Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a > Psych 2 - Neuroses and Drugs > Flashcards

Psych 2 - Neuroses and Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What personality disorder is associated with generalised anxiety disorder?

A

Avoidant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the ICD-10 diagnostic criteria for anxiety?

A

Excessive anxiety and worry occurring on more days than not for 6 months
Difficult to control
3/6 of: restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many extra features e.g. fatigue is required for diagnosis of anxiety in children?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give three autonomic symptoms of anxiety

A 
Palpitations
Increased heart rate
Sweating
Trembling
Dry mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the differentials for GAD?

A

Panic disorder
Phobia anxiety disorder
OCD
Hypochondrial disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the psychological management of GAD?

A

Low intensity psychological support and self help

CBT/applied relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pharmacological management of GAD?

A

SSRI: sertraline –> SNRI –> pregabalin

Short term: diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is OCD?

A

A non-situational preoccupation in which there is a subjective compulsion despite conscious resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two main features of OCD?

A

Ruminations and rituals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the risk factors for OCD?

A

Childhood trauma
Personality
Genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is insight maintained in OCD?

A

Yes

Patients recognize ruminations and rituals as silly but are unable to stop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give an example of OCD rituals (compulsions)

A

Checking and counting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the management of OCD?

A
  1. CBT and exposure and response prevention (ERP)

2. SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give an example of a traumatic event which might cause someone to have PTSD

A

Natural disasters
Combat
Victims of torture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three categories of symptoms in PTSD?

A

Re-experiencing - flashbacks, nightmares
Avoidance - memory suppression
Hyperarousal - startle response, decreased sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the neurobiology of PTSD?

A

Decreased hippocampal volume (mediates conscious memory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the first line treatment of PTSD?

A

Trauma-focused CBT (TF-CBT) or EMDR - eye movement desensitization and reprocessing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is pharmacological treatment initiated in PTSD?

A

2nd line - venlafaxine or sertraline

THEN, risperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the name of the condition associated with anxiety and panic symptoms experienced in places or situations where escape may be difficult or embarrassing?

A

Agoraphobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment of agoraphobia?

A

CBT and SSRI
Short term - BDZs - diazepam
3rd line - imipramine or clomipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the five subtypes of phobias?

A 
Animals
Aspects of the natural environment
Blood/injection/injury
Situational
Other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are phobias managed?

A

Exposure therapy and anxiety management (CBT and SSRI)

BDZs if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When do patients present with social phobias?

A

5 years
11-15 years
30 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the symptoms of social phobia?

A

Somatic - blushing, trembling, dry mouth, excessive fear of embarrassment
Difficulties in relationships or vocational problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment of social phobias?

A

CBT and SSRI
Group CBT
Atenolol for autonomic arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

A disorder involving multiple episodes of intense fear and discomfort (panic attacks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the characteristics of panic attacks?

A 
Palpitations
Sweating
Trembling
Globus hystericus
Chest/abdo pain
Dizziness
Hyperventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the four theories of panic disorder?

A

Serotoninergic model
Noradrenergic model
GABA model
Lactate model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which sex is more likely to be affected by panic disorder?

A

Female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the possible first line treatments of panic disorder?

A

CBT or self help or SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the second line treatment of panic disorder?

A

Imipramine or clomipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the name of the condition that occurs when an individual is unable to adjust or cope with a stress/major life event?

A

Adjustment disorder/situational depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When must situational depression occur in relation to the timing of the life event?

A

ICD-10 - within 1 month

DSM-IV - within 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the management of adjustment disorder?

A

Psychotherapy
Support groups
Pharmacotherapy if prolonged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is meant by dissociation and conversion?

A

Conversion - a loss or disturbance of normal sensory or motor control
Dissociation - repression of unacceptable conscious impulses converted to physical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the variable presentations of dissociative disorders?

A 
Flaccid paralysis
Aphonia
Dissociative amnesia
Dissociative fugue
Sensory loss
Non-epileptic seizures
Dissociative stupor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a dissociative fugue?

A

Dissociative amnesia and purposeful travel away from home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Hoover’s test?

A

In dissociative paralysis, active movement is impossible, but patient can raise the affected limb against resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How is dissociative disorder diagnosed?

A

Suspect if clinical signs are not anatomical or are inconsistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the management of dissociative disorder?

A

CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Ganser’s syndrome?

A

Giving ridiculous answers to questions

Type of dissociation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is dissociative identity disorder?

A

2 or more personalities exist within the person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What may precipitate dissociation?

A

Physical illness
Negative life events
Relationship conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is hypochondrial disorder?

A

The persistent belief of the presence of one or more serious physical illnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a predisposing factor for hypochondrial disorder?

A

Parental/childhood illness

46
Q

What is the treatment of hypochondrial disorder?

A

Fluoxetine and CBT

47
Q

What is the name of the chronic syndrome of multiple somatic symptoms?

A

Somatization disorder/Briquet’s syndrome/St Louis hysteria

48
Q

What symptoms are required for diagnosis of somatization disorder?

A

2 GI symptoms
4 pain symptoms
1 sexual symptom other than pain
1 pseudoneurological symptom e.g. difficulty swallowing

49
Q

What is somataform pain disorder?

A

Complaint of persistent, severe, and distressing pain, in the absence of physical findings

50
Q

What are the characteristics of pain in somataform pain disorder?

A

Inconsistent anatomically
Continuous throughout the day
Prevents sleep but does not cause wakening

51
Q

What is the treatment of somataform pain disorder?

A

CBT and relaxation
Pain clinics
Anti-Ds and nerve blocks

52
Q

What are the five patterns of drug use?

A 
Experimental
Situational
Recreational
Polydrug use
Dependant use
53
Q

What are the five categories of drugs?

A 
Opiates
Depressants
Stimulants
Hallucinogens
Others - cannabis
54
Q

What is the physiology of heroin?

A

Binds to endorphin receptors

Cortical inhibitory effects

55
Q

What are the effects of heroin use?

A

Diminished pain sensation
Euphoria
Relaxation

56
Q

What are the symptoms of opiate withdrawal?

A

6-24 hours after last dose
Sweating, dilated pupils, piloerection
Diarrhoea, tachycardia, HTN, n+v, cramps

57
Q

What are the symptoms of opiate overdose?

A

Respiratory depression
Pin prick pupils
Loss of consciousness

58
Q

How is opiate overdose reversed?

A

Naloxone

59
Q

What symptomatic medication can be used in opiate withdrawal?

A

Loperamide
Lofexidine (alpha-adrenergic antagonist)
Metoclopramide

60
Q

Give an example of a medication use in opiate detoxification regimes?

A

Methodone

61
Q

What is the biophysiology of benzodiazepines?

A

Enhance GABA transmission

Anxiolytic and euphoriant effects

62
Q

What occurs in BDZ withdrawal?

A

Seizures and delirium

Insomnia, tremor, headache, sweating

63
Q

What are the side effects of BDZ?

A

Decreased concentration
Depression
Forgetfulness

64
Q

How is BDZ withdrawal managed?

A

Diazepam reducing regime

65
Q

What are the effects of stimulants?

A

Increased alertness and endurance
Diminished need for sleep
Sense of wellbeing

66
Q

What are the acute side effects of cocaine use?

A

Arrhythmias, anxiety

Impulsivity and impaired judgement

67
Q

What are the chronic effects of cocaine use?

A

Necrosis of nasal septum
Panic and anxiety disorders
Psychosis

68
Q

What are the symptoms of cocaine withdrawal?

A

Tiredness
Tremor
Depressed moos
Food cravings

69
Q

Name some stimulant drugs

A 
Cocaine
Crack cocaine
Amfetamines
MDMA
Caffeine
70
Q

What are the effects of MDMA use?

A

Serotonin release, hallucinogenic properties
Increased camaraderie
Pleasurable agitation relieved by dancing
Decreased fatigue

71
Q

What are the side effects of MDMA use?

A

Acute - dehydration, sweating, hyperthermia

Chronic - neuro and hepatotoxicity

72
Q

What are the effects of LSD use?

A

Euphoria
Sense of detachment
Sense of novelty and wonder at the familiar and normal

73
Q

Can you overdose on LSD?

A

No

No overdose, dependence, or withdrawal

74
Q

What is the most commonly used illegal drug?

A

Cannabis

75
Q

What is the most important psychoactive canniboid present in cannabis?

A

THC

76
Q

What are the effects of cannabis use?

A 
Mild euphoria
Enhanced wellbeing
Relaxation
Altered time sense
Increased appetite
77
Q

What are the health risks of cannabis use?

A

All the health risks of smoking
Accidents from delayed reaction time
Precipitation of an episode/relapse of schizophrenia

78
Q

What are the aims of substitute prescribing?

A

Enable detoxification from a dependent drug

Acutely reduce or prevent withdrawal symptoms

79
Q

What complicates alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

A

Seizures

80
Q

What are the features of uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal?

A 
Coarse tremor
Sweating
Insomnia
Nausea and vomiting
Hallucinations or illusions
Increased craving for alcohol
81
Q

How long do alcohol withdrawal symptoms last for?

A

2-5 days

82
Q

What type of seizures occur with complicated alcohol withdrawal?

A

Tonic-clonic

83
Q

What is the name of the acute confusional state secondary to alcohol withdrawal?

A

Delirium tremens

84
Q

What are the features of delirium tremens, in addition to features of uncomplicated withdrawal?

A 
Clouding of consciousness and disorientation
Amnesia for recent events
Psychomotor agitation
Hallucinations
Worse at night
85
Q

What is the treatment of delirium tremens?

A

IV Chlordiazepoxide (long acting BDZ)

86
Q

What is the triad of delirium tremens?

A

Acute confusional state
Tremor
Vivid and disturbing perceptual abnormalities

87
Q

What is the cause of Wernicke-Korsakoff psychosis?

A

Neuronal degeneration secondary to thiamine deficiency

88
Q

What is the triad of Wernicke encephalopathy?

A

Acute confusional state
Ocular signs (nystagmus, opthalmoplegia)
Ataxic gait

89
Q

What is the treatment of Wernicke encephalopathy?

A

IV pabrinex (parenteral vitamin B1 replacement)

90
Q

How long does it take for Wernicke encephalopathy to convert to Korsakoff psychosis, if untreated?

A

2 weeks

91
Q

What is the presentation of Korsakoff psychosis?

A

Anterograde and retrograde amnesia
Confabulation
Working memory unaffected

92
Q

What is the treatment of Korsakoff psychosis?

A

Oral thiamine replacement and multi vitamin supplementation for up to 2 years

93
Q

What are the characteristics of dependence syndrome?

A 
Primacy (drug seeking behaviour)
Narrowing of repertoire
Tolerance
Loss of control of consumption
Withdrawal when attempting abstinence
Anticipation of withdrawals
Continued use despite negative consequences
94
Q

What are the alcohol misuse stages of change?

A 
Pre-contemplation
Contemplation
Decision
Action
Maintenance
Relapse
95
Q

How is alcohol dependence assessed?

A

CAGE questions

Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) >8

96
Q

How long should PTSD symptoms be present for in order to diagnose?

A

Longer than 1 month

97
Q

What is the management of delirium tremens?

A

Lorazepam/chlordiazepoxide
Haloperidol 2nd line
Start thiamine

98
Q

What is semantic memory?

A

Refers to knowledge base
Is unrelated to experiences or events
E.g. capital of australia

99
Q

What is Ganser’s syndrome?

A

Approximate but incorrect answers are given to questions

How many legs does a cow have? 5

100
Q

What is an illusion?

A

A misinterpretation of a perception

101
Q

What is an extracampine hallucination?

A

Occurs beyond the usual range of sensation

E.g. hearing someone speak from Finland

102
Q

What is derailment?

A

Disjointed thoughts with no meaningful connections

103
Q

What is logoclonia?

A

Repeating the last syllable of a word unnecessarily

Seen in Parkinson’s

104
Q

What blood test result will be seen in people with alcohol dependence?

A 
Raised MCV (mean corpuscular volume)
Raised gamma GT
Raised carbohydrate deficient transferrin
105
Q

What are the symptoms of pellagra?

A

Diarrhoea
Dermatitis
Depression

106
Q

What is residual schizophrenia?

A

Late stage schizophrenia

Positive symptoms replaced by negative symptoms

107
Q

What causes neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A 
Dopamine blockade in:
The hypothalamus (pyrexia)
Skeletal muscles (stiffness)
Nigrostriatal pathway (tremor and rigidity)
108
Q

What is a risk of skeletal muscle breakdown in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Exacerbates stiffness

Rhabdomyolysis and renal failure

109
Q

What are the pros and cons of aripiprazole?

A

Fewer side effects in terms of weight gain and increased prolactin production
Nausea and insomnia

110
Q

What is used for rapid tranquilization?

A

IM lorazepam

111
Q

Define neurosis

A

An inappropriate emotional or behavioural response to a perceived stressor

112
Q

What is a conversion disorder?

A

Manifestation of psychological illness as neurologic pathology

Weakness, numbness, blindness, paralysis as a result of underlying psychiatric illness

Not bothered by symptoms - la belle indifference

Phase 3a (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions