Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MCAT > Psych/Soci > Flashcards

Psych/Soci Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
MCAT flashcards
1
Q

Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS) activation

A

“rest and digest”

  • pupils constrict
  • saliva stimulated
  • constricts bronchii
  • heart rate slows
  • blood pressure lowers
  • digestive peristalsis and secretion stimulated
  • bile release stimulated
  • contracts bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System (PNS) activation

A

“fight or flight”

  • pupils dilate
  • saliva inhibited
  • relaxes bronchii
  • heart rate increases
  • blood pressure increases
  • peristalsis and secretion inhibited
  • glucose production and release stimulated
  • release of epi + norepi from adrenal glands
  • bladder inhibited from contraction
  • orgasm stimulated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hindbrain

A

cerebellum, medulla oblongata, pons, reticular formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Midbrain

A

superior and anterior colliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Forebrain

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus, cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Thalamus function

A

relay system for sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hypothalamus function

A

maintains homeostasis and integrates with the endocrine system through the hypophyseal portal system that connects it with the anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Basal ganglia function

A

smooths movements and helps maintain postural stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Limbic system (parts + function)

A

Amygdala - fear and agression
Hippocampus - memory storage
Septal nuclei - pleasure seeking
Fornix - communication with the limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Frontal lobe function

A

Executive function, impulse control, long-term planning (PFC), motor function (primary motor cortex), speech production (Broca’s Area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Parietal lobe function

A

Sensation of touch, pressure, temperature, and pain (somatosensory cortex), spatial processing, orientation, and manipulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Occipital lobe function

A

Visual processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Temporal lobe function

A

Sound processing (auditory cortex), speech perception (Wernicke’s area), memory, and emotion (limbic system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Voluntary motor control, parasympathetic nervous system, attention, alertness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

Fight-or-flight responses wakefulness, alertness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dopamine

A

Smooth movements, postural stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Serotonin

A

Mood, sleep, eating, dreaming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

GABA

A

Brain “stabilization”; major inhibitory neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Endorphins

A

Natural painkillers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sensation pathway

A

Sensory receptors respond to stimuli and trigger electrical signals; sensory neurons send impulses to the CNS, where the signals are transmitted to projection areas in the brain for further analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Weber’s law

A

The just-noticeable-difference for a stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Signal detection theory

A

The effects of nonsensory factors, such as experiences, motives, and expectations, on perception of stimuli (hit, miss, false alarm, correct rejection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adaptation

A

A decrease in response to a stimulus over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Visual pathway

A

retina –> optic nerve –> optic chiasm –> optic tract –> LGN –> visual radiations –> visual cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cochlea

A

Detects sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Uticle and saccule

A

Detect linear accleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Semicircular canals

A

Detect rotational acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Auditory pathway

A

cochlea –> vestibulocochlear nerve –> MGN –> auditory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Smell

A

Detection of volatile or aerosolized chemicals by olfactory chemoreceptors –> olfactory nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Taste

A

Detection of dissolved compounds by taste buds in papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Somatosensation

A

Four touch modalities - pain, pressure, vibration, temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Kinesthetic sense (proprioception)

A

Ability to tell where one’s body is in space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bottom-up processing

A

recognition of objects by parallel processing and feature detection; slower but less prone to mistakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Top-down processing

A

recognition of an object by memories and expectations, with little attention to detail; faster but more prone to mistakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gestalt principles

A

Ways the brain can infer parts of an image when it is incomplete: Proximity, Similarity, Continuity, Closure, and Connectedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Habituation

A

The process of becoming used to a stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dishabituation

A

Occurs when a second stimulus intervenes, causing a resensitization to the original stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Observational learning

A

the acquisition of behavior by watching others; mirror neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Associative learning

A

pairing together stimuli and responses, or behavior and consequences; includes classical and operant conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Reinforcement vs Punishment

A

Reinforcements increase a behavior, punishments decrease it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Awake

A

Beta and alpha waves; able to perceive, process, access, and express information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sleep Stage 1

A

Theta waves; light sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sleep Stage 2

A

Theta waves with sleep spindles and K-complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sleep Stage 3/4

A

Delta waves; slow wave sleep with dreams, declarative memory consolidation, some sleep disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

REM

A

Mostly beta waves; apears physiologically awake but dreams, is paralyzed; procedural memory consolidation, some sleep disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Dyssomnias vs Parasomnias

A

Dys = amount or timing of sleep; para = odd sleep behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Drug addiction (neuro basis)

A

Mediated by mesolimbic pathway which includes NAcc, VTA, and medial forbrain bundle with dopamine as the major NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Depressants

A

alcohol, benzos, barbituates; sense of relaxation and reduced anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Stimulants

A

caffeine, cocaine, amphetamines, ecstasy; increased arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Opiates/opiods

A

heroin, meth, opium, pain pills; decreased reaction to pain, euphoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hallucinogens

A

LSD, peyote, mescaline, ketamine, psilocybin; distortions of reality and fantasy; introspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Sensory Memory

A

< 1 sec; the ability to retain impressions of sensory information after the original stimuli have ended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Short term memory

A

15 - 30 seconds, capacity about 7 items; capacity for holding, but not manipulating, a small amount of information in mind in an active, readily available state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Working memory

A

The part of short-term memory that is concerned with immediate conscious perceptual and linguistic processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Explicit/Declaritive Memory

A

Conscious long term memory; consists of episodic memory for events, experiences and semantic memory for facts and concepts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Implicit/Procedural Memory

A

Unconscious long term memory; consists of memory for skills and tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Semantic Network

A

Facts are stored in these and often retrieved based on priming interconnected nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development

A

Sensorimotor (birth to 2) - manipulating environment to meet physical needs through circular reactions; learn object permanence

Preoperational (2 to 7) - symbolic thinking and egocentrism, as well as centration

Concrete operational (7 to 11) - understanding feelings of others and manipulating concrete objects

Formal operational (11 and up) - abstract thought and problem solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Deductive reasoning

A

Deriving conclusions from general rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Inductive reasoning

A

Deriving conclusions from evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Selective attention

A

allows one to pay attention to a particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli require attention in the background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Divided attention

A

uses automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at one time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Wernicke’s Area

A

Language comprehension; damage results in Wernicke’s aphasia (fluent, nonsensical language without comprehension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Broca’s Area

A

Language production; damage results in Broca’s aphasia (nonfluent language where every word takes great effort)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Arcuate fasciculus

A

Connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas; damage results in conduction aphasia (inability to repeat words despite intact speech generation and comprehension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

Motivation coming from external circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Motivation coming from internal drive or perception

68
Q

Instinct theory of Motivation

A

Innate, fixed patterns in response to stimuli

69
Q

Arousal theory of Motivation

A

The state of being awake and reactive to stimuli; aim for optimal amount of arousal for a given task (Yerkes-Dodson)

70
Q

Drive Reduction theory of Motivation

A

Individuals act to relieve internal states of tension

71
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy

A

Prioritizes needs into five categories - 1) physio 2) safety 3) social 4) self-esteem 5) actualization

72
Q

Seven universal emotions

A

happiness, sadness, anger, disgust, surprise, fear, anger

73
Q

James-Lange Theory

A

1) Physiological arousal

2) Conscious emotion

74
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory

A

1) Physiological arousal and conscious emotion

2) Behavior

75
Q

Schachter-Singer Theory

A

1) Physiological Arousal
2) Cognitive Appraisal
3) Conscious Emotion

76
Q

Stress

A

Physiological and cognitive response to challenges or life changes

77
Q

Primary Appraisal (Stress)

A

Classifying a potential stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful

78
Q

Secondary Appraisal (Stress)

A

Directed at evaluating whether the organism can cope with the stress, based on harm, threat, and challenge

79
Q

Distress vs Eustress vs Neustress

A

Bad vs Good/Adaptive vs Neutral

80
Q

General Adaptation Syndrome (Stress)

A

The three stages are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

81
Q

Self-Concept

A

The sum of the ways in which we describe ourselves: in the present, who we used to be, and who we might be in the future

82
Q

Identities

A

Individual components of our self-concept related to the groups to which we belong

83
Q

Self-esteem

A

Our evaluation of ourselves

84
Q

Self-efficacy

A

The degree to which we see ourselves as being capable of a given skill in a given situation

85
Q

Locus of control

A

The way we characterize the influences in our lives (external vs internal)

86
Q

Freud’s Theory of Psychosexual Development

A

Based on tensions caused by the libido, with failure at each stage leading to fixation; oral, anal, phallic, gentical

87
Q

Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development

A

Stem from conflicts that are the result of decisions we are forced to make about ourselves and the environment around us at each life phase

1) trust vs mistrust
2) autonomy vs shame/doubt
3) initiative vs guilt
4) industry vs inferiority
5) identity vs role confusion
6) intimacy vs isolation
7) generativity vs stagnation
8) integrity vs despair

88
Q

Psychoanalytic Perspective

A

Personality is the product of unconscious urges and desires

Freud: superego, ego, id
Jung: collective unconscious, archetypes

89
Q

Humanistic Perspective

A

Emphasizes internal feelings of healthy individuals as they strive toward happiness and self-realization

Maslow: Hierarchy of Needs
Rodgers: Unconditional Positive Regard

90
Q

Type and Trait theory

A

Personality can be described as a number of identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviors

Type theories: ancient Greek humors, Sheldon’s somatotypes, Types A and B, and MBTI

Trait theories: Eysenck’s three major traits (psychoticism, extraversion, neuroticism), OCEAN, Allport’s three basic types of traits (cardinal, central, and secondary)

91
Q

Schizophrenia (incl. + and - symptoms)

A

Disorder characterized by distortions of reality and disturbances in content and form of thought, perception, and behavior

+ = hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thought and behavior

  • = disturbance of affect and avolition
92
Q

Major depressive disorder (criteria)

A

Contains at least one major depressive episode

93
Q

Pervasive depressive disorder (criteria)

A

A depressed mood for at least two years

94
Q

Seasonal affective disorder

A

Name for major depressive disorder with seasonal onset

95
Q

Bipolar Disorder (I vs II vs cyclothymic)

A 
I = at least one manic episode
II = at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode
cyclothymic = hypomanic episodes with dysthymia
96
Q

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

Consistent disproportionate and persistent worry

97
Q

Specific phobias

A

Irrational fears of specific objects

98
Q

Social Anxiety disorder

A

Anxiety due to social or performance situations

99
Q

Agoraphobia

A

Fear of places or situations where it is hard for an individual to escape

100
Q

Panic Disorder

A

recurrent attacks of intense, overwhelming fear and SNS activation with no clear stimulus.

101
Q

OCD

A

Obsessions (persistent intrusive thoughts and impulses) and compulsions (repetitive tasks that relieve tension but cause significant impairment)

102
Q

Dissociative amnesia

A

Inability to recall past experience; may involve dissociative fugue, or a sudden change in location that can involve the assumption of a new identity

103
Q

Dissociative identity disorder

A

Two or more personalities that take control of behavior

104
Q

Depersonalization/derealization disorder

A

Feelings of detachment from the mind and body, or from the environment

105
Q

Somatic Symptom Disorder

A

At least one somatic symptom, which may or may not be linked to an existing medical condition, that causes disproportionate concern

106
Q

Illness anxiety disorder

A

Preoccupation with having or coming down with a serious medical condition

107
Q

Conversion Disorder

A

Unexplained symptoms affecting motor or sensory function

108
Q

Personality disorders (incl. clusters)

A

Patterns of inflexible, maladaptive behavior that cause distress or impaired function

A (weird) - schizoid, schizotypal, paranoid
B (wild) - antisocial, narcissistic, histrionic, borderline
C (worried) - avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive

109
Q

Social facilitation

A

Tendency to perform at a different level (better or worse) when others are around

110
Q

Deindividuation

A

Loss of self-awareness in large groups; can lead to drastic changes in behavior

111
Q

Bystander Effect

A

In a group, individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need

112
Q

Peer pressure

A

Social influence placed on an individual by other individuals they consider equals

113
Q

Group polarization

A

Tendency for a group to make decisions that are more extreme than the views of any of the members

114
Q

Groupthink

A

Tendency to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas

115
Q

Assimilation

A

One culture begins to melt into another

116
Q

Multiculturalism

A

Encouragement of multiple cultures within a community ti enhance diversity

117
Q

Subculture

A

A group that distinguishes itself from the primary culture to which it belongs

118
Q

Socialization

A

The process of developing and spreading norms, customs, and beliefs

119
Q

Norms

A

Boundaries of acceptable behavior within society

120
Q

Stigma

A

Extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on perceived differences

121
Q

Deviance

A

Any violation of norms, rules, or expectations within a society

122
Q

Conformity

A

Changing beliefs or behaviors in order to fit into a group or society

123
Q

Compliance

A

Individuals change behavior based on the request of others; ex. foot-in the-door, door-in-the-face, lowball, that’s-not-all

124
Q

Obediance

A

Change in behavior based on a command from someone seen as an authority figure

125
Q

Status

A

A position in society used to classify individuals; can be ascribed, achieved, or master (primary identity)

126
Q

Role

A

Set of beliefs, values, and norms, that define the expectations of a certain status

127
Q

Group

A

Two or more individuals with similar characteristics who share a sense of unity

128
Q

Network

A

Observable pattern of social relationships between groups and individuals

129
Q

Organization

A

Group with a structure and culture designed to achieve specific goals; exists outside of each individual’s membership within the organization

130
Q

Display rules

A

Unspoken rules that govern the expression of emotion

131
Q

Impression Management

A

Maintenance of a public image through various strategies

132
Q

Dramaturgical approach

A

Individuals create images of themselves in the same way that actors perform for an audience

133
Q

Interpersonal attraction

A

Influenced by physical, social, and psychological factors

134
Q

Aggression

A

Behavior with the intention to cause harm or increase social dominance

135
Q

Attachment

A

An emotional bond to another person; usual caregiver/child

136
Q

Altruism

A

Helping behavior in which the person’s intent is to benefit someone else at a personal cost

137
Q

Dispositional vs Situational Attribution

A

To internal qualities vs to environmental variables

138
Q

Correspondent Inference theory

A

Describes attributions made by observing the intentional (especially unexpected) behaviors of another person

139
Q

FAE

A

The tendency to attribute other’s actions to dispositional factors

140
Q

Stereotypes

A

Attitudes and impressions that are made based on limited and superficial information

141
Q

Self-fulfilling prophecy

A

The phenomenon of a stereotype creating the expectation of a particular group, which creates conditions that lead to confirmation of this stereotype

142
Q

Stereotype threat

A

A feeling of anxiety about confirming a negative stereotype

143
Q

Prejudice

A

An irrationally based attitude prior to actual experience

144
Q

Ethnocentrism

A

The practice of making judgements about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one’s own culture (in group vs out group)

145
Q

Cultural Relativism

A

Studying social groups and cultures on their own terms

146
Q

Discrimination

A

When prejudicial attitudes cause differences in treatment of a group

147
Q

Functionalism

A

Focuses on the function and relationships of each component of society; macro

148
Q

Conflict theory

A

Focuses on how power differentials are created and how they maintain order; macro

149
Q

Symbolic interactionism

A

The study of how individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and other symbols; micro

150
Q

Social constructionism

A

Explores how individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality; bridge micro and macro

151
Q

Material culture

A

Physical items one associates with a given group

152
Q

Symbolic culture

A

The ideas associated with a cultural group

153
Q

Migration

A

Refers to the movement of people into (imm) or out of (em) of a geographical location

154
Q

Demographic transition

A

A model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

155
Q

Class

A

A category of people that share the same socioeconomic characteristics

156
Q

Power

A

The capacity to influence people through real or perceived rewards and punishments

157
Q

Social capital

A

The investment people make in society in return for economic or collective rewards

158
Q

Social reproduction

A

The passing on of social inequality, especially poverty, to other generations

159
Q

Poverty

A

low SES; in the US, poverty line is the government’s calculation of the minimum income requirements to acquire the minimum necessities in life

160
Q

Incidence

A

Number of new cases/population at risk per time

161
Q

Prevalence

A

Number of cases/total population per time

162
Q

Morbidity

A

The burden or degree of illness associated with a given disease

163
Q

Mortality

A

Death caused by a given disease

164
Q

Schema

A

a pattern of thought or behavior that organizes categories of information and the relationships among them

165
Q

Script

A

a series of behaviors, actions, and consequences that are expected in a particular situation or environment.

166
Q

Retrograde vs Anterograde Amnesia

A

Ant - ability to memorize new things is impaired or lost because data does not transfer successfully from the conscious short-term memory into permanent long-term memory

Ret - pre-existing memories are lost to conscious recollection even though they may be able to memorize new things that occur after the onset of amnesia

MCAT (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions