Micro 3 Flashcards

0
Q

What are common causes of meningitis in post-neonatal life?

A

S.pneumo
H.influenzeae
N.meningitides

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1
Q

What are common causes of meningitis in neonates?

A

Listeria
E.coli K1
Group B strep

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2
Q

Cause of chronic meningitis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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3
Q

Causes of bacterial encephalitis?

A
T.pallidum
Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme Disease)
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4
Q

3 ways that microbes can penetrate the BBB

A
  1. infection of the cells that comprise the barrier
  2. passive transport through cells in vacuoles
  3. carraige in WBCs
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5
Q

Why might steroidal anti-inflammatories be use in the treatment of meningitis?

A

Dampen the immune response
Decrease inflammation
Decrease infiltration of PMNs, macrophages and pathogens

WBCs -> cytokines -> inflammation, edema, additional WBC recruitment
inflamation and edema are conducive to infiltration (diapedesis)

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6
Q

What are symptoms of meningitis?

A

high fever, sever and persistent stiff neck, photophobia, N/V
Changes in behavior: confusion, sleepiness, difficulty in waking (indicative of need for emergency treatment)
Infant: irritability, tiredness, poor feeding, fever, bulging fontanel

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7
Q

meningitis causing, gram +, catalase -, a-hemolytic, optochin sensitive

A

S.pneumo - most common cause of meningitis in US

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8
Q

Is there a vaccine for S.pneumo?

A

Yes, 2:
23-valent: capsular PS from strains responsible for 90% of infections
7-valent: capsular PS from strains responsible for infections in children, immunocompromised, elderly

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9
Q

What is the leading cause of bacterial meningitis in US?

What is second?

A

1st: S.pneumo
2nd: N.meningitidis

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10
Q

What are the most common capsular serotypes of meningitis causing N.meningitidis and what are the relative frequencies:?

A
A: 4%
B: 50%
C: 20%
Y: 10%
W135: 10%
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11
Q

In addition to typical meningitis symptoms, what may be seen in patients w/ N.meningitidis meningitis?

A

Hemorrhagic rash often w/ petechiae - reflective of assoc. septicemia

  • 1/3 of instances rash is fulminating w/ complications due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), endotoxemia, shock, renal failure
  • DIC may -> gangrene / necrosis in extremities
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12
Q

What does H.influenzae require for growth?

A

Factors X: NAD and V: hemin

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13
Q

What organisms are typically responsible for outbreaks at universities?
Risks?

A

S.pneumo, N.meningitidis
Risks: poor diet, behavioral changes (ETOH consumption, smoking), pulmonary infections -> changes in immune function and microbiota composition
Some schools -> vaccination program

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14
Q

What is the fatality rate of neonatal meningitis?

How do survivors do?

A

1/3 of cases fatal

Survivors: often long-term sequelae: cerebral palsy, epilepsy, mental retardation, hydrocephalus

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15
Q

What organism causes Lyme Disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

Disseminated disease can -> bacterial encephalitis

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16
Q

What is Guillan Barre Syndrome and what causes it?

A

Caused by Campylobacter jejuni
Disease is result of cross-reaction between bacterial ganglioside-like epitopes in LPS and Schwann cell myelin Ags
Immunologic attack ->Demyelination

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17
Q

How is a brain abscess diagnosed?

A

CT scan recommended before lumbar puncture
Characteristic ring-enhancing lesion w/ contrast is diagnosis
-fibrous capsule forms w/in 4-5 days of infection

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18
Q

Symptoms of brain abscess

A

headache, confusion, drowsiness, hemiparesis, seizures, fever
usually no stiff neck

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19
Q

What organisms are most often isolated from a brain abscess?

A

Gram +: Streptococcus (anginosis, milleri), Peptostreptococcus, Staphylococcus, Nocardia, Actinomyces

Gram -: Prevotella, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, E.coli, Citrobacter koseri, P.mirabilis

AIDS pts: cryptococcus, toxoplasma

Almost always polymicrobial. Strep most common - synergy w/ gram negs

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20
Q

What often cause chronic meningoencephalitis?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

AIDS related

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21
Q

What are the functions of bacterial capsules in CNS infection?

A

Prevent phagocytosis, Ab binding, complement activation
Intracellular protection
Toxicity to host cells

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22
Q

What is and what causes Valley Fever?

A

Fungal infection beginning in the lungs 7-21 days post infection
Typically clears quickly, but can disseminate to meninges, bones, joints, subcutaneous and cutaneous tissues
25% of disseminated cases -> meningitis (1% of total cases)
Initially flu-like, then symptoms of meningitis
Fatal if not treated.
Caused by Coccidiodes imitis (Fungus)
Risk: dust storms, earthquakes, excavation

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23
Q

What is Chagas Disease?

A

Caused by Trypanosoma cruzi - parasite carried by Triatome bugs
Initial sore at site of bite followed by fever and acute encephalitis
Chronic disease may have heart, colon, and nervous system manifestations

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24
Where is Trypanosoma cruzi endemic?
Southern US - Southern Argentina
25
What is the CNS manifestation of malaria?
If malaria left untreated, infection can travel to brain causing lesions, coma and rapid death (24-72 hours) Acute, widespread brain disease w/ fever Greatest risk <10 years of age
26
5 genra of picornoviruses and associated diseases
1. Enterovirus (Polio, Coxsackie A and B, Echo) - diseases of alimentary (GI) tract 2. Rhino - cold - naspharyngeal 3. Cardiovirus - murine encephalomycarditis 4. Apthovirus - Foot + Mouth disease (cloven footed animals) 5. Hepatovirus - Hepatitis A
27
Properties of Cardio, Hepato and Entero viruses
Resistant to low pH, grow at 37C Fecal-oral transmission, GI is site of primary infection CNS infection results - paralysis and encephalitis
28
General properties of Aptho and Rhino viruses
Labile at low pH, grow at 33C | Aerosol transmission - Upper Respiratory Tract is site of infection
29
Picornovirus genome
Unenveloped ss+RNA, 7-8kb Long 5' untranslated end regulates translation - IREM (internal ribosome entry site) VPg protein at 5' end - primer 3' end- short untranslated w/ poly-A tail
30
Where in the cell do picornaviruses replicate?
In cytoplasm
31
Describe protein product of picornovirus
Single polypeptide divided into 3 regions (P1,P2,P3) 3 regions cleaved - 11-12 proteins P1: capsid proteins (VP1,2,3,4) P2 and P3: protein processing and genome replication proteins
32
Describe the process of Picornavirus replication
``` virus attaches to host cell via VP1 Uncoating of genome RNA translation -> P1 stays in cytoplasm, P2,3 and -RNA copies in vessicles +RNA -> -RNA -> +RNA Encapsidation and cell lysis ```
33
What do Picornaviruses do to host cell processes?
Shut off protein synthesis via cleavage of eIF-4G by VP 2A (entero and rhino) and L (aptho)
34
What are the non-structural proteins produced by Picornaviruses?
``` 2A: protease (P1/P2) 2B: stim vessicle formation 2C: RNA helicase 3AB: stimulates 3D and 3CD protolytic cleavage 3C: protease (P2/P3) 3D: RNA dependent RNA polymerase VPg: Poly(U) primer ```
35
How do picornaviruses infect?
fecal-oral transmission infect via GI with primary target being lymph tissue of oropharynx and gut If Ab does not clear infection, progression from blood to organs and major viremia, then CNS infection Virus production in grey matter (motor neurons of anterior horn of SC and brain stem) Severe illness, paralysis
36
What disease is caused by polio virus? symptoms?
Poliomyelitis Destruction of motor neurons in anterior horn of SC -> Flaccid paralysis Bulbar poliomyelitis: more severe - destruction w/in medulla oblongotta
37
2 polio vaccines
Salk - Inactivated - less local GI immunity, duration of immunity unknown Sabin - Attenuated - oral - probable life long immunity
38
What diseases are caused by Coxsackie viruses?
A and B: aseptic meningitis A: Herpangina - sudden onset fever w/ ulcers on tonsils and palate A16: Hand Foot and Mouth disease Role in Acute Juvenile diabetes (type I)?
39
What does rhinovirus cause?
Common cold
40
Pleconaril
Drug designed against entero and rhinoviruses - not FDA approved - initially rejected due to side effects
41
What does Apthovirus cause?
Foot and Mouth in animals Vaccine available - effective against symptoms, but does not protect against transmission Slaughter infected animals
42
What is the role of HIV in CNS infections
Neurological complications are common in AIDS patients Virus found in CSF of patients w/ dementia Virus infects or activates macrophages and microglia -> release of toxins deleterious to neurons and astrocytes 2 viral subtypes -Tcell tropic -Macrophage tropic
43
3 classes of HIV drugs and examples
Nucleoside RT inhibitor: Zidovudine, Didanosine, Zalcitabine, Stavudine, Lamivudine, AZT Non-nucleoside RT inhibitor: Nevirapine, Delavirdine HIV Protease inhibitor: Ritonavir, Indinavir, Saquinovir, Nelfinavir
44
What is HAART treatment?
Highly active anti-retroviral treatment A "cocktail" of at least one nucleoside RT inhibitor and one or two Protease inhibitors ***Does not provide full protection against neurological damage in HIV infection - BBB only partially permeable to anti-retroviral agents***
45
What is HTLV and what does it cause?
Human T-cell Leukemia Virus Causes: 1. Adult Tcell Leukemia 2. Tropical Spastic Paraparesis / HTLV-1associated myelopathy (TSP/HAM)
46
What treatments exist for HTLV?
No definitive treatment Combination IFNa and Zidovudine (NRTi) Chemotherapy (limited success) Zidovudine, Danazol, Vitamin C -> temporary relief
47
What is a virus spread to humans via an insect bite?
Arbovirus fleas, ticks, flies, etc. are vectors for transmission Primary reservoir is birds
48
Name two families of viruses considered arboviruses
Flaviviridae, Togaviridae
49
What are the 3 genera of flaviviridae? What diseases are each responsible for?
Flavivius: YFV, WNV, DFV, JE Hepacivirus: Hep C Pestivirus: no human disease (Hog cholera, Bovine viral diarrhea)
50
Flavivirus structure
Enveloped, icosahedral virion, linear ss+RNA 3 structural proteins: envelope, prM (M separates @maturation, maturation signal), C (capsid) Flavi, HepC: 5' cap, non-polyA 3' Pesti: no caps, no poly-a IRES
51
What is Antibody Dependent Enhancement?
In Dengue Virus: Initial infection with one serotype (strain 1) -> Ab response Later infection with different serotype: anti-strain 1 Ab do not neutralize, but allow macrophage to take up virus more effectively. Inside macrophage virus repliates -> more severe infection due to additional mechanism of infection
52
Describe flavivirus process of cell infection / replication
Receptor mediated attachment and endocytosis (viral E protein) pH induced membrane fusion and uncoating of virion +RNA -> single viral protein RNA synth via RdRp C protein encapsidation in cytoplasm Maturation of membranes in rER or golgi Transport of virus to cell surface by secretory pathway
53
Structural and non-structural proteins of flavivirus
Structural: E: binds cell surface receptors, facilitates entry prM: maturation C: encapsulation ``` Non-structural: NS1: hemagglutinin -elicits humeral immune response NS2A and B: RNA synthesis NS3: protease NS4A and B: RNA replication NS5: RNA dependent RNA polymerase ```
54
West Nile symptoms
Moderate to high fever, flu-like sore throat, headache, backache, fatigue Rash, lymphadenopathy, myalgia Acute aseptic meningitis or encephalitis
55
West nile treatment
No vaccine Ribovarin Mosquito control
56
Yellow Fever symptoms and treatment
High fever, chills, headache, vomiting Jaundice, hemorrhagic complications, renal failure Vaccine available Mosquito (aedis aegypti) control important for prevention
57
Dengue fever transmission and symptoms
Person to person, mosquitos symptoms: fever, headache, lumbosacral pain also - Dengue hemorrhagic fever DHF Dengue Shock Syndrome DSS
58
What is the distribution of Dengue Fever serotypes?
Serotype 2 - North America | Serotypes 1 and 3 - Central and South America
59
Is there a Dengue vaccine?
No | A tetravalent vaccine has been tested in Thailand - favorable results
60
What is St. Louis Encephalitis?
Flavivirus caused encephalitis (epidemic disease) Transmitted by mosquito from birds to human Febrile headache to meningo-encephalitis Milder in children Elders at risk
61
Hepatitis C treatment
IFN treatment IFN induces genes that regulate viral proteins at transcriptional and translational levels only effective in 15% of patients IFN + ribavirin for relapsed patients
62
What viruses are Togaviruses?
EEE: eastern equine encephalitis WEE: western equine encephalitis Rubella
63
Characteristics of Togavirus and major proteins
Enveloped, ss+RNA cytoplasmic replication nsP2 protease nsP4 RdRp
64
What is Eastern Equine Encephalitis?
togavirus transmitted from birds -> mosquitoes -> horses and humans Fever, general muscle pain, severe headache, permanent brain damage, seizure, coma Small brain hemorrhages and extensive neuronal damage
65
What virus causes Rabies?
Rhabdovirus
66
Rhabdovirus characteristics
bullet shaped, external glycoprotein coat and peripheral matrix protein ss-RNA Ribonucleoprotein is most infectious component
67
What is the incubation time for rabies?
up to 12 mos.
68
Rabies symptoms
difficulty breathing and swallowing hydrophobia Increased muscle tone cytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusion bodies (Negri bodies) in neuronal cells and neuronal necrosis
69
Treatment for rabies?
Not after symptoms appear - 100% fatal Post-exposure: 1) wash wound w/ soap and water - seek medical attention immediately 2) passive immunization - admin human rabies immune globin 3) vaccination (inactivated virus)
70
what is the major problem in meningitis? Why?
Increased ICP is major problem. leads to decreased cerebral blood flow, loss of cerebrovascular autoregulation Subarachnoid space inflammation -> cerebral vasculitis -> possibility of cerebral infarction
71
What organisms are typically seen in meningitis following head trauma or neurosurgery?
S.aureus S.epidermidis aerobic gram neg. rods (including pseudomonas)
72
What organisms are most often seen in meningitis assoticated with a basilar skull fracture and/or CSF leak?
S.pneumonia H.influenzae Group A B-hemolytic strep
73
What is normal CSF opening pressure?
10-20cm H2O
74
What bacterial antigen identification kits are available?
S.pneumoniae, N.meningitidis, HiB, E.coli, GBS
75
What are early and late complications of meningitis?
Early: shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation, respiratory failure (adult resp. distress syndrome), cerebral edema Late: behavioral / learnig disabilities, hearing loss, seizures, hydrocephalus
76
How might neonatal CSF differ from adult?
Normal neonate CSF may have up to 30 WBC/mm3 (normal for adult is 0.5) and up to 150 mg/dL protein (normal for adult 15-45)
77
Definition of aseptic meningitis
Meningitis with lymphocytic predominant pleocytosis in which bacterial stains and cultures are negative
78
Most common viruses in aseptic meningitis
enteroviruses - most common in infants and young children - usually less severe presentation - most often late summer / early fall - occurs in community outbreaks
79
What is the overall mortality for CA meningitis? What about individual pathogens?
``` CA meningitis: 25% L.monocytogenes: 28.5% S.agalactiae: 7-27% S.pneumo: 19-26% N.meningitidis: 10% H.influenzae: 6% ```
80
CD4 TH1 cells do what?
Activate macrophages enabling them to destroy intracellular organisms
81
CD4 TH2 cells do what
stimulate B cells to differentiate into plasma cells to produce specific antibodies
82
What is a primary vs. secondary defect of the innate immune system?
Primary: congenital Secondary: acquired - breach of mechanical barrier
83
What is chronic granulomatous disease and what is it an example of?
Defect in NADPH oxidase that prevents neutrophils from releasing a respiratory burst during phagocytosis. Example of primary defect of innate immunity Results in increased susceptibility to catalase positive organisms, esp. Serratia and Aspergillus
84
What is the most common cause of intravascular catheter associated infection?
Staph epidermidis
85
What infections are common at burn sites?
Polymicrobial infections due to bacteria and fungi Mechanical breach, damage to neutrophil function and capacity for immune response
86
What is the most common cause of surgical wound infections? Why?
Staph aureus Often impaired blood supply and foreign bodies (sutures) -> ease of colonization May progress to endocarditis or osteomyelitis
87
How do staph species "hide" from antibiotics on plastic catheter material?
Grow as biofilm - produce and multiply within slimy, adherent material
88
What is post-obstructive pneumonia? What organisms are often seen?
infection develops in the lung distal to an occlusion such as a tumor or fibrotic growths following surgery. Results in stasis of body fluids distal to obstruction - favorable medium for bacterial growth. Oropharyngeal aerobes and anaerobes are common
89
Obstruction of bladder or ureters can result in what serious complications? What could cause obstruction?
hydronephritis or pyonephritis | Could be caused by neoplasm of prostate, cervix, rectum, ovary, etc.
90
Neutropenia
Depressed neutrophil count. May be caused by a primary malignancy (leukemia) or chemotherapy.
91
What is the most commonly seen immune defect resulting in life threatening infections in compromised hosts?
Neutropenia
92
What is more common in neutropenic patients - gram (-) or (+) infection? How is empiric treatment influenced?
Gram (+) is more common | Treatment still geared toward gram neg. Can rapidly lead to lethal infection. (+) species tend to be less virulent.
93
What is the most common cause of secondary defects in adaptive immunity worldwide?
malnutrition
94
Humoral immune impairment produces increased susceptibility to what organisms?
encapsulated orgs such as Streptoccus pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis
95
What disease states are associated with humoral immune abnormality?
Multiple myeloma, chronic lymphatic leukemia, Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, sickle cell
96
What diseases are associated with cellular immune deficiency or defect?
Hodgkins and non-Hodgkins Lymphoma, Hairy Cell Leukemia, Chronic Lymphatic Leukemia Chemotherapy, Corticosteroid treatment, transplant also associated.
97
What infections are more likely with impairment of the cellular immune system?
Intracellular bacteria, mycobacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoan - pretty much everything - prompt diagnosis is vital - fixing underlying cause of the deficit is key!
98
Neurotropic vs. Neuroinvasive vs. Neurovirulent
Neurotropic: can infect neurons and/or assoc. cells regardless of route of infection or pathogenic consequence Neuroinvasive: can enter CNS after infecting peripheral site Neurovirulent: can cause disease by damaging nervous tissue
99
Herpesvirus genome
linear dsDNA (80+ genes)
100
What is the most common cause of sporadic fatal encephalitis in adults?
HSV-1
101
What part of the brain is most often involved in HSV-1 encephalitis? Symptoms?
Temporal lobe | Fever, altered consciousness and behavior, disordered thinking
102
What abnormalities does brain tissue affected by HSV-1 encephalitis display?
Necrosis and punctate hemorrhage | Inferior frontal and temporal lobes
103
How are HSV infections of the CNS diagnosed and treated?
Diagnosis: PCR of CSF MRI shows temporal lobe hemorrhage and/or edema EEG spike and slow-wave activity Treatment: acyclovir and other herpes viral drugs reduce mortality but most patients do not regain full mental function
104
What CNS diseases are caused by VZV?
Varicella: encephalitis (.1-.2% cases) transient cerebellar ataxia (.1%) meningitis and transverse myelitis (rare) Zoster: post herpetic neuralgia (PNS) encephalitis (.2-.5%)
105
Diagnosis and treatment of VZV infection of CNS
PCR of CSF treat with Famciclovir or valacyclovir (higher bioavailability than fam) Prevent w/ vaccines!!
106
What is the most common cause of birth defects and childhood disabilities in the US?
Congenital CMV
107
What are signs of congenital CMV that can be seen at birth?
Intrauterine growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly Later development of mental retardation, seizure, blindness, deafness, death Non symptomatic at birth: 10-15% risk of developing hearing and vision problems, intellectual impairment.
108
What is treatment for CMV and prophylaxis for prevention of transplacental transmission?
IVIG to prevent congenital disease (result of uncontrolled trial) Gancyclovir for treatment of congenital disease
109
Herpes B Virus
Cercopithecine herpesvirus 1 Biosafety Level 4 pathogen Carried by monkeys, transmitted to humans via saliva, bodily secretions High frequency of fatal encephalitis treatable w/ high doses of acyclovir or gancyclovir
110
Polyomavirus and associated disorders
``` JC - Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (immunodeficient patients, usually fatal) BK - hemorrhagic cystitis (bone marrow transplant patients) polyomavirus nephropathy (kidney transplant patients) ``` New: KIV, WUV - found in resp. sec., unknown pathogenicity MCV - merkel cell cancer SV40: humans infected via animal vaccines - unknown pathogenicity
111
PML: what is it, symptoms, treatment
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy JCV in immunocompromosed patients Personality changes, intellectual deficit, loss of motor skills, sensory loss Death in 2-12 months Treament: HAART - immune recovery
112
What is the most common transmissable spongiform encephalopathy
Creutzfieldt-Jakob Disease
113
What are the forms of CJD?
Sporadic - unknown cause Familial - Autosomal dom (onset 50yrs) Iatrogenic - neurosurg, transplant, brain derived hormones Variant - bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow) -> humans
114
List oral anaerobes
``` Bacteroides Prevotella Porphyromonas Fusobacteria Peptostreptococcus ```
115
What virulence factors are associated with oral infections?
Oral bacteria produce lymphocyte activators that induce inflammatory response Release of PMN contents and complement activation -> tissue damage.
116
What causes gingivitis?
Inflamation of the gums - marginal inflammation where teeth meet gums Inflammatory infiltrate: PMNs and lymphocytes in tissue and connected to tooth
117
What is periodontitis?
Caused by progression of gingivitis. Results in resorption of bone around neck of tooth, destruction of periodontal ligament, and eventual loosening and loss of affected teeth. Causative oral anaerobes live in dental plaque next to gingival tissues.
118
What organisms are associated with ulcerative gingivitis?
Prevotella, Fusobacteria - invade oral epithelium
119
Actinomyces israelii | ID, what it causes
Normal flora anaerobe in humans Gram positive filamentous rod-shaped bacteria. "Sulfur granules" seen in pus - actinomyces elements mixed with tissue exudate grows slowly in culture and may be overwhelmed by contaminating bacteria Causes cervicofacial infections following oral trauma - tooth extraction - can travel down lymph tract
120
Viridans Streptococcus and oral infections
Virulence: attatch to teeth w/ glucans. May enter blood stream following dental procedure (tooth extraction) and produce subacute bacterial endocarditis group includes Streptococcus Mutans - assoc. with dental carries.
121
ID Strep viridans
Gram pos, catalase neg No lancefield group Assoc. w/ dental caries.
122
Who is at risk for oral Candida infections?
Immunocompromised, chemo patients, those receiving antimicrobial therapy
123
Streptococcus pneumoniae virulence factors
Capsule - 84 serotypes interferes with classical and alternative complement pathway teichoic acid -> inflammation specific Ab confers immunity
124
Upper respiratory infections caused by S.pneumoniae
acute otitis media - S.pneumo most common cause after 3 months old (viral infection or allergies predispose) acute and chronic sinusitis (viral infection, allergies, mechanical blockage predispose)
125
Optochin test
P disk on agar innoculation Streptococcus pneumoniae is suscetpible Mnemonic: VROPS: Viridans Resistant to Optochin, Pneumoniae susceptible
126
Where does Haemophilus influenzae usually colonize? How does it differ from infectious HiB?
High carraige rate (50-80%) in URT Normal flora strains lack capsule Those isolated from cases of Otitis Media can't be typed - may not be protected by vaccine
127
Haemophilus influenzae ID
small, gram neg coccobacilli requires X and V factor for growth capsule serotyping
128
Moraxella catarrhalis
gram neg coccobacilli normal flora of oropharynx can cause otitis media Throat flora in lab
129
What organism is associated with acute glomerulo nephritis and rheumatic heart disease? How does it contribute to those diseases?
GAS (S.pyogenes) M protein in capsule is cross-reactive with proteins in heart muscle (mostly respiratory strains) and kidney (mostly skin strains) Can lead to autoimmune attack in those organs.
130
What are SLO and SLS?
Streptolysins produced by GAS SLO: O2 labile - only causes B-hemolysis in low oxygen environment SLS: O2 stable - B-hemolysis in presence of oxygen
131
What is Spe (A-C)
Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxins type A-C produced by GAS Superantigens Spe A produced by minority of bugs Induce cytokine release, -> fever and rash, ->enhanced sensitivity to endotoxic shock Toxic Shock Like Syndrome
132
What is an Aschoff body associated with?
Rheumatic heart disease. Lesion of lymphocytes and macrophates around fibrinoid deposits in hearts of affected individuals Cell mediated response
133
What is the most common bacterial cause of pharyngitis?
S.pyogenes (GAS) | must be treated promptly to prevent sequelae including scarlet fever and rheumatic heart disease
134
How does Diptheria toxin work?
AB toxin B binds epidermal growth factor precursor -> endocytosis Reduction in vessicle releases A subunit A subunit ADP ribosylates elongation factor 2 (NAD + EF2 -> ADPR-EF2 + nicotinomide + H+ EF2 inactivated and translation ceases
135
How is diptheria toxin genetically regulated?
DT gene is carried by bacteriophages w and B | synthesis negatively regulated by iron - in humans iron is sequestered in RBCs - low levels in tissue where toxin acts
136
What is the pathogenesis of diptheria?
C.diptheria colonizes human pharynx Spread by droplet, contact w/ cutaneous infection, or fomite Causes "punched out" ulcer Pseudomembrane forms - oropharynx down trachea - can obstruct breathing and -> death Systemic manifestation: DT Can also attack heart and CNS
137
Describe the structure and function of pertussis toxin
AB toxin w/ 5 B subunits A subunit ADP ribosylates Gs -> uncontrolled production of adenylate cyclase and massive increase in cAMP (same action as cholera toxin, but different target cells) -histamine sensitization -promotion of lyphocytosis -insulin secretion -diminished oxidative killing by macrophages
138
How does B.pertussis interfere with ciliary function?
Filamentous hemaglutinin binds cilia of epithelial cells,
139
Two ways B.pertussis increases cAMP levels in host cells
1: Pertussis toxin: ADP-ribosylation of Gs 2: Bacteria produce invasive AC : enters cell and requires calmodulin for function
140
Explain regulation of B.pertussis virulence factors
BvgS: transmembrane histidine kinase -activated at 37C or w/ ionic changes -phosphorylates BvgA in bacterial cytoplasm BvgA: transcription factor that controls 20+ genes -temporal delay due to cascade -first Fha and pili genes activated -later Btx and invasive AC genes activated -> cytotoxicity
141
What systemic effects can B.pertussis have?
edema and hemorrhages in brain
142
How is B.pertussis identified in the lab?
direct fluorescent Ab assay available, but results should be confirmed w/ culture Culture: deep nasopharyngeal - plate and culture immediately (poor survival) Growth on Bordet-Gengou or Charcoal blood agar + Abx media -slow grow, 3-7 days
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Causative organism of malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
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What is the prognosis for untreated cerebral malaria?
if not treated: death in 24-72 hours
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How is Legionella pneumophilia spread?
``` Not spread person to person Organism exists inside amoebas reservoirs include AC cooling towers, shower heads, faucets, hospital ventilators Ubiquitous in nature Reservoir is aerosolized and inhaled ```
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Diseases caused by Legionella Pneumophilia
Legionnaires disease: severe pneumonia (2-10 days incubation), 60% mortality, nosocomial and community acquired Pontiac disease: non-pneumonial fever 1-2 days incubation, self-limiting. May be immune response to dead or low virulence strains Disseminated - rare
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How does L.pneumophilia invade and survive within host cells?
coiling phagocytosis (alveolar macrophages) - does not necessitate opsonization - inhibit phagosome/lysosome fusion - induction of ribosome/ mitochondria accumulation around vessicle - iron scavenging from ferritin - reproduction w/in phagosome, then escape and cell-lysis
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When is L.pneumophilia suspected and how is it identified?
Suspected in severe, progressive pneumonia with no known etiological agent Rarely found in sputum and poor gram stain capability Identified by ELISA, DNA homology
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Acinobacter identification
Gram neg rod | resembles Haemophilus
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What does acinobacter cause?
pneumonia | severe blood and wound infections in immunocompromised patients
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What organism causes "walking" pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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How is mycoplasma pneumoniae identified?
Rarely found in sputum, does not stain well. Diagnosed based on presence of complement fixing antibody -long incubation period, so patient presents with high Ab titer
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Describe Mycoplasma's morphology and growth requirements
lacks a cell wall - surrounded by triple membrane containing sterols - requires cholesterol for growth
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4 organisms that cause "atypical" pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae Legoinella pneumophila Chlamydia pneumoniae
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What cells does Chlamydia pneumonia infect?
Columnar epithelial cells Remember - 2 stage life cycle -Elementary body is infectious (carries adhesin) -Reticulate body replicates - uses host ATP generating potential
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What kinds of respiratory infections are S.aureus responsible for?
Acute pneumonia - secondary to some other insult to lung (influenza) Empyema - purulent infection of pleural space - from surgery or chest tube Lung abscess - complication of peumonia - usually involves aspiration of oral or gastric contents
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Virulence factors of Mybacoterium tuberculosis
Capsule!! -Mycolic Acid (cord factor) in cell wal -long chain FA, resists drying and disenfectants, hypersensitivity granuloma, promotes inflammatory response (TNFa) - lung tissue dammage -Lipoarabinomannan -cell wall glycolipid. suppresses Tcell proliferation and macrophage activation -Sulfolipids: inhibit lysosome - phagosome fusion in macrophage -Catalase: degrades H2O2 -Ammonia prod: prevents acidification of phagosome
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What does Mycobacterium bovis cause?
Rarely causes TB, found in milk, eradicated through pasteurization. Infects bone -> hunchback
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What causes systemic TB symptoms?
cytokine response Helpers and cytotoxic Tcells activate alveolar macrophages -> release of cytokines and systemic response (fever, weight loss
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What is a tubercle composed of?
Tubercle is a microscopic granuloma containing M.tuberculosis. Composed of multinucleate giant cells, activated macrophages, lymphocytes
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Fates of tuberculosis tubercle
become fibrotic or calcified w/ dead bacteria - visible on CXR Dormancy - reactivation later necrotic tubercle may erode to blood vessel -> disseminated disease.
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What is the basis of the TB skin test?
Delayed type hypersensitivity- effector Tcells recognize pathogen, attract macrophages -> local inflammation on pos. test
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How long does it take for a positive TB test after primary infection? what does a positive test indicate?
6 weeks Indicates exposure, not necessarily active disease. 6 weeks coincides with tubercle formation Need CXR to confirm active process
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How is TB identified?
Specimen: sputum, biopsy, blood w/ miliary TB (seen on CXR) Staining of sputum - diagnosis before bacteria will grow. gram +, but doesn't stain well Acid fast w/ Fuchsin stain Culture: condition w/ NaOH - inhibit other bacteria -24 hr. doubling time - very slow growth
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Cystic Fibrosis is associated with what bacterial lung infection?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa Initial infection may be S.aureus, later infection w/ Pseudomonas
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What organism is involved in Farmer's lung?
Aspergillus
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Histoplasma capsulatum virulence factors (LRI)
dimorphic growth: - environmental mold -> infectious conidia - conversion to pathogenic yeast at 37C can grow w/in macrophages and survive oxidative burst.
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How is H.capsulatum encountered and where is it most prevalent?
Grows in soil w/ abundance of bird and bat droppings. | Most abundant in Mississippi River valley and Ohio River valley
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What respiratory disease does Histoplasma capsulatum cause?
Chronic pneumonia Looks like TB - granulomas, necrosis - may disseminate to reticuloendothelial system
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How is histoplasma capsulatum diagnosed / identified?
Sputum of no use Need CXR and biopsy or blood sample Very slow growth in culture (weeks) - dimorphic - yeast and mold
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How does Blastomyces dermatitidis growth differ from Histoplasma?
extracelular growth in lung - too large for phagocytosis
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How is Blastomyces dermatitidis identified in the lab?
very slow culture (4wks) large yeast cells with broad buds serodiagnosis not very good- cross rxn with many other fungi
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What causes Valley Fever? How does pathology work?
``` Coccidioides immitis - soil fungus Arthroconidia inhaled (can be phagocytized ) and covert to Spherule (too large for phagocytosis) filled with endospores (can be phagocytized) ``` Spherules burst -> large Ag release -> large inflammatory response May induce anergy
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What does a negative Coccidioides skin test indicate?
True negative Performed test too soon (takes 1-4 weeks after onset of disease for pos. test) Anergy
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What is Pneumocystis jiroveci?
Fungus causing PCP pneumonia in immunosuppressed patients -AIDS, corticosteroids, leukemia Classification uncertain: morphology - protist, gentic - fungus Treatment: responds to antiprotozoal therapy - not antifungal
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What is characteristic about PCP pneumonia?
Often concurrent infections Alveoli filled with desquamated cells, organisms, monocytes, fluid - look "foamy" Diffuse alveolar infiltrates on CXR
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Symptomatic diagnosis of Pneumocytosis
``` Mild low grade fever non-productive cough progressive dyspnea and tachypnea cyanosis, hypoxia Death by asphyxiation ```
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What causes most respiratory infections/
Viruses (80%)
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What are mucins?
Protective proteins found in respiratory tract Decoy receptors Bind and occupy viral receptors rendering them unable to infect cells
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Influenza is a member of what family? genome description? enveloped?
Orthomyxoviridae (-) segmented RNA genome Enveloped virus
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What are influenza virus subfamilies and what strain causes pandemic flu?
A: pandemic - antigenic shift B: as serious as A, but no pandemic C: most common, but causes minor infection - not included in trivalent vaccine
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Process of influenza virus infection / replication / release
HA binds sialic acid on cell - receptor mediated endocytosis reduction in pH (5.3) -> HA conf. change, fusion of virion envelope w/ endosome M2 channel: H+ entry -> RNA release RNA -> nucleus -> transcription, replication -> virion assembly Virion-> cytoplasm -> release by budding NA: cleaves sialic acid from cell surface to prevent new virion from re-binding cell
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What is the major target of influenza drugs?
NA protein Olsemtamivir and Zamanivir Amantidine and Rimantidine bind M2 - don't work on flu B - most flu strains are resistant - wide overuse and misuse, esp in Asia
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Virus neutralizing antibodies target what protein on infuenza virus?
HA Also NA
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What Influenza A strains infect humans?
H1N1 H2N2 H3N2
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Seasonal flu vaccine contains what 3 viruses?
A: (CA 2009) H1N1pdm09 like A: (Victoria 2011) H3N2 like B: Wisconsin 2010 like
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What is H5N1?
Avian flu Have been a few cases of animal (ferret model) -> human transmission, but no human-> human Being watched as next potential pandemic flu virus
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What viruses are in family Paramyxoviridae?
Subfamily Paramyxovirinae Paramyxovirus: HPIV (Human Parainfluinza Virus) 1 and 3 Rubulavirus: Mumps, HPIV 2 and 4 Morbillivirus: Measles Subfamily Pneumovirinae Pneumovirus: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Metapneumovirus: Human Metapneumovirus (MPV)
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What causes Croup and what is it?
Caused by HPIV-1 viral respiratory infection of infants and children inflammation of larynx, trachea, bronchi Stridor heard on exam - inspiratory sound Respiratory distress - medical emergency Fever, N/V
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Viral cause of larnygitis?
HPIV - in adults and older children | vs. Croup in young children.
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Bronchiolitis
Infection and inflammation of bronchioles Adults - rare Children - life threatening (esp under 1yr.) -Usually caused by Respiratory Syncytial Virus -Also MPV, HPIV-3 May -> pneumonia
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What is the most common cause of LRI in children?
RSV | MPV probably second.
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Mumps virus and symptoms
Rubulavirus (paramyxovirus) Swelling of parotid gland (painful), swelling of cheeks and jaw, ear pain, fever and headache. Less frequent: meningitis, inflammation of testes, rash
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Measles virus and symptoms
Morbillivirus More severe than mumps Respiratory spread (14-18 day incubation) Malaise, cough, coryza, headache, conjunctivitis Koplik's spots - blue/white on buccal mucosa Rash 5-7 days, face -> trunk -> limbs
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Rubella
Togaviridae Respiratory spread, 12-23 day incubation Lymph node swelling, maculopapular rash, arthritis in adult women. Risk of infection of fetus - congenital rubella syndrome
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MMR vaccine
Live, attenuated 1st at 12-18 mos, 2nd at 4-6 yrs Combo of 3 vaccines
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What are heterophile antibodies?
Antibodies against unusual antigens to which host may not have been exposed EBV activates Bcells -> Ab production
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Burkitt's Lymphoma
African (endemic) form associated with EBV - most common childhood cancer in equitorial Africa Sporadic form is not
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Hairy Oral Leukopenia
Caused by EBV Oral infection in AIDS patients Lesions on side of tongue are areas of active viral replication
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In a case of pneumonia accompanied by HSV labialis, what is the most likely pathogen?
Pneumococcal pneumonia
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In a case of pneumonia accompanied by bullous myringitis, what is the most likely pathogen?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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What pneumonia causing organisms do not show up in a gram stain?
``` Mycoplasma TB All viruses Legionella PCP ```
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Rusty colored sputum is a symptom of what pneumonia causing organism?
Pneumococcus
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In mycoplasma pneumonia, where is the focus of infection?
Bronchi - not in alveoli | Infiltrate in lung is due to immune response
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What pneumonias have positive urine antigen test?
Legionella | Chlamydial pneumonia
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Common causes and non-causes of nosocomial pneumonia
S.aureus (20-39%) Gram neg aerobes Candida commonly cultured - rare cause No anaerobes
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Mainstay treatment for bacterial meningitis
B-lactam, max dose | BacteriCIDAL is preferred