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Psych 2 Flashcards

0
Q

What happens to the central reward pathway in the case of addiction?

A

Elevated dopamine levels -> downregulation of D2 receptors

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1
Q

What is the Central Reward Pathway?

A

Ventral Tegmental -> Nucleus Acumbens and PFC

Dopamine = Reward

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2
Q

What constitutes substance abuse?

A

1 of the following w/o meeting criteria for subs. dependence:

  1. Recurrent use -> failure to meet obligations
  2. Recurrent use in situations where physically hazardous
  3. Recurrent substance related legal problems
  4. Continued used despite persistent social/ personal problems caused or exacerbated by use of the substance.
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3
Q

What constitutes substance dependence?

A

3 or more of the following:

  1. Tolerance
  2. Withdrawal
  3. Substance taken in larger amounts or over longer period of time than intended
  4. Persistend desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down or control use
  5. Great deal of time spent obtaining, using, recovering
  6. Important activities given up / reduced due to use
  7. Continued use despite knowlege of persistent physical/ psychological problem likely caused by substance.
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4
Q

Do substance dependent people always have a physiological dependence?

A

No.

Tolerance / Withdrawal not necessary for dependence.

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5
Q

polysubstance dependence

A

Use of substances from 3 categories (not niccotine and caffeine) - as a group meet criteria for dependence for >12 mos

Eliminated in DSM V

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6
Q

What effect does alcohol use have on life expectancy?

A

Reduces by 10 years

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7
Q

What constitutes moderate, at risk, and heavy drinking for males and females?

A

Moderate: Male: </= 1 drink / day
At risk: Male: 4 drinks / day or 14 drinks / week
Female: 3 drinks / day or 7 drinks / week
Heavy: Male: 5 drinks / day or 15 drinks / week
Female: 4 drinks / day or 8 drinks / week

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8
Q

What is a “drink”?

A

1 12 oz. beer
1 5 oz. glass of wine
1.5 oz. 80 proof booze

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9
Q

What is a blackout and what is it associated with?

A

Impairment of short term memory (w/ alcohol use) in with otherwise normal intellectual and cognitive ability

Associated w/ early onset drinking, high peak BAC, head trauma, sedative hypnotic use.

Not predictive of long-term impairment.

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10
Q

CAGE and scoring

A
  1. Cut down
  2. Annoyed by other criticizing subs. use
  3. Guilt
  4. Eye-opener

2+ or yes to “eye-opener” suggestive of abuse
4 is almost diagnostic of dependence

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11
Q

ETOH withdrawal timeline

A

6-8 hrs: tremors
8-12: perceptual disturbances
12-24: seizures
72: Delerium Tremens

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12
Q

What is the cause of death in Delerium Tremens?

A

Cardiovascular collapse, hypothermia

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13
Q

How is Delerium Tremens treated?

A

Prevention of alcohol withdrawal

-Benzodiazapnes

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14
Q

What is the underlying cause of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

Alcohol related Thiamine deficiency

20% mortality

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15
Q

What is the difference between Delerium Tremens and Alcohol Induced Psychotic Disorder?

A

Alcohol Induced Psychosis - clear sensorium (usually associated w/ chronic alcohol use and intox or withdrawal)

  • patients alert, oriented, able to pay attention
  • psychosis: delusion, hallucination, disorganization

Delerium: includes disturbance of consciousness - reduced awareness of surroundings - and change in cognition

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16
Q

What is the first stage of ETOH liver disease?

A

Steatosis
can occur w/ a few days of heavy drinking
reversible

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17
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

Liver fibrosis

symptoms: general weakness, fatigue, anorexia, increased bleeding

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18
Q

What is the most common cause for hospitalization due to ETOH related medical condition?

A

Acute Pancreatitis - can lead to pancreatic insufficiency and pancreatic cancer

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19
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss syndrome?

A

Tear at gastroesophageal junction secondary to vomiting

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20
Q

What is the leading cause of nonischemic dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Prolonged excessive drinking

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21
Q

What cancers are associated with ETOH use?

A

oral, esophageal, laryngeal, stomach, colorectal, breast

-most associated w/ ETOH going down.

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22
Q

What changes in lab values are seen with alcohol use?

A

Elevated AST and ALT (esp. ratio - should be ~2)
elevated GGT
elevated MCV - macrocytic anemia due to folate def.
elevated CDT (carbohydrate deficient transferin)
elevated uric acid
elevated TG

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23
Q

What concern does elevated GGT raise?

A

associated with recent heavy drinking. concern for withdrawal

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24
Q

How is ETOH overdose treated?

A

Medical stabilization
IV fluid
Cardiovascular support

** no antidote **

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25
Q

What drugs can be used to treate ETOH withdrawal?

A

Benzodiazapines

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26
Q

What is CIWA?

A

Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment

Useful in determining wether or not to include pharm in ETOH treatment.

Score <10 - drugs not indicated for use

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27
Q

2 Benzos used to treat alcohol withdrawal - pros and cons of each

A

Lorazepam: good for pts. w/ liver disease - minimal hepatic metabolism. Admin oral, SL, IM, IV
con: short half life -> frequent admin

Chlordiazepoxide: pro: longer half-life -> self-taper
con: long half-life -> liver disease. Oral only.

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28
Q

Whats the danger of ETOH withdrawal?

A

Autonomic instability
Seizure
repeat withdrawal -> cognitive decline and increased severity of future withdrawal

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29
Q

What characterizes alcohol withdrawal seizures?

A

Generalized Tonic-Clonic
predisposition: hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, epilepsy, previous hist. of withdrawal
manage w/ benzos. Antiepileptics may also be used.

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30
Q

Disulfram

A

Antabuse
Inhibits Aldehyde DH -> toxic accumulation of acetaldehyde -> flushing, N/V

Adherence problem
May be no more effective than placebo

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31
Q

Naltrexone

A

Opioid antagonist
ETOH -> endogenous opioid release : affects subjective experience of alcohol use, reduces craving

Also used to treat opioid intoxication and OD

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32
Q

Acamprosate

A

works on glutamate and GABA to “normalize” neurotransmitter system. Modulates hyperexcitability during ETOH withdrawal.

excreted by the kidney

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33
Q

What makes heroin a drug of abuse?

A

High lipid solubility - crosses BBB for rapid high

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34
Q

Opiate withdrawal timeline

A

w/in 6-8 hours after last dose
Peaks in 2-3 days
Subsides in 7-10 days

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35
Q

clinical triad for opioid OD

A

CPR

Coma, Pinpoint Pupils, Respiratory Depression

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36
Q

Naloxone

A

Opioid antagonist
Used in OD setting
May precipitate withdrawal
Medican support: IV fluid, CV and respiratory support.

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37
Q

What meds can be used to treat opiate withdrawal symptoms?

A

Ibuprofen: pain
Dicyclomine: diarrhea, stomach cramping
Clonidine: (a2 agonist) autonomic changes, sweating, restlessness, insomnia

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38
Q

Suboxone

A

Treatment for opioid dependence
Combiniation of buprenorphine and naloxone
Naloxone: prevents abuse via IV injection.

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39
Q

What is the value of replacement therapy in opioid addiction?

A

Minimizes euphoria
Reduces crime
Reduces HIV spread

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40
Q

Who can dispense methadone and buprenorphine?

A

Methadone: government only
Buprenorphine: individual physicians with certification

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41
Q

Symptoms of SHA intoxication

A

SHA: Sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic (benzo, barb, anti-psych)
Behavioral: Disinhibition, Impaired judgement/ attention/ memory, mood lability
Physical: Gait abnormality, Incoordination, Nystagmus, Slurred speech

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42
Q

SHA withdrawal symptoms

A

Behavioral: rebound anxiety, illusions, hallucinations, agitation
Physical: autonomic hyperactivity, coarse tremor, Insomnia, N/V, grand-mal seizure

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43
Q

What is a benzodiazepine antagonist?

A

Flumazenil

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44
Q

How is barbiturate OD treated? Symptoms?

A

No antidote. Treat w/ medical support, gastric lavage, charcoal.

Symptoms: CV collapse, coma, resp. dep.

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45
Q

Medicinal properties of canabis

A 
Analgesia
Anticonvulsant
Anti-nausea
Appetite stimulant
Decreased occular pressure (Narrow Angle Glaucoma)
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46
Q

How long after use can cannabis be detected in the urine?

A

One month

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47
Q

What class of neurons do hallucinogenic drugs work on?

A

Serotonergic

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48
Q

Do hallucinogens induce tolerance?

A

Yes - rapidly. Tolerance w/in 4 days if continual use

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49
Q

How is hallucinogen intoxication treated?

A

Calm environment

Benzodiazepines or antipsychotics may be used.

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50
Q

What is Hallucinogenic Persisting Perceptual Disorder?

A

Flashback - triggered by stress, sensory deprivation, other substances
Re-experiencing, after cessation of hallucinogen use, one or more of the following:
geometric hallucination
false perception of movement in peripheral vision
false flashes or intensified color perception
Halos
Macropsia / Micropsia

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51
Q

2 dissociative drugs. What is a disociative drug?

A

Ketamine
Phencycladine (PCP)
Also Dextromethorphan at high doses

Produces distorted perceptions of sight and sound (non-hallucinatory) and feelings of detachment from self

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52
Q

What is the mechanism of dissociative drugs?

A

Alter glutamate transmission by action at NMDA receptors

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53
Q

What is treatment for dissociative intoxication?

A

Calm environment

Benzodiazepines, antipsychotics

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54
Q

What is adderal composed of?

A

dextroamphetamine - amphetimine salt

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55
Q

What is Ritalin?

A

Methylphenidate

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56
Q

What age group is most likely to abuse stimulant drugs?

A

18-25 yrs

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57
Q

What efect does MDMA have?

A

Releases catecholamines as well as serotonin

Serotonin -> hallucinations

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58
Q

Physical symptoms of amphetimine intoxication

A

Arrhythmia, BP (high or low), Chest pain, chills, coma, brady- or tachycardia, weakness, N/V

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59
Q

Timeline for amphetamine withdrawal

A

peaks in 2-4 days, resolves in ~1wk

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60
Q

Symptoms of amphetimine withdrawal

A

Anxiety, Depression, Suicidality, Fatigue, Increased appetite, hyper- or insomnia, nightmares

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61
Q

Treatment for amphetamine abuse

A 
Abstainance is main goal
Antipsychotics - perceptual disturbances / paranoia
Benzodiazepine - anxiety, agitation
Antidepressants - depressive symptoms
No specific medications indicated
Motiational Educational Treatment (MET)
CBT
12 step
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62
Q

How does cocaine work?

A

Blocks monoamine reuptake
Specifically blocks NET
Blocks reuptake of NE, EPI, Dopamine, and Serotonin

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63
Q

What substance of abuse is most associated with seizures?

A

Cocaine

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64
Q

What illnesses can sexual dysfunction be an indicator of?

A 
In general - deteriorating health.
Diabetes Melitus - ED
Cardiovascular disease - ED
Hypothyroidism - loss of libido
Neurologic disease - Impaired function
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65
Q

What are the parts of the sexual response cycle?

A

Desire
Excitement
Orgasm
Resolution

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66
Q

What effect does depression hae on sexual function?

A

Loss of libido (31-77% of cases of depression)

Loss of function

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67
Q

What is the long - term effect of alcohol on sexual function?

A

Impotence
Testicular Atrophy
HSDD in women

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68
Q

What are the acute and chronic effects of amphetamine on sexual function?

A

Acute: intensified orgasm, prolonged coitus
Chronic: inhibited sexual activity

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69
Q

What are the acute and chronic effects of cocaine on sexual function?

A

acute: increased libido, priapism (rare)
chronic: impotence

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70
Q

What are the effects of ecstasy on sexual function?

A

Increased desire
Erectile failure
Orgasmic delay

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71
Q

What medications are associated with impaired sexual function?

A 
Antidepressant
Antipsychotic
Cardiovascular / HTN 
Seizure
Cancer
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72
Q

Is sexual dysfunction more prevalent in men or women?

A

Women

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73
Q

4 categories of sexual dysfunction disorder

A 
Disorders of :
Sexual desire
Sexual arousal
Orgasmic
Sexual pain
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74
Q

What is HSDD?

A

Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
Persistent or recurently deficient sexual fantasies
-As judged by CLINICIAN based on age, function, context of person’s life

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75
Q

2 disorders of sexual arousal

A

Female sexual arousal disorder: inability to attain / maintain adequate lubrication - swelling response

Male erectile disorder: inability to attain / maintain adequate tuna spear

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76
Q

What are some orgasm disorders?

A

Female orgasmic disorder: delay or absence of orgasm w/ normal excitement phase
-wide variability of type / intensity of stimulation -> orgasm for women. Disorder judged by clinician.

Male orgasmic disorder: delay / absence of orgasm after normal excitement phase.

Premature ejaculation: ejaculation before, on, or shortly after penetration and before desired.
-judged by clinician.

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77
Q

Paraphilia definition

A

Love beyond the usual
Disorder: action on or significant distress / impairment from recurrent, intense sexual urges, fantasies or behaviors involving an unusual object, activity or situation

duration of at least 6 mos.

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78
Q

What is fetishism?

A

intense sexual urge/ behavior involving inanimate objects

not limited to female garments (x-dressing) or toys

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79
Q

What is Frotteurism?

A

Intense / recurrent sexual urge / behavior involving touching / rubbing against non-consenting individual

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80
Q

Conditions to be met for pedophilia?

A

intense, recurrent desire or actual sexual activity with prepubescent child / children (usually <13)

  • person at least 16 and 5years older than child
  • not adolescent in ongoing sexual relationship with 12+ yr old.
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81
Q

Transvestic fetishism

A

Intense recurrent… heterosexual male crosdressing

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82
Q

How are sexual disorders and paraphilias treated?

A

psychotherapy is mainstay

Sex therapy and CBT for SD
Behavioral techniques (squeeze, stop-start) for some dysfunctions

Promotion of healthy lifestyle: stop smoking, diet, exercise, substance abuse treatment

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83
Q

What are risks of hormone use in treating HSDD?

A

hirsutism
deepening of voice
clitoris enlargement
poss. breast cancer

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84
Q

When is hormone treatment warranted in men?

A

hypogonadism and low T

- goal: restore physiologic level

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85
Q

Drugs for male erectile disorder

A

PDE-5 inhibitor: prolongs action of cGMP in smooth muscle: sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil

Alprostadil: PGE1: intraurethral injection
Papaverine: PGE1: intracorporeal injection

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86
Q

What drugs may be used for premature ejaculation?

A

Serotonergic antidepressants:
Fluoxetine
Clomipramine
Sertraline
Paroxetine
(Fucking Cock Spurts Prematurely take Serotonergic Antidepressant)
-nothing expressly approved for this application, but well tolerated.

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87
Q

Drugs used to treat paraphilias?

A

SSRI and clomipramine
Antipsychotics (rare)
Antiandrogen

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88
Q

What two processes are balanced in sleep?

A

Process S: homeostatic process
Process C: circadian arousal process

REM is independent of these

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89
Q

Transient and Chronic Insomnia

A

Transient Insomnia: over several days, short term: associated with stress, excitement, anticipation, illness, altitude, time changes

Chronic Insomnia: Multiple likely causes, but not understood.

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90
Q

6 screening criteria when investigating insomnia

A
  1. poss. medical disorder
  2. poss. psych. disorder (anxiety, panic)
  3. sedative /hypnotic, drug use?
  4. normal sleep at wrong time?
  5. Legs: kick or uncomfortable at night: periodic leg movement, restless leg syndrome
  6. Response to treatment for conditioned or primary insomnia? Yes: treat for insomnia
    No: refer to sleep center
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91
Q

Primary insomnia criteria

A

Difficulty attaining or maintaining sleep or non-restorative sleep for 1 month

  • distress…
  • does not occur exclusively during course of narcolepsy, breathing-related sleep disorder,parasomnia, etc.
  • does not occur during course of other psych disorder
  • not due to drug
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92
Q

Treatments for chronic insomnia

A

Sleep hygiene
Behavioral therapy
Benzo
Non-benzo

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93
Q

What is meant by sleep hygiene?

A 
Regular Sleep time
Proper sleep environment
Wind-down time
Stimulation control
Avoidance of poorly timed alcohol / caffeine consumption
Have late-night high-tryptophan snack
Regular exercise
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94
Q

What behavioral therapies can be used to treat chronic insomnia?

A

CBT
Biofeedback
Sleep restriction (alone or as part of CBT, especially for elderly)

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95
Q

What benzodiazepines are useful in treating insomnia?

A 
Triazolam
Temazepam
Estazolam
Quazepam
Flurazepam
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96
Q

What non-benzodiazepines are useful in treating insomnia?

A 
Zolpidem
Zaleplon
Zolpidem ER
Eszopiclone
Ramelteon
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97
Q

Narcolepsy tetrad

A
  1. excessive daytime sleepiness
  2. cataplexy
  3. hypnogogic hallucinations
  4. sleep paralysis
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98
Q

How is narcolepsy managed?

A

Behavioral: sleep hygiene, scheduled naps, education for pt., fam, employers, etc.
Pharmacological:
-TCA: cataplexy treatment
-stimulants: day time sleepiness
-assoc. symptoms: sodium oxybate (GHB) - special license

99
Q

What are parasomnias?

A

Non-REM: sleep terror, sleepwalking, sleeptalking, sleep bruxism, nocturnal sleep-related eating disorder
REM: REM sleep behavior, nightmares

REFER TO SPECIALIST

100
Q

Frontal Lobe Syndrome

A

Slowed thinking, poor judgement, decreased curiosity, social withdrawal, irritability

Due to bilateral lesion of frontal lobes due to trauma, tumor, lobotomy

101
Q

What features suggest symptoms being due to a medical condition?

A 
Unusual age of onset
Atypical course
Unusual presentation
Associated medical symptoms / features
No response to med. treatment
102
Q

What medical condition is rapid-cycling bipolar disorder often associated with?

A

Thyroid dysregulation

103
Q

What are psychiactric symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A

Depressive: Depression, fatigue, decreased appetite, psychomotor retardation
Cognitive: Slowed mental activity
Psychotic: Hallucination, paranoid delusion (myxedema madness)

104
Q

What tests should be ordered in suspected thyroid disorder?

A

TSH: Hypo - would be elevated; Hyper - would be low
T4: Hypo - would be depressed; Hyper - would be high

105
Q

Psychiatric symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism

A

Restlessness, anxiety, fidgety
Tachycardia, sweating, irritability, fatigue
Labile mood
Hallucination, paranoid delusion

106
Q

Psychiatric symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

anxiety, depression, fatigue

107
Q

3 reasons for hypoglycemia

A

Malnutrition (ETOH, fasting)
Insulinoma
Factitous disorder (self-injection of insulin)

108
Q

Treatment for hypoglycemia

A

Dextrose

109
Q

Psychiatric symptoms associated with Cushing’s

A

Depression
Mania
Anxiety
Psychosis (rare)

110
Q

2 causes of Cushings

A

Excessive ACTH secretion (pituitary)

Adrenal pathology

111
Q

Wilson’s Disease

A

Autosomal Recessive defect in Copper excretion -> deposition in liver, brain, cornea, kidney

112
Q

What psychiatric symptoms present with Wilson’s disease?

A

Schizophrenic, bipolar, depressive symptoms (only 10-25% of patients)

113
Q

What are Kayser-Fleisher rings?

A

Found around edge of iris and rim of cornea due to copper deposition in Wilson’s disease

114
Q

How is Wilson’s disease diagnosed?

A

Slit lamp exam - Kaiser-Fleisher rings

Blood: low ceruloplasmin (copper-carrying prot.)

115
Q

Characteristics of MS

A

Distinct episodes of neurologic deficits

  • Separated in time
  • attributed to white matter lesions and demyelinated axons
116
Q

What psychiatric and medical symptoms are seen in MS patients?

A 
Major depression (common - 75% of pts), mania, psychosis
Agitation, irritability, euphoria, disinhibition, hallucination, delusion

Medical: Vary widely
-optic neuritis, cranial nerve signs, ataxia, nystagmus, motor and sensory impairment, spasticity, difficulty with bladder control / function

117
Q

What CSF findings are common in MS?

A

elevated protein
elevated gamma globulin
oligoconal bands

118
Q

What stage of syphilis can present with qsychologic symptoms?

A

Tertiary Syphilis (Neurosyphilis)

119
Q

What are the symptoms of neurosyphilis (psych and med)?

A

Psych:

early: Personality change, poor judgement/ insight, irritability, apathy, difficulty w/ calculations, decreased grooming
later: mood lability, delusions of grandeur, hallucination, disorientation, dementia

Med:
Tremor, dysarthria, hyperreflexia, ataxia, Argyll Robertson pupils (accomodate but don’t react)

120
Q

What part of the brain does herpes encephalitis attack?

A

Limbic system

121
Q

What are the symptoms of Herpes Encephalitis (med and psych)?

A

Med: ABRUPT ONSET
-fever, headache, focal neuralgia (aphasia, visual field defect, hemiparesis, seizure)
Psych: ABRUBPT ONSET
-personality change, cognitive decline, hallucinations

122
Q

What is treatment for herpes encephalitis?

A

Acyclovir and Vidarbine

  • high mortality w/ and w/o treatment
    <40% survive w/ treatment and have no sequelae
123
Q

Describe psychosis symptoms in SLE

A

due to primary SLE: visual and tactile

Secondary to steroids: auditory

124
Q

What is the cause of dementia in SLE?

A

numerous small ischemic strokes due to anti-phospholipid antibodies

125
Q

What percentage of porphyria patients experience psychiatric symptoms?

A

~10%

90% remain normal

126
Q

What is porphyria and what are some symptoms?

A

Defect in an enzyme involved in heme biosynthesis

Med: GI, pain, CV (HTN, tachycardia), cutaneous (photosensitivity, blisters, necrosis)

Psych: initially minor changes - anxiety, restless, insomnia
later - psychosis, agitation, delerium

127
Q

What psychiatric symptoms are associated with low and high grade exposure to lead and in children?

A

Low: post-work fatigue, sleepiness, depression
High: impaired cognition and memory, psychosis
in Children: Intellectual impairment (IQ test), learning deficit, behavioral problems

128
Q

What anemia is associated with lead exposure?

A

Mycrocytic hypochromic anemia

129
Q

What is Niacin deficiency and what are major symptoms?

A

Pellagra

5Ds
Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Delerium, Dementia, Death

130
Q

Diagnostic criteria of Fibromyalgia

A

General pain affecting all 4 quadrants of body lasting for 3 mos.

And either

  • 11 of 18 reproducible points of pain
  • 4 of: gen. fatigue, sleep disturbance, headache, neuropsychiatric complaint, numbness / tingling, IBS symptoms
131
Q

What psychiatric illnesses are associated with fibromyalgia?

A

Maj. depression, bipolar

Panic disorder, PTSD, Social phobia

132
Q

How is fibromyalgia differentiated from medical disorder?

A

R/O everything possible. Diagnosis is process of elimination - diagnosis of EXCLUSION

133
Q

Diagnostic criteria for chronic fatigue

A

6 mos of fatigue -> reduced activity

+ 4 psych symptoms

134
Q

What drugs are approved for treatment of fibromyalgia?

A

SNRIs (Duloxetine)

135
Q

What is criteria for chronic fatigue?

A 
reduced activity for 6 months + 4 of:
Poor memory / concentration
Unrefreshing sleep
Excessive tiredness w/ exercise
Sore throat
Tender glands
Myalgia
Joint pain
Recent-onset headache
136
Q

What comorbid psych disorders are associated with chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

GAD
Panic disorder
Depression
Somatoform disorder

137
Q

Chronic Fatigue treatment

A

CBT
Exercise
Meds for comorbid diagnosis

138
Q

What are the goals of Motivational Inteviewing?

A

Facilitate motivation to change and leverage client’s own resources for change

  • Empathy and Acceptance
  • Eliciting Change talk (how would your life be better if you quit…)
  • Optional client driven goal setting
139
Q

In regards to Motivational Interviewing and change, what is the focus of therapy?

A

Focus on whether to change rather than how or why

140
Q

How does CBT help in treating substance abuse?

A
  1. recognize situations where use is likely
  2. avoid those situations
  3. cope effectively with problematic behaviors associated with substance use
141
Q

Goal of CBT in substance abuse

A

Restructure thoughts, beliefs, and perceptions to reduce use.

142
Q

What are 3 goals of a Brief Intervention (BI)?

A

Feedback
Listen and Understand
Options explored

143
Q

What percent of Americans have wanted to hurt themselves? How many do go through with it?

A

13.5% have had thoughts of wanting to hurt themselves

1% of those will kill selves

144
Q

Static risk factors for suicide

A

Can’t be changed:

Male, single, older, caucasian or native american, prior attempts, family history

145
Q

What age groups makes the most suicide attempts?

A

> 85 yrs

16.9/100,000: rate increases w/ age

146
Q

What lab findings have autopsies uncovered in suicides?

A

elevated serotonin in CSF

platelet serotonin abnormalities

147
Q

What are dynamic risk factors for suicide?

A

Can be modified:

Psych illness, psych stressor, medical illness, acute suicidality

148
Q

common psych diagnoses in suicide

A

Mood Disorder (40%)
Alcohol dependence (20-25%)
Severe personality disorder (20-25%)
Schizophrenia (10-15%)

149
Q

What effect does prior academic acheivement have on suicide rates in schizophrenics?

A

Increased risk

150
Q

What illnesses associate with increased suicide risk?

A

Cancer: 15x increase w/in 1 yr. of diagnosis
Chronic Renal Failure: 10x increase
AIDS: 7x increase

151
Q

SADPERSONS

A 
Suicide risk factors
Sex
Age
Depression
Prev. attempt
Ethanol
Rational thinking loss
Social Support lacking
Organized plan
No spouse
Sickness
152
Q

What is a chemical restraint?

A

High potency antipsychotic - haloperidol

used in cases of severe agitation when patient poses risk to self or others

153
Q

What is a petition for assessment?

A 
Allows person to be brought in for psychiatric evaluation if:
Patient is mentally ill and:
1)  Serious risk to self or others
2)  Has threatened to harm others
3)  Unable to take care of basic needs
154
Q

Tarasoff vs. Regents

A

If therapist determines (or shoud determine) that a patient presents threat of violence to another has duty to protect intended victim
- Must alert police or victim

155
Q

Somatoform disorder

A

Expression of psychological symptoms in physical terms

156
Q

How can insurance effect somatization disorders?

A

Insurance that covers physical but not psychiatric symptoms fosters somatization

157
Q

What is the most important management technique for somatization patients?

A

Follow regularly up w/ single PCP

  • multiple specialists not helpful
  • may refer to psychiatrist
158
Q

What are the criteria for Somatization Disorder?

A

4 pain
2 GI
1 sexual
1 pseudoneurological

159
Q

What is hypochondriasis?

A

Fear of having serious disease based on misinterpretation of symptoms.
Preoccupation persists despite appropriate evaluation and reassurance

160
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

presentation of neurological deficit or other GMC with associated psychologic factors.

161
Q

What are pseudoseizures?

A

Seizures seen w/ conversion disorder - not true seizures, but unconscious origin / motivation

162
Q

What percentage of conversion disorder patients will experience a recurrance of symptoms?

A

Only ~25%

163
Q

How many conversion disorder patients go on to receive a medical diagnosis that could explain symptoms?

A

25-50%

164
Q

What is Labelle Indifference?

A

Patients are undisturbed by potentially serious symptoms associated with conversion disorder.

165
Q

How is body dysmorphic disorder treated?

A

High dose SSRI helps in 50% of cases
Therapy
Cosmetic approach almost always unsuccessful

166
Q

What is the origin of pain disorder?

A

Psychological cause

167
Q

How is pain disorder typcially treated?

A

SNRI and psychotherapy

168
Q

What is pseudocyesis?

A

False belief of being pregnant associated with signs of pregnancy

169
Q

Facticious disorder

A

symptoms are consciously produced, though for possibly subconscious reasons

170
Q

Munchausen syndrome

A

Facticious disorder with predominantly physical symptoms

171
Q

What is the main morbidity of factitious disorder?

A

Iatrogenic - procedural complications

172
Q

Factitious disorder by proxy

A

Parent or caregiver makes child ill

If suspected - contact protective services

173
Q

How does malingering differ from factitious disorder?

A

Conscious production of symptoms WITH motivation

-avoidance of dangerous situation, compensation, hospital stay, drugs

174
Q

What personality disorder is associated with malingering?

A

Antisocial

175
Q

What is the focus of treatment of personality disorder?

A

Not to change personality, but to understand person and work w/ traits

176
Q

Disease vs. illness

A

Disease: pathological condition that -> group of symptoms
Illness: experience of living with disease. Reaction to body breaking down

177
Q

What are the stages of dying?

A 
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
178
Q

Treatment goals for dying patient

A 
Pain control and comfort
Maintain social / family function
Resolution of conflict
Achieve final goals
Competent medical care
Honest, compassionate doctor-patient relationship
179
Q

What disorder has the highest mortality rate in psychiatry?

A

Anorexia Nervosa

180
Q

How are SSRIs used in treatment of anorexia nervosa?

A

Useful after weight restoration

If before - alteration of brain chemistry reduces effectiveness of future therapy

181
Q

2 subtypes of bulemia

A

Purging: vomiting, laxative or enema abuse

Non purging: other compensatory behavior - fasting, excessive exercise

182
Q

Cyproheptadine use for eating disorders

A

Antihistamine - increases apetite and may assist with weight gain

Use for AN ok
Should not be used for BN - appetite is normal

183
Q

Is alcohol and drug use more prominent in AN or BN?

A

BN - up to 40% of cases

AN - around 15%

184
Q

What personality disorders are associated with eating disorders?

A

AN: Avoidant and OCD
BN: Avoidant and Borderline

185
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in AN and BN?

A

Bupropion: high seizure risk in eating disorders
Stimulants: abuse potential and weight loss

186
Q

3 drugs that can cause weight gain

A

Antipsychotics
Antidepressants (TCA)
Mood stabilizers (valproic acid, lithium)

187
Q

What structural features of the brain are seen in ADHD?

A

Reduced cortical white and gray matter volume
Decreased frontal and temporal lobe volume

Different function (in imaging studies) in caudate, frontal, anterior cingulate during tasks requiring INHIBITORY control

188
Q

ADHD criteria

A

6 or more symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity-impulsivity
Persistant for at least 6 mos.

189
Q

3 subtypes of ADHD

A

Predominantly inattentive: 6+ inattentive
Predominantly hyperactive-impulsive: 6+ hyperactive-impulsive
Mixed: 6+ of each type (12 total)

190
Q

What is involved in evaluating ADHD?

A

interview child and CG
MSE
Medical eval: look at health, development, risk-factors
ADHD rating scale
Cognitive assessment: ability and achievement
Collateral reports, report cards, etc.

191
Q

Criteria for Opositional Defiant Disorder

A

for 6 months 4+ of:
Loss of temper, arguing w/ adult, defy adult rules or requests, deliberately annoys, blames others for own misbehavior, easily annoyed by others, angry and resentful, spiteful or vindictive

192
Q

What therapies are effective for ODD?

A

Psychosocial therapies (but NOT traditional individual or family therapy)
Parent Management Training
Collaborative problem solving, problem solving communications therapy

193
Q

Criteria for Conduct Disorder

A

in last 6 mos 3+ of
Aggression to people or animals
Destruction of property
Deceitfulness or theft
Serious rule violations (staying out after curfew before 13, run away 2x or 1x if for a lengthy period, truancy before 13)
If over 18 and not antisocial disorder - CD

194
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Conduct Disorder?

A

MultisystemicTherapy (MST) - only treatment to date to demonstrate long term reduction in re-arrest and incarceration

195
Q

What genetic syndromes are associated with Autism?

A

Fragile X

Tuberous Sclerosis

196
Q

What is Palalia?

A

Repeating one’s own words

Complex phonic tic

197
Q

What is echolalia?

A

Repeating someone else’s words

Coplex phonic tic

198
Q

What is Coprolalia?

A

Speaking profanity

Complex phonic tic

199
Q

3 “tic” disorders

A

Tourettes
Chronic motor/vocal tic disorder
Transient tic disorder

200
Q

Tourette’s criteria

A

Multiple motor and 1 or more vocal tics (not necessarily concurrent) for at least 1 year with no tic-free period lasting longer than 3 mos. Onset before 18 yoa.

201
Q

Criteria for chronic vocal/motor tic disorder

A

Single or multiple vocal or motor tics NOT BOTH for at least 1 year, with no tic-free period of 3 months. Onset before 18

202
Q

Criteria for transient tic disorder

A

Single or multiple vocal and/or motor tics for 4 wks - 1 year (not more). Onset before 18 yoa.

203
Q

What neuroanatomic structures are involved in tics?

A

Basal ganglia
Corticostriatal thalamocortical abnormality
Reduced caudate volume, increased PFC volume
PET shows hypometabolism and decreased flow to ventral striatum

204
Q

What is Syndenham’s Chorea?

A

Results from childhood Strep A infection / Rheumatic fever.
Symptoms of motor tics, OCD and ADHD
Shared anatomic targets w/ Tourette’s, OCD and ADHD

205
Q

What is the etiology of tic generation

A

Increased (abnormal) activity in a population of striatal cells -> inhibition of tonically active inhibitory thalamic projection neurons -> activation of cortical motor pattern generator -> triggering of stereotyped movements (tics)

206
Q

What is habit reversal training?

A

Patient w/ tic disorder learns to ID premonatory urge and execute other less intrusive movement

207
Q

What medications can be used to treat tics?

A

Usually reserved unless significant impairment
D2 receptor agonists: haloperidol, pimozide, risperidone (many side effects)
a2 agonists: guanfacine, clonidine
Botulinum toxin: used for severe motor/vocal tics

208
Q

What is the normal progression of continence?

A

Nocturnal fecal -> diurnal fecal -> diurnal bladder -> nocturnal bladder

209
Q

Enuresis criteria

A

Voiding of urine into bed or clothes 2x / week for 3+ months. At least 5 yoa chronologically or developmentally

210
Q

Primary vs. secondary incontinence

A

Primary: never achieved continence
Secondary: achieved continence for at least 1 year
-secondary enuresis = regression

211
Q

What disorders are associated w/ enuresis?

A

ADHD, anxiety, encopresis, developmental delay

212
Q

What is the most successful treatment for enuresis?

A

Conditioning - enuresis alarm

213
Q

What drugs may be used to help treat enuresis?

A

Imipramine - mechanism not understood. 40-50% efficacy w/ 50% relapse.
DDAVP - ADH analogue. Water intox w/ seizure concern.

214
Q

By what age is bowel control typically established?

A

95% by 4, 99% by 5

215
Q

What is the most significant cause of encopresis?

A

Constipation - inetentional or not- 75% of cases

216
Q

Definition of dementia

A 
Memory impairment + one of:
Aphasia
Apraxia - tasks
Agnosia - recognition (often spurs treatment_
Executive function
217
Q

Of what use is lab work in dementia evaluation?

A

Rule out reversible cause

218
Q

How may neuroimaging be useful in dementia evaluation?

A

non-invasive detection of cortical atrophy
evidence unique metabolic changes in memory pathway
monitor therapy - follow progression of neuronal loss

219
Q

What imaging study has highest specificity for Alzheimer’s?

A

MRS: magnetic resonance spectroscopy - identify metabolite levels

220
Q

When is genetic testing used in alzheimer’s diagnosis?

A

Not routinely employed.
Used in all cases where age is s)
Apo-E4 screened for in early AD

221
Q

What is delerium?

A

Disturbance of consciousness
Rapid onset, short duration, waxing and waning with lucid intervals
May coexist w/ dementia
Esp. in hospitalized and sick patients. s/p surgery

222
Q

4 common dementias in elderly

A

Alzheimer’s : most common - 2/3 of all
Vascular dementia: second
Lewy Body
Parkinson’s related

223
Q

What NT changes are seen in AD?

A

Cholinergic changes:

  • reduced activity of choline acetyltransferase
  • reduced number of cholinergic receptors in late AD
  • selective loss of nicotinic receptors in hippocampus and cortex
224
Q

Features of LBD

A

Confusion
Fluctuating cognition w/ increased confusion - nearly diagnostic
Lewy Bodies in cerebral cortex

225
Q

What is Pick’s disease?

A

Most common Frontotemporal Dementia

226
Q

What are features of Frontotemporal Dementia?

A

Prominent behavior changes
Language disturbances
Focal atrophy on neuroimaging
hypoperfusion precedes structural changes in PET

227
Q

What is the standard pharmacological treatment for dementia?

A

Early cholinesterase inhibitor + Memantine later in treatment

228
Q

Where are mutations found in familial AD?

A

Chromosome 21: codes APP
Chromosome 14: codes presenilin 1
Chromosome 1: codes presenilin 2

229
Q

What treatments have targed amyloid and how effective are they?

A

Secretase inhibitor
Vaccine / immunotherapy

Both encountered problems in clinical trials

230
Q

4 cholinesterase inhibitors

A

Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine
Tacrine

231
Q

What is a MMSE and what is it used for?

A

Mini Mental Status Exam
Tests congnition and tracks cognitive changes
Identifies improvement or worsening and assists in screening where a baseline is known.

232
Q

What does a MMSE consist of?

A

5 parts:

  1. Orientation: What is the (year, date, season, day, month). Where are we (state, town, hospital, floor)
  2. Registration: Ask patient to repeat three objects (1 point for each)
  3. Attention and Calculation: Ask patient to count backward from 100 by sevens (stop after 5 answers)
  4. Recall: Ask patient to name the 3 objects mentioned earlier
  5. Language: Ask the patient to:
    - Identify and name a pencil and a watch
    - Repeat the phrase, “no ifs ands or buts”
    - take a piece of paper in right hand and put it on the floor
    - Read and obey the following, “close your eyes”
    - Copy a complex diagram of interlocking pentagons
233
Q

How is MMSE scored?

A

24-30: normal
20-23: mild cognitive impairment
10-19: moderate dementia
0-10: severe dementia

234
Q

1st line pharmacalogic for delerium?

A

Haloperidol

  • oral, IV (low risk of EPS), IM
  • well studied
  • monitor EKG if QTc >450
235
Q

If a causative factor for delerium is ID’d, how long after removal for resolution?

A

Usually 3-7 days, though up to 2 weeks

236
Q

What is the effect of adding behavioral treatment to medication?

A

No improvement in symptoms

Improved satisfaction, internalization, social skills, reading achievement, comorbid symptoms

237
Q

3 stages of ADHD pharmacotherapy

A
  1. Titration: optimize dose/ frequency
  2. Maintenance: routine monitoring
  3. Termination: periodic trials off of meds should be tried.
238
Q

3 first line meds for ADHD

A

Stimulants
non-stimulants
a-agonists

239
Q

2nd line agents for ADHD

A

TCA

Buproprion

240
Q

What are contraindications for stimulant use in ADHD?

A

Hx of substance abuse
Bipolar disorder
Active psychotic disorder

241
Q

What DDIs are of concern w/ stimulant use in ADHD?

A

MAOI - separate use by 2 weeks to avoid HTN crisis

TCA - synergistic noradrenergic effect

242
Q

Methylphenidate dosing

A

0.3-0.6 mg/kg

Transdermal: 10mg/ 9 hr for 1 wk, then 15, etc

243
Q

Lisdexamfetamine

A

d-amphetamine covalently bound to L-lysine. Requires GI hydrolysis for activation.
Marketing - less abuse potential
Retrospective studies - more SE

244
Q

Atomoxetine

A

Specific NE reuptake inhibitor
ADHD in children >6 (2nd line. 1st if stimulant contraindicated)

2D6 isozyme metabolism

245
Q

Alpha agonists used for ADHD

A

Guanfacine
Clonidine

IR FORMULATION OFF LABEL USE
ER formulation is FDA approved

M2 (19 decks)

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