psych Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Implicit memories are formed _____

A

unconsciously

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2
Q

All habits are _____ a type of implicit memory

A

procedural memories

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3
Q

Where are habits/implicit memories stored in the brain?

A

basal ganglia

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4
Q

The term that describes how previous experiences current interpretation of an event

A

priming

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5
Q

an implicit memory effect where prior exposure to a stimulus unfavorably influences the response to same stimulus

A

negative priming

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6
Q

type of priming that speeds up reaction time

A

positive priming

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7
Q

A memory system consisting of episodes recollected from an individuals life

A

autobiographical memory

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8
Q

what does memory encoding mean?

A

transferring info from temporary to long term memory

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9
Q

A working memory is processing anything that you’re thinking about in _____

A

the moment

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10
Q

If you want to remember more than ___ things, need to process that info so it stays in ____

A

7 long term memory

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11
Q

the term used to describe enhanced memory when testing takes place under the same conditions as learning

A

encoding specificity

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12
Q

What is the least effective way to store memories?

A

rote rehearsal

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13
Q

A memory technique that requires grouping info into meaningful categories

A

chunking

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14
Q

The term that describes linking what you are trying to learn to previously existing long-term info that is already in memory

A

mnemonics

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15
Q

The type of mnemonic device where the crazier the better

A

imagery

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16
Q

the type of mnemonic device where numbers are used to help memorize the order of words based on rhyming

A

pegword system

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17
Q

the mnemonic device which links info to locations

A

method of loci

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18
Q

The mnemonic device where each letter of a popular word means something

A

acronym

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19
Q

A memory technique that takes new info and relates it to yourself

A

self-referencing

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20
Q

The memory technique that spreads out study sessions instead of cramming

A

spacing

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21
Q

the term used to describe trying to remember something

A

retrieval

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22
Q

the term used to describe the environment you encode

A

context

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23
Q

____ - your state at the moment you encode.

A

state-dependent

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24
Q

___ can be a cue for state-dependent memory.

A

mood

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25
Q

What is the order of retrieval memory from most difficult to easiest?

A

free recall, cud recall, recognition

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25
Q

What is the order of retrieval memory from most difficult to easiest?

A

free recall, cued recall, recognition

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26
Q

free recall requires ___ ___ in recalling

A

no cues

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27
Q

What is the difference between primary effect and regency effect in free recall?

A

primary- first regency- last things on list

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28
Q

The serial position curve/effect is the overall tendency to recall ___ few items well, ___ few items well and ___ items not so great

A

first last middle

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29
Q

The type of recall that requires extra clues to remember the words

A

cued recall

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30
Q

The type of recall that presents the info and helps to retrieve memory (easiest)

A

recognition

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31
Q

____ is the mental blueprint containing common aspects of the world, instead of reality

A

schema

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32
Q

When people recall info they often forget the information’s source - an error in ___ _____

A

source monitoring

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33
Q

____ _____ is the inability to remember where, when or how previously learned info has been acquired, while retaining the factual knowledge

A

Source amnesia

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34
Q

___ ___ are highly emotional memories that feel extremely vivid

A

flashbulb memories

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35
Q

the term used to describe making connections between neurons (LTP)?

A

long term potentiation

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36
Q

Presynaptic neurons release ____ on post synaptic neurons, allowing __ and ___ to flow in

A

neurotransmitters Na+ Ca2+

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37
Q

What is electrical potential?

A

difference in charge between outside and inside neuron

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38
Q

In the LTP mechanism, the same ___ ___ will elicit a ____ response in the ___ ___

A

presynaptic stimulation stronger postsynaptic neuron

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39
Q

the greater the post synaptic potential, the more ___ ___ will open in the neuron

A

ion channels

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40
Q

___ ___ is changes in brain size and involves function of environmental influences

A

neural plasticity

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41
Q

the term used to describe forgetting memories

A

decay

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42
Q

most forgetting happens _____

A

in the first few days

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43
Q

the name of the German psychologist that was the first person to look at decay in human memory

A

Ebbinghaus

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44
Q

the term describing how some foundation of memory still exists even if the person can’t recall

A

savings

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45
Q

What are the two types of memory interference?

A

retroactive and proactive

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46
Q

what type of interference refers to later info interfering with memory of earlier info?

A

retroactive

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47
Q

What type of interference refers to how earlier info interferes with later info?

A

proactive

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48
Q

When aging, implicit memory and recognition memory abilities are ___

A

stable

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49
Q

when aging, ___ memories ____ until the age of ___.

A

semantic improve 60

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50
Q

when aging, there is a decline in ___ memories. Also ___ memories are impaired (forming new memories are difficult), ____ speed is also slower.

A

recalling episodic processing

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51
Q

____ memory is remembering to do things in the future

A

prospective

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52
Q

the term for decline in memory and other cognitive functions to the point of interfering with normal life

A

dementia

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53
Q

The most common form of dementia is ____ ____

A

Alzheimer’s disease

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54
Q

In earliest stages of Alzheimer’s disease, people have difficulty remembering the __ of the person they just met

A

name

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55
Q

Exact cause of AD is ____. may be due to ____ dying off and ___ ___ shrinking in size

A

unknown neurons cerebral cortex

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56
Q

AD causes buildup of ___ ___ in brain

A

amyloid plaques

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57
Q

Continual progression of AD might lead to ____ instability and loss of control over ___ ___

A

emotional bodily functions

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58
Q

____ syndrome is caused by a lack of vitamin b1 (____)

A

Korsakoff’s thiamine

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59
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome is caused by malnutrition, ___ ___, and especially ____

A

eating disorders alcoholism

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60
Q

Thiamine is important because converts ____ into ___ cells needed for energy

A

carbs glucose

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61
Q

In Korsakoff’s syndrome, the first stage causes poor balance, abnormal ___ movements, mild confusion and ___ loss. this stage is called ___ ____

A

eye memory Wernicke’s encephalopathy

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62
Q

If Wernicke’s encephalopathy is diagnosed in time it can __ the damage or prevent further damage

A

reverse

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63
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome if diagnosed is ____

A

treatable

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64
Q

treatment of Korsakoff’s syndrome is ___ ___, staying on a healthy diet, abstaining from ___

A

thiamine injections alcohol

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65
Q

_____ amnesia is inability to recall info previously encoded

A

retrograde

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66
Q

_____ amnesia is inability to encode new memories

A

anterograde

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67
Q

____ is a deficit in memory caused by brain damage, disease or ____ ____

A

amnesia psychological trauma

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68
Q

____ ____ - concepts are organized in mind as connected ideas

A

semantic networks

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69
Q

What is the first semantic network theory that suggested we store info from higher order categories to lower order categories?

A

hierarchical semantic network

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70
Q

The hierarchical semantic networks states that more ___ takes more ___ to process

A

nodes time

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71
Q

The modified semantic network states that ___ nodal links determines the amount of activation emitted to a network

A

stronger

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72
Q

Which psychologist argued that children actively construct their understanding of the world as they grow?

A

Piaget

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73
Q

The first stage of Piaget’s stages of development is from ages __ to__. It is called the ____ ____.

A

0 2 sensorimotor stage

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74
Q

In the sensorimotor stage, children gather info from ___. Their main development in this stage is ___ ____- objects exist even if they can’t see them

A

senses object permanence

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75
Q

Stage 2 of Piaget is ages __ to __ called the ___ ___

A

2-6/7 pre-operational stage

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76
Q

In stage 2 of Piaget kids start to ___ play and are very ____ - only concerned about themselves

A

pretend egocentric

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77
Q

Stage 3 of Piaget is age __ to__. It is called the __ __.

A

7 11 concrete operational

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78
Q

In stage 3, kids learn the idea of _____. They learn ___ and begin reasoning of ___ skills

A

conservation empathy math

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79
Q

stage 4 of piaget is age __. It is called ___ ___ ___

A

12+ formal operational stage

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80
Q

In stage 4 of piaget, children begin to understand ___ concepts. The begin to develop ___ ___

A

abstract moral reasoning

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81
Q

___ are mental models or frameworks for us to organize and interpret new info

A

schemas

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82
Q

One way to develop a schema is through ___ - how we describe new info in terms of our current understanding

A

assimilation

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83
Q

_____ is how we later adjust our schemas to incorporate new experiences

A

accommodation

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84
Q

____ ____ is moving from a current state to a goal state

A

problem solving

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85
Q

___ ___ problems - clear starting and ending point

A

well-defined

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86
Q

___ ___ problems - more ambiguous starting or/and ending point (ex. how to live a happy life)

A

ill-defined

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87
Q

What method of problem solving involves taking a random guess until something finally works?

A

Trial and error

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88
Q

What method of problem solving involves a methodical approach, but is not efficient and guarantees a correct solution?

A

Algorithm

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89
Q

What is the problem solving method that involves mental shortcuts that allow to find solution quicker, but may not guarantee a correct solution?

A

heuristics

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90
Q

___ ___ ___- a heuristic where we analyze main problem and break down into smaller problems

A

means-end analysis

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91
Q

___ ___- goal state –> current state. start with goal and use it to suggest connections back to current state

A

working backwards

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92
Q

What is the method of problem solving that involves relying on instinct. (high chance of error)?

A

intuition

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93
Q

____- getting stuck on a wrong approach to a problem

A

fixation

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94
Q

Type 1 error =

A

false positive

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95
Q

type 2 error =

A

false negative

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96
Q

__ __ - we make a judgement of the probability of a certain outcome

A

decision making

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97
Q

What decision making heuristic uses examples that come to mind, but may not match real world situations?

A

availability heuristic

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98
Q

What decision making heuristic involves looking to match a prototype of the problem?

A

representativeness heuristic

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99
Q

__ __- occurrence of two instances is more likely than a single one

A

conjunction fallacy

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100
Q

___ prevent us from making correct decisions or from changing decisions once they are made

A

bias

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101
Q

going into a test without knowing a lot of info is an example of ___

A

overconfidence

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102
Q

___ ___ is a type of bias when you ignore/rationalize disconfirming facts

A

belief perseverance

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103
Q

type of bias that actively seeks out only confirming facts

A

confirmation bias

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104
Q

___ effects - how you present the info. that can affect decision making (ex. save 200 people vs kill 2/3 of 600)

A

framing

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105
Q

What does IQ stand for?

A

intelligence quotient

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106
Q

Spearman’s theory of intelligence states theres 1 __ __

A

general intelligence

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107
Q

__ __ proposed that there are 3 types of intelligences

A

Robert Sternburg

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108
Q

The 3 types of intelligences presented by Robert Sternburg are

A

analytical, creative and practical intelligence

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109
Q

IQ score only measures ___ intelligence

A

analytical

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110
Q

average score on IQ test is __

A

100

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111
Q

__ __- the ability to perceive, understand, manage and use emotions in interactions with others

A

emotional intelligence

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112
Q

___ intelligence- ability to reason quickly and abstractly, such as when solving novel logic problems (think on ur feet)

A

fluid

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113
Q

___ intelligence - accumulated knowledge and verbal skills (ability to retrieve and acquire knowledge)

A

crystallized

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114
Q

__ __ - first to develop an intelligence test, but wasn’t intending to. (designed to find child’s mental age)

A

Alfred Binet

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115
Q

__ __- the psychologist at Stanford that modified Binet’s intelligence test and included adults and teenagers

A

Lewis Terman

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116
Q

What is the question of nature vs. nurture?

A

how much is intelligence due to genes and how much is due to environment?

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117
Q

There is no recipe for structuring ___ to make a genius

A

environment

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118
Q

___ mindset - intelligence is biologically set and unchanging

A

fixed

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119
Q

___ mindset- praises effort, perseverance, improvement and strategies in improving intelligence

A

growth

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120
Q

Who introduced the idea of hereditary genius (human ability is hereditary)?

A

Galton

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121
Q

__ intelligence was proposed by Guilford to describe IQ test related intelligence

A

convergent

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122
Q

Who proposed the theory of general intelligence and what is the theory of general intelligence?

A

Charles Spearman

  • used factor analysis to identify cluster of related abilities
  • 1 general intelligence
  • g factor- can predict intelligence in many different areas
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123
Q

What evidence supports the theory of general intelligence and what are the problems with this theory?

A

supported by research
those who score high in one area score well in others

controversial
can one factor explain all diverse human abilities
limited in what it considers to be intelligence

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124
Q

Who introduced the Theory of Mental Abilities and what is the theory?

A

L.L. Thurnstone

  • 7 factors of intelligence; word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial reasoning, perceptual speed, numerical ability, inductive
    reasoning, and memory.
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125
Q

What are the strengths and problems of the Theory of Primary mental abilities?

A

strength- breakdown seems intuitive
problem- How can scores vary together statistically?
- Limited in what it considers to be intelligence

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126
Q

Who introduced the theory of Multiple Intelligence? What is it?

A

Howard Gardner

  • Expanded ideas of what can be included in intelligence
  • logical-mathematical intelligence, verbal-linguistic, spatial-visual, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, musical, naturalist, and existential intelligence
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127
Q

What are the strengths and problems of the theory of Multiple Intelligence?

A

strength- You can have different strengths independently.
• Intelligence is more than just “book smarts.”

problem- No way to test this theory (not supported by research)
• Intelligence vs. talents/abilities (but maybe this is just a labeling)

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128
Q

Who introduced the Triarchic theory of Intelligence? What is it?

A

Robert Sternburg

analytical (problem solving ability), creative intelligence, and practical intelligence.

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129
Q

What are the strengths and problems with the Triarchic Theory of intelligence?

A

strength - reliable, easy to study by research
problem - research shows that scores of all intelligences vary together
- are these 3 sides of the same coin?

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130
Q

What are 4 cognitive abilities that decline as you age?

A

recall, episodic memory, processing speed, divided attention

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131
Q

What cognitive abilities are STABLE as you age?

A

implicit memory, recognition memory

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132
Q

What cognitive abilities IMPROVE as you age?

A

semantic memory, crystallized intelligence, emotional reasoning

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133
Q

Which hemisphere of the brain is language processed?

A

left

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134
Q

What are the 2 main areas of the brain where language is processed?

A

Broca’s area (frontal lobe) and Wernicke’s area (temporal lobe- sound processing)

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135
Q

___ is a communication disorder that involves language problems, like speaking, listening, reading and writing

A

Aphasia

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136
Q

__ __ - disease that produces broken/halted speech. The __ __ region is damaged in the brain

A

Broca’s aphasia frontal lobe

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137
Q

__ __ - a disease that causes words not to make any sense. people can’t understand what others say. The __ __ region of the brain is damaged.

A

Wernicke’s aphasia temporal lobe

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138
Q

__ __- disease that is the combination of impaired comprehension and production of speech

A

global aphasia

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139
Q

the wernicke’s and Broca’s are connected by a bundle of nerve fibers called __ __

A

arcuate fasciculus

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140
Q

__ __ - disease that causes inability to conduct between listening and speaking. Associated with damage to the __ __

A

conduction aphasia arcuate fasciculus

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141
Q

__ - the inability to write

A

agraphia

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142
Q

___ __- disease characterized by the inability to name objects or retrieve words

A

Anomic aphasia

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143
Q

a split brain patient is caused by damage to the __ __ which connects the two hemispheres of the brain

A

corpus callosum

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144
Q

The brain has ___ organization; left visual field gets processed by right side and vice versa

A

contralateral

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145
Q

___ - located on right hemisphere, concerned w larger units of speech like syllables. (contribute to linguistic functions such as intonation, tone, stress)

A

prosody

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146
Q

___- empiricist, believe that language is a conditioned behavior

A

behaviorists

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147
Q

___- rationalist, language must be innate

A

nativists

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148
Q

__- look at what happens in brain when people speak/think/write

A

materialist

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149
Q

The theory of ____ states that thought determines language completely.

A

Universalism

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150
Q

Piaget thought that children use __ to describe their thoughts. Language influence is influenced by __ __

A

language, cognitive development

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151
Q

___ thought that language and thought are both independent, but converge through __

A

Vygotsky, development

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152
Q

__ __ __ : (relativism) language influences thought. the theory that linguistic structure influences but doesn’t determine the context of everyday encounters

A

Weak Linguistic Determinism

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153
Q

__ __ __ - (Sapir-Whorfian hypothesis) language determines thought completely. People understand their world through language

A

Strong linguistic determinism

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154
Q

___ perspective on language- children are born with the ability to learn language. Associated with __ __

A

nativist, Noam Chomsky

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155
Q

Naom Chomsky thought that all humans had a _ _ _ that allowed them to learn language.

A

Language acquisition device

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156
Q

In the Nativist perspective of language, there’s an idea of a __ __, where the child is most able to learn a language from age _ to _

A

critical period, 0-8/9

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157
Q

The __ (behaviorist) theory- children aren’t born with anything, they only acquire language through __ conditioning

A

learning, operant

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158
Q

__ __- (aka social interactionist approach) theory that states biological and social factors have to interact in order for children to learn language. Associated with __

A

interactionist approach, Vygotsky

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159
Q

What is lexicon?

A

a set of vocab items

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160
Q

Lexical access refers to ___ a word and __ to its meaning

A

identifying, connecting

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161
Q

___- actual sound of a language “sound system”

A

phonology

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162
Q

there are __ phonemes in english language

A

40

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163
Q

___ - refers to the structure of words

A

morphology

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164
Q

___- association of meaning with a word

A

semantics

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165
Q

____- how words are put together in sentences

A

syntax

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166
Q

___- dependences of language on context and pre-existing knowledge. affected by __ - the rhythm, cadence and inflection of our voices

A

pragmatics, prosody

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167
Q

the limbic system is a set of structures in the brain that play a role in regulating ___.

A

emotions

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168
Q

Structures of the limbic system include (HAT Hippo):

A

Hypothalamus, amygdala, thalamus, hippocampus

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169
Q

What does the thalamus control?

A

sensory relay station (directs senses to appropriate areas in cortex)

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170
Q

Amygdala - aka ___ center. when stimulated produces __ and __

A

aggression, anger fear

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171
Q

__ __ syndrome- destruction of amygdala, results in ___ (put things in mouth a lot) and drunken behaviors

A

Kluver-Bucy, hyperorality

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172
Q

Patients with a damaged amygdala are given ___ as treatment

A

Benzos

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173
Q

key role of hippocampus

A

forming memories

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174
Q

key role of hypothalamus

A

regulates Autonomic nervous system, controls endocrine system by triggering hormones, responsible for hunger, sleep, thirst and sex

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175
Q

Positive emotions evoke more brain activity on the __ hemisphere

A

left

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176
Q

Negative emotions are evoked by more brain activity on the __ hemisphere

A

right

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177
Q

the __ __ of the brain is responsible for executive control (solve problems, make decisions, how you act in social situations)

A

prefrontal cortex

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178
Q

The ANS (autonomic nervous system) has two branches, the __ and the __

A

sympathetic, parasympathetic

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179
Q

what physiological changes occur during a sympathetic response?

A
pupils dilate 
decrease in salivation
increase respiration rate
increase HR
increase adrenaline
increase glucose release
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180
Q

What physiological changes occur during parasympathetic response?

A
pupils constrict 
increased salivation 
decrease respiratory rate
increase digestion
decrease adrenaline 
increase glucose storage
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181
Q

What are the 3 components of emotion?

A

physiological, cognitive, behavioral

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182
Q

__ __ found _ main universal emotions. What are they?

A

Paul Ekman, 6

happiness, sadness, fear, disgust, anger and surprise

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183
Q

The __ __ theory of emotion - experience of emotion is due to perception of physiological responses

A

James-Lange

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184
Q

In James-Lange Theory of emotion, an event –> ____ —> Interpretation –> ___

A

physiological response, emotion

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185
Q

___ ___ theory of emotion- disagreed w James-Lange, physiological responses and emotion occurred ___.

A

Cannon-Bard, simultaneously

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186
Q

What flaws were found on the James-Lange theory of emotion?

A
  • can experience physiological response w/o emotion
  • noticed many emotions had same physiological responses
  • physiological responses were slow compared to emotions produced
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187
Q

__ __ (2 factor theory of emotion) - physiological and cognitive responses ___ form experience of emotion.

A

Schachter-Singer, simultaneously

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188
Q

Schachter-Singer theory of emotion-

event–>PR + ___ —> emotion

A

identifying reason for situation

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189
Q

The ___ theory- experience of emotion depends on how the situation is cognitively labelled (what events elicit good or bad emotions)

A

Lazarus

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190
Q

the ___ is the conductor of emotional experiences, communicating between the ___ and prefrontal cortex.

A

amygdala, hypothalamus

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191
Q

emotions associated with memories are encoded in the ____

A

hippocampus

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192
Q

the ___ ___ law- people perform best when they are moderately aroused (__ shape curve)

A

Yerkes-Dodson, bell

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193
Q

What is stress?

A

the process by which we appraise and cope with environmental threats and challenges

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194
Q

What is a stressor?

A

Threatening/challenging event

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195
Q

What is the stress reaction?

A

subsequent physical and emotional response

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196
Q

__ __ believes that stress arises less from physical events but more from the interpretation of those stresses (___ theory of stress)

A

Richard Lazarus, Appraisal

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197
Q

the 1st cognitive stage of stress is the __ __, which is assessing stress in present situation

A

primary appraisal

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198
Q

What are the 3 responses to primary appraisal in stress?

A

irrelevant, benign/positive, stressful/negative

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199
Q

___ ___- evaluation of the individual’s ability to cope with the stressful situation (2nd stage of stress)

A

secondary appraisal

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200
Q

What are the 4 main categories of stressors?

A

Significant life changes
catastrophic events
daily hassles
Ambient stressors

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201
Q

Who coined the term “fight or flight”?

A

Walter Cannon

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202
Q

In the endocrine response, the __ __ releases catecholamines (epinephrine and ___).

A

adrenal medulla, norepinephrine

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203
Q

The adrenal cortex releases __ -steroid hormone that redistributes glucose energy in body and suppresses __ __

A

glucocorticoid (cortisol), immune system

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204
Q

What are the 3 phases of stress by Hans Selye? (General Adaptation Syndrome)

A

Alarm phase- stress kicks in
Resistance - fleeing, temp elevated, BP high
Exhaustion - if resistance isn’t followed by recovery

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205
Q

___ stress has serious __ effects to the body

A

chronic, negative

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206
Q

What kind of effects does chronic stress have on the heart?

A

increased BP. - can lead to hypertension and vascular disease

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207
Q

What negative effects does chronic stress have on metabolism?

A

excess blood sugar can cause diabetes or heart disease

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208
Q

What effects does chronic stress have on the reproductive system?

A

women- decrease in FSH/LH

men- decrease in testosterone

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209
Q

What effects does chronic stress have on the immune system?

A

causes inflammation, more susceptible to illness

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210
Q

the 2 areas of the brain with most glucocorticoid receptors are the __ and __

A

hippocampus, frontal cortex

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211
Q

depression or ____ is the inability to experience pleasure, so perceive more stressors

A

anhedonia

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212
Q

In depression, the ___ ___ stops responding to __ (the hormone for happiness)

A

anterior cingulate, serotonin

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213
Q

___ ___- you learn from having control ripped out of hands, lose ability to identify coping mechanisms

A

learned helplessness

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214
Q

What are the 3 emotional/behavioral effects of stress (3 A’s)?

A

Anger, anxiety, addiction

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215
Q

What are some ways to manage stress in a healthy way?

A

exercise, meditation, religious beliefs, cognitive flexibility

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216
Q

one positive coping strategy for stress is anticipating the problem, known as __ __

A

proactive coping

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217
Q

___ is when one reduces the stress of some difficult challenge by anticipating what it will be like and preparing to cope

A

anticipation

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218
Q

A type of stress coping that seeks social support from others

A

social coping

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219
Q

A type of stress coping when a person concentrates on deriving meaning from the stressful experience

A

meaning-focused coping

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220
Q

What are some examples of maladaptive coping mechanisms?

A

dissociation, sensitization, safety behaviors, anxious avoidance, escape

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221
Q

What consist of the CNS?

A

brain and spinal cord

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222
Q

__ __ __ - efferent neurons of the PNS synapse on control skeletal muscle

A

lower motor neurons

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223
Q

___ - involuntary twitches of skeletal muscle

A

fasciculations

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224
Q

hyporeflexia

A

decreased muscle stretch relfex

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225
Q

somatosensation includes 5 main ones:

A

position sense, vibration, touch, pain and temperature

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226
Q

What kind of receptors detect position, vibration and touch?

A

mechanoreceptors

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227
Q

What kind of receptors detect pain?

A

nociceptors

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228
Q

What kind of receptors detect temperature?

A

thermoreceptors

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229
Q

nociceptors and thermoreceptors are ___ in speed

A

slow

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230
Q

mechanoreceptors are __ in speed

A

fast

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231
Q

Mechanoreceptors are located where?

A

skin, blood vessels, ear

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232
Q

Where are chemoreceptors located in the body?

A

tongue, blood, nose, tissue

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233
Q

Where are thermoreceptors located?

A

skin, hypothalamus

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234
Q

mechanoreceptors have __ myelin sheath

A

thick

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235
Q

reflexes have 2 parts: __ (stimulus) and __ (response)

A

afferent, efferent

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236
Q

muscle stretch reflex- causes a muscle to ___ after ___

A

contract, stretched

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237
Q

sympathetic NS starts ___ of spinal cord –> __ axon synapses with short ganglia close to spine –> second neuron goes to target cell

A

middle, short

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238
Q

PNS starts at the __ __ or bottom of spinal cord –> 1st neuron sends long axon –> synapse with ganglion of second neuron –> sends __ axon to target cell

A

brain stem, short

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239
Q

What does gray matter consist of?

A

neuron somas (cell bodies)

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240
Q

White matter consists of?

A

myelinated axons

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241
Q

__ matter in on inside of spinal cord, and __ matter is on outside

A

grey, white

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242
Q

In the brain, __ matter is on inside and __ matter is on outside

A

white, gray

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243
Q

__ __ __ control the LMNs (lower motor neurons)

A

Upper motor neurons

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244
Q

a collection of axons that carry movement-related information from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord

A

corticospinal tract

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245
Q

collections of axons that travel from cerebral cortex to the brain stem

A

corticobulbar tract

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246
Q

___ - increase in the muscle stretch reflexes

A

hyperreflexia

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247
Q

___- rhythmic contractions of antagonist muscle

A

clonus

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248
Q

___- increased tone of skeletal muscles. increase muscle tension

A

hypertonia

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249
Q

__ __ __ - if you take a hard object and scrape along bottom of foot, normal response is flexor – toes will come down on the object. But with extensor, toes extend up.

A

extensor plantar response

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250
Q

all somatosensory pathways __ to the other side of the __

A

cross, brain

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251
Q

Which part of the brain processes sensory information?

A

parietal lobe

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252
Q

Which part of the brain processes visual info?

A

occipital lobe

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253
Q

Which part of the brain processes auditory info?

A

temporal lobe

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254
Q

The ___ hemisphere is dominant for a vast majority of people

A

left

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255
Q

What part of the brain helps to maintain balance and motor control?

A

cerebellum

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256
Q

The brainstem consists of what 3 structures?

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

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257
Q

__ __- neuron somas scattered throughout the brainstem (role in autonomic functions)

A

reticular formation

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258
Q

__ __- collections of axons connecting cerebrum and brainstem

A

long tracts

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259
Q

There are __ pairs of cranial nerves

A

12

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260
Q

What part of the brain regulates waking and relaxing?

A

pons

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261
Q

What part of the brain is involved in motivation and alertness?

A

reticular formation

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262
Q

What part of the brain regulates the autonomic activity of the heart and lungs?

A

medulla

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263
Q

___ ___ - contains many important pathways, including the corticospinal tract

A

internal capsule

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264
Q

__ __ - major role in motor functions, don’t have UMNs but help motor areas to perform proper movements. Also cognition + emotion. (part of brain)

A

basal ganglia

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265
Q

___ - responsible for sensory functions, also higher functions of brain such as cognition and emotion.

A

thalamus

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266
Q

___ - controls the pituitary gland, the master gland that controls all other glands in body

A

hypothalamus

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267
Q

the most common excitatory neurotransmitter

A

glutamate

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268
Q

the 2 most common inhibitory Neurotransmitters

A

glycine and GABA

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269
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released for lower motor neurons? (released from nuclei in frontal lobe)

A

acetylcholine

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270
Q

Which neurotransmitter is sent from the hypothalamus to cerebral cortex?

A

histamine

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271
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released from the pons (locus coeruleus) and sent to the cerebral cortex?

A

norepinephrine

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272
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released by nuclei all over the brainstem called raphe nuclei to cerebral cortex?

A

serotonin

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273
Q

dopamine is produced in the __ __ and the __ __ __

A

substantia nigra, ventral tegmental area

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274
Q

When dopamine produces negative symptoms, it is produced in the VTA –> __

A

pre-frontal cortex

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275
Q

The pathway for positive effects of dopamine=

___ —> ____

A

VTA, limbic (nucleus accumbens, amygdala, hippocampus)

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276
Q

in the PNS, the two main neurotransmitters are

A

acetylcholine and epinephrine

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277
Q

GABA affects the __ and glycine affects the __

A

CNS, PNS

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278
Q

Low levels of __ are associated with Parkinson’s disease

A

dopamine

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279
Q

high levels of __ are associated with schizophrenia

A

dopamine

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280
Q

____ - people who thought each brain area is devoted to a certain personality characteristic, thought, emotion

A

phrenologist

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281
Q

___ studies- when parts of the brain are purposefully destroyed to find out what their function is (not done on humans)

A

lesion

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282
Q

lesions studies can be done by ___ ___- used to destroy tissue on surface of brain and deep inside brain. Wire is inserted into brain to determine the area. Then pass high frequency current which heats up and destroys tissue.

A

radiofrequency lesions

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283
Q

__ __- a lesion study technique that uses surgical removal of parts of brain

A

tissue removal

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284
Q

the most precise method of lesion studies of the brain (excitotoxins are used to bind to glutamate receptors)

A

neurochemical lesions

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285
Q

What is an example of a excitotoxin that destroys cell bodies but doesn’t influence axons passing by?

A

kainic acid

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286
Q

Which excitotoxin selectively destroys dopamine and NE neurons?

A

oxidopamine

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287
Q

What lesion study method involves cooling down neurons until they stop firing?

A

cortical cooling (cryogenic blockade)

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288
Q

Which brain imaging technique uses x-rays to show the structure of the brain, but can’t show brain activity?

A

CAT (computerized axial tomography) scan

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289
Q

Which type of brain imaging method uses radio waves and a magnetic field?

A

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

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290
Q

How does an MRI work?

A

radio waves are added to a magnetic field which disorients atoms. when atoms move back to alignment w the magnetic field they release signals and they used to create an image

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291
Q

Which type of brain imaging method can give info of seizures, sleep stages and cognitive tasks? (don’t get a picture of the brain)

A

EEG (electroencephalogram)

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292
Q

Which of the brain studying methods has a better resolution than an EEG and uses magnetic fields produced by electric currents in the brain. Measured by using SQUIDS

A

MEG (megnetoencephalogram)

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293
Q

Which type of brain imaging uses MRI images but tells us about brain activity? (measures oxygen in the brain)

A

fMRI (functional MRI)

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294
Q

What type of scan involves injecting glucose into cells to see which parts of the brain are active (more invasive)? (also requires swallowing a radioactive tracer)

A

PET (positron emission tomography)

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295
Q

What part of the brain regulates blood volume?

A

hypothalamus

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296
Q

What hormones does the Anterior pituitary gland produce?

A

FH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, Endorphins, GH

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297
Q

What hormones does the posterior pituitary gland produce?

A

ADH and oxytocin

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298
Q

What hormone does the Pars Intermedia produce?

A

MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone)

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299
Q

What is the main function of the thyroid?

A

regulate body metabolism

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300
Q

What is the main role of the parathyroid?

A

regulate calcium levels

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301
Q

What is the function of the adrenal glands?

A

involved in stress response and produces catecholamines and glucocorticosteroids

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302
Q

FSH/LH stimulation releases ___ hormones

A

sex

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303
Q

What is the main role of the pancreas?

A

regulates blood sugar (PAN of sugar)

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304
Q

Hormone concentration in the body is regulated by ____ and ___

A

metabolism, secretion (negative feedback loops)

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305
Q

the name of the layer with many glycoproteins on a human egg before cell membrane

A

zona pellucida

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306
Q

What is the acrosome reaction in fertilization?

A

enzymes leak into the zona pellucida and digest it. sperm gets closer to the plasma membrane of the egg

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307
Q

what is the cortical reaction in fertilization?

A

when sperm binds to plasma membrane, cortical granules are released and plasma membranes fuse, genetic material is transferred

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308
Q

What is the order of embryogenesis? zygote —> __ —> ___

A

zygote, morula, blastula

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309
Q

How many cells is a morula?

A

32

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310
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

formation of germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm)

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311
Q

in Neurulation, the ___ differentiates and thickens to a ___

A

ectoderm, neural plate

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312
Q

the neural plate eventually forms the ___

A

neural tube (becomes spinal cord)

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313
Q

____ is when the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium

A

apposition

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314
Q

during implantation of the blastocyst, what cells provide nutrients to the embryo and later forms the placenta?

A

trophoblasts

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315
Q

___ form villi, which turn into fetal blood vessels

A

synciotrophoblasts

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316
Q

the endoderm forms__

A

GI tract tube, lungs, liver and pancreas

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317
Q

the mesoderm forms ___

A

inner layers of skin, muscles, bones, cardiac muscles, kidneys, bladder, ovaries and testes

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318
Q

ectoderm forms___

A

skin, sweat glands, hair, nervous system

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319
Q

What characterizes embryogenesis?

A

divided cells and organ system formed

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320
Q

at what week of gestation is an embryo considered a fetus?

A

week 10

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321
Q

at week ___ of gestation there is a 50% chance of survival

A

24

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322
Q

how long is the avg. human gestation period (in weeks)?

A

37-42 weeks

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323
Q

___- preprogrammed motor skills

A

reflexes

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324
Q

major motor milestones at 2-4 months old

A

heads up/chest up

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325
Q

major motor milestone at 2-5 months

A

roll over

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326
Q

major motor milestone at 5-8 months

A

sit up

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327
Q

major motor milestones at 5-10 months

A

stand with support

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328
Q

major motor milestone at 6-11 months

A

pull up to standing position

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329
Q

major motor milestone at 7-12 months

A

crawling

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330
Q

major motor milestone at 7-13 months

A

walk with support

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331
Q

major motor milestone at 10-14 months

A

stand on own

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332
Q

major motor milestone at 11-15 months

A

walking

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333
Q

Gross motor skills develop ___ fine motor skills

A

before

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334
Q

What does head to toe development mean?

A

babies can lift heads before crawling

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335
Q

___ reflexes - important for newborns and also present throughout life

A

permanent

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336
Q

___ reflexes - these disappear as baby ages. helps doctors assess if something is not developing correctly

A

neonatal

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337
Q

rooting reflex (babies)

A

cheek stroking - baby turns head

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338
Q

Babinski reflex

A

how baby turn/unturn toes when stroked at sole of foot

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339
Q

moro relfex

A

fan out arms then back

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340
Q

tonic neck reflex (baby)

A

when babies head turned, the arm on that side straightens, while other arm bends

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341
Q

galant reflex (baby)

A

when skin stroked, baby moves/swings to side of stroking

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342
Q

palmer grasp reflex (baby)

A

close hands on anything that comes near palm

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343
Q

sucking reflex (baby)

A

baby suck on anything close to mouth

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344
Q

stepping reflex (baby)

A

hold infant upright and touch feet to flat surface, start taking steps

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345
Q

swimming reflex (baby)

A

infants in water move arms and legs, involuntarily holds breath

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346
Q

the ___ cortex is developed during adolescence

A

prefrontal

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347
Q

What are the top 2 parts of the limbic system that are developed in adolescence?

A

amygdala and hypothalamus

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348
Q

the corpus collosum develops until ___

A

puberty

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349
Q

in adolescence, there is an increase in __ in the brain

A

myelination

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350
Q

___ ___- breaking down connections between certain neurons. focus resources on the ones we use most (in adolescence)

A

synaptic pruning

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351
Q

__ __ - looking at genetic component or hardwiring component to behavior

A

behavioral genetics

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352
Q

we have aprox. 20,000 to __ genes

A

25 k

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353
Q

__ - units of hereditary

A

genes

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354
Q

What is an example of a simple trait?

A

eye color , hair color

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355
Q

What is an example of a complex trait?

A

happiness, intelligence, aggressiveness

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356
Q

simple traits interact ___ with the environment, while complex traits are more impacted by ___ ___

A

minimally, environmental influences

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357
Q

____ - broader than personality. characteristic emotional reactivity, intensity

A

temperament

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358
Q

Personality is believed to be __ over a person’s lifestyle

A

constant

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359
Q

monozygotic twins are __

A

identical

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360
Q

dizygotic twins are __

A

fraternal

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361
Q

__ __ - when an adopted child is compared to biological family and adopted family

A

adoption studies

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362
Q

__ or __ studies are used to look at the effect of nature vs nurture

A

adoption twin

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363
Q

if genes are strong identical twins are the __

A

same

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364
Q

if environmental factors in twin studies are strong then identical twins may seem like __

A

fraternal twins

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365
Q

In adoption studies, if genes are strong then the adopted child would ____

A

be similar to biological parents

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366
Q

In adoption studies, if environmental factors are strong, then the adopted child would be similar to __

A

adopted family

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367
Q

___ - variability of traits can be attributed to differences in genes

A

heritability

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368
Q

boys with a 100% controlled environment have different IQs, what percent of the difference in IQ heritable?

A

100%

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369
Q

__ __- a new field of science that looks at the molecular structure and function of genes

A

molecular genetics

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370
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular genetics?

A

DNA –> RNA —> protein

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371
Q

__ % of our genes do not code for proteins, but regulate how proteins are coded

A

95

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372
Q

___ - changes to gene expression resulting from changes other than DNA/gene sequence

A

epigenetics

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373
Q

What is an example of epigenetic change?

A

methylation

374
Q

Gene Environment interaction describes how __ and environment affect ___

A

genes behavior

375
Q

An example of a gene-environment interaction is PKU (__), which is a genetic mutation that causes a build up of __

A

phenylketonuria, phenylalanine

376
Q

The function of behavior is to keep ___

A

homeostasis

377
Q

___ focuses on the observation of behaviors

A

ethology

378
Q

___ behavioral traits - genetically programmed behavior

A

innate

379
Q

What are the 3 main types of innate behaviors?

A

reflexes, orientation behaviors, fixed action pattern (sequence of coordinated movement without pausing)

380
Q

__ behavioral traits - persistent changes in our behavior that result from our experiences

A

learned

381
Q

__ behavior - combination of innate and learned behavior (ex. insects learning how to fly)

A

complex

382
Q

___ behavior - not observable

A

covert

383
Q

positive feedback - process that ___ production of product

A

increase

384
Q

negative feedback- process that needs to be __ to decrease product

A

controlled

385
Q

The evolutionary approach to motivation is that ___ play in motivation

A

instincts

386
Q

The __ __ theory of motivation is based on the need-drive balance

A

drive reduction

387
Q

the __ __ theory of motivation - people want to reach full arousal/alertness

A

optimum arousal

388
Q

the ___ theory of motivation - thought processes drive behavior

A

cognitive

389
Q

What is Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A

we want to satisfy needs in particular order (pyramid)

390
Q

What is “Id”?

A

innate; Makes up all instincts and wants to get rid of all uncomfortable feelings

391
Q

the ___ principle - to gain pleasure and avoid pain

A

pleasure

392
Q

What is “ego”?

A

reality principle; mediates the demands of reality vs. desires of Id. how we identity with/believe ourselves to be

393
Q

___ - inhibits sexual and aggressive impulses, and tries to replace reality with morality, striving for perfection

A

superego (angel) (id- devil)

394
Q

___ motivation- associated with rewards or obligated behavior. (driven by money or fame)

A

extrinsic

395
Q

___ motivation- internal motivation

A

intrinsic

396
Q

___ __ motivation- based on the need to fulfill a certain drive, like hunger or thirst

A

Drive reduction

397
Q

Amotivation is

A

the lack of motivation

398
Q

What are the 5 needs according to Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs?

A

(Please Stop Liking Stupid Shite)

Physiological, Safety, Love, Self-esteem, Self-actualization

399
Q

____ theory- reward is presented after the occurrence of an action with intention of causing the behavior to occur again (doing well at work and getting a promotion)

A

incentive

400
Q

Incentive theory focuses on ___ ___ is done through continuous positive stimulation

A

positive reinforcement

401
Q

___ ___- removal of stimuli to encourage a response

A

negative reinforcement

402
Q

The 2 factors that affect/regulate out intake of food, sex and drugs

A

biological factors, socio-culture

403
Q

What part of the hypothalamus sends positive signals to start eating?

A

lateral

404
Q

What part of the hypothalamus sends signals for us to stop eating?

A

ventromedial (vulture)

405
Q

What hormone is present in high amounts to suppress appetite?

A

lectin (licking)

406
Q

The sociocultural factor that affects eating is___

A

eat for occasions, time, desire, appeal

407
Q

Who were the 2 people that studied 100s of male and female volunteers during sexual activity?

A

Master and Johnson (MJ loved sex)

408
Q

What are the stages of the sexual response cycle?

A

excitement phase (HR increases, muscle tension, BP)
plateau phase
orgasm
resolution/refractory phase

409
Q

Master and Johnson found that the hormone __ was related to sexual drive/activity

A

testosterone

410
Q

sociocultural factors for sex are __

A

age, cultural background, emotions, and desires

411
Q

What hormone is related to sexual gratification and is associated with relieving sexual arousal after an orgasm?

A

prolactin (pros are gratified)

412
Q

What hormones are released post-orgasm that produce feelings of euphoria and pleasure?

A

endorphins

413
Q

What hormone is released after an orgasm to facilitate bonds and feelings of connectedness between sexual partners?

A

oxytocin

414
Q

If a family member has a predisposition to drug addiction, then the chance of offspring abusing drugs is __

A

higher

415
Q

Drugs like Marijuana and heroin mimic ___ of our brain

A

neurotransmitters

416
Q

cocaine cause the abnormal release of natural NTs like __

A

dopamine

417
Q

___ - a learned tendency to evaluate things in a certain way

A

attitude

418
Q

What are the 3 components of attitude?

A

affective (emotional), behavioral (how we act), cognitive (form thoughts)

ABC model of attitude

419
Q

Theory of __ __- we consider our implications of actions before we decide how to behave (how attitude influences behavior)

A

planned behavior

420
Q

What 3 things are intensions based on?

A

attitude, subjective norms, perceived behavioral control

421
Q

___ to behavior process model - event triggers attitude —> attitude + knowledge causes a behavior

A

attitude

422
Q

__ __ model - our behavior is a function of past behavior, attitudes, subjective norms, willingness, prototyping/modeling

A

prototype willingness

423
Q

Elaboration Likelihood Model for Persuasion (ELM)- more __ approach (focuses on why/how of persuasion)

A

cognitive

424
Q

What is the central route of Persuasion (part of ELM)?

A

Degree of attitude change depends on quality of the argument presented

425
Q

What is the Peripheral route of Persuasion (part of ELM)?

A

looks at superficial/expertise/non-verbal persuasion cues

426
Q

The phenomenon where we have a tendency to agree to small actions first, later comply to larger actions

A

foot in door phenomenon

427
Q

The phenomenon where you eventually become adjusted to a new role (parent, student, job) and it becomes the new normal

A

role-playing

428
Q

___ ___- people’s tendency to attribute a greater value to an outcome they had to put effort into achieving

A

effort justification

429
Q

__ __ - the discomfort experienced when holding 2 or more conflicting cognitions (contradictions)

A

Cognitive dissonance

430
Q

According to the Cognitive dissonance theory, what are the 4 things that might occur when there is a contradiction?

A

modify our cognitions
trivialize (make less important)
add (more ideas to lessen discomfort)
deny (deny facts)

431
Q

___ ___ principle - when someone does something and there is minimal justification for them doing it, but makes up a significant rationale to justify

A

minimum justification

432
Q

Situational approach to behavior - under the branch of ___ psychology

A

social

433
Q

___ ___- a branch of psychology that analyzes the situational approach to behavior and emphasizes interactions with people

A

Social psychology

434
Q

___ is the process of inferring causes of events/behaviors

A

attributions

435
Q

What are the 3 main parts of external attribution?

A

consistency (does person usually behave this way)
distinctiveness (do they behave differently in diff situations)
consensus (do others behave similarly)

436
Q

__ __ was the founder of psychoanalysis and the psychoanalytic theory

A

sigmund freud

437
Q

The psychoanalytic theory - personality is shaped by ___ experiences, ____ thoughts/desires, and past memories

A

childhood, unconscious

438
Q

What are the 2 instinctual drives that motivate human behavior?

A

libido (natural energy source -motivation for survival, growth, pleasure)

death instinct - drives aggression

439
Q

defense mechanism where unwanted impulses are transformed into something less harmful

A

sublimation

440
Q

Freud said there are 3 parts of the mind: __ __ __

A

id, ego, superego

441
Q

According to Freud, there is a ___ mind and a ___ mind

A

conscious, unconscious

442
Q

According to freud, __ is at the bottom of the iceberg. it develops after birth and demands ___ gratification

A

Id, immediate

443
Q

Ego - part of __ and __. involved in our perceptions, thoughts and judgements (seeks ___ gratification)

A

conscious and unconscious, long-term

444
Q

superego - develops around age __, its our ___ conscience

A

4, moral

445
Q

Freudian __ - example of mental conflict

A

slip

446
Q

The humanistic theory (developed by __ __) focuses on healthy ___ __, and humans are seen as ___ ___

A

Carl Rogers, personality development, inherently good

mr. rogers = nice

447
Q

The humanistic theory states the basic motive of humans is to ___ ___ (enhance oneself)

A

self-actualize

448
Q

One of the first theorists of humanistic theory was __ __

A

Abraham Maslow

449
Q

According to Carl Rogers, __ relationship with others and __ is what allows us to live up to our real self.

A

genuine, acceptance

450
Q

Humanist Maslow ____, Humanist Rogers ___

A

actualizes, accepts

451
Q

Both Rogers and Maslow believe that personality is __ __- achieved when we bring genuineness and acceptance together to achieve __

A

self-concept, growth

452
Q

The biological theory of personality suggests important components of personality are ___, or determined by our genes

A

inherited

453
Q

__ __ - proposed extroversion level is based on differences in the reticular formation (introverts are more aroused than extroverts so they seek lower levels of stimulation)

A

Hans Eysenck

454
Q

Jeffrey Alan Gray proposed personality is governed by ___ ___ and activation system.

A

behavioral inhibition (50 shades of gray is based on punishment/rewards)

455
Q

C. Robert Cloninger linked personality to __ __ in reward/motivation/punishment

A

brain systems (clone the brain)

456
Q

Personality traits that are strongly correlated with genetics are (2 things)

A

social potency (leadership roles), traditionalism (tendency to follow authority)

457
Q

People with more ___ receptor gene are more likely to be thrill seekers

A

dopamine-4

458
Q

The Behaviorist theory of personality - personality is the result of learned behavior patterns based on ___

A

environment

459
Q

The behaviorist theory of personality focuses on __ and measurable behavior. Opposite of ___ theory.

A

observable, psychoanalytic

460
Q

Skinner - a ___, associated with the concept of __ __ (uses rewards/punishments to increase/decrease behavior)

A

behaviorist, operant conditioning

461
Q

Pavlov - a behaviorist, associated with the concept of __ __ (place a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to trigger an involuntary response)

A

classical conditioning (pavlova is a classic dessert)

462
Q

The __ theory of personality connects the observable to mental approach

A

cognitive

463
Q

What are surface traits of personality?

A

evident from a person’s behavior

464
Q

What are source traits of personality?

A

factors underlying human personality (fewer and more abstract)

465
Q

What is a personality trait?

A

A relatively stable characteristic of a person that causes individuals to consistently behave in certain ways

466
Q

What do the letters in the Myers Briggs Personality test mean?

A

I- introvert E- extrovert S- Sensing I-intuition T-thinking F-feeling J-judgement P-perception

Ed Sits To Jump
I Need the Feeling of Pain

467
Q

Gordon Allport - came up with 3 basic categories of personality traits : __ __ __

A

cardinal (directs most of person’s activities)
central (less dominant - honesty, sociability)
secondary (preferences or attitude)

468
Q

Raymond Cattell- proposed we had all __ essential personality traits that represent the basic dimensions of personality

A

16

469
Q

Hans Eysenck- proposed that we have __ traits, but we express to __ degrees.

A

all, different

470
Q

What are the 3 dimensions of personality (Eysenck)?

A

psychoticism (degree to which reality is distorted)
Extroversion (vs. introversion)
Neuroticism (emotional stability)

Eysenck’s PEN

471
Q

What are the big 5 personality traits? (OCEAN)

A

openness conscientiousness extroversion agreeableness neuroticism

472
Q

__ __- a statistical method that categorizes and determines major categories of personality traits (used by cattell, eysenck and Big 5)

A

factor analysis

473
Q

What kind of neurons are found to support observational learning?

A

mirror

474
Q

the social cognitive theory- theory of behavior change that emphasizes interactions between __ and their ___

A

people, environment

475
Q

What was the Bobo Doll experiment?

A

group of children were exposed to violent actions and some did it when frustrated and some didn’t (difference between learning behavior and performing it)

476
Q

what is Bandura’s social cognitive theory? (acronym)

A

Attention, Memory, Imitation, motivation (AM I Motivated?)

477
Q

What kind of defense mechanism deals with distortion of reality (denial)?

A

Pathological defense mechanism

478
Q

What 2 defense mechanism are considered immature defense mechanisms?

A

projection (accusing another person of something u did)

passive aggression

479
Q

___- a type of neurotic defense mechanism, taking intellectual aspects and detaching emotional aspects of situation

A

intellectualization

480
Q

___ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism, making yourself believe you’re not at fault

A

rationalization

481
Q

___ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism, acting like a baby (throwing a tantrum)

A

regression

482
Q

___ - unconscious process where thoughts pushed down to unconscious

A

repression

483
Q

___- a type of neurotic defense mechanism where anger is placed on someone different from the actual person they are angry at (safer target)

A

displacement

484
Q

__ __ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism where unconscious feelings make person the complete opposite

A

reaction formation

485
Q

What are the 4 ways of mature defense mechanisms? (HASS)

A

humor, sublimation (channeling neg energy to pos), Suppression, Altruism (service)

486
Q

___ outlined the pleasure principles and the reality principle

A

Freud

487
Q

Freud’s pleasure principle

A

as a child, you want immediate pleasure and to avoid suffering

488
Q

Freud’s reality principle

A

when we become mature, you realize there is delayed gratification

489
Q

Eros drives__

A

life drive (health, safety, sex)

490
Q

Thantos drives__

A

death drive (harm to others, fear, anger, hate)

491
Q

define distress

A

negative type of stress that builds over time and is bad for your body

492
Q

Define eustress

A

positive type of stress (motivating)

493
Q

Define neustress

A

neutral type of stress that doesn’t really affect you directly

494
Q

What are the 2 classification systems used for mental disorders?

A

ICD-10 and DSM-5

495
Q

What category of mental disorders involve distress due to abnormality in development of nervous system (Autism and ADHD)?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorders

496
Q

Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by a variety of issues related to __ and __ abilities

A

social communication

497
Q

Dyscalculia

A

mathematics learning disorder

498
Q

dysgraphia

A

writing disorder

499
Q

The category of mental disorders that involve loss of cognitive/other functions of the brain AFTER the nervous system developed

A

neurocognitive disorders (delirium) (dementia)

500
Q

Category of mental disorders that result in distress from sleep-related issues

A

Sleep-wake disorders (insomnia)

501
Q

Category of mental disorders that result in distress from abnormal worry/fear

A

Anxiety disorders (social anxiety and general anxiety disorder)

502
Q

Category of mental disorders that result in distress from abnormally negative mood

A

depressive disorders

503
Q

Category of mental disorders that involve abnormal negative mood, but these may have periods of abnormally positive mood called mania

A

bipolar and related disorders

504
Q

category of mental disorders that involves distress from psychosis

A

Schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders

505
Q

category of mental disorders that involve distress from the abnormal use of substances that affect mental function

A

Substance-related and addictive disorders

506
Q

category of mental disorders that involve distress related to personality

A

personality disorders (cluster A- weird, cluster B- intense emotion, cluster C- worried)

507
Q

category of mental disorders that involve distress from behaviors that are unacceptably disruptive or impulsive

A

disruptive, impulse-control and conduct disorders

508
Q

Mental disorders that involve distress from obsessions or compulsions

A

Obsessive-Compulsive and related disorders

509
Q

Mental disorders that involve distress from symptoms similar to those that may occur to illness unrelated to mental disorder, but of psychological origin

A

somatic symptom and related disorders

510
Q

Mental disorders involved with distress from behavioral abnormalities related to food

A

feeding and eating disorders

511
Q

Mental disorders that involve distress from urination at inappropriate times or places

A

elimination disorders

512
Q

Mental disorders that involve distress from abnormalities of identity or memory

A

dissociative disorders

513
Q

Mental disorders that involve distress from abnormalities in or performance of sexual activity

A

sexual dysfunctions

514
Q

mental disorders that involve distress caused by person identifying as a different gender than society represents them as

A

gender dysphoria

515
Q

mental disorders that involve distress from having sexual arousal to unusual stimuli for a person’s culture

A

paraphilic disorders

516
Q

schizophrenia cause abnormalities in the brain, there is a high levels of ___ (a neurotransmitter)

A

dopamine

517
Q

___ - a period of time before schizophrenia before symptoms are present

A

prodrome

518
Q

schizophrenia is diagnosed through clinical __ not brain scans

A

interview

519
Q

__ is a antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia

A

haloperidol

520
Q

___ - sensory perceptions w/o stimuli like hearing or seeing.

A

hallucinations

521
Q

__ hallucinations are most common in patients with schizophrenia

A

auditory (hearing voices)

522
Q

___- false fixed beliefs not explainable by a person’s culture (very common in schizophrenia)

A

delusions

523
Q

A schizophrenic delusion that involves the belief that others are out to get them

A

delusions of persecution

524
Q

a schizophrenic delusion that involves a neutral environment event believed to have a special and personal meaning

A

delusions of reference

525
Q

A schizophrenic delusion where there is belief that one is a famous or important figure, such as Jesus or Napoleon

A

delusions of grandeur

526
Q

Schizophrenic delusion where they believe that one’s thoughts or actions are being controlled by outside, alien forces

A

delusions of control

527
Q

cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia include

A

abnormalities in attention, organization

528
Q

__ __- the reduction in the range and intensity of emotional expression (schizophrenia)

A

affective flattening

529
Q

__ -the reduction or inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed behavior

A

avolition

530
Q

___ - lessening of speech fluency and productivity

A

alogia

531
Q

___ schizophrenia - a type of schizophrenia that includes extremes of behavior

A

catatonic

532
Q

In brain of schizophrenic, there is a decrease in size of the __ __, and frontal and ___ lobes

A

cerebral cortex, temporal

533
Q

In schizophrenic patients there is disorder in __ layers in frontal and temporal lobes

A

cortical

534
Q

In schizophrenic patients, the ___ pathway is affected

A

mesocorticolimbic

535
Q

Depression involves increased activity in the ___ and decreased activity in the ___ of the brain

A

limbic structures, frontal lobe

536
Q

The __ __ of the brainstem is responsible for serotonin release

A

raphe nuclei

537
Q

the pathway to release norepinephrine starts in the __ __, which sends long axons to __

A

locus coeruleus, cerebrum

538
Q

__ sends long axons to different areas of the cerebrum, supplies dopamine

A

VTA

539
Q

What are the 5 types of anxiety disorders?

A

Generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorders, phobias, OCD, PTSD

540
Q

Dissociate Identity disorder (multiple personality disorder)- usually people experience __ trauma or extreme __

A

childhood, abuse

541
Q

Somatic symptom disorder - mental disorders manifesting in __ symptoms

A

physical

542
Q

__ disorder - patients want to be sick, they will falsify signs of sickness. Also known as ___ syndrome

A

factitious, Munchausens

543
Q

What are the 3 personality disorders in cluster A?

A

Paranoid, schizoid (anitsocial), Schizotypal (odd beliefs, magical thinking)

544
Q

What are the 4 personality disorders in Cluster B?

A

Antisocial, borderline, histrionic (attention seeking), narcissistic (BAHN)

545
Q

What are the 3 personality disorders in cluster C?

A

avoidant, dependent (submissive and clingy), Obsessive-compulsive personality disorders (not same as OCD)

546
Q

__ __ breathing- crescendo then decrescendo breathing followed by a stop in breathing

A

cheynes-stroke

547
Q

What is central sleep apnea?

A

breathing repeatedly starts and stops during sleep

548
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnea?

A

airways are obstructed (causes snoring)

549
Q

How is obstructive sleep apnea diagnosed?

A

a sleep study (polysomnography) and 15+ apneas/hour

550
Q

What is hypoventilation disorder?

A

not able to ventilate lungs fully and remove all CO2 (common in obese people)

551
Q

Alzheimer’s disease starts in the ___ lobe of the brain, important for memory

A

temporal

552
Q

In an Alzheimer’s patient, there are 3 abnormalities in the brain which are__

A

loss of neurons, plaques (amyloid), tangles (neurofibrillary tangles, clumps of a protein tau)

553
Q

Group of neurons are the base of the cerebrum called the __ __ is often lost early in Alzheimer’s

A

nucleus basalis (base of brain)

554
Q

What factors increase the chance of getting Alzheimer’s?

A

genetic mutations (processing of amyloid protein)
ApoE4 (metabolism of fats)
high blood pressure

555
Q

What factors can decrease chance of getting Alzheimer’s?

A

higher education

challenging jobs w difficult thinking

556
Q

Brains of patients with Parkinson’s disease have less __ color of the __ __.

A

dark, substantia nigra

557
Q

The loss of color in the substantia nigra in Parkinson’s patients indicate that the neurons lost are only __ __.

A

dopaminergic neurons

558
Q

substantia nigra is a part of the __ __ of the brain

A

basal ganglia

559
Q

Basal ganglia plays a role in __ function and some __ functions

A

motor, mental

560
Q

the cause of most motor abnormalities in Parkinson’s disease is loss of __ neurons from substantia nigra to __

A

dopamine, striatum

561
Q

the diseased neurons of Parkinson’s patients have __ bodies

A

Lewy

562
Q

Lewy bodies (Parkinson’s) contain a protein called __ __, which is clumped together in Parkinsons

A

alpha synuclein

563
Q

Lewy body disease- __ motor abnormalities than Parkinson’s but more __ dysfunction in cerebral cortex

A

less, cognitive

564
Q

___ disorder - characterized by prolonged feeling of helplessness and discouragement about the future

A

depression

565
Q

People with depression have physical and emotional symptoms including :

A

Suicidal thoughts, Interests decrease, guilt, energy decreased, concentration decrease, appetite disturbance, psychomotor changes, sleep disturbances

Sadness + SIG E CAPS

566
Q

the ___ gene is associated with depression, but only if the individual is in a stressful environment

A

5-HTTLPR (5 hitlers need PR)

567
Q

What biological factors increase chances of getting depression?

A

decreased activation of prefrontal cortex
lower levels of activity in reward circuit
fewer receptors for serotonin and NE

568
Q

one of the psychological factors of depression is __ __- getting trapped in negative thought pattern

A

cognitive distortions

569
Q

__- a psychological factor of depression that links pessimistic thoughts to internal causes

A

attribution (cognitive theory)

570
Q

What are some sociocultural/environmental factors that contribute to depression?

A

co-rumination, low socioeconomic status, child abuse, dependent and independent stressors

571
Q

bipolar disorder is very related to __

A

depression

572
Q

__ a state of high optimism, high energy, euphoria, poor judgement, followed by a depressive episode

A

mania

573
Q

___ - mild forms of mania, lots of energy and don’t need to sleep

A

hypomania

574
Q

___ __ - is a period of abnormally elevated mood and energy lasting at least _ consecutive days, not severe enough for hospitalization

A

hypomanic episode, 4

575
Q

___ episode - a period of abnormally elevated mood and energy lasting 7 days, causes impairment in function

A

manic

576
Q

bipolar _ disorder- when hypomania becomes manic w or w/o major depressive disorder

A

1

577
Q

bipolar _ disorder - when it remains hypomania and one major depressive episode

A

2

578
Q

__ - peer pressure, tendency for people to bring behavior in line w group norms.

A

conformity

579
Q

__ influence - look to group for guidance when you don’t know what to do and you assume the group is correct

A

informative

580
Q

___ influence- even if you know what’s right, do what group’s negative actions to avoid social rejection

A

normative

581
Q

__ conform- change behaviors and opinions to align w group

A

privately

582
Q

__ conform- you’re outwardly changing but inside you maintain core beliefs

A

publicly

583
Q

__ __ - a phenomenon where group decision making amplifies the original opinion of group members

A

group polarization

584
Q

___ occurs when maintaining harmony among group members is more important than carefully analyzing problem at hand

A

groupthink

585
Q

___ - describes how we follow orders . no cognitive component

A

obedience

586
Q

___ ___ -breakdown of social bonds between an individual and community

A

social anomie

587
Q

___ - situations where we do behavior to get a reward or avoid punishment

A

compliance

588
Q

___ - when people act/dress a certain way to be like someone they respect

A

identification

589
Q

__ - idea/belief has been integrated into our own values (stronger than other types of conformity)

A

internalization

590
Q

One of the most famous conformity studies was lead by __ __ who was part of the Gestalt Psychologists

A

Solomon Asch

591
Q

The Gestalt psychologists believed that is wasn’t possible to understand human behavior by breaking down into parts, people must be understood as a ___

A

whole

592
Q

What did Asch find in his study of conformity?

A

Many of the participants conformed to the wrong answer because they felt like they would be ridiculed by the group, or they felt the actors knew the answer

593
Q

Why was Asch’s study of conformity criticized?

A

all participants came from same population (male undergrads)
participants knew they were coming in for a study
ecological validity (real world application)
demand characteristics

594
Q

One of the most famous studies on conformity/obedience (in response to Holocaust)

A

milgram studies

595
Q

According to the study conducted by Milgram, the participants did not ___ to authority

A

resist

596
Q

What was milgram’s study of conformity/obedience test?

A

participants were teachers of learners (confederates) and taught word pairs, if they got a word pair wrong, the learners were shocked. The experimenters instructed what the real participants did to see how far they would respond to authority

597
Q

What is self-serving bias?

A

the thought that we would never commit acts like this, but in the real situation we probably would

598
Q

__ __ error- focuses only on actions of others, tendency to believe that others in out-groups behave a certain way based on inherent personalities/flaws

A

fundamental attribution

599
Q

What was found in the Zimbardo Prison Study? (Stanford Prison experiment)

A

their is a strong influence of situational attribution to behavior
becomes easier to behave badly towards individuals who suffered from deindividualization
role internalization

600
Q

What is the bystander effect?

A

a group process in which individuals observe an injustice and they do not intervene

601
Q

______ theory- explains bystander effect. When individuals are in presence of others where help is needed, feel less personal responsibility to help them

A

diffusion of responsibility

602
Q

__ - those in group are more likely to act inappropriately because crowd conceals person’s identity

A

Deindividuation

603
Q

__ __- when an individual completes a task in front of an audience

A

social facilitation

604
Q

presence of others increases your __ - general physiological or psychological excitement

A

arousal

605
Q

What is the Yerkes-Dodson Law?

A

Presence of others improves performance (helps) on simple tasks, and hinders it on difficult tasks/unpracticed tasks (lots of yorkies and dads help improve)

606
Q

__ __ - a tendency to put forth less effort in group task if the individual contributions aren’t evaluated

A

social loafing

607
Q

The __ effect- a type of reactivity in which individuals modify or improve an aspect of their behavior in response to their awareness of being observed

A

Hawthorne (observe the THORNEs)

608
Q

one of the most important agents of socialization

A

family

609
Q

What are 3 other agents of socialization?

A

school, peers, mass media

610
Q

__ - standards for what behaviors, set by groups of individuals are acceptable

A

norms

611
Q

Norms are reinforced by __ - rewards or punishments for behaviors in accord with or against norms respectively

A

sanctions

612
Q

___ - the mildest type of norm, just common rules/manners we are supposed to follow on a day to day basis

A

folkways (tell friend fly is down)

613
Q

__ - norms based on some moral value. generally produce strong feelings

A

mores

614
Q

___ - norms still based on right and wrong, but have formal consequences

A

laws

615
Q

___ - behaviors completely forbidden/wrong in any circumstance and violation results in consequences far more extreme

A

taboos (incest)

616
Q

__ __ - society is a product of everyday interactions of individuals

A

symbolic interactionism

617
Q

the Theory of ___ ___- states that deviance is a learned behavior that results from continuous exposure to others whom violate norms and laws

A

differential association

618
Q

___ theory- a behavior deviant if people have judged the behavior and labelled as deviant

A

labeling

619
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary deviance?

A

primary- no big consequences

secondary- more serious consequences

620
Q

___ theory- if person is blocked from attaining a culturally accepted goal, may become frustrated/strained and turn to deviance

A

strain

621
Q

collective behavior is different from group behavior because it is defined by __ __ interactions

A

short social

622
Q

__ - a type of collective behavior, something that becomes incredibly popular very quickly, but loses popularity just as quickly

A

fad

623
Q

__ __- a type of collective behavior, a large # of people who experience unmanageable delusions and anxiety at the same time

A

mass hysteria

624
Q

__ - a type of collective behavior, characterized by large # of people who engage in dangerous behavior, such as vandalism

A

riot

625
Q

___ ___ learning - when an organism is repeatedly exposed to one type of stimulus

A

non-associative

626
Q

__ - is increase in responsiveness to a repeated stimulus

A

sensitization

627
Q

__ learning - when one event is connected to another (ex. classical and operant conditioning)

A

associative

628
Q

__ __ - a learning process in which an innate response to a potent stimulus comes to be elicited in response to a previously neutral stimulus

A

classical conditioning (guinea pig and carrot)

629
Q

___ - tendency of a stimulus similar to conditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response

A

generalization

630
Q

__ __- when old conditioned stimulus elicits response

A

spontaneous recovery

631
Q

__ __ - when an animal no longer receives regular reinforcement, its original behavior will sometimes spike

A

extinctive burst

632
Q

__ conditioning - used to stop a particular behavior (involves pairing a habit a person wishes to break with an unpleasant stimulus)

A

aversive

633
Q

__ __ - developed by Joseph Wolpe and is a process that involves teaching the client to replace feelings of anxiety with relaxation (works well for phobias)

A

systematic desensitization

634
Q

implosive therapy

A

throw patient into a seemingly scary environment to get over irrational fear (increases anxiety)

635
Q

___ - a form of respondent conditioning that involves the conditioning of an unwanted behavior or response to a stimulus into a wanted behavior by the association of positive actions w the stimulus

A

counterconditioning

636
Q

__ occurs in both operant and classical conditioning

A

extinction

637
Q

__ responses are acquired through classical conditioning

A

phobic

638
Q

Operant conditioning focuses on the relationship between __ and their __

A

behavior, consequences

639
Q

What is the difference between positive and negative reinforcement?

A

positive- something is being added to increase tendency of behavior
neg - something taken away

640
Q

What is the difference between positive and negative punishment?

A

positive- something is added to decrease tendency (speeding ticket)
negative- something taken away “ “

641
Q

What are primary reinforcers?

A

innately satisfying/desirable, like food, water, sexual activity

642
Q

What are secondary reinforcers?

A

learned to be reinforcers, such as previously neutral

stimuli. Requires a pairing or association with a primary reinforcer for it to have value.

643
Q

__ __ - system of behavior modification based on systematic reinforcement of target behavior

A

token economy (ex.prizes)

644
Q

operant extinction

A

results from some response by the

organism no longer being reinforced

645
Q

__ __ - is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually replaced by innate food-related behaviors

A

instinctual drift

646
Q

___ - reinforcing behaviors that approximate the target behavior

A

shaping

647
Q

__ __ schedule - behavior is reinforced only some of the time

A

partial reinforcement

648
Q

__ reinforcement becomes less reinforcing so there is a need for ulterior reinforcement

A

continuous

649
Q

What is the type of schedule of reinforcement that deals with getting a reward for a fixed number of behaviors?

A

fixed-ratio

650
Q

What type of schedule of reinforcement has a fixed reward for every time interval (get payed every 2 weeks)?

A

fixed-interval

651
Q

the type of reinforcement schedule where reinforcement is delivered after avg # of right responses has occurred

A

variable-ratio

652
Q

type of reinforcement schedule where responses are reinforced after a variable amount of time pass, regardless on amount (most effective)

A

variable- interval

653
Q

In what order of effectiveness are the schedules of reinforcement (from least to most effective)?

A

fixed-interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio

654
Q

What are examples of simple innate behaviors?

A

reflexes, taxis (bugs moving toward a light)

654
Q

What are examples of simple innate behaviors?

A

reflexes, taxis (bugs moving toward a light)

655
Q

What are examples of complex innate behaviors?

A

fixed action patterns (mating dance), migration, circadian rhythms

656
Q

What type of learned behavior is a loss of response to a repeated stimuli?

A

habituation

657
Q

what type of learned behavior is solving a problem using past skills?

A

insight learning

658
Q

What kind of learned behavior is not expressed until required?

A

latent learning

659
Q

What type of learned behavior is fixed action patterns that are hard wired?

A

innate learning

660
Q

What type of aversive control involves reacting to an unpleasant stimulus once it has occurred?

A

escape

661
Q

the type of aversive control where a signal is given before aversive situation

A

avoidance

662
Q

What are the 2 types of non-associative learning?

A

sensitization and habituation

663
Q

Who popularized operant conditioning?

A

Skinner

664
Q

What is taste aversion?

A

mind connects negative thoughts towards a food without clear rationale

665
Q

__ __ model - explains how attitudes are formed and likely they are to be changed

A

elaboration likelihood

666
Q

The 3 main characteristics that impact how we are persuaded for/against a message:

A
Message characteristics (clarity, logical, well thought out)
Source characteristics (level of expertise)
Target characteristics (how we receive message)
667
Q

the first stage of the elaboration likelihood model is the pre-processing stage due to target characteristics, what are the 2 different processes?

A

central processing - importance high

peripheral processing - don’t care ab topic

668
Q

What is the 2nd stage of the elaboration likelihood model?

A

processing of message
central processing - deep processing
peripheral processing- shallow processing (attractiveness of presenter, pictures)

669
Q

What is the 3rd stage of the elaboration likelihood model?

A

change in attitude
central processing - lasting attitude change
peripheral processing - temporarily attitude change

670
Q

__ __ - the interaction between a person’s behaviors, personal factors, and environment are all determined by one another

A

reciprocal determinism

671
Q

__ __ theory- views behaviors as being influenced by people’s traits and their social context

A

social-cognitive

672
Q

__ __ __- refers to a person’s ability to carry out intentions to perform a certain behavior

A

perceived behavior control

673
Q

What is internal locus of control?

A

can control fate of our own destiny

674
Q

What is external locus of control?

A

perceive outside forces that help to control fate (unfair test)

675
Q

What is tyranny of choice?

A

too many choices negatively impacts cognition

676
Q

__ __ - the ability to control our impulses and delay gratification

A

self -control

677
Q

What did the marshmallow test (self-control test) find?

A

kids who waited for the marshmallow had better life outcomes (higher SAT scores, lower drug use etc)

678
Q

__ __ - the idea that self-control is a limited resource

A

ego depletion

679
Q

What are 4 ways to improve self-control?

A

change environment, operant conditioning, classical conditioning, deprivation

680
Q

_____ self- most basic concept of self-concept, the sense of being separate and distinct from others

A

existential

681
Q

___ self- becoming aware that even though we’re separate, we also exist in the world with others

A

categorical

682
Q

__ __ (humanistic theory), believed self-concept had 3 different components. What were the 3 components?

A

Carl Rogers
self image
self esteem
ideal self

683
Q

When ideal self does not match real self, the result is ___

A

incongruity

684
Q

What are the 3 steps of the social identity theory?

A

categorizing, identification and comparison

685
Q

self worth vs self esteem

A

self worth - I am lovable and am of value

cant have lasting self -esteem without self-worth

686
Q

___ ___- belief in one’s abilities to succeed in a situation

A

self-efficacy

687
Q

difference between strong and weak self-efficacy

A

strong- recover quickly from setbacks
weak- focus on personal failures, avoid challenging tasks, lose confidence , lack ability to take on complex tasks (FALL)

688
Q

What are the 4 sources to determine if person has strong/weak self-efficacy?

A

mastery of experience, social modeling, social persuasion (positive comments), psychological responses (learning to minimize stress)

689
Q

Freud proposed the ___ theory of development. _ stages, if issues aren’t resolved at a certain stage, then ___ occurs

A

psychosexual, 5 , fixation

690
Q

Erikson proposed the __ development theory - personality occurs through one’s ___ lifespan. _ stages

A

psychosocial, entire, 8

691
Q

Vygotsky proposed the __ __ developmental theory - believed children learn actively through __ __ processes

A

sociocultural cognitive, hands on

vygotsky - vy got sky

692
Q

Kohlberg proposed the ___ development theory- focused on __ __ and difference between right and wrong

A

moral, moral-reasoning

693
Q

Freud and Erikson were interested in __ development and Vygotsky and Kohlberg were interested in __ development

A

personality, cognition

694
Q

What are the 5 stages of Freud’s psychosexual development? (ages)

A

oral (1-3), anal (1-3), Phallic (3-6), latent (6-12), genital (12+)
old age parrots like grapes

695
Q

What are the stages of Erikson’s psychosocial development?

A

(0-1) trust vs. mistrust, (1-3) autonomy vs. shame/doubt, (3-6) initiative vs. guilt (ask questions), (6-12) industry vs inferiority, (age 12-20) identity vs role confusion, (20-40) intimacy vs isolation, (40-65) generativity vs stagnation, (65+) integrity vs despair

696
Q

Vygotsky said babies have 4 elementary mental functions, which are?

A

attention, sensation, perception and memory

697
Q

According to Vygotsky, __ __ functions are developed from a more knowledgable tutor

A

higher mental

698
Q

the zone of proximal development (Vygotsky) is between zone of __ and __

A

can’t do and can do

699
Q

Who introduced the famous story the Heinz Dilemma? What was the Heinz Dilemma?

A

Kohlberg, his wife was dying from cancer and chemist charged a lot of money for the cure. the man broke into chemists lab and stole it

700
Q

Kohlberg’s 3 stages of morality (1st stage)

A

Pre-Conventional (pre-adolescent) (ACRONYM: PREacher smacking oBEEdience with a Fish (self-interest)
o 1. Obedience vs. Punishment – reasoning is based on physical consequences of actions, so obeying the rules is a means to avoid punishment.
§ Age: Children.
o 2. Individualism and Exchange or SELF-Interest – recognize not just one right
view by authorities, different individuals have different viewpoints. Doing what is
right for personal gain.

701
Q

Kohlbergs 3 stages of morality (2nd)

A

Conventional (ACRONYM: CONvict named Norm (Societal Norms – Good Girl/Bad Girl) behind bars (Law-and-order)
o 3. Societal Norms /Acceptance- Good Boy and Good Girl - Authority is internalized, but not questioned, and reasoning is based on group person belongs. Individual is good in order to be seen as good by others, emphasis on conformity. “to gain acceptance and to avoid disapproval”
o 4. Law and Order / Law abidance – maintaining social order, child is aware of wider roles of society and obeying laws. “to follow rules”

702
Q

Kohlberg’s 3 stages of morality (3rd)

A

Post-Conventional (moral) (ACRONYM: POSTman delivering a contract (social contract) and Universal today (Universal principles). Higher moral reasoning.
o 5. Social Contract – Individual becomes aware that even though rules and laws exist for greater good, there are times this law works against interest of particular people. Ex. for Heinz, is protection of life more important than breaking/stealing? People at this stage said yes. Sometimes law must be broken to reach these principles.
o 6. Universal Ethical Principle – people develop own set of moral guidelines, which may or may not fit the law, and principles apply to everyone. People who uphold and believe in these have to be prepared to act towards these even if they have to obey consequences/disapproval/imprisonment. Very few people
220
who reach this stage, ex. Ghandi, Nelson Mandela, Martin Luther King. “to promote social welfare”

703
Q

___ - a type of individual social influence, one of most basic forms of social behavior. Begins with understanding there’s difference between others and our self.

A

imitation

704
Q

__ __ - the group to which people refer in evaluating themselves. People’s beliefs, attitudes, behaviors.

A

reference group

705
Q

What did Charles Cooley and George Herbert Mead think about social behaviorism?

A

Cooley- every person you interact with influences identity

Mead- only certain people can influence at certain times

706
Q

According to Mead, what are the 3 stages of our belief of how others perceive us?

A

preparatory stage - interaction through imitation
play stage- more aware of social relationships
game stage - realize people have multiple roles

707
Q

What is the difference between I and Me?

A

Me- socialized, conforming aspect of self

I- spontaneous, less socialized aspect of self

708
Q

Our actual self is the balance between __ and __

A

Me and I

709
Q

__ introduced the looking glass self, which suggests that the self-concept is internalized by how people __ how other people view us

A
Charles Cooley (you look cool charles)
perceive
710
Q

__ theory- how we explain behaviors of others around us

A

Attribution

711
Q

__ __ error occurs when a person assigns too much weight to internal causes rather than external factors when looking for the cause of another person’s behavior

A

Fundamental attribution

712
Q

What are the 3 cues of Kelley’s co-variation model?

A

consistency- when consistency high= internal factors
distinctiveness - situational
consensus - (when a lot of people do same behavior)

713
Q

When we consider our own behaviors, more likely to blame on __ __

A

external factors

714
Q

Actor-observer bias

A

we attribute out personal behavior but others behavior on internal factors

715
Q

In ____ cultures (Western cultures), success is over-attributed to __ and failure us over-attributed to __ factors

A

individualistic, internal, external

716
Q

In ___ cultures (eastern- africa/asia), success is attributed to __ and failure is to __ factors

A

collectivist, external, internal

717
Q

self serving bias

A

If we succeed it’s due to our internal/personal qualities, but if we fail no hit on self-esteem because likely to do with things outside of our control.

718
Q

optimism bias

A

belief bad things happen to others, but not to us

719
Q

__ is attributing a certain thought to a group of individuals, and overgeneralizing

A

stereotyping

720
Q

stereotype threat

A

exposure to a negative stereotype surrounding a task can actually cause decrease in the performance of an individual performing task. Stereotype threatens performance

721
Q

__ - stereotypes can lead to behaviours that affirm the original stereotypes.

A

self-fulfilling prophecy

722
Q

What are the 3 components of prejudice?

A

cognition (stereotype), affect (emotional component), discrimination capacity to carry out a behavior and act of prejudice

723
Q

What is the frustration aggression hypothesis?

A

not personality based, more emotional (tendency of frustration leading to prejudice and aggression towards minorities)

724
Q

Hypothesis of __ __ - upsurge in prejudice/discrimination when people are deprived of something they feel entitled to

A

relative deprivation

725
Q

__ __ - Extreme disapproval/discrediting of individual by society

A

social stigma

726
Q

social stigma can be fueled or associated with ___

A

stereotypes, prejudices, discrimination

727
Q

self stigma

A

internalization of social stigma - lead to rejection, denial and isolation

728
Q

___ bias - first impression is more important than later data

A

primary

729
Q

Your most recent actions are also very important, and people place a lot of emphasis on
your recent actions/recent performances, more than ones before

A

regency bias

730
Q

the __ __- tendency people have inherently good/bad natures, rather than looking at individual characteristics (we think more attractive people are good)

A

halo effect

731
Q

The devil/reverse halo effect

A

bad first impression can carry over to other attributes of the person

732
Q

What is the Just World Hypothesis?

A

Predictable result as a consequence for our actions.

Noble actions performed/good deeds by an individual are rewarded, while evil acts/deeds are always punished.

733
Q

to keep the just world hypothesis in tact we use __ techniques or __ techniques

A

rational irrational

734
Q

Study of particular people and places

A

ethnography

735
Q

judging someone else’s culture from the position of your own culture

A

ethnocentric

736
Q

the practice of assessing a culture by its own standards rather than viewing it through the lens of one’s own culture

A

cultural relativism

737
Q

xenocentrism

A

judging another culture as superior to one’s own culture

738
Q

cultural imperialism

A

the deliberate imposition of one’s own cultural values on another culture

739
Q

“in” group vs “out” group

A

in- who we are connected to

out- group we are not associated with

740
Q

In-group favoritism

A

we favor people in our own group, those in out-group are neutral

741
Q

Out-group derogation

A

friendly to in-group, not friendly to out-group

742
Q

group polarization

A

group makes decisions that are more extreme than any individual member in the group would want

743
Q

the most powerful predictor of friendships and relationships

A

geographical proximity

744
Q

__ __ effect- repeated exposure to novel people or objects increases our liking for them

A

mere exposure

745
Q

__ attraction is more important than body attraction

A

facial

746
Q

What facial features are considered universally attractive for women?

A

high forehead, small nose and chin, full lips, high cheekbones

747
Q

What facial features are universally attractive for men?

A

strong chin, jaw, cheekbones, and long lower face

748
Q

What is the relationship between similarity and attraction?

A

More likely to be attracted to people with similar facial features, ideals, beliefs etc.

749
Q

perceived similarity

A

over time interests/beliefs are more aligned

750
Q

similarity bias

A

implies we won’t befriend people different from us

751
Q

projection bias

A

we assume others share the same beliefs as we do

752
Q

false consensus

A

we assume everyone else agrees with what we do

753
Q

What were the Harlow monkey experiments?

A
2 different monkey mothers to replace real mother 
wire mother - provide food
cloth mother - comfort 
baby monkeys preferred cloth mother 
cloth mother acts as SECURE BASE
754
Q

Mary Ainsworth’s Strange situation (stranger anxiety experiment)

A

mom, baby and stranger are placed in a room

mom leaves and researchers determine if they have secure or insecure attachment (60% secure attachment)

755
Q

What may cause an insecure or secure attachment between parents and baby?

A

sensitive and responsive mothers - secure

unresponsive - insecure

756
Q

What are the 3 types of parenting?

A

authoritarian - strict, break will of child
authoritative (best)- strict, consistent and loving. balance responsibility with rights of child
permissive/indulgent - non-directive and lenient

757
Q

What are some biological factors of aggression?

A

genes
brain structure- perhaps decreased frontal lobe activation
testosterone - high levels = more aggression

758
Q

psychological factors that contribute to aggression

A
frustration-aggression principle 
reinforcement modeling (parents giving into demanding kids)
759
Q

sociocultural factors that contribute to aggression

A
people act more aggressive in groups (de-individuation)
social script (instructions provided by society on how to act)
760
Q

___ - care about welfare of other people and are acting to help them

A

altruism

761
Q

type of altruistic behavior where people act more altruistically to family than non-family

A

kin selection

762
Q

Type of altruistic behavior where people are also more likely to help if they got something from that person

A

reciprocal altruism

763
Q

giving signals to others that person who’s giving has resources (type of altruistic behavior)

A

cost signaling

764
Q

__ __ hypothesis - suggests some people are altruistic due to empathy.

A

empathy - altruism

765
Q

helping behavior begins around the age of __

A

2

766
Q

What are the 5 types of social support?

A

emotional, esteem (encouragement), informational (advice), tangible/instrumental (material), companionship

767
Q

ascribed statuses

A

statuses you can’t change, given from birth

768
Q

achieved status

A

status you earn yourself (olympic athlete)

769
Q

master status

A

supersedes other roles (perceived role ie mother)

770
Q

__ __ - when you can’t carry out all obligations of a status, tensions within one status

A

role strain

771
Q

__ __- conflict/tension between two or more different statuses, the different statuses compete for one’s time

A

role conflict

772
Q

__ __ - when a person leaves a role previously central to their identity and the process of establishing a new identity

A

role exit (ie retiring)

773
Q

difference between primary and secondary groups

A

primary- close friends and family

secondary- formal, impersonal, business-like relationships

774
Q

__ __ - studied the nature of people’s interactions, introduced the process of dramaturgy (how people behave in a social setting)

A

erving Goffman (ms. goff theatre teacher)

775
Q

what does front stage and back stage represent in the dramaturgy metaphor?

A

front stage- how we present ourselves in front of people

back stage- more comfortable environment (can be more ourselves)

776
Q

__ __ - our attempt to control how others see us on the front stage

A

impression management

777
Q

discrimination

A

differential treatment and harmful actions against minorities

778
Q

individual discrimination

A

Individual person acting to discriminate based on something

779
Q

institutional discrimination

A

organization discriminating – including governments, banks, schools

780
Q

unintentional discrimination

A

how policies can discriminate unintentionally

781
Q

Past-In-Present discrimination

A

how things done in the past, even if no longer allowed they can have consequences for people in the present.
Ex. After Brown vs. Board verdict, but girl in integrated school still doesn’t feel welcome in her classroom. (Negative attitude of the past coming forward to the present and causes minority to be discriminated against unfairly)

782
Q

Type of organization where members are paid/rewarded for their efforts, ex. Businesses and government jobs, and universities

A

utilitarian organizations

783
Q

type of organization where members come together through shared goals, ex. religion groups

A

normative organizations

784
Q

type of organization where members don’t have choice about membership, ex. people in a prison, or the military

A

coercive organization

785
Q

__ - the rules, structures, and rankings that guide organizations

A

bureaucracy

786
Q

___ - process by which organizations become increasingly governed by laws and policy

A

bureaucratization

787
Q

Mcdonaldization

A

policies of fast food organizations have come to dominate other organizations in society. Primarily, Principles of efficiency, calculability, predictability, uniformity, and control – These principles have come to dominated everything, from medicine to sporting events to entertainment,

788
Q

__ __ (sociologist) that introduced the 5 main characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy

A

max weber

789
Q

What are the 5 main characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy?

A

division of labor, hierarchy of organization, written rules and regulations, impersonality, employment based on technical qualifications

790
Q

__ __ - the principle where every employee in hierarchy keeps getting promoted until they reach level of incompetence

A

Peter principle

791
Q

___ - the search for food in animal’s environment

A

foraging

792
Q

What are the 2 types of foraging?

A

solitary foraging and group foraging

793
Q

foraging behavior is strongly driven by __

A

genetics

794
Q

__ - can give information to themselves. Ex. bats and

echolocation and this allows them to gain information about the environment

A

auto-communication

795
Q

__ - attributing human characteristics to non-human animals

A

anthropomorphism

796
Q

What are the different ways animals can communicate with each other?

A

sound, chemical signals, somatosensation, visual cues

797
Q

__ mating - all individuals within a species are equally likely to mate with each other. Mating not influenced by environment/heredity or any behavioral/social limitation. Ensures a large amount of genetic diversity.

A

random

798
Q

___ mating - Non-random mating where individuals with certain phenotypes/genotypes/similarities/genes/physical appearance tend to mate with each other at a higher frequency

A

assortative

799
Q

___ mating - opposite of assortative mating – situation where individuals with individuals with different or diverse traits mate with higher frequency than with random mating.

A

dis-assortative

800
Q

___ ___ - concerns the # of offspring an animal has, how they support them, and how offspring support each other.

A

inclusive fitness

801
Q

__ __ theory - those best fit to environment will survive and pass on to offspring

A

evolutionary game

802
Q

__ - large scale perspective, looking at big phenomena that affect big portion of population. Social structures and institutions, whole civilizations/populations.

A

macrosciology

803
Q

___ - comes from macrosociology – looks at society as a whole and how
institutions that make up the society adapt to keep society stable and
functioning.

A

functionalism

804
Q

__ theory- the idea society is made of institutions that benefit powerful and create inequalities. Large groups are at odds until conflict is resolved

A

conflict

805
Q

___ - face to face interactions, families, schools, other social interactions. Interpretive analysis of the society, look at sample of society and how individual interactions would affect larger groups in society

A

microsociology

806
Q

___ ___ - social theory that’s a micro-perspective, focuses on the individual and significance they give to objects, events, symbols, etc. in their lives.

A

symbolic interactionism

807
Q

What is the conservative view of institutions vs. progressive views on institutions?

A

conservative - institutions are natural by-products of human nature

progressive view - institutions are artificial creations that need to be redesigned if they are not helpful

808
Q

___- dominant religious organizations that includes most member of society

A

ecclesia

809
Q

___ - private ownership of production with market economy based on supply and demand.

A

capitalism

810
Q

___ - motivated by what benefits society as whole, common ownership of production that focuses on human needs and economic demands.

A

socialism

811
Q

__ __ -looks at health disparities through social indicators like race, gender, and income distribution, and how social factors affect a person’s health.

A

social epidemiology

812
Q

___ - is a system of thinking based on ideas of Emile Durkheim that look at society from large-scale perspective, and how each part helps keep society stable.

A

functionalism

813
Q

__ __ - ways of thinking and acting formed by society that existed before any one individual and will still exist after any individual is dead

A

social facts

814
Q

____ ___- Intended consequences of institutions (ex. school- educate to get jobs)

A

manifest functions

815
Q

__ __ - indirect effects of institutions.

A

latent functions

816
Q

__ __ - is process that has undesirable consequences and may reduce the stability of society.

A

social dysfunction

817
Q

What are some problems with functionalism?

A

focuses entirely on institutions without regard for individual (only acknowledged). Also largely unable to explain social change and conflict, so focussed on equilibrium (between social facts and institutions) little change and conflict is modeled and no conflict can occur. More to society than just stable state of its part, but functionalism is still useful in examining the functions of its integral parts.

818
Q

__ - the term that refers to individuals of the working class (europe)

A

proletariat

819
Q

___ - Desire of working class to change was the thesis

A

antithesis

820
Q

__ __ - expanded on Marx by proposing that society is shaped by war/conquest, and cultural/ethnic conflicts lead to certain groups becoming dominant over others.

A

Ludwig Gumplowicz

821
Q

__ __ - argues that people actively shape their reality through social interactions/agreement

A

social constructionism

822
Q

__ __ - is concept/practice everyone in society agrees to treat a certain way regardless of its inherent value

A

social construct

823
Q

What is the difference between weak and strong social constructionism?

A

weak- brute and institutional facts

strong- whole of reality is dependent on language and social habits

824
Q

Symbolic interactionism

A

examines small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups

825
Q

What were the 3 tenants that Herbert Blumer used to explain symbolic interactionism?

A
  1. we act based on meaning
  2. different people assign different meanings to things
  3. the meaning we give something isn’t permanent
826
Q

feminist theory focuses on __

A

focuses on different expectations, salary differences, gender inequalities that permeate everyday life

827
Q

__ __ theory - people not only motivated by money, but do what’s best to get better.

A

rational choice

828
Q

What are the 3 main assumptions of the rational choice theory?

A

completeness, transitivity, independence of irrelevant alternatives

829
Q

__ theory - addresses decision making via cost- benefit analyses

A

exchange

830
Q

What is sexual selection?

A

natural selection arising through preference for one

sex for characteristics in individuals of the other sex

831
Q

__ __ theory - aging is a social, psychological, and biological process that begins from time you born till time you die.

A

life course

832
Q

__ __ theory - suggests age is way of regulating behavior of a generation

A

age stratification

833
Q

__ theory- looks at how older generation looks at themselves. Certain activities or jobs lost, those social interactions need to be replaced so elderly can be engaged and maintain moral/well-being

A

activity

834
Q

___ theory- older adults and society separate, assumes they become more self-absorbed as they age.

A

disengagement

835
Q

__ theory -people try to maintain same basic structure throughout their lives overtime. As they age people make decisions that preserve that structure and use it to adapt to external changes and internal changes of aging.

A

continuity

836
Q

difference between race and ethnicity?

A

race- physical

ethnicity - defined by shared language, culture, nationality etc.

837
Q

___ - encourages racial and ethnic variation.

A

pluralism

838
Q

What is the syndrome resulting from XYY?

A

Jacob’s syndrome

839
Q

What does Non-binary mean? (gender)

A

not identifying with any specific gender

840
Q

__ __ - attraction and fornication

A

sexual orientation

841
Q

__ - biological determination of male/female/intersex people

A

sex

842
Q

___ - social construction on how a person of a specific sex should behave

A

gender

843
Q

__ __ theory - Theory that explains how individuals should be gendered in society. How sex-linked characteristics are maintained and transmitted to other members of a culture.

A

gender schema

844
Q

__ __ - what we expect men and females to do

A

gender script

845
Q

____ - movement of people from rural to urban areas

A

urbanization

846
Q

___ - anywhere with <1000 people per square mile

A

rural

847
Q

__ - have over 50 000 people

A

cities

848
Q

__ - have over 500 000 people

A

metropolis

849
Q

If many metropolises are connected, called ___

A

megalopolis

850
Q

What is the functionalist perspective on cities?

A

important for building culture and diverse populations

host to crime

851
Q

What is the conflict theory of cities?

A

source of inequality that are entertainment for wealthy

852
Q

What is the symbolic interactions theory on cities?

A

where people have different ways of looking at life

853
Q

___ - which means when redone they target a wealthier community which increases property value.

A

gentrification

854
Q

What are the 3 factors that contribute to total growth rate of a population?

A

fertility, migration, mortality

855
Q

___ - the potential reproductive capacity of a female

A

fecundity

856
Q

If a women has less than 2 kids the population will __

A

decrease

857
Q

If a women has more than 2 kids the population will __

A

increase

858
Q

If a women has 2 kids then the population will __

A

neither increase or decrease

859
Q

__ __ - Graphs the age and sex distribution of a

population.

A

population pyramid

860
Q

__/__ pyramid - indicate low birth and death rates in population

A

stationary/constrictive

861
Q

___ ___ - fewer young people than old people

A

constrictive period

862
Q

How to calculate total population decrease rate

A

(#death + #emigration/ 1000) x population #

863
Q

What are the 5 stages of the demographic transition model?

A

stage 1 - high birth rates
stage 2 - population increases as death rates decrease
stage 3 - death rates continue to decrease
stage 4- population stabilizes
stage 5- world forced the stabilize

864
Q

___ __ theory- importance of world as a unit rather than individual countries. Divides world into 3 countries: core, periphery, and semi-periphery

A

world-system theory

865
Q

What are the core, periphery and semi-periphery countries?

A

core- western Europe and US
periphery- latin america and africa
semi-periphery- india and brazil

866
Q

___ theory - all countries follow similar path of development from traditional to modern society.

A

modernization

867
Q

___ theory - Reaction to Modernization theory. Uses idea of Core + Periphery countries to look at inequalities between countries

A

dependency

868
Q

___ perspective - sees globalization as a new age in human history – countries become interdependent and nation states themselves are less important. Countries become one global society.

A

hyperglobalist

869
Q

__ perspective - critical of globalization, considers it as being regionalized instead of globalized. Third world countries aren’t being integrated into global economy with same benefits as first world countries.

A

skeptical

870
Q

____ perspective - Believe national governments are changing, perhaps becoming less important but difficult to explain change so simply. They see the world order is changing.

A

transformationalist

871
Q

Companies that extend beyond borders of a country are called ____

A

multinational/transnational corporations

872
Q

globalization has 2 major impacts on the country which are ___ and ___

A

economy culture

873
Q

___ ___ theory- Skepticism about groups that were involved in social movement, said social movements would only form for people seeking refuge from main society.

A

mass society (ex nazism)

874
Q

__ __ theory - actions of groups oppressed/deprived of rights that others in society enjoy. Ex. Civil Rights Movement

A

relative deprivation

875
Q

What are the 3 things needed for social movement?

A

relative deprivation
feeling of deserving better
conventional means are useless

876
Q

__ __ theory - looks at social movements from different angle. Instead of looking at deprivation of people, focuses on factors that help/hinder a social movement like access to resources

A

resource mobilization

877
Q

__ __ theory- people compare pros and cons of different courses of actions and choose the one they think is best for themselves. These choices shape pattern of behavior in society.

A

rational choice

878
Q

Exurbs are

A

beyond suburbs who are very prosperous

879
Q

What characterizes an expanding population pyramid?

A

high birth rate decreasing death rate

880
Q

____ - way of life shared by group of individuals – the knowledge, beliefs and values that bind a society together.

A

culture

881
Q

What are the 4 points of culture?

A

people share culture in society
culture is adaptive
culture builds on itself
culture is transmitted

882
Q

__ __ - population size falls between micro and macro levels. They are medium sized groups such as communities, organizations, cities, states, clans, and tribe

A

meso-level

883
Q

micro-culture

A

groups only affecting limited period of one’s life

884
Q

__ __ - is the fact culture takes time to catch up with technological innovations, resulting in social problems.

A

culture lag

885
Q

___ - is the spread of an invention or discovery or ideas from one place to another

A

diffusion

886
Q

What is the glass ceiling effect?

A

poorly represented in higher positions in companies (women)

887
Q

Difference between vertical and horizontal social mobility

A

vertical - move up or down social hierarchy

horizontal- move within the sam class

888
Q

Caste system has very little __ __

A

social mobility

889
Q

Which social system allows for a degree of social mobility? (combination of background and movement)

A

class system

890
Q

Meritocracy

A

people achieve social position solely based on ability and achievements

891
Q

___ - If change in social class happens in a person’s own lifetime

A

intra- generational mobility

892
Q

___ - change in social class between generations, ex. Parent is working class and son is working class.

A

intergenerational mobility

893
Q

__ poverty - Minimum level of resources a human being needs to survive

A

absolute

894
Q

__ poverty - its people whose incomes are so low in

their own society they’re being excluded from society

A

relative

895
Q

__ __ - People with rich parents end up wealthy themselves

A

social reproduction

896
Q

__ __ - the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively.

A

social capital

897
Q

__ __ - is a society’s categorization of

people into socioeconomic strata, based upon their occupation, income, wealth and social status, or derived power

A

social stratification

898
Q

__ ___ - looks at the fair distribution of the environmental benefits and burdens within society across all groups.

A

environmental justice

899
Q

type of segregation where there’s clustering of different groups

A

concentration

900
Q

___ - type of segregation where segregation + clustering in a central area

A

centralization

901
Q

Theory of ____ - asks us to consider all the different levels of discrimination. Intersectionality calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification.

A

intersectionality

902
Q

What kind of statistics would you use with categorical data?

A

chi square

903
Q

___ - look at a group of different people at one moment in time

A

cross sectional study

904
Q

__ __ - following a subset of population over a lifetime. A cohort is a group of people who share a common characteristic (ex. people born and exposed to same pollutant/drug/etc.) in period of time

A

cohort study

905
Q

__ study - follows variables over a long period of time to look for correlations.

A

longitudinal

906
Q

__ __ study - observational study where 2 groups differing in outcome are identified and compared to find a causal factor. Ex. comparing people with the disease with those who don’t but are otherwise similar

A

case control

907
Q

__ __ design - design is similar to an experimental design but lacks random assignment. This type of design describes an effect on a specific cohort of the population

A

quasi-experimental

908
Q

__ __ study - type of survey, questionnaire, or poll in which respondents read the question and select a response by themselves without researcher interference.

A

self-report

909
Q

___ - accuracy. Items that are high in validity accurately address the construct

A

validity

910
Q

internal vs external validity

A

external - results can be applied to other people and studies
internal- extent to which a causal conclusion based on a study is warranted

911
Q

population validity

A

type of external validity which describes how well the sample used can be extrapolated to a population as a whole

912
Q

ecological validity

A

external validity which looks at the testing environment and determines how much it influences behavior

913
Q

__ __ - refers to whether a variable is able to predict a certain outcome

A

criterion validity

914
Q

____ validity - measures how well a test matches up with a

benchmark test, which is usually another valid measure of the same

A

concurrent

915
Q

___ validity - measure of how well a test predicts abilities

A

predictive

916
Q

___ validity- Construct validity describes the extent to which the theory is supported by the data or results of the research.

A

construct

917
Q

___ validity - describes the extent that the test measures the construct accurately.

A

content

918
Q

___ - CONSISTENT RESULTS WITH

REPEATED EXPERIMENTS.

A

reliabilty

919
Q

___ __ reliability - is shown by a high positive correlation between the first and second administration of a test

A

test-retest

920
Q

___ control - what experimental group does without the directly desired impact

A

vehicular

921
Q

to the degree to which different raters give consistent estimates of the same behavior

A

inter rater

922
Q

__ __ - is associated with the processing of both positively and negatively balanced emotions

A

orbitofrontal cortex

923
Q

The recognition of facial expressions associated with sadness have been linked to the __ __

A

subcallosal cingulate (callosal subways have singles)

924
Q

The __ and ___ are most associated with disgust

A

insula basal ganglia

925
Q

Anger is most associated with the left __ __ __

A

superior temporal sulcus (angry super man has a temper in his sulciness)

926
Q

a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to recognize familiar people based on facial expressions

A

Prosopagnosia

927
Q

__ __ -visual system in the brain, plays a tole in high level visual processing and recognition

A

fusiform gyrus

928
Q

__ __ - a disorder of the ventral pathway, because it is an inability to recognize an image

A

visual agnosia

929
Q

atypical antipsychotics - block __ release

A

serotonin

930
Q

a type of typical antipsychotic used to treat psychiatric conditions

A

neuroleptics

931
Q

What is the Thomas theorem?

A

interpretation of a situation causes the action