Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a > Obstetrics 2 - Pregnancy Problems 1 > Flashcards

Obstetrics 2 - Pregnancy Problems 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define malpresentation

A

Any presentation other than a vertex lying in close proximity to the internal os of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give three causes of malpresentation

A 
Multiparity
Prematurity
Multiple pregnancy
Macrosomia
Polyhydramnios
Placenta praevia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is brow presentation?

A

Head occupies a position between full flexion (vertex) and full extension (face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the management of brow presentation?

A

Diagnosis via VE
May revert to face/vertex
Vaginal delivery not possible - CS if it persists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What causes face presentation?

A

Hyperextension of the foetal neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two types of face presentation?

A

Mentoanterior and mentoposterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the management of face presentation?

A

Mentoposterior - CS

Mentoanterior - head can flex to allow vaginal birth, if not then CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is cord/funic presentation?

A

One or more loops of cord lie below the presenting part with membranes still intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What indicates cord presentation on the CTG?

A

Persistent variable decelerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is contraindicated in cord presentation and why?

A

Artificial rupture of membranes will cause cord prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is abnormal lie?

A

The axis of the foetus is across the axis of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is unstable lie?

A

Lie changes several times a day, variable presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the causes of abnormal lie?

A

Multiparity, multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnios, placenta praevia, fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the risks of abnormal lie?

A

Obstructed labour

Uterine rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the management of abnormal lie?

A

Unstable lie - CS at 41 weeks
Stable abnormal lie - CS at 39w
May revert - common before term but only 1% foetus after 37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is breech presentation?

A

Baby’s buttocks lie over the maternal pelvis and head is in the fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give three causes of breech presentation

A 
Idiopathic
Preterm delivery
Previous history of breech delivery
Fibroids
Placenta praevia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three types of breech presentation?

A

Extended, flexed, footling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the management of breech presentation?

A 
External cephalic version
Caesarian section (esp. if footling)
Vaginal birth (without oxytocin) only if foetal weight <4kg, no foetal compromise, extended breech, spontaneous labour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the name of the condition where the placenta is inserted into the lower segment of the uterus?

A

Placenta praevia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does placenta praevia present?

A

10% asymptomatic
70% painless APH
20% APH associated with contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the risk factors for placenta praevia?

A

Previous PP
Increased maternal age
Multiparity/multiple pregnancy
CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What grade of placenta praevia is a placenta that partially covers the internal cervical os?

A

Partial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between minor (marginal) (grade I or II) and major (grade III or IV) placenta praevia?

A

Minor - placenta lies close to cervical os

Major - placenta completely covers the cervical os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is placenta praevia diagnosed?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the management of placenta praevia diagnosed in the 2nd trimester?

A

Repeat ultrasound at 30-32 weeks as PP can resolve with development of the lower uterine segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the management of a patient with a major placenta praevia, who is experiencing some bleeding?

A

Admit from 34 weeks and determine foetal lung maturity with amniocentesis
CS if lungs are mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What occurs when the placenta completely separates from the uterus before delivery of the foetus?

A

Placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does placental abruption present?

A 
Severe constant abdominal pain
Woody tender uterus
50% in labour
Dark bleeding
Maternal shock and hypovolaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the risk factors for placental abruption?

A 
Maternal hypertension
Previous abruption
IVF pregnancy
Short umbilical cord
Polyhydramnios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why may the extent of bleeding in placental abruption be greater than apparent loss?

A

Concealed haemorrhage (20%) - blood goes upwards towards the fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the management of placental abruption?

A

AB: high flow oxygen

C: IV access, FBC, coagulation screen, U&E, Kleihauer test, Crossmatch 4 units. Left lateral position. Until blood is available: 2L warmed crystalloid Hartmann’s or 1-2L colloid. Up to 4 units FFP and 10 units cryoprecipitate

D: Alive foetus: Caesarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the most common cause of DIC in pregnancy?

A

Placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the main complication of placental abruption?

A

Foetal hypoxia/neurological impairment and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define retained placenta.

A

Placenta not delivered within 30 minutes of active management or 1 hour of physiological management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are three causes of retained placenta?

A

Trapped behind closed cervix, placenta adherens, partial placenta accreta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the management of retained placenta?

A

Revert to active management
Empty bladder
Rub uterus and VE to see if placenta has detached
Manual removal followed by IV and IM ergometrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What indicates placental separation in the third stage of labour?

A

Sudden rush of blood, fundus moves higher and becomes more rounded, increased length of cord visible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Name three placental conditions which increase the likelihood of retained placenta.

A

Succenturiate lobe, bipartite placenta, placenta membranacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Chorionic villi are attached to the myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is placenta increta?

A

Chorionic villa have invaded the myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is placenta percreta?

A

Chorionic villi pass through the myometrium up to the serosa/peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Nitabuch’s layer?

A

Fibrinoid deposits that occur between the compact and spongy layer of decidua basalis. Incomplete development in placenta accreta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the management of severe haemorrhage in a woman with placenta accreta?

A

ABCDE. Replace blood, tamponade with balloon, hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the management of minimal haemorrhage in a woman with placenta accreta?

A

Uterine artery embolization, elective hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define primary postpartum haemorrhage

A

Blood loss >500ml from the genital tract within 24 of delivery (or >1000ml after CS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define secondary post-partum haemorrhage

A

“excessive blood loss” between 24h and 12w after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common cause of PPH?

A

Uterine atony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Apart from uterine atony, give three causes of PPH

A 
Genital tract trauma
Retained placenta
Abnormal placenta site
Uterine inversion/rupture
DIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are three risk factors for uterine atony?

A

Vitamin D deficiency
Prolonged labour
Overdistension of the uterus - multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnios, macrosomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the most likely cause of secondary PPH?

A

Disruption of placental site scab/placenta fragments

Subinvolution of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is uterine atony?

A

Failure of the uterus to contract after placental separation, allowing bleeding to occur from myometrial spiral arterioles and decidual veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What peptide is released in uterine atony to cause uterine relaxation?

A

Parathyroid hormone-related peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do you prevent PPH?

A

Vaginal delivery: 5-10IU IM oxytocin
Caesarian: IV oxytocin for 6h
Inspect vagina and perineum for lacerations
Assess placenta for missing cotyledons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the treatment of PPH?

A

Resuscitation with ABCDE approach. 2x14 gauge cannulae, cross match 4 units, blood transfusion (2L warmed crystalloid Hartmann’s +/- 1-2L colloid whilst waiting)

If uterine atony, the following in order:
Bimanual uterine compression
Slow IV Oxytocin 5IU
Slow IV or IM ergometrine 0.5mg
IM carboprost 0.25mg (repeat up to 8 doses)
PR misoprostol
Balloon tamponade/B-lynch suture/bilateral ligation of uterine or internal iliac arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why might a woman choose home birth?

A

Familiar setting
Fear of hospitals
More family members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the risks of home birth?

A

If a complication arises, transfer to hospital is advisable but may be delayed, which can lead to intrapartum foetal hypoxia or PPH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is an anomaly scan?

A

Detailed ultrasound scan at 20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Define antepartum haemorrhage

A

Bleeding from the genital tract <24 weeks, before the onset of labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the main cause of antepartum haemorrhage?

A

97% unexplained, usually minor placental abruption

Other - PP, infection, trauma, varicosities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

True or false, APH is painless

A

False - can be painful or painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the management of APH?

A

Estimate amount of blood loss and combine with signs of clinical shock
Resuscitation if necessary
If rhesus negative give 500IU anti-D Ig
Determine local causes of bleeding/if membranes have ruptured with VE
Exclude placenta praevia with TVUSS
Mother’s life should take priority but foetal distress = delivery regardless of gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why do pregnant women experience more constipation and heartburn?

A

Increased progesterone levels causes the relaxation of the gastro-oesophageal sphincter and bowel smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the cause of backache in pregnancy?

A

Hormonal softening of ligaments and altered posture due to weight of uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How is maternal blood pressure affected by pregnancy?

A

BP decreases in early pregnancy due to decreased vascular resistance
By 24 weeks, BP increases because of increased stroke volume

66
Q

What is important to exclude in a pregnant woman with a rash?

A

Obstetric cholestasis

67
Q

Why do pregnant women experience urinary frequency in the first trimester?

A

Increased GFR and uterus pressing on bladder

68
Q

What causes increased vaginal discharge (white/clear) in pregnancy?

A

Increased blood flow to the vagina and cervix

69
Q

What is important to be excluded in a pregnant woman with vaginal discharge?

A 
Ruptured membranes (would be watery)
STI/candidiasis (increased chance of PROM and preterm birth)
70
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A

New onset hypertension in pregnancy

71
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia?

A

BP>140/90
>300mg proteinuria over 24h collection
If already hypertensive, then rise of 30/15 (either/or)

72
Q

What are three risk factors for pre-eclampsia?

A 
Previous severe or early onset PREC
Extremes of maternal age
FH
Obesity
Primiparity
Pre-existing HTN/DM/renal disease
73
Q

What is the clinical presentation of pre-eclampsia?

A

Frontal headache, visual disturbance, facial oedema, RUQ pain, nausea, vomiting

74
Q

What would the biochemistry be of a newly diagnosed pre-eclamptic lady?

A

Prolonged PT and APTT
Increased urate, urea, creatinine, transaminases, LDH
Haemoconcentration, thrombocytopenia, anaemia

75
Q

How do you prevent pre-eclampsia in subsequent pregnancies?

A

Lose dose aspirin (75mg OD PO) from 12 weeks

76
Q

What investigation is predictive of early onset or severe pre-eclampsia?

A

Uterine artery dopplers

77
Q

Detail the monitoring of a mild pre-eclamptic lady.

A

Monitor BP four times a day

Twice weekly bloods for FBC, electrolytes, renal function, and LFTs

78
Q

What are indications for immediate delivery in a pre-eclamptic lady?

A

Worsening liver/renal function, severe maternal symptoms, foetal distress, HELLP syndrome, eclampsia

79
Q

At what point would you initiate anti-hypertensive medication in pre-eclampsia?

A

BP>160/110 (either/or)

80
Q

What medication would you prescribe in severe pre-eclampsia?

A

IV or PO labetalol
IV hydralazine
PO nifedipine
IM betamethasone if 24-34 weeks and delivery suspected within 7 days

81
Q

What are the complications of pre-eclampsia?

A 
DIC
Eclampsia
HELLP syndrome
Cerebral haemorrhage
Renal failure
Placental abruption
82
Q

What are the components of HELLP syndrome?

A

Haemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

83
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

The presence of new-onset grand mal seizures in a woman with pre-eclampsia

84
Q

What are the risk factor for development of eclampsia?

A

Very severe pre-eclampsia, large placenta, HTN/DM, extremes of age, twins

85
Q

When can seizures occur in eclampsia?

A

Antenatally, intrapartum, and postpartum

86
Q

What other cerebral signs may be present in eclampsia?

A

Nausea
Vomiting
Headaches
Cortical blindness and other visual disturbance

87
Q

What are the complications of eclampsia?

A

Foetal bradycardia
IUGR
Pulmonary oedema/aspiration
HELLP syndrome

88
Q

Detail pharmacological stabilization of a eclamptic seizure.

A

IV magnesium sulfate: 4g loading dose, then maintenance dose of 1g/hour for 24h after the last seizure

89
Q

What are signs of magnesium toxicity and how would you treat this?

A

Decreased tendon reflexes, respiratory depression

Calcium gluconate

90
Q

How is eclampsia completely resolved?

A

Delivery once hypoxia is corrected, seizures are controlled, and BP is reduced to x/90-100

91
Q

What is a risk factor for fraternal/dizygotic twins?

A

Assisted reproduction - clomiphene, IVF

92
Q

At what point has a DCDA embryo cleaved?

A

0-72 hours

93
Q

Cleavage of an embryo at 4-8 days produces what kind of twins?

A

MCDA

94
Q

MCMA twins cleave at 9-12 days. What is a complication of this pregnancy?

A

Cord entanglement

95
Q

How is multiple pregnancy diagnosed?

A

2 foetal heart rates
Hypermesis gravidarum
Large uterus for dates
3+ foetal poles palpable >24 weeks

96
Q

When is multiple pregnancy most commonly diagnosed?

A

1st trimester

97
Q

What are three intrapartum risks of multiple pregnancy?

A

Malpresentation
Foetal distress of 2nd twin
TTTS
Cord entanglement if MCMA

98
Q

Detail the monitoring in a multiple pregnancy

A

Detailed anomaly scan
Serial growth scans at 28, 32, 36 weeks
Establish presentation of leading twin by 34w
More intensive surveillance if MCMA or higher multiples

99
Q

What are three foetal risks of multiple pregnancy?

A

Neural tube defects/cerebral palsy
IUGR
Preterm labour
Stillbirth

100
Q

What are three maternal risks of multiple pregnancy?

A 
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Pre-eclampsia
Anaemia
APH/PPH
Operative delivery
Gestational diabetes
101
Q

What is the pathophysiology of twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome?

A

Presence of unbalanced anastomoses in placenta

Redistribution of foetal blood

102
Q

What is the clinical presentation of the recipient twin in TTTS?

A 
Polycythaemia
Hypervolaemia
Cardiomegaly
Polyhydramnios
Foetal hydrops
Hypertension
103
Q

What is the clinical presentation of the donor twin in TTTS?

A

Anaemia
Hypovolaemia
Oligohydramnios
IUGR

104
Q

How is TTTS diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound - small twin and large twin

105
Q

What is the main treatment of TTTS?

A

Laser ablation of the placental anastomoses

Serial amnioreduction for symptomatic relief

106
Q

What is round ligament pain?

A

Bilateral pain from stretching of the round ligaments
Aggravated by movement
Radiates to groin
1st and 2nd trimester

107
Q

What occurs to uterine fibroids if present during the 12-22nd week of pregnancy?

A

Red degeneration - constant pain localised to fibroid due to increasing size

108
Q

How is red degeneration of fibroids diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound to identify fibroids

FBC - leucocytosis

109
Q

When is surgical termination of pregnancy (TOP) appropriate?

A

Any gestation

110
Q

What must occur before surgical TOP?

A

Cervical preparation with PV/SL 400mcg misoprostol

111
Q

What are the methods of surgical TOP?

A

<14w: vacuum aspiration

14-24w: dilatation and evacuation

112
Q

What are the complications of TOP?

A 
Bleeding
Genital tract infection
Uterine perforation if surgical
Failed TOP
Retained products of conception
113
Q

What is miscarriage?

A

The expulsion or removal of a pregnancy at a stage when it is incapable of independent survival
Includes all losses before 24 weeks, majority are before 12 weeks

114
Q

What is a common cause of miscarriage?

A

Abnormal foetal development

Placental failure

115
Q

What is the most common presentation of miscarriage?

A

PV bleed, severe pain
Products of conception may be seen
Shock

116
Q

How is miscarriage diagnosed?

A

TVUSS Serum hCG

Presence of cardiac activity AND CRL>7mm or gestational sac >25mm

117
Q

What are the signs of threatened miscarriage?

A

Bleeding and abdo pain, closed cervix

118
Q

What are the signs of incomplete miscarriage?

A

Bleeding, POC, pain, open cervix

119
Q

What are the signs of inevitable miscarriage?

A

Bleeding, pain, open cervix

120
Q

What are the signs of complete miscarriage?

A

Bleeding and pain cease, closed cervix

121
Q

What are the signs of missed miscarriage?

A

Bleeding, pain, closed cervix

122
Q

When is anti-D given in miscarriage?

A

Surgical management of a miscarriage over 12 weeks

123
Q

Which types of miscarriage require surgical or expectant management?

A

Incomplete, missed

124
Q

What is surgical management of miscarriage?

A

Manual vacuum aspiration under LA, or

ERPC - evacuation of retained products of conception under GA

125
Q

When is expectant management of miscarriage appropriate?

A

Minimal bleeding, ruptured sac

126
Q

What is medical management of miscarriage?

A

PV misoprostol

Expect <3w bleeding is reasonable

127
Q

Give three causes of recurrent miscarriage

A 
Fibroids
Anti-phospholipid syndrome
Foetal chromosomal abnormalities
Cervical weakness
Thrombophilia
128
Q

How is recurrent miscarriage investigated?

A 
Parental blood for karyotyping
Cytogenic analysis of POC
Pelvic US
Thrombophilia screening
LA or aCL antibodies
129
Q

What is the treatment of anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

Aspirin and heparin

130
Q

What level of fasting venous plasma glucose is required for a diagnosis of diabetes?

A

> 7.0mmol/L

131
Q

Which trimester does diabetes usually occur in pregnancy?

A

2nd

132
Q

Detail the initial management of a woman with PPH

A

ABC
Uterine massage
Syntocinon/ergometrine/carboprost

133
Q

Chorioamnionitis is suspected in women with PPROM and what triad?

A

Maternal pyrexia
Maternal tachycardia
Foetal tachycardia

134
Q

What is the management of chorioamnionitis?

A

IV antibiotics and immediate Caesarian section

135
Q

In what situations are oxytocin and prostaglandin contraindicated?

A

Foetal distress/bradycardia

136
Q

In what situation is the MMR vaccine given in the first trimester?

A

If the mother is non-immune

137
Q

Which is the most dangerous type of breech presentation?

A

Footling

5-20% risk of prolapse

138
Q

What are the two types of emergency contraception?

A

Ella One (ulipristal acetate) - within 120 hours of UPSI
Levonelle - within 72 hours of UPSI
IUD - within 120 hours

139
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for a baby to develop group B strep infection?

A

Mother had a previous baby with GBS growth

140
Q

What is the management of a woman with previous baby with Group B Strep growth?

A

Intrapartum antibiotics

141
Q

What are the risks of a type 1 diabetic woman with premature labour?

A

Corticosteroids can cause hyperglycaemia, but they are not contraindicated

142
Q

Which drug inhibits prolactin production in breastfeeding cessation?

A

Cabergoline (dopamine receptor agonist)

143
Q

What secretes HCG?

A

Syncytiotrophoblasts

144
Q

When is HCG detecting in maternal blood?

A

Day 8 after fertilisation

145
Q

When is ECV offered to woman with breech presentation?

A

Nulliparous - 36 weeks

Multiparous - 37 weeks

146
Q

What is seen on TVUSS in ectopic pregnancy?

A

Empty uterus

Free fluid in adnexae/pouch of douglas

147
Q

What is the best management of a patient with threatened miscarriage?

A

Watchful waiting

148
Q

In what condition are brisk tendon reflexes seen?

A

Pre-eclampsia

149
Q

Where is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Ampulla of fallopian tube

150
Q

When should an ultrasound be requested if lochia is persisting?

A

After 6 weeks

151
Q

What is the most common cause of severe early onset (before 7 days) infection in neonates?

A

Group B strep sepsis

152
Q

What is false labour?

A

Braxton-Hicks contractions
Lower abdo pain in last 4 weeks of pregnancy
Irregular

153
Q

A pregnant lady has come into close contact with a child with chickenpox, and is not sure if she has had chickenpox before. What is the management?

A

Check for non-immunity - VZV antibodies
Give VZIG within 10 days of the exposure
Give acyclovir if rash begins
Varicella vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy as it is a live vaccine

154
Q

Which type of ectopic pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of rupture?

A

Isthmus

155
Q

What is first line antibiotic for mastitis?

A

Flucloxacillin

156
Q

When are antibiotics indicated in mastitis?

A

Systemically unwell
Milk culture positive
Nipple fissure
Symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of milk removal

157
Q

When is expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy contraindicated?

A 
Abdominal pain
bHCG>200IU
Rupture
Cardiac activity
Foetal pole>30mm
158
Q

What is Asherman’s syndrome?

A

Intrauterine adhesions
Commonly after dilatation and curettage after miscarriage
Causes amenorrhoea

159
Q

What are the contraindications of ergometrine and carboprost?

A

Erg: hypertension
Carb: Asthma

160
Q

How is APH classified?

A

Minor: blood loss<50ml and stopped
Major: 50-1000ml, no shock
Massive: >1000ml and/or shock

161
Q

Define uterine hyperstimulation.

A

A series of single uterine contractions lasting 2 minutes or more, or a contraction frequency of five or more in 10 minutes.

162
Q

What is the medical method of TOP?

A

200mg PO mifepristone followed by misoprostol 24-48h later

Phase 3a (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions