunosuppressants

507
Q

Define Neurofibromatosis

A

These are Autosomal Dominant genetic conditions that causes nerve tumours (neuromas) to develop throughout the nervous system. These tumours are benign but can cause neurological and structural problems.

508
Q

What are the different types of Neurofibromatosis and the genetics involved?

A

Type 1 (NF1): Due to a loss of function mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17

Type 2 (NF2): Due to a loss of function mutation in the Schwannomin (Merlin) tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 22

Type 3: Schwannomatosis

509
Q

What is the epidemiology of Neurofibromatosis?

A

Type 1 is more common than type 2

NF1 is also known as Recklinghausen’s Disease

510
Q

What are the clinical features of Neurofibromatosis Type 1?

A

Cutaneous features:

  • Cafe-au-lait spots: Oval-shaped, coffee-coloured patches that continue to grow throughout life. Presence of 6 macules >5mm (or >15mm if post-pubertal) is a feature of NF1.
  • Axillary or inguinal freckling
  • Neurofibromas: Small nodular tumours in the skin.

Non-cutaneous features:

  • Lisch nodules: Hamartomas on the iris appearing as brown patches/mounds, typically visible by age 6.
  • Optic glioma
  • Scoliosis and other bone malformations
  • Phaeochromocytomas
  • Learning difficulties
  • Hypertension
  • Gastrointestinal issues: Bleeding or obstruction due to tumours in the bowel.
  • Epilepsy: Due to tumours in the brain.
511
Q

What are the clinical features of Neurofibromatosis Type 2?

A
  • Bilateral vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas), causing sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.
  • Meningiomas
  • Spinal ependymomas
  • Posterior lens opacities
  • Cerebral calcification
  • Astrocytoma’s
  • Glial hamartomas
512
Q

What condition is this?

A

Neurofibromatosis

513
Q

What is this cutaneous sign and what condition does it suggest?

A

Cafe-au-lait spot

Suggests neurofibromatosis

May also suggest other conditions such as Familial Cafe au lait spots, McCune-Albright syndrome or Legius syndrome

514
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for neurofibromatosis?

A
  • Legius syndrome: Similar to NF1 with cafe-au-lait spots and freckling but without neurofibromas or Lisch nodules.
  • Segmental NF: Similar to NF1 but symptoms are limited to one area of the body.
  • McCune-Albright syndrome: Cafe-au-lait spots with irregular borders, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, and endocrine abnormalities.
  • Other genetic syndromes: Other genetic conditions can present with cafe-au-lait spots, including Bloom syndrome and Fanconi anemia.
515
Q

What condition is particularly associated with neurofibromatosis type 2?

A

Acoustic neuromas.

A patient with Bilateral acoustic neuromas almost certainly has NF2

516
Q

What are the investigations for Neurofibromatosis?

A

Genetic testing: To confirm mutations in the NF1 or NF2 genes.

Neuroimaging: To detect the presence of tumours or other brain abnormalities.

Slit lamp examination: To identify Lisch nodules in NF1.

517
Q

How is Neurofibromatosis diagnosed?

A

Clinical diagnosis

Genetic testing may be used to confirm the diagnosis

518
Q

What is the Diagnostic criteria for a clinical diagnosis of Neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

CRABBING

Café-au-lait spots (more than 15mm diameter is significant in adults)
Relative with NF1
Axillary or inguinal freckling
Bony dysplasia, such as Bowing of a long bone or sphenoid wing dysplasia
Iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), which are yellow-brown spots on the iris
Neurofibromas
Glioma of the optic pathway

519
Q

What is a neurofibroma?
What neurofibromas are significant?

A

A type of peripheral nerve tumor that forms soft bumps on or under the skin

  • A single skin neurofibroma without other features does not indicate neurofibromatosis.
  • A plexiform neurofibroma is a larger, irregular, complex neurofibroma containing multiple cell types.
  • Two or more are significant.
  • A single plexiform neurofibroma is significant.
520
Q

What is the management of Neurofibromatosis?

A

There is no treatment for NF and the disease is progressive. Management focuses on monitoring, managing symptoms and treating complications

Surveillance: Regular monitoring for new symptoms or complications.

Symptomatic treatment: Management of hypertension, epilepsy, or other complications as they arise.

Surgical intervention: Removal of tumours or other interventions may be necessary in some cases.

521
Q

What are some complications of Neurofibromatosis?

A
  • Migraines
  • Epilepsy
  • Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours (MPNST)
  • Gastrointestinal stromal tumour (a type of sarcoma)
  • Renal artery stenosis, causing hypertension
  • Learning disability
  • Behavioural problems (e.g., ADHD)
  • Scoliosis of the spine
  • Vision loss (secondary to optic nerve gliomas)
  • Brain tumours
  • Spinal cord tumours with associated neurology (e.g., paraplegia)
  • Increased risk of cancer (e.g., breast cancer and leukaemia)
522
Q

Define Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)

A

A neurological disorder in which excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulates in the brain’s ventricles, causing them to enlarge.
Despite the term “normal pressure,” the fluid causes pressure effects leading to characteristic symptoms.

However, the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure often appears normal on lumbar puncture, hence the term.

523
Q

What is the Epidemiology of NPH?

A

More common in older adults

Considered one of the potentially reversible causes of dementia

524
Q

What is the Aetiology of NPH?

A

Unclear: Associated with conditions that block the flow or absorption of CSF causing its accumulation such as:

  • SAH
  • Meningitis
  • Head injury
  • Surgical Complications
525
Q

Wet, Wacky, Wobbly

What are the clinical features of NPH?

A

Classical triad: Wet, Wacky, Wobbly

  • Dementia: Often manifests as global cognitive impairment, with attention and memory disturbances.
  • Magnetic gait: Characterized by difficulty in lifting the feet off the floor, appearing as if they are “stuck.”
  • Incontinence: Primarily urinary incontinence, but faecal incontinence can also occur.
526
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for NPH?

A
  • Alzheimer’s disease: Presents with progressive memory loss, confusion, language difficulties, and mood changes. Unlike NPH, motor disturbances are usually not seen until late stages.
  • Parkinson’s disease: Features bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor, and postural instability. Cognitive impairment may occur but is not an early feature as in NPH.
  • Other forms of dementia: Depending on their specific type, can present with varying cognitive and motor symptoms.
527
Q

What are the investigations for NPH?

A

Neuroimaging:

  • CT/MRI shows dilated lateral ventricles and enlarged 4th ventricle
  • Hydrocephalus with Ventriculomegaly

Lumbar Puncture

528
Q

What is the management for NPH?

A

Relieve the pressure effects caused by excess CSF

Therapeutic lumbar puncture: This procedure can alleviate symptoms and improve cognition and walking ability by removing CSF.

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt: In patients responsive to lumbar puncture, neurosurgery may insert a shunt to permanently redirect the excess CSF from the brain to the abdomen.

529
Q

What are some complications of a Ventriculoperitoneal shunt?

A

Seizures
Infection
Blockage
Excessive drainage
Intraventricular haemorrhage during shunt related surgery

530
Q

What are the high yield features of:

Myelopathy:
Anterior Cord Syndrome
Posterior Cord Syndrome
Brown Sequard
Cauda Equina

A

Myelopathy: (Cord compression)

  • LMN at the lesion as nerve root is compressed
  • UMN below the lesion

Anterior Cord Syndrome

  • B/L motor weakness and B/L loss of pain and temp
  • DCML/proprioception is spared
  • MND ASAI can cause it

Posterior Cord

  • DCML loss - proprioception

Brown Sequard

  • Ipsilateral loss of corticospinal and DCML
  • Contralateral loss of Spinothalamic 2 spinal segments below

Cauda Equina

  • LMN only
531
Q

Define Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A

A neurological condition (mononeuropathy) characterized by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, a purely sensory nerve supplying the outer aspect of the thigh.

The primary feature of this syndrome is neuropathic pain

532
Q

What is the epidemiology of Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A
  • Middle age (30-60 years)
  • No significant gender predilection
533
Q

What are some risk factors for Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A

Anything that increases pressure on the grain area:

  • Obesity
  • Pregnancy
  • Diabetes
  • Wearing tight belts or clothing
  • Trauma
  • Iatrogenic
534
Q

What is the Aetiology of Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A
  • Compression or entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve under the inguinal ligament.
  • Direct injury to the nerve.
  • Conditions or factors that increase pressure on the nerve
535
Q

Where does the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous nerve originate?

A

Varying combinations of L1, L2 and L3 nerve roots.
It only carries sensory innervation to the upper outer thigh so there are no motor symptoms in Meralgia Paraesthetica

536
Q

What are the clinical features of Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A
  • Burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain
  • Numbness
  • Deep muscle ache
  • Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing, and relieved by sitting
  • They can be mild and resolve spontaneously or may severely restrict the patient for many years.

Sensory loss may occur but motor function is unaffected.

537
Q

What are the signs of meralgia Paraesthetica?

A
  • Symptoms may be reproduced by deep palpation just below the ASIS (pelvic compression) and also by extension of the hip.
  • There is altered sensation over the upper lateral aspect of the thigh.
  • There is no motor weakness.
538
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for meralgia Paraesthetica?

A
  • Lumbar radiculopathy: Characterized by back pain that radiates down the leg, weakness, numbness, or difficulty controlling specific muscles.
  • Hip arthritis: Symptoms include pain in the hip and groin, stiffness, and reduced range of motion.
  • Iliotibial band syndrome: This presents with lateral knee pain, especially with activity, and tenderness over the lateral femoral epicondyle.
  • Diabetic neuropathy: Primarily presents with distal symmetrical neuropathy, numbness, tingling, or pain in the hands or feet.
539
Q

What are the investigations for Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A

Clinical Diagnosis based on Pelvic compression test examination

  • Ultrasound can be effective for diagnosis
  • Nerve conduction studies and electromyography (EMG): To rule out other causes of neuropathy.
540
Q

What is the conservative management of Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A

Rest
Looser clothing (tight clothes such as belts may add pressure to the nerve)
Weight loss (if appropriate)
Physiotherapy

541
Q

What is the medical management of Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A

Paracetamol
NSAIDs
Neuropathic analgesia (e.g., amitriptyline, gabapentin, pregabalin or duloxetine)
Local injections of steroids or local anaesthetics

542
Q

What is the surgical management of Meralgia Paraesthetica?

A

Decompression – removing pressure on the nerve
Transection – cutting the nerve
Resection – removing the nerve

543
Q

Define Spinal Cord Compression (SCC)

A

A condition that results from processes causing compression or displacement of the arterial, venous, and cerebrospinal fluid spaces, as well as the spinal cord itself.

This condition leads to various neurological symptoms and disturbances based on the level and severity of compression.

544
Q

What is the epidemiology of SCC?

A

Common neurosurgical condition
Often seen in patients with a history of malignancy

545
Q

What is the Aetiology of SCC?

A
  • Trauma: Can lead to fractures or dislocations that compress the spinal cord.
  • Neoplasia: Seen in 5-10% of cancer patients, it is a presenting complaint in 20% of these cases.
  • Infection: Particularly tuberculosis (TB) in at-risk patients can cause SCC.
  • Disc Prolapse: Protrusion of an intervertebral disc can compress the spinal cord.
  • Epidural Haematoma: Accumulation of blood in the epidural space can compress the spinal cord.
546
Q

What are the clinical features of Spinal Cord Compression?

A
  • Upper motor neuron signs: Such as hyperreflexia, spasticity, and a positive Babinski’s sign.
  • Sensory disturbance: Typically below the level of the lesion.
  • Deep and localized back pain.
  • Radicular sensory disturbance: A stabbing sensation at the level of the lesion.
  • Bladder and bowel involvement: This can manifest as incontinence or retention.
547
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Spinal Cord Compression?

A
  • Multiple Sclerosis: Presents with optic neuritis, limb weakness, sensory loss, ataxia, and bladder dysfunction.
  • Transverse Myelitis: Characterized by acute or subacute development of lower limb weakness, sensory disturbance, and sphincter dysfunction.
  • Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis: Presents with fever, malaise, headache, vomiting, ataxia, and changes in consciousness.
  • Peripheral Neuropathy: Symptoms include sensory loss, pain, and weakness in the limbs.
  • Musculoskeletal back pain: Presenting as severe pain, spasms with no significant weakness
548
Q

What are the investigations for Spinal Cord Compression?

A

Urgent whole spine MRI done in anyone with features suggestive of SCC or Cauda Equina Syndrome (CES) within 48 hours

549
Q

What is the management of SCC?

A

Surgical decompression: This should be performed urgently, typically within 48 hours.

Administration of dexamethasone: Indicated in patients with demonstrated malignancy on MRI or those with high clinical suspicion,

  • Given at 16 mg daily in divided doses, along with proton pump inhibitors (PPI)
550
Q

Define Cauda Equina Syndrome (CES)

A

Compression of the cauda equina, the “horse’s tail” in Latin is a surgical emergency.

The term describes the bundle of Lumbo-Sacral nerve roots that extend from the termination of the spinal cord at the L1 level and exit the spinal column in the lower lumbar and sacral regions.

551
Q

What is the Aetiology of CES?

A

The most common cause of cauda equina syndrome is lumbar disc herniation at the L4/5 and L5/S1 levels.

Other causes include:

  • Neoplasms (metastatic or primary)
  • Abscesses
  • Trauma
  • Spondylolisthesis
  • Iatrogenic causes (e.g., manipulation, spinal anaesthesia, post-operative haematoma)
552
Q

What are the clinical features of Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A
  • Lower back pain
  • Lower motor neurone signs
  • Alternating or bilateral radicular (sciatic) pain
  • Saddle anaesthesia, often manifesting as an inability to feel toilet paper when wiping
  • Bladder and bowel disturbances which may manifest as either constipation/retention or incontinence
553
Q

What areas do the nerves of the cauda equina supply?

A
  • Sensation to the lower limbs, perineum, bladder and rectum
  • Motor innervation to the lower limbs and the anal and urethral sphincters
  • Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder and rectum
554
Q

What are the key red flags to look out for suggestive of cauda equina?

A
  • Saddle anaesthesia (loss of sensation in the perineum – around the genitals and anus)
  • Loss of sensation in the bladder and rectum (not knowing when they are full)
  • Urinary retention or incontinence
  • Faecal incontinence
  • Bilateral sciatica
  • Bilateral or severe motor weakness in the legs
  • Reduced anal tone on PR examination
555
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for CES?

A
  • Spinal stenosis: Characterised by lower back pain, radicular leg pain, neurogenic claudication, and in severe cases, bowel and bladder dysfunction.
  • Sciatica: Typically presents with lower back pain radiating along the sciatic nerve in the back of the leg, but usually without bowel and bladder disturbances.
  • Discitis: Back pain is a common feature but is typically accompanied by fever and elevated inflammatory markers rather than by radicular pain or bowel and bladder disturbances.
556
Q

What is the Gold standard investigation for CES?

A

Urgent Whole spine MRI to identify the cause and location of the compression

557
Q

What is the management of Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A

Surgical decompression within 48 hours

If malignancy is identified or clinically suspected then Dexamethasone 16mg daily in divided doses (with PPI cover)

558
Q

Define Anterior Cord Syndrome

A

Anterior cord syndrome is an incomplete cord syndrome that predominantly affects the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord, characteristically resulting in motor paralysis below the level of the lesion as well as the loss of pain and temperature at and below the level of the lesion caused by ischaemia or infarction of the anterior spinal artery.

559
Q

How can cauda equina syndrome be differentiated between metastatic spinal cord compression based on the clinical features?

A

Cauda equina presents with lower motor neuron signs (reduced tone and reduced reflexes). The nerves being compressed are lower motor neurons that have already exited the spinal cord.

When the spinal cord is being compressed higher up by metastatic spinal cord compression, upper motor neuron signs (increased tone, brisk reflexes and upping plantar responses) will be seen.

560
Q

What are the progression of symptoms in CES?

A

Acute: Sudden onset, rapidly progressing symptoms which worsen over several hours or days
Chronic: insidious onset with slow progression of symptoms

  • Most patients will first notice lower back pain, this may present with or without sciatica. In many with slow onset CES, this may be the only symptom present for many days or weeks. Saddle anaesthesia often manifests soon after the back pain, but may not be noticed until the patient uses the bathroom and wipes that area.
  • Later symptoms of CES include lower limb weakness and urinary and bowel dysfunction, which can occur constantly or intermittently depending upon the cause of compression. Typically urinary retention and a reduced urge to urinate occurs first, with urinary overflow incontinence developing as a late sign of CES.
561
Q

What are the different classifications of CES?

A

Cauda equina syndrome with retention (CESR): 50-60% of patients

  • Presents with established urinary retention and/or overflow incontinence

Incomplete cauda equina syndrome (CESI): 40-50% of patients

  • Presents without urinary retention or overflow incontinence. Patients may have reduced bladder sensation, loss of desire to void and/or poor urinary stream
  • CESI has a better prognosis
562
Q

What is an Anterior spinal artery infarction (ASAI)?

A

An ischemic stroke occurring in the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, typically due to disruption in the blood flow from the anterior spinal artery.

563
Q

What is the aetiology of an ASAI?

A
  • Damage to the aorta
    • Aortic aneurysm repair
    • Aortic dissection
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Cardiac emboli
  • Vasculitis
  • Shock
564
Q

What is the epidemiology of an ASAI?

A

It typically affects the elderly, and the prevalence tends to be higher in individuals with atherosclerotic disease, arterial hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or those undergoing surgical procedures on the aorta.

565
Q

What are the clinical features of an ASAI?

A

Affects Lateral corticospinal tracts AND Lateral spinothalamic tracts

  • Bilateral Loss of pain sensation (analgesia)
  • Bilateral Loss of temperature sensation (thermoanaesthesia)
  • Bilateral Motor function impairment (spastic paresis)
  • Loss of autonomic functions
566
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for ASAI?

A
  • Transverse myelitis: Presents with bilateral motor, sensory, and autonomic spinal cord dysfunction. Acute or subacute onset is common.
  • Acute myelopathy: It also presents with similar symptoms, but it usually has a rapid onset and may also show signs of brain involvement.
  • Spinal cord compression: Features include pain, progressive motor and sensory loss, and autonomic dysfunction, including bowel and bladder dysfunctions.
  • Spinal cord tumours: Usually present with localized pain, weakness, sensory loss, and bowel or bladder dysfunction.
567
Q

What are the investigations for ASAI?

A

MRI scanning: This is the investigation of choice, typically showing hyperintense signals on T2-weighted images in the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord.

568
Q

What are some complications of an ASAI?

A

Persistent neurological deficits
Chronic pain
Urinary and bowel dysfunction
Pressure sores from prolonged immobility

569
Q

What is the management of an ASAI?

A

Management of ASAI is largely supportive and aims to treat the underlying cause of the infarction.

This may involve surgical interventions in cases of aortic aneurysm or dissection.

Control of Complications:

  • Pain control
  • Physiotherapy for motor function improvement
  • Management of autonomic dysfunctions
  • Skin care for preventing pressure sores
570
Q

What is the length of the spinal cord?

A

From C1-L1/2

571
Q

Where is the conus medullaris and cauda equina?

A

At L1/2

572
Q

Define Hemiplegia?

A

Paralysis to one side of the body

(usually due to a brain lesion)

573
Q

Define Paraplegia?

A

Paralysis of both legs/lower body

(usually due to a spinal cord lesion)

574
Q

What does the DCML tract convey information for?

A

Ascending tract for fine touch, 2pt discrimination, vibration and proprioception.

575
Q

What is the pathway for the DCML

A

Travels in dorsal route
(Fasciculus Gracilis/Cuneatus)

Decussates in the medulla

576
Q

What does the spinothalamic tract convey information for?

A

Ventral: Crude Touch and pressure
Lateral: Pain and temperature

577
Q

What is the pathway for the spinothalamic tract?

A

Ascending:
Enters at spinal level of nerve
ascends 1-2 spinal levels and then decussates

578
Q

What information does the corticospinal tract convey?

A

Upper motor neurons for movement.
Decussates at the medulla

579
Q

What are the nerve routes for the Knee jerk reflex?

A

L3/4

580
Q

What are the nerve routes for the Big toe reflex?

A

L5

581
Q

What are the nerve routes for the ankle Jerk reflex?

A

S1/2

582
Q

What are the commonest causes of spinal cord injury?

A

Trauma

Vertebral compression fractures

Intervertebral disc disease - prolapse/herniation

Tumours

Infection

583
Q

What are the common vertebral body neoplasms that can cause spinal compression?

A

Mets from:
Lungs
Breast
RCC
Melanoma

584
Q

What are the different types of spinal cord injury?

A

Complete SC injury
Anterior SC injury
Posterior SC injury
Central SC injury
Brown-Sequard Syndrome

585
Q

What is Spinal Cord Compression?

A

Compression of the spinal cord resulting in upper neurone signs and specific symptoms dependent on where compression is

586
Q

What is the commonest cause of acute spinal cord compression?

A

Vertebral body neoplasms

587
Q

What is the concern if there is sphincter involvement in spinal cord compression

A

This is a late and bad sign signalling a poorer prognosis

588
Q

What would be the features of a complete spinal cord compression?

A

All motor and sensory function below the SCI level

589
Q

What would be the features of an anterior spinal cord compression?

A

Disruption of anterior spinal cord or anterior spinal artery
Loss of motor function below the level
Loss of pain and temperature sensation (anterior column)
Preservation of fine touch and proprioception (posterior column)

590
Q

What would be the features of a posterior spinal cord compression?

A

Disruption of posterior spinal cord or posterior spinal artery (rare)
Loss of fine touch and proprioception (posterior column)
Preservation of pain and temperature sensation (anterior column)

591
Q

What would be the clinical features of brown-Sequard syndrome?

A
  • (Ipsilateral Corticospinal) Ipsilateral weakness and loss of motor function below the lesion.
  • (Ipsilateral DCML) Ipsilateral loss of proprioception, 2-point discrimination and fine touch.
  • (Contralateral Spinothalamic) Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation 1-2 spinal segments below the lesion.
592
Q

What is Sciatica?

A

Sciatica refers to the symptoms associated with irritation of the sciatic nerve.

593
Q

What spinal nerves form the sciatic nerve?
Where is the most common region of compression to cause Sciatica?

A

L4-S3 spinal roots
Most common region of compression at L5/S1

594
Q

What is the innervation of the sciatic nerve?

A

The sciatic nerve supplies sensation to the Posterior thigh, lateral lower leg and the foot. (below the knee)

  • Sciatic Nerve (L4-S3) innervates Muscles of the posterior thigh
  • Tibial Nerve (Posterior Divisions of Sacral plexus) innervates Posterior leg
  • Common Peroneal Nerve (Anterior Divisions of Sacral Plexus) innervates anterior/lateral leg
  • Sensory innervation of entire foot, leg, and posterior thigh.
595
Q

What nerves are branches of the sciatic nerve?

A

Common peroneal nerve

Tibial nerve

596
Q

What are the Signs and Symptoms of Sciatica?

A
  • Unilateral pain from the buttock radiating down the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet
  • Paraesthesia (pins and needles), numbness and motor weakness
  • Reflexes may be affected depending on spinal root affected

Signs:

  • Unilateral
  • Weak plantar flexion
  • Absent right ankle jerk
  • Decreased sensation over lateral edge and sole of right foot
597
Q

What are the main causes of Sciatica?

A

Intervertebral Herniated/prolapsed disc

Tumours
Piriformis Syndrome
Spondylolisthesis
Spinal stenosis

598
Q

What is Bilateral sciatica a red flag for?

A

Cauda Equina syndrome

599
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations for sciatica?

A

Clinical Diagnosis generally:
Can’t Do straight leg raise test without pain

Other Investigations:

  • X-ray
  • CT scan
  • MRI - if cauda equina suspected
600
Q

What is the main treatment for sciatica?

A

Physiotherapy + Analgesia:

  • NSAIDs first line

Neuropathic pain medications are possibly used later on

  • Amitriptyline (TCA)
  • Duloxetine (SNRI)
601
Q

What is Brown Sequard Syndrome?

A

Hemi-section of the spinal cord and therefore loss of sensations of pain temperature and touch and motor movement

602
Q

What are the causes of Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

A

Space occupying lesions
Intervertebral disc prolapses
Vertebral bone fractures
Trauma – gunshot wounds, knife wounds
Infectious – HIV
MS

603
Q

What is the Investigation and Treatment for Brown Sequard Syndrome?

A

Ix - MRI Spine

Tx - Supportive (physical/occupational therapy) and Steroids (Dexamethasone)

604
Q

What are the signs of a Tibial Nerve Lesion?

A

L4-S3 (Posterior cord)

Inability to:
Plantarflexion
Invert foot
Flex toes
Sensory loss over sole of foot

605
Q

What are the signs of a Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion?

What other signs would suggest a different differential?

A

L4-S2 (Anterior cord

Foot drop
Weak ankle dorsiflexion and eversion
Sensory loss over dorsal foot

If Ankle inversion/hip adduction affected it could be L5 radiculopathy

606
Q

What are the side effects Amitriptyline?

A

constipation.
Blurred vision/dizziness
dry mouth.
feeling sleepy.
Confusion
Urinary retention
headache

607
Q

Define the Radial Nerve

A

The radial nerve is a peripheral nerve that arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus,

  • Originating from nerve roots C5-T1.
  • It serves both motor and sensory functions in the arm.
608
Q

What is the epidemiology of radial nerve injuries?

A

Radial nerve injuries are relatively common, often resulting from fractures of the humerus or excessive pressure on the nerve.

High-risk populations include individuals involved in heavy physical activities, sports, or those with specific medical conditions that make them more prone to fractures or nerve compression.

609
Q

What is the aetiology of radial nerve injuries?

A
  • Direct trauma or injury to the nerve
  • Compression or entrapment (e.g., in conditions such as Saturday night palsy)
  • Iatrogenic causes during surgical procedures
  • Systemic diseases that affect the peripheral nerves (e.g., diabetes mellitus)
610
Q

What is the innervation of the radial nerve?

A

Motor:

  • Arm: Triceps Brachii, Brachioradialis, Extensor carpi radialis longus
  • Forearm: Muscles of the posterior compartment

Sensory:

  • Lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm = innervates the skin inferior to the insertion of the deltoid
  • Posterior cutaneous nerve of arm = innervates the skin on the posterior surface of the arm

*Posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm = innervates the skin in the middle of the posterior forearm and dorsal surface of the hand

611
Q

What are the clinical features of a radial nerve injury?

A
  • Weakness or paralysis of the muscles innervated by the radial nerve (e.g., triceps brachii, brachioradialis, and extensor muscles of the forearm)

Wrist drop

  • Numbness, tingling, or pain in the sensory distribution of the radial nerve (posterior forearm, lateral aspect of the dorsum of the hand, and dorsal surface of the lateral 3 1/2 digits)
612
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for radial nerve injury?

A
  • Brachial Plexopathy: Similar motor and sensory loss, but usually involves other nerves of the brachial plexus.
  • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Primarily causes sensory changes in the palmar aspect of the hand and motor weakness in the median nerve distribution.
  • Ulnar Neuropathy: Presents with sensory and motor deficits in the ulnar nerve distribution, including the 5th digit and medial half of the 4th digit.
  • Cervical Radiculopathy: Symptoms may overlap with radial nerve injury, but there may also be neck pain, and symptoms may be exacerbated by neck movements.
613
Q

What are the investigations for a Radial nerve injury?

A

Neurological examination: to assess sensory and motor deficits

Electromyography (EMG) and Nerve Conduction Studies (NCS): to evaluate nerve function

X-Ray if history of trauma to rule out bone fractures or disclocations

MRI or CT scan: to identify any anatomical causes of nerve injury such as a fracture or mass lesion

614
Q

What is the management of radial nerve injuries?

A

Depends on the underlying cause:

Conservative measures: including rest, physical therapy, and use of splints to prevent muscle contractures in cases of mild nerve injury

Pharmacological interventions:such as analgesics for pain management

Surgical interventions: in cases of severe nerve injury or where the cause is a correctable lesion such as a tumour or fracture

615
Q

Define the Ulnar Nerve?

A
  • The ulnar nerve is a peripheral nerve that arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus,
  • Roots in the C8-T1 nerve roots.
  • It serves both motor and sensory functions in the forearm and hand.
616
Q

What is the aetiology of ulnar neve injuries?

A
  • Direct trauma or injury to the nerve
  • Compression or entrapment (e.g., in conditions such as cubital tunnel syndrome or Guyon’s canal syndrome)
  • Iatrogenic causes during surgical procedures
  • Systemic diseases that affect the peripheral nerves (e.g., diabetes mellitus)
617
Q

What is the innervation of the ulnar nerve?

A

Muscular branch = innervates muscles of the anterior compartment: Flexor carpi ulnaris, Medial part of Flexor Digitorum Profundus

Palmar cutaneous branch = innervates the medial half of the palm

Dorsal cutaneous branch = innervates the dorsal surface of the medial 1 1/2 digits and associated dorsal hand area

Superficial Ulnar nerve: innervates the palmar surface of the medial 1 1/2 digits

Deep = intrinsic muscles of the hand except LOAF

618
Q

What are the clinical features of an ulnar nerve injury?

A

Damage at wrist

  • ‘claw hand’ - hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits
  • wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals)
  • wasting and paralysis of hypothenar muscles
  • sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)

Damage at elbow

  • as above (however, ulnar paradox - clawing is more severe in distal lesions)
  • radial deviation of wrist
619
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for ulnar nerve injury?

A
  • Brachial Plexopathy: Similar motor and sensory loss, but usually involves other nerves of the brachial plexus.
  • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Primarily causes sensory changes in the palmar aspect of the hand and motor weakness in the median nerve distribution.
  • Ulnar Neuropathy: Presents with sensory and motor deficits in the ulnar nerve distribution, including the 5th digit and medial half of the 4th digit.
  • Cervical Radiculopathy: Symptoms may overlap with radial nerve injury, but there may also be neck pain, and symptoms may be exacerbated by neck movements.
620
Q

What are the investigations for a suspected ulnar nerve injury?

A

Neurological examination: to assess sensory and motor deficits

Electromyography (EMG) and Nerve Conduction Studies (NCS): to evaluate nerve function

MRI or CT scan: to identify any anatomical causes of nerve injury such as a fracture or mass lesion

621
Q

What is the management for an ulnar nerve injury?

A

Depends on the underlying cause:

Conservative measures: including rest, physical therapy, and use of splints to prevent muscle contractures in cases of mild nerve injury

Pharmacological interventions:such as analgesics for pain management

Surgical interventions: in cases of severe nerve injury or where the cause is a correctable lesion such as a tumour or fracture

622
Q

Define Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a condition characterized by median nerve compression as it traverses the narrow carpal tunnel from the forearm to the hand.

It is the most common mononeuropathy, often associated with repetitive wrist activities, systemic diseases, and anatomical variations.

623
Q

What is the epidemiology of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Most common mononeuropathy

624
Q

HODPARAR

What is the aetiology of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Factors that increase pressure within or decrease the size of the carpal tunnel

Mostly Idiopathic

Hypothyroidism
Obesity
Diabetes
Pregnancy
Acromegaly
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Amyloidosis
Repetitive Strain Injury

625
Q

What are the clinical features of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A
  • Pain and paraesthesia to the lateral 3.5 digits due to the impingement of the palmar digital branch of the median nerve.
  • Wasting of the thenar eminence as a result of the compromise of the recurrent branch of the median nerve.
  • Symptoms are often worse at night or after activities involving wrist flexion.
626
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A
  • Cubital Tunnel Syndrome: Presents with pain, numbness, and tingling in the ring and little fingers, and weakness in hand grip.
  • Thoracic Outlet Syndrome: Symptoms may include pain, numbness, and weakness in the arm, along with potential neck, shoulder, and hand discomfort.
  • Radial Tunnel Syndrome: Characterized by fatigue or dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with forearm rotation.
  • Ulnar Neuropathy: Symptoms can include numbness, tingling, or pain in the arm, hand, and fingers, especially the ring and little fingers.
627
Q

What are the investigations for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A
  • Clinical Examination:
    • Phalen’s Test
    • Tinel’s Test
    • Compression test
  • Electromyography (EMG): Motor and Sensory prolongation
  • Nerve Conduction Studies (NCS): to measure the speed and strength of signals traveling through the median nerve. Additional tests, such as MRI or X-ray, may be used in some cases to rule out other conditions or explore the possibility of structural abnormalities.
628
Q

What is the management for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Conservative measures: Wrist splinting, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), corticosteroid injections, and modifying activities that exacerbate symptoms.

Surgery: This is considered for severe or persistent cases that are unresponsive to conservative treatment. Surgical release of the transverse carpal ligament is the most common procedure. Physical therapy is often employed post-surgery to regain strength and mobility.

629
Q

Define Common Peroneal Nerve Injury?

A

The common peroneal nerve, also known as the common fibular nerve, is part of the sciatic nerve and is particularly susceptible to injury at the neck of the fibula.

Damage to this nerve often occurs due to direct trauma around the knee, with common peroneal nerve injury resulting in specific motor and sensory deficits in the affected leg.

630
Q

What is the Aetiology of Common Peroneal Nerve Injuries?

A
  • Direct trauma to the lateral aspect of the knee
  • Fractures or dislocations involving the knee joint or fibular head
  • Compression injury, often due to prolonged immobilisation or positioning
  • Iatrogenic injury during surgery
  • Certain systemic diseases like diabetes or polyneuropathies can predispose to nerve injury
631
Q

What are the clinical features of Common Peroneal Nerve Injury?

A
  • ‘Foot drop’: Due to paralysis of the foot extensors, including the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor hallucis longus muscles
  • Foot inversion: Occurs as the common peroneal nerve also innervates the foot evertor muscles
  • Potential sensory loss or paresthesia in the distribution of the nerve
632
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for Common Peroneal Nerve Injury?

A
  • L5 radiculopathy: Typically presents with pain radiating down the leg, weakness of the dorsiflexors and evertors of the foot, and sensory loss along the lateral leg and dorsum of the foot
  • Sciatic nerve injury: Marked by hamstring weakness, decreased Achilles reflex, and sensory loss in the sciatic nerve distribution
  • Muscular dystrophies: Characterised by progressive muscle weakness and atrophy affecting various muscle groups
  • Stroke: Acute onset of unilateral weakness, often accompanied by other neurological deficits
633
Q

What are the investigations for Common Peroneal Nerve Injury?

A

Electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction studies: These can help establish the diagnosis and severity of the nerve injury

MRI: Can aid in identifying space-occupying lesions, nerve sheath tumours, or other structural anomalies

Ultrasound: Useful for visualising the course of the nerve and potential sites of entrapment

634
Q

What is the Management of Common Peroneal Nerve Injury?

A

Conservative treatment: Physical therapy and orthotic devices can help maintain foot position and prevent secondary contractures

Surgical intervention: If no improvement is observed in neurological function after 2-3 months, surgical decompression or nerve grafting might be considered

635
Q

Define Mononeuritis Multiplex?

A

A type of peripheral neuropathy which is characterized by simultaneous or sequential involvement of individual non-contiguous nerve trunks, either partially or completely, evolving over days to years and typically presenting with acute or subacute loss of sensory and motor function of individual nerves.

636
Q

What are the clinical features for Mononeuritis Multiplex?

A
  • The pattern of involvement is asymmetric.
  • However, as the disease progresses, deficits becomes more confluent and symmetrical, making it difficult to differentiate from polyneuropathy. Therefore, attention to the pattern of early symptoms is important.
  • Mononeuritis multiplex may also cause pain, which is characterized as deep, aching pain that is worse at night and frequently in the lower back, hip, or leg.
  • In people with diabetes mellitus, mononeuritis multiplex is typically encountered as acute, unilateral, and severe thigh pain followed by anterior muscle weakness and loss of knee reflex.
637
Q

WARDS PLC

What is the aetiology of Mononeuritis Multiplex?

A
  • Wegener’s granulomatosis (Vasculitis)
  • Aids/Amyloid
  • Rheumatoid arthritis (Other immune mediated diseases)
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Polyarteritis nodosa
  • Leprosy (Other infections: Lyme, parvovirus, HIV)
  • Carcinoma
638
Q

DAVIDE

What are some causes of Peripheral Nerve Disease?

A

Diabetes
Alcohol
Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Infective - Guillain Barre/Charcot Marie Tooth
Drugs - isoniazid
Every vasculitis

639
Q

Give some examples of Mononeuropathies?

A
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome (medial nerve) – most common
  • Radial neuropathy (entrapment at the cubital tunnel or radial tunnel)
  • Ulnar neuropathy (entrapment at the cubital tunnel)
  • Peroneal neuropathy (entrapment at the fibular head)
  • Cranial mononeuropathies (III or VII cranial nerve palsy)
640
Q

Define a Radiculopathy?

A

Commonly referred to as a pinched nerve, radiculopathy is injury or damage to nerve roots in the area where they leave the spine.

641
Q

What is the most common Radiculopathy?

A

Lumbar radiculopathy
(L5 radiculopathy)

642
Q

What is the aetiology of Radiculopathy?

A
  • Damage to a disk in the spine: The damaged disk may then press on nearby nerve roots.
  • Degeneration from wear and tear, and aging: This can lead to narrowing (stenosis) of the openings between the vertebrae. The narrowed openings press on nerve roots as they leave the spinal canal.
  • Unstable spine: This is when a vertebra slips forward. It can then press on a nerve root.
  • Other, less common things can put pressure on nerves in the low back. These include diabetes, infection, or a tumour.
643
Q

What are the clinical features of Lumbar radiculopathy?

A
  • Pain in the low back.
  • Pain, numbness, tingling, or muscle weakness that travels into the buttocks, hip, groin, or leg.
  • Similar features of Common peroneal nerve lesion plus weakness of hip abduction
  • Muscle spasms.
644
Q

What is the management for Radiculopathy?

A
  • Analgesia: Paracetamol or NSAIDs
  • Limits on positions and activities that increase pain. But lying in bed or avoiding all movement is only recommended for a short period of time.
  • Physical therapy, including exercises and stretches. This helps decrease pain and increase movement and function.
  • Steroid injections into the lower back. This may help relieve symptoms for a time.
  • Weight-loss program. If you are overweight, losing extra pounds may help relieve symptoms.
  • Surgery is a possibility
645
Q

What are the clinical features of L5 Radiculopathy?

A
  • L5 radiculopathy is usually associated with numbness down the side of the leg and into the top of the foot.
  • S1 radiculopathy typically results in numbness down the back of the leg into the outside or bottom of the foot.
646
Q

Define Functional Neurological Disorder?

A

Functional Neurological Disorder (FND) is a condition in which patients experience neurological symptoms such as weakness, movement disorders, sensory symptoms, and blackouts.

As a functional disorder, there is by definition no known disease process affecting the structure of the body, yet the person experiences symptoms relating to their body function.

647
Q

What is the aetiology of FND?

A

No clear cause as there is not a pathological process leading to FND.

Associated with:

  • Childhood neglect
  • Depression and Anxiety
  • Other neurological condition such as Epilepsy.
648
Q

What are the clinical features of FND?

A
  • Limb weakness or paralysis
  • Blackouts (also called dissociative or non-epileptic seizures/attacks) – these may look like epileptic seizures or faints
  • Movement disorders including tremors, dystonia (spasms), myoclonus (jerky movements)
  • Visual symptoms including loss of vision or double vision
  • Speech symptoms including dysphonia (whispering speech), slurred or stuttering speech
  • Sensory disturbance including hemisensory syndrome (altered sensation down one side of the body)
  • Dizziness and balance problems
649
Q

What are the investigations for FND

A

Clinical examination and history

No results on imaging or blood tests leading to other underlying pathology.

650
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for FND?

A
  • Multiple Sclerosis: Presents with many similar features of FND however there will be evidence of MS lesions on imaging.
  • Epilepsy: FND patients may present with blackouts and seizures that mimic epileptic seizures however there is no underlying disease process.
651
Q

What is the management of FND?

A
  • Physiotherapy
  • Occupational Therapy

Medications for complications:

  • Sleeping tablets
  • Gabapentin/Pregabalin for neuropathic pain
  • Anti-epileptic/anticonvulsants
  • SSRIs for depression.