psych Flashcards
1
Q
Implicit memories are formed _____
A
unconsciously
2
Q
All habits are _____ a type of implicit memory
A
procedural memories
3
Q
Where are habits/implicit memories stored in the brain?
A
basal ganglia
4
Q
The term that describes how previous experiences current interpretation of an event
A
priming
5
Q
an implicit memory effect where prior exposure to a stimulus unfavorably influences the response to same stimulus
A
negative priming
6
Q
type of priming that speeds up reaction time
A
positive priming
7
Q
A memory system consisting of episodes recollected from an individuals life
A
autobiographical memory
8
Q
what does memory encoding mean?
A
transferring info from temporary to long term memory
9
Q
A working memory is processing anything that you’re thinking about in _____
A
the moment
10
Q
If you want to remember more than ___ things, need to process that info so it stays in ____
A
7 long term memory
11
Q
the term used to describe enhanced memory when testing takes place under the same conditions as learning
A
encoding specificity
12
Q
What is the least effective way to store memories?
A
rote rehearsal
13
Q
A memory technique that requires grouping info into meaningful categories
A
chunking
14
Q
The term that describes linking what you are trying to learn to previously existing long-term info that is already in memory
A
mnemonics
15
Q
The type of mnemonic device where the crazier the better
A
imagery
16
Q
the type of mnemonic device where numbers are used to help memorize the order of words based on rhyming
A
pegword system
17
Q
the mnemonic device which links info to locations
A
method of loci
18
Q
The mnemonic device where each letter of a popular word means something
A
acronym
19
Q
A memory technique that takes new info and relates it to yourself
A
self-referencing
20
Q
The memory technique that spreads out study sessions instead of cramming
A
spacing
21
Q
the term used to describe trying to remember something
A
retrieval
22
Q
the term used to describe the environment you encode
A
context
23
Q
____ - your state at the moment you encode.
A
state-dependent
24
Q
___ can be a cue for state-dependent memory.
A
mood
25
What is the order of retrieval memory from most difficult to easiest?
free recall, cud recall, recognition
25
What is the order of retrieval memory from most difficult to easiest?
free recall, cued recall, recognition
26
free recall requires ___ ___ in recalling
no cues
27
What is the difference between primary effect and regency effect in free recall?
primary- first regency- last things on list
28
The serial position curve/effect is the overall tendency to recall ___ few items well, ___ few items well and ___ items not so great
first last middle
29
The type of recall that requires extra clues to remember the words
cued recall
30
The type of recall that presents the info and helps to retrieve memory (easiest)
recognition
31
____ is the mental blueprint containing common aspects of the world, instead of reality
schema
32
When people recall info they often forget the information's source - an error in ___ _____
source monitoring
33
____ _____ is the inability to remember where, when or how previously learned info has been acquired, while retaining the factual knowledge
Source amnesia
34
___ ___ are highly emotional memories that feel extremely vivid
flashbulb memories
35
the term used to describe making connections between neurons (LTP)?
long term potentiation
36
Presynaptic neurons release ____ on post synaptic neurons, allowing __ and ___ to flow in
neurotransmitters Na+ Ca2+
37
What is electrical potential?
difference in charge between outside and inside neuron
38
In the LTP mechanism, the same ___ ___ will elicit a ____ response in the ___ ___
presynaptic stimulation stronger postsynaptic neuron
39
the greater the post synaptic potential, the more ___ ___ will open in the neuron
ion channels
40
___ ___ is changes in brain size and involves function of environmental influences
neural plasticity
41
the term used to describe forgetting memories
decay
42
most forgetting happens _____
in the first few days
43
the name of the German psychologist that was the first person to look at decay in human memory
Ebbinghaus
44
the term describing how some foundation of memory still exists even if the person can't recall
savings
45
What are the two types of memory interference?
retroactive and proactive
46
what type of interference refers to later info interfering with memory of earlier info?
retroactive
47
What type of interference refers to how earlier info interferes with later info?
proactive
48
When aging, implicit memory and recognition memory abilities are ___
stable
49
when aging, ___ memories ____ until the age of ___.
semantic improve 60
50
when aging, there is a decline in ___ memories. Also ___ memories are impaired (forming new memories are difficult), ____ speed is also slower.
recalling episodic processing
51
____ memory is remembering to do things in the future
prospective
52
the term for decline in memory and other cognitive functions to the point of interfering with normal life
dementia
53
The most common form of dementia is ____ ____
Alzheimer's disease
54
In earliest stages of Alzheimer's disease, people have difficulty remembering the __ of the person they just met
name
55
Exact cause of AD is ____. may be due to ____ dying off and ___ ___ shrinking in size
unknown neurons cerebral cortex
56
AD causes buildup of ___ ___ in brain
amyloid plaques
57
Continual progression of AD might lead to ____ instability and loss of control over ___ ___
emotional bodily functions
58
____ syndrome is caused by a lack of vitamin b1 (____)
Korsakoff's thiamine
59
Korsakoff's syndrome is caused by malnutrition, ___ ___, and especially ____
eating disorders alcoholism
60
Thiamine is important because converts ____ into ___ cells needed for energy
carbs glucose
61
In Korsakoff's syndrome, the first stage causes poor balance, abnormal ___ movements, mild confusion and ___ loss. this stage is called ___ ____
eye memory Wernicke's encephalopathy
62
If Wernicke's encephalopathy is diagnosed in time it can __ the damage or prevent further damage
reverse
63
Korsakoff's syndrome if diagnosed is ____
treatable
64
treatment of Korsakoff's syndrome is ___ ___, staying on a healthy diet, abstaining from ___
thiamine injections alcohol
65
_____ amnesia is inability to recall info previously encoded
retrograde
66
_____ amnesia is inability to encode new memories
anterograde
67
____ is a deficit in memory caused by brain damage, disease or ____ ____
amnesia psychological trauma
68
____ ____ - concepts are organized in mind as connected ideas
semantic networks
69
What is the first semantic network theory that suggested we store info from higher order categories to lower order categories?
hierarchical semantic network
70
The hierarchical semantic networks states that more ___ takes more ___ to process
nodes time
71
The modified semantic network states that ___ nodal links determines the amount of activation emitted to a network
stronger
72
Which psychologist argued that children actively construct their understanding of the world as they grow?
Piaget
73
The first stage of Piaget's stages of development is from ages __ to__. It is called the ____ ____.
0 2 sensorimotor stage
74
In the sensorimotor stage, children gather info from ___. Their main development in this stage is ___ ____- objects exist even if they can't see them
senses object permanence
75
Stage 2 of Piaget is ages __ to __ called the ___ ___
2-6/7 pre-operational stage
76
In stage 2 of Piaget kids start to ___ play and are very ____ - only concerned about themselves
pretend egocentric
77
Stage 3 of Piaget is age __ to__. It is called the __ __.
7 11 concrete operational
78
In stage 3, kids learn the idea of _____. They learn ___ and begin reasoning of ___ skills
conservation empathy math
79
stage 4 of piaget is age __. It is called ___ ___ ___
12+ formal operational stage
80
In stage 4 of piaget, children begin to understand ___ concepts. The begin to develop ___ ___
abstract moral reasoning
81
___ are mental models or frameworks for us to organize and interpret new info
schemas
82
One way to develop a schema is through ___ - how we describe new info in terms of our current understanding
assimilation
83
_____ is how we later adjust our schemas to incorporate new experiences
accommodation
84
____ ____ is moving from a current state to a goal state
problem solving
85
___ ___ problems - clear starting and ending point
well-defined
86
___ ___ problems - more ambiguous starting or/and ending point (ex. how to live a happy life)
ill-defined
87
What method of problem solving involves taking a random guess until something finally works?
Trial and error
88
What method of problem solving involves a methodical approach, but is not efficient and guarantees a correct solution?
Algorithm
89
What is the problem solving method that involves mental shortcuts that allow to find solution quicker, but may not guarantee a correct solution?
heuristics
90
___ ___ ___- a heuristic where we analyze main problem and break down into smaller problems
means-end analysis
91
___ ___- goal state --> current state. start with goal and use it to suggest connections back to current state
working backwards
92
What is the method of problem solving that involves relying on instinct. (high chance of error)?
intuition
93
____- getting stuck on a wrong approach to a problem
fixation
94
Type 1 error =
false positive
95
type 2 error =
false negative
96
__ __ - we make a judgement of the probability of a certain outcome
decision making
97
What decision making heuristic uses examples that come to mind, but may not match real world situations?
availability heuristic
98
What decision making heuristic involves looking to match a prototype of the problem?
representativeness heuristic
99
__ __- occurrence of two instances is more likely than a single one
conjunction fallacy
100
___ prevent us from making correct decisions or from changing decisions once they are made
bias
101
going into a test without knowing a lot of info is an example of ___
overconfidence
102
___ ___ is a type of bias when you ignore/rationalize disconfirming facts
belief perseverance
103
type of bias that actively seeks out only confirming facts
confirmation bias
104
___ effects - how you present the info. that can affect decision making (ex. save 200 people vs kill 2/3 of 600)
framing
105
What does IQ stand for?
intelligence quotient
106
Spearman's theory of intelligence states theres 1 __ __
general intelligence
107
__ __ proposed that there are 3 types of intelligences
Robert Sternburg
108
The 3 types of intelligences presented by Robert Sternburg are
analytical, creative and practical intelligence
109
IQ score only measures ___ intelligence
analytical
110
average score on IQ test is __
100
111
__ __- the ability to perceive, understand, manage and use emotions in interactions with others
emotional intelligence
112
___ intelligence- ability to reason quickly and abstractly, such as when solving novel logic problems (think on ur feet)
fluid
113
___ intelligence - accumulated knowledge and verbal skills (ability to retrieve and acquire knowledge)
crystallized
114
__ __ - first to develop an intelligence test, but wasn't intending to. (designed to find child's mental age)
Alfred Binet
115
__ __- the psychologist at Stanford that modified Binet's intelligence test and included adults and teenagers
Lewis Terman
116
What is the question of nature vs. nurture?
how much is intelligence due to genes and how much is due to environment?
117
There is no recipe for structuring ___ to make a genius
environment
118
___ mindset - intelligence is biologically set and unchanging
fixed
119
___ mindset- praises effort, perseverance, improvement and strategies in improving intelligence
growth
120
Who introduced the idea of hereditary genius (human ability is hereditary)?
Galton
121
__ intelligence was proposed by Guilford to describe IQ test related intelligence
convergent
122
Who proposed the theory of general intelligence and what is the theory of general intelligence?
Charles Spearman
- used factor analysis to identify cluster of related abilities
- 1 general intelligence
- g factor- can predict intelligence in many different areas
123
What evidence supports the theory of general intelligence and what are the problems with this theory?
supported by research
those who score high in one area score well in others
controversial
can one factor explain all diverse human abilities
limited in what it considers to be intelligence
124
Who introduced the Theory of Mental Abilities and what is the theory?
L.L. Thurnstone
- 7 factors of intelligence; word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial reasoning, perceptual speed, numerical ability, inductive
reasoning, and memory.
125
What are the strengths and problems of the Theory of Primary mental abilities?
strength- breakdown seems intuitive
problem- How can scores vary together statistically?
- Limited in what it considers to be intelligence
126
Who introduced the theory of Multiple Intelligence? What is it?
Howard Gardner
- Expanded ideas of what can be included in intelligence
- logical-mathematical intelligence, verbal-linguistic, spatial-visual, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, musical, naturalist, and existential intelligence
127
What are the strengths and problems of the theory of Multiple Intelligence?
strength- You can have different strengths independently.
• Intelligence is more than just “book smarts.”
problem- No way to test this theory (not supported by research)
• Intelligence vs. talents/abilities (but maybe this is just a labeling)
128
Who introduced the Triarchic theory of Intelligence? What is it?
Robert Sternburg
| analytical (problem solving ability), creative intelligence, and practical intelligence.
129
What are the strengths and problems with the Triarchic Theory of intelligence?
strength - reliable, easy to study by research
problem - research shows that scores of all intelligences vary together
- are these 3 sides of the same coin?
130
What are 4 cognitive abilities that decline as you age?
recall, episodic memory, processing speed, divided attention
131
What cognitive abilities are STABLE as you age?
implicit memory, recognition memory
132
What cognitive abilities IMPROVE as you age?
semantic memory, crystallized intelligence, emotional reasoning
133
Which hemisphere of the brain is language processed?
left
134
What are the 2 main areas of the brain where language is processed?
Broca's area (frontal lobe) and Wernicke's area (temporal lobe- sound processing)
135
___ is a communication disorder that involves language problems, like speaking, listening, reading and writing
Aphasia
136
__ __ - disease that produces broken/halted speech. The __ __ region is damaged in the brain
Broca's aphasia frontal lobe
137
__ __ - a disease that causes words not to make any sense. people can't understand what others say. The __ __ region of the brain is damaged.
Wernicke's aphasia temporal lobe
138
__ __- disease that is the combination of impaired comprehension and production of speech
global aphasia
139
the wernicke's and Broca's are connected by a bundle of nerve fibers called __ __
arcuate fasciculus
140
__ __ - disease that causes inability to conduct between listening and speaking. Associated with damage to the __ __
conduction aphasia arcuate fasciculus
141
__ - the inability to write
agraphia
142
___ __- disease characterized by the inability to name objects or retrieve words
Anomic aphasia
143
a split brain patient is caused by damage to the __ __ which connects the two hemispheres of the brain
corpus callosum
144
The brain has ___ organization; left visual field gets processed by right side and vice versa
contralateral
145
___ - located on right hemisphere, concerned w larger units of speech like syllables. (contribute to linguistic functions such as intonation, tone, stress)
prosody
146
___- empiricist, believe that language is a conditioned behavior
behaviorists
147
___- rationalist, language must be innate
nativists
148
__- look at what happens in brain when people speak/think/write
materialist
149
The theory of ____ states that thought determines language completely.
Universalism
150
Piaget thought that children use __ to describe their thoughts. Language influence is influenced by __ __
language, cognitive development
151
___ thought that language and thought are both independent, but converge through __
Vygotsky, development
152
__ __ __ : (relativism) language influences thought. the theory that linguistic structure influences but doesn't determine the context of everyday encounters
Weak Linguistic Determinism
153
__ __ __ - (Sapir-Whorfian hypothesis) language determines thought completely. People understand their world through language
Strong linguistic determinism
154
___ perspective on language- children are born with the ability to learn language. Associated with __ __
nativist, Noam Chomsky
155
Naom Chomsky thought that all humans had a _ _ _ that allowed them to learn language.
Language acquisition device
156
In the Nativist perspective of language, there's an idea of a __ __, where the child is most able to learn a language from age _ to _
critical period, 0-8/9
157
The __ (behaviorist) theory- children aren't born with anything, they only acquire language through __ conditioning
learning, operant
158
__ __- (aka social interactionist approach) theory that states biological and social factors have to interact in order for children to learn language. Associated with __
interactionist approach, Vygotsky
159
What is lexicon?
a set of vocab items
160
Lexical access refers to ___ a word and __ to its meaning
identifying, connecting
161
___- actual sound of a language "sound system"
phonology
162
there are __ phonemes in english language
40
163
___ - refers to the structure of words
morphology
164
___- association of meaning with a word
semantics
165
____- how words are put together in sentences
syntax
166
___- dependences of language on context and pre-existing knowledge. affected by __ - the rhythm, cadence and inflection of our voices
pragmatics, prosody
167
the limbic system is a set of structures in the brain that play a role in regulating ___.
emotions
168
Structures of the limbic system include (HAT Hippo):
Hypothalamus, amygdala, thalamus, hippocampus
169
What does the thalamus control?
sensory relay station (directs senses to appropriate areas in cortex)
170
Amygdala - aka ___ center. when stimulated produces __ and __
aggression, anger fear
171
__ __ syndrome- destruction of amygdala, results in ___ (put things in mouth a lot) and drunken behaviors
Kluver-Bucy, hyperorality
172
Patients with a damaged amygdala are given ___ as treatment
Benzos
173
key role of hippocampus
forming memories
174
key role of hypothalamus
regulates Autonomic nervous system, controls endocrine system by triggering hormones, responsible for hunger, sleep, thirst and sex
175
Positive emotions evoke more brain activity on the __ hemisphere
left
176
Negative emotions are evoked by more brain activity on the __ hemisphere
right
177
the __ __ of the brain is responsible for executive control (solve problems, make decisions, how you act in social situations)
prefrontal cortex
178
The ANS (autonomic nervous system) has two branches, the __ and the __
sympathetic, parasympathetic
179
what physiological changes occur during a sympathetic response?
```
pupils dilate
decrease in salivation
increase respiration rate
increase HR
increase adrenaline
increase glucose release
```
180
What physiological changes occur during parasympathetic response?
```
pupils constrict
increased salivation
decrease respiratory rate
increase digestion
decrease adrenaline
increase glucose storage
```
181
What are the 3 components of emotion?
physiological, cognitive, behavioral
182
__ __ found _ main universal emotions. What are they?
Paul Ekman, 6
happiness, sadness, fear, disgust, anger and surprise
183
The __ __ theory of emotion - experience of emotion is due to perception of physiological responses
James-Lange
184
In James-Lange Theory of emotion, an event --> ____ ---> Interpretation --> ___
physiological response, emotion
185
___ ___ theory of emotion- disagreed w James-Lange, physiological responses and emotion occurred ___.
Cannon-Bard, simultaneously
186
What flaws were found on the James-Lange theory of emotion?
- can experience physiological response w/o emotion
- noticed many emotions had same physiological responses
- physiological responses were slow compared to emotions produced
187
__ __ (2 factor theory of emotion) - physiological and cognitive responses ___ form experience of emotion.
Schachter-Singer, simultaneously
188
Schachter-Singer theory of emotion-
event-->PR + ___ ---> emotion
identifying reason for situation
189
The ___ theory- experience of emotion depends on how the situation is cognitively labelled (what events elicit good or bad emotions)
Lazarus
190
the ___ is the conductor of emotional experiences, communicating between the ___ and prefrontal cortex.
amygdala, hypothalamus
191
emotions associated with memories are encoded in the ____
hippocampus
192
the ___ ___ law- people perform best when they are moderately aroused (__ shape curve)
Yerkes-Dodson, bell
193
What is stress?
the process by which we appraise and cope with environmental threats and challenges
194
What is a stressor?
Threatening/challenging event
195
What is the stress reaction?
subsequent physical and emotional response
196
__ __ believes that stress arises less from physical events but more from the interpretation of those stresses (___ theory of stress)
Richard Lazarus, Appraisal
197
the 1st cognitive stage of stress is the __ __, which is assessing stress in present situation
primary appraisal
198
What are the 3 responses to primary appraisal in stress?
irrelevant, benign/positive, stressful/negative
199
___ ___- evaluation of the individual's ability to cope with the stressful situation (2nd stage of stress)
secondary appraisal
200
What are the 4 main categories of stressors?
Significant life changes
catastrophic events
daily hassles
Ambient stressors
201
Who coined the term "fight or flight"?
Walter Cannon
202
In the endocrine response, the __ __ releases catecholamines (epinephrine and ___).
adrenal medulla, norepinephrine
203
The adrenal cortex releases __ -steroid hormone that redistributes glucose energy in body and suppresses __ __
glucocorticoid (cortisol), immune system
204
What are the 3 phases of stress by Hans Selye? (General Adaptation Syndrome)
Alarm phase- stress kicks in
Resistance - fleeing, temp elevated, BP high
Exhaustion - if resistance isn't followed by recovery
205
___ stress has serious __ effects to the body
chronic, negative
206
What kind of effects does chronic stress have on the heart?
increased BP. - can lead to hypertension and vascular disease
207
What negative effects does chronic stress have on metabolism?
excess blood sugar can cause diabetes or heart disease
208
What effects does chronic stress have on the reproductive system?
women- decrease in FSH/LH
| men- decrease in testosterone
209
What effects does chronic stress have on the immune system?
causes inflammation, more susceptible to illness
210
the 2 areas of the brain with most glucocorticoid receptors are the __ and __
hippocampus, frontal cortex
211
depression or ____ is the inability to experience pleasure, so perceive more stressors
anhedonia
212
In depression, the ___ ___ stops responding to __ (the hormone for happiness)
anterior cingulate, serotonin
213
___ ___- you learn from having control ripped out of hands, lose ability to identify coping mechanisms
learned helplessness
214
What are the 3 emotional/behavioral effects of stress (3 A's)?
Anger, anxiety, addiction
215
What are some ways to manage stress in a healthy way?
exercise, meditation, religious beliefs, cognitive flexibility
216
one positive coping strategy for stress is anticipating the problem, known as __ __
proactive coping
217
___ is when one reduces the stress of some difficult challenge by anticipating what it will be like and preparing to cope
anticipation
218
A type of stress coping that seeks social support from others
social coping
219
A type of stress coping when a person concentrates on deriving meaning from the stressful experience
meaning-focused coping
220
What are some examples of maladaptive coping mechanisms?
dissociation, sensitization, safety behaviors, anxious avoidance, escape
221
What consist of the CNS?
brain and spinal cord
222
__ __ __ - efferent neurons of the PNS synapse on control skeletal muscle
lower motor neurons
223
___ - involuntary twitches of skeletal muscle
fasciculations
224
hyporeflexia
decreased muscle stretch relfex
225
somatosensation includes 5 main ones:
position sense, vibration, touch, pain and temperature
226
What kind of receptors detect position, vibration and touch?
mechanoreceptors
227
What kind of receptors detect pain?
nociceptors
228
What kind of receptors detect temperature?
thermoreceptors
229
nociceptors and thermoreceptors are ___ in speed
slow
230
mechanoreceptors are __ in speed
fast
231
Mechanoreceptors are located where?
skin, blood vessels, ear
232
Where are chemoreceptors located in the body?
tongue, blood, nose, tissue
233
Where are thermoreceptors located?
skin, hypothalamus
234
mechanoreceptors have __ myelin sheath
thick
235
reflexes have 2 parts: __ (stimulus) and __ (response)
afferent, efferent
236
muscle stretch reflex- causes a muscle to ___ after ___
contract, stretched
237
sympathetic NS starts ___ of spinal cord --> __ axon synapses with short ganglia close to spine --> second neuron goes to target cell
middle, short
238
PNS starts at the __ __ or bottom of spinal cord --> 1st neuron sends long axon --> synapse with ganglion of second neuron --> sends __ axon to target cell
brain stem, short
239
What does gray matter consist of?
neuron somas (cell bodies)
240
White matter consists of?
myelinated axons
241
__ matter in on inside of spinal cord, and __ matter is on outside
grey, white
242
In the brain, __ matter is on inside and __ matter is on outside
white, gray
243
__ __ __ control the LMNs (lower motor neurons)
Upper motor neurons
244
a collection of axons that carry movement-related information from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord
corticospinal tract
245
collections of axons that travel from cerebral cortex to the brain stem
corticobulbar tract
246
___ - increase in the muscle stretch reflexes
hyperreflexia
247
___- rhythmic contractions of antagonist muscle
clonus
248
___- increased tone of skeletal muscles. increase muscle tension
hypertonia
249
__ __ __ - if you take a hard object and scrape along bottom of foot, normal response is flexor – toes will come down on the object. But with extensor, toes extend up.
extensor plantar response
250
all somatosensory pathways __ to the other side of the __
cross, brain
251
Which part of the brain processes sensory information?
parietal lobe
252
Which part of the brain processes visual info?
occipital lobe
253
Which part of the brain processes auditory info?
temporal lobe
254
The ___ hemisphere is dominant for a vast majority of people
left
255
What part of the brain helps to maintain balance and motor control?
cerebellum
256
The brainstem consists of what 3 structures?
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
257
__ __- neuron somas scattered throughout the brainstem (role in autonomic functions)
reticular formation
258
__ __- collections of axons connecting cerebrum and brainstem
long tracts
259
There are __ pairs of cranial nerves
12
260
What part of the brain regulates waking and relaxing?
pons
261
What part of the brain is involved in motivation and alertness?
reticular formation
262
What part of the brain regulates the autonomic activity of the heart and lungs?
medulla
263
___ ___ - contains many important pathways, including the corticospinal tract
internal capsule
264
__ __ - major role in motor functions, don’t have UMNs but help motor areas to perform proper movements. Also cognition + emotion. (part of brain)
basal ganglia
265
___ - responsible for sensory functions, also higher functions of brain such as cognition and emotion.
thalamus
266
___ - controls the pituitary gland, the master gland that controls all other glands in body
hypothalamus
267
the most common excitatory neurotransmitter
glutamate
268
the 2 most common inhibitory Neurotransmitters
glycine and GABA
269
Which neurotransmitter is released for lower motor neurons? (released from nuclei in frontal lobe)
acetylcholine
270
Which neurotransmitter is sent from the hypothalamus to cerebral cortex?
histamine
271
Which neurotransmitter is released from the pons (locus coeruleus) and sent to the cerebral cortex?
norepinephrine
272
Which neurotransmitter is released by nuclei all over the brainstem called raphe nuclei to cerebral cortex?
serotonin
273
dopamine is produced in the __ __ and the __ __ __
substantia nigra, ventral tegmental area
274
When dopamine produces negative symptoms, it is produced in the VTA --> __
pre-frontal cortex
275
The pathway for positive effects of dopamine=
| ___ ---> ____
VTA, limbic (nucleus accumbens, amygdala, hippocampus)
276
in the PNS, the two main neurotransmitters are
acetylcholine and epinephrine
277
GABA affects the __ and glycine affects the __
CNS, PNS
278
Low levels of __ are associated with Parkinson's disease
dopamine
279
high levels of __ are associated with schizophrenia
dopamine
280
____ - people who thought each brain area is devoted to a certain personality characteristic, thought, emotion
phrenologist
281
___ studies- when parts of the brain are purposefully destroyed to find out what their function is (not done on humans)
lesion
282
lesions studies can be done by ___ ___- used to destroy tissue on surface of brain and deep inside brain. Wire is inserted into brain to determine the area. Then pass high frequency current which heats up and destroys tissue.
radiofrequency lesions
283
__ __- a lesion study technique that uses surgical removal of parts of brain
tissue removal
284
the most precise method of lesion studies of the brain (excitotoxins are used to bind to glutamate receptors)
neurochemical lesions
285
What is an example of a excitotoxin that destroys cell bodies but doesn't influence axons passing by?
kainic acid
286
Which excitotoxin selectively destroys dopamine and NE neurons?
oxidopamine
287
What lesion study method involves cooling down neurons until they stop firing?
cortical cooling (cryogenic blockade)
288
Which brain imaging technique uses x-rays to show the structure of the brain, but can't show brain activity?
CAT (computerized axial tomography) scan
289
Which type of brain imaging method uses radio waves and a magnetic field?
MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
290
How does an MRI work?
radio waves are added to a magnetic field which disorients atoms. when atoms move back to alignment w the magnetic field they release signals and they used to create an image
291
Which type of brain imaging method can give info of seizures, sleep stages and cognitive tasks? (don't get a picture of the brain)
EEG (electroencephalogram)
292
Which of the brain studying methods has a better resolution than an EEG and uses magnetic fields produced by electric currents in the brain. Measured by using SQUIDS
MEG (megnetoencephalogram)
293
Which type of brain imaging uses MRI images but tells us about brain activity? (measures oxygen in the brain)
fMRI (functional MRI)
294
What type of scan involves injecting glucose into cells to see which parts of the brain are active (more invasive)? (also requires swallowing a radioactive tracer)
PET (positron emission tomography)
295
What part of the brain regulates blood volume?
hypothalamus
296
What hormones does the Anterior pituitary gland produce?
FH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, Endorphins, GH
297
What hormones does the posterior pituitary gland produce?
ADH and oxytocin
298
What hormone does the Pars Intermedia produce?
MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone)
299
What is the main function of the thyroid?
regulate body metabolism
300
What is the main role of the parathyroid?
regulate calcium levels
301
What is the function of the adrenal glands?
involved in stress response and produces catecholamines and glucocorticosteroids
302
FSH/LH stimulation releases ___ hormones
sex
303
What is the main role of the pancreas?
regulates blood sugar (PAN of sugar)
304
Hormone concentration in the body is regulated by ____ and ___
metabolism, secretion (negative feedback loops)
305
the name of the layer with many glycoproteins on a human egg before cell membrane
zona pellucida
306
What is the acrosome reaction in fertilization?
enzymes leak into the zona pellucida and digest it. sperm gets closer to the plasma membrane of the egg
307
what is the cortical reaction in fertilization?
when sperm binds to plasma membrane, cortical granules are released and plasma membranes fuse, genetic material is transferred
308
What is the order of embryogenesis? zygote ---> __ ---> ___
zygote, morula, blastula
309
How many cells is a morula?
32
310
What is gastrulation?
formation of germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm)
311
in Neurulation, the ___ differentiates and thickens to a ___
ectoderm, neural plate
312
the neural plate eventually forms the ___
neural tube (becomes spinal cord)
313
____ is when the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium
apposition
314
during implantation of the blastocyst, what cells provide nutrients to the embryo and later forms the placenta?
trophoblasts
315
___ form villi, which turn into fetal blood vessels
synciotrophoblasts
316
the endoderm forms__
GI tract tube, lungs, liver and pancreas
317
the mesoderm forms ___
inner layers of skin, muscles, bones, cardiac muscles, kidneys, bladder, ovaries and testes
318
ectoderm forms___
skin, sweat glands, hair, nervous system
319
What characterizes embryogenesis?
divided cells and organ system formed
320
at what week of gestation is an embryo considered a fetus?
week 10
321
at week ___ of gestation there is a 50% chance of survival
24
322
how long is the avg. human gestation period (in weeks)?
37-42 weeks
323
___- preprogrammed motor skills
reflexes
324
major motor milestones at 2-4 months old
heads up/chest up
325
major motor milestone at 2-5 months
roll over
326
major motor milestone at 5-8 months
sit up
327
major motor milestones at 5-10 months
stand with support
328
major motor milestone at 6-11 months
pull up to standing position
329
major motor milestone at 7-12 months
crawling
330
major motor milestone at 7-13 months
walk with support
331
major motor milestone at 10-14 months
stand on own
332
major motor milestone at 11-15 months
walking
333
Gross motor skills develop ___ fine motor skills
before
334
What does head to toe development mean?
babies can lift heads before crawling
335
___ reflexes - important for newborns and also present throughout life
permanent
336
___ reflexes - these disappear as baby ages. helps doctors assess if something is not developing correctly
neonatal
337
rooting reflex (babies)
cheek stroking - baby turns head
338
Babinski reflex
how baby turn/unturn toes when stroked at sole of foot
339
moro relfex
fan out arms then back
340
tonic neck reflex (baby)
when babies head turned, the arm on that side straightens, while other arm bends
341
galant reflex (baby)
when skin stroked, baby moves/swings to side of stroking
342
palmer grasp reflex (baby)
close hands on anything that comes near palm
343
sucking reflex (baby)
baby suck on anything close to mouth
344
stepping reflex (baby)
hold infant upright and touch feet to flat surface, start taking steps
345
swimming reflex (baby)
infants in water move arms and legs, involuntarily holds breath
346
the ___ cortex is developed during adolescence
prefrontal
347
What are the top 2 parts of the limbic system that are developed in adolescence?
amygdala and hypothalamus
348
the corpus collosum develops until ___
puberty
349
in adolescence, there is an increase in __ in the brain
myelination
350
___ ___- breaking down connections between certain neurons. focus resources on the ones we use most (in adolescence)
synaptic pruning
351
__ __ - looking at genetic component or hardwiring component to behavior
behavioral genetics
352
we have aprox. 20,000 to __ genes
25 k
353
__ - units of hereditary
genes
354
What is an example of a simple trait?
eye color , hair color
355
What is an example of a complex trait?
happiness, intelligence, aggressiveness
356
simple traits interact ___ with the environment, while complex traits are more impacted by ___ ___
minimally, environmental influences
357
____ - broader than personality. characteristic emotional reactivity, intensity
temperament
358
Personality is believed to be __ over a person's lifestyle
constant
359
monozygotic twins are __
identical
360
dizygotic twins are __
fraternal
361
__ __ - when an adopted child is compared to biological family and adopted family
adoption studies
362
__ or __ studies are used to look at the effect of nature vs nurture
adoption twin
363
if genes are strong identical twins are the __
same
364
if environmental factors in twin studies are strong then identical twins may seem like __
fraternal twins
365
In adoption studies, if genes are strong then the adopted child would ____
be similar to biological parents
366
In adoption studies, if environmental factors are strong, then the adopted child would be similar to __
adopted family
367
___ - variability of traits can be attributed to differences in genes
heritability
368
boys with a 100% controlled environment have different IQs, what percent of the difference in IQ heritable?
100%
369
__ __- a new field of science that looks at the molecular structure and function of genes
molecular genetics
370
What is the central dogma of molecular genetics?
DNA --> RNA ---> protein
371
__ % of our genes do not code for proteins, but regulate how proteins are coded
95
372
___ - changes to gene expression resulting from changes other than DNA/gene sequence
epigenetics
373
What is an example of epigenetic change?
methylation
374
Gene Environment interaction describes how __ and environment affect ___
genes behavior
375
An example of a gene-environment interaction is PKU (__), which is a genetic mutation that causes a build up of __
phenylketonuria, phenylalanine
376
The function of behavior is to keep ___
homeostasis
377
___ focuses on the observation of behaviors
ethology
378
___ behavioral traits - genetically programmed behavior
innate
379
What are the 3 main types of innate behaviors?
reflexes, orientation behaviors, fixed action pattern (sequence of coordinated movement without pausing)
380
__ behavioral traits - persistent changes in our behavior that result from our experiences
learned
381
__ behavior - combination of innate and learned behavior (ex. insects learning how to fly)
complex
382
___ behavior - not observable
covert
383
positive feedback - process that ___ production of product
increase
384
negative feedback- process that needs to be __ to decrease product
controlled
385
The evolutionary approach to motivation is that ___ play in motivation
instincts
386
The __ __ theory of motivation is based on the need-drive balance
drive reduction
387
the __ __ theory of motivation - people want to reach full arousal/alertness
optimum arousal
388
the ___ theory of motivation - thought processes drive behavior
cognitive
389
What is Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
we want to satisfy needs in particular order (pyramid)
390
What is "Id"?
innate; Makes up all instincts and wants to get rid of all uncomfortable feelings
391
the ___ principle - to gain pleasure and avoid pain
pleasure
392
What is "ego"?
reality principle; mediates the demands of reality vs. desires of Id. how we identity with/believe ourselves to be
393
___ - inhibits sexual and aggressive impulses, and tries to replace reality with morality, striving for perfection
superego (angel) (id- devil)
394
___ motivation- associated with rewards or obligated behavior. (driven by money or fame)
extrinsic
395
___ motivation- internal motivation
intrinsic
396
___ __ motivation- based on the need to fulfill a certain drive, like hunger or thirst
Drive reduction
397
Amotivation is
the lack of motivation
398
What are the 5 needs according to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs?
(Please Stop Liking Stupid Shite)
| Physiological, Safety, Love, Self-esteem, Self-actualization
399
____ theory- reward is presented after the occurrence of an action with intention of causing the behavior to occur again (doing well at work and getting a promotion)
incentive
400
Incentive theory focuses on ___ ___ is done through continuous positive stimulation
positive reinforcement
401
___ ___- removal of stimuli to encourage a response
negative reinforcement
402
The 2 factors that affect/regulate out intake of food, sex and drugs
biological factors, socio-culture
403
What part of the hypothalamus sends positive signals to start eating?
lateral
404
What part of the hypothalamus sends signals for us to stop eating?
ventromedial (vulture)
405
What hormone is present in high amounts to suppress appetite?
lectin (licking)
406
The sociocultural factor that affects eating is___
eat for occasions, time, desire, appeal
407
Who were the 2 people that studied 100s of male and female volunteers during sexual activity?
Master and Johnson (MJ loved sex)
408
What are the stages of the sexual response cycle?
excitement phase (HR increases, muscle tension, BP)
plateau phase
orgasm
resolution/refractory phase
409
Master and Johnson found that the hormone __ was related to sexual drive/activity
testosterone
410
sociocultural factors for sex are __
age, cultural background, emotions, and desires
411
What hormone is related to sexual gratification and is associated with relieving sexual arousal after an orgasm?
prolactin (pros are gratified)
412
What hormones are released post-orgasm that produce feelings of euphoria and pleasure?
endorphins
413
What hormone is released after an orgasm to facilitate bonds and feelings of connectedness between sexual partners?
oxytocin
414
If a family member has a predisposition to drug addiction, then the chance of offspring abusing drugs is __
higher
415
Drugs like Marijuana and heroin mimic ___ of our brain
neurotransmitters
416
cocaine cause the abnormal release of natural NTs like __
dopamine
417
___ - a learned tendency to evaluate things in a certain way
attitude
418
What are the 3 components of attitude?
affective (emotional), behavioral (how we act), cognitive (form thoughts)
ABC model of attitude
419
Theory of __ __- we consider our implications of actions before we decide how to behave (how attitude influences behavior)
planned behavior
420
What 3 things are intensions based on?
attitude, subjective norms, perceived behavioral control
421
___ to behavior process model - event triggers attitude ---> attitude + knowledge causes a behavior
attitude
422
__ __ model - our behavior is a function of past behavior, attitudes, subjective norms, willingness, prototyping/modeling
prototype willingness
423
Elaboration Likelihood Model for Persuasion (ELM)- more __ approach (focuses on why/how of persuasion)
cognitive
424
What is the central route of Persuasion (part of ELM)?
Degree of attitude change depends on quality of the argument presented
425
What is the Peripheral route of Persuasion (part of ELM)?
looks at superficial/expertise/non-verbal persuasion cues
426
The phenomenon where we have a tendency to agree to small actions first, later comply to larger actions
foot in door phenomenon
427
The phenomenon where you eventually become adjusted to a new role (parent, student, job) and it becomes the new normal
role-playing
428
___ ___- people's tendency to attribute a greater value to an outcome they had to put effort into achieving
effort justification
429
__ __ - the discomfort experienced when holding 2 or more conflicting cognitions (contradictions)
Cognitive dissonance
430
According to the Cognitive dissonance theory, what are the 4 things that might occur when there is a contradiction?
modify our cognitions
trivialize (make less important)
add (more ideas to lessen discomfort)
deny (deny facts)
431
___ ___ principle - when someone does something and there is minimal justification for them doing it, but makes up a significant rationale to justify
minimum justification
432
Situational approach to behavior - under the branch of ___ psychology
social
433
___ ___- a branch of psychology that analyzes the situational approach to behavior and emphasizes interactions with people
Social psychology
434
___ is the process of inferring causes of events/behaviors
attributions
435
What are the 3 main parts of external attribution?
consistency (does person usually behave this way)
distinctiveness (do they behave differently in diff situations)
consensus (do others behave similarly)
436
__ __ was the founder of psychoanalysis and the psychoanalytic theory
sigmund freud
437
The psychoanalytic theory - personality is shaped by ___ experiences, ____ thoughts/desires, and past memories
childhood, unconscious
438
What are the 2 instinctual drives that motivate human behavior?
libido (natural energy source -motivation for survival, growth, pleasure)
death instinct - drives aggression
439
defense mechanism where unwanted impulses are transformed into something less harmful
sublimation
440
Freud said there are 3 parts of the mind: __ __ __
id, ego, superego
441
According to Freud, there is a ___ mind and a ___ mind
conscious, unconscious
442
According to freud, __ is at the bottom of the iceberg. it develops after birth and demands ___ gratification
Id, immediate
443
Ego - part of __ and __. involved in our perceptions, thoughts and judgements (seeks ___ gratification)
conscious and unconscious, long-term
444
superego - develops around age __, its our ___ conscience
4, moral
445
Freudian __ - example of mental conflict
slip
446
The humanistic theory (developed by __ __) focuses on healthy ___ __, and humans are seen as ___ ___
Carl Rogers, personality development, inherently good
| mr. rogers = nice
447
The humanistic theory states the basic motive of humans is to ___ ___ (enhance oneself)
self-actualize
448
One of the first theorists of humanistic theory was __ __
Abraham Maslow
449
According to Carl Rogers, __ relationship with others and __ is what allows us to live up to our real self.
genuine, acceptance
450
Humanist Maslow ____, Humanist Rogers ___
actualizes, accepts
451
Both Rogers and Maslow believe that personality is __ __- achieved when we bring genuineness and acceptance together to achieve __
self-concept, growth
452
The biological theory of personality suggests important components of personality are ___, or determined by our genes
inherited
453
__ __ - proposed extroversion level is based on differences in the reticular formation (introverts are more aroused than extroverts so they seek lower levels of stimulation)
Hans Eysenck
454
Jeffrey Alan Gray proposed personality is governed by ___ ___ and activation system.
behavioral inhibition (50 shades of gray is based on punishment/rewards)
455
C. Robert Cloninger linked personality to __ __ in reward/motivation/punishment
brain systems (clone the brain)
456
Personality traits that are strongly correlated with genetics are (2 things)
social potency (leadership roles), traditionalism (tendency to follow authority)
457
People with more ___ receptor gene are more likely to be thrill seekers
dopamine-4
458
The Behaviorist theory of personality - personality is the result of learned behavior patterns based on ___
environment
459
The behaviorist theory of personality focuses on __ and measurable behavior. Opposite of ___ theory.
observable, psychoanalytic
460
Skinner - a ___, associated with the concept of __ __ (uses rewards/punishments to increase/decrease behavior)
behaviorist, operant conditioning
461
Pavlov - a behaviorist, associated with the concept of __ __ (place a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to trigger an involuntary response)
classical conditioning (pavlova is a classic dessert)
462
The __ theory of personality connects the observable to mental approach
cognitive
463
What are surface traits of personality?
evident from a person's behavior
464
What are source traits of personality?
factors underlying human personality (fewer and more abstract)
465
What is a personality trait?
A relatively stable characteristic of a person that causes individuals to consistently behave in certain ways
466
What do the letters in the Myers Briggs Personality test mean?
I- introvert E- extrovert S- Sensing I-intuition T-thinking F-feeling J-judgement P-perception
Ed Sits To Jump
I Need the Feeling of Pain
467
Gordon Allport - came up with 3 basic categories of personality traits : __ __ __
cardinal (directs most of person's activities)
central (less dominant - honesty, sociability)
secondary (preferences or attitude)
468
Raymond Cattell- proposed we had all __ essential personality traits that represent the basic dimensions of personality
16
469
Hans Eysenck- proposed that we have __ traits, but we express to __ degrees.
all, different
470
What are the 3 dimensions of personality (Eysenck)?
psychoticism (degree to which reality is distorted)
Extroversion (vs. introversion)
Neuroticism (emotional stability)
Eysenck's PEN
471
What are the big 5 personality traits? (OCEAN)
openness conscientiousness extroversion agreeableness neuroticism
472
__ __- a statistical method that categorizes and determines major categories of personality traits (used by cattell, eysenck and Big 5)
factor analysis
473
What kind of neurons are found to support observational learning?
mirror
474
the social cognitive theory- theory of behavior change that emphasizes interactions between __ and their ___
people, environment
475
What was the Bobo Doll experiment?
group of children were exposed to violent actions and some did it when frustrated and some didn't (difference between learning behavior and performing it)
476
what is Bandura's social cognitive theory? (acronym)
Attention, Memory, Imitation, motivation (AM I Motivated?)
477
What kind of defense mechanism deals with distortion of reality (denial)?
Pathological defense mechanism
478
What 2 defense mechanism are considered immature defense mechanisms?
projection (accusing another person of something u did)
| passive aggression
479
___- a type of neurotic defense mechanism, taking intellectual aspects and detaching emotional aspects of situation
intellectualization
480
___ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism, making yourself believe you're not at fault
rationalization
481
___ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism, acting like a baby (throwing a tantrum)
regression
482
___ - unconscious process where thoughts pushed down to unconscious
repression
483
___- a type of neurotic defense mechanism where anger is placed on someone different from the actual person they are angry at (safer target)
displacement
484
__ __ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism where unconscious feelings make person the complete opposite
reaction formation
485
What are the 4 ways of mature defense mechanisms? (HASS)
humor, sublimation (channeling neg energy to pos), Suppression, Altruism (service)
486
___ outlined the pleasure principles and the reality principle
Freud
487
Freud's pleasure principle
as a child, you want immediate pleasure and to avoid suffering
488
Freud's reality principle
when we become mature, you realize there is delayed gratification
489
Eros drives__
life drive (health, safety, sex)
490
Thantos drives__
death drive (harm to others, fear, anger, hate)
491
define distress
negative type of stress that builds over time and is bad for your body
492
Define eustress
positive type of stress (motivating)
493
Define neustress
neutral type of stress that doesn't really affect you directly
494
What are the 2 classification systems used for mental disorders?
ICD-10 and DSM-5
495
What category of mental disorders involve distress due to abnormality in development of nervous system (Autism and ADHD)?
Neurodevelopmental disorders
496
Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by a variety of issues related to __ and __ abilities
social communication
497
Dyscalculia
mathematics learning disorder
498
dysgraphia
writing disorder
499
The category of mental disorders that involve loss of cognitive/other functions of the brain AFTER the nervous system developed
neurocognitive disorders (delirium) (dementia)
500
Category of mental disorders that result in distress from sleep-related issues
Sleep-wake disorders (insomnia)
501
Category of mental disorders that result in distress from abnormal worry/fear
Anxiety disorders (social anxiety and general anxiety disorder)
502
Category of mental disorders that result in distress from abnormally negative mood
depressive disorders
503
Category of mental disorders that involve abnormal negative mood, but these may have periods of abnormally positive mood called mania
bipolar and related disorders
504
category of mental disorders that involves distress from psychosis
Schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders
505
category of mental disorders that involve distress from the abnormal use of substances that affect mental function
Substance-related and addictive disorders
506
category of mental disorders that involve distress related to personality
personality disorders (cluster A- weird, cluster B- intense emotion, cluster C- worried)
507
category of mental disorders that involve distress from behaviors that are unacceptably disruptive or impulsive
disruptive, impulse-control and conduct disorders
508
Mental disorders that involve distress from obsessions or compulsions
Obsessive-Compulsive and related disorders
509
Mental disorders that involve distress from symptoms similar to those that may occur to illness unrelated to mental disorder, but of psychological origin
somatic symptom and related disorders
510
Mental disorders involved with distress from behavioral abnormalities related to food
feeding and eating disorders
511
Mental disorders that involve distress from urination at inappropriate times or places
elimination disorders
512
Mental disorders that involve distress from abnormalities of identity or memory
dissociative disorders
513
Mental disorders that involve distress from abnormalities in or performance of sexual activity
sexual dysfunctions
514
mental disorders that involve distress caused by person identifying as a different gender than society represents them as
gender dysphoria
515
mental disorders that involve distress from having sexual arousal to unusual stimuli for a person's culture
paraphilic disorders
516
schizophrenia cause abnormalities in the brain, there is a high levels of ___ (a neurotransmitter)
dopamine
517
___ - a period of time before schizophrenia before symptoms are present
prodrome
518
schizophrenia is diagnosed through clinical __ not brain scans
interview
519
__ is a antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia
haloperidol
520
___ - sensory perceptions w/o stimuli like hearing or seeing.
hallucinations
521
__ hallucinations are most common in patients with schizophrenia
auditory (hearing voices)
522
___- false fixed beliefs not explainable by a person's culture (very common in schizophrenia)
delusions
523
A schizophrenic delusion that involves the belief that others are out to get them
delusions of persecution
524
a schizophrenic delusion that involves a neutral environment event believed to have a special and personal meaning
delusions of reference
525
A schizophrenic delusion where there is belief that one is a famous or important figure, such as Jesus or Napoleon
delusions of grandeur
526
Schizophrenic delusion where they believe that one's thoughts or actions are being controlled by outside, alien forces
delusions of control
527
cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia include
abnormalities in attention, organization
528
__ __- the reduction in the range and intensity of emotional expression (schizophrenia)
affective flattening
529
__ -the reduction or inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed behavior
avolition
530
___ - lessening of speech fluency and productivity
alogia
531
___ schizophrenia - a type of schizophrenia that includes extremes of behavior
catatonic
532
In brain of schizophrenic, there is a decrease in size of the __ __, and frontal and ___ lobes
cerebral cortex, temporal
533
In schizophrenic patients there is disorder in __ layers in frontal and temporal lobes
cortical
534
In schizophrenic patients, the ___ pathway is affected
mesocorticolimbic
535
Depression involves increased activity in the ___ and decreased activity in the ___ of the brain
limbic structures, frontal lobe
536
The __ __ of the brainstem is responsible for serotonin release
raphe nuclei
537
the pathway to release norepinephrine starts in the __ __, which sends long axons to __
locus coeruleus, cerebrum
538
__ sends long axons to different areas of the cerebrum, supplies dopamine
VTA
539
What are the 5 types of anxiety disorders?
Generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorders, phobias, OCD, PTSD
540
Dissociate Identity disorder (multiple personality disorder)- usually people experience __ trauma or extreme __
childhood, abuse
541
Somatic symptom disorder - mental disorders manifesting in __ symptoms
physical
542
__ disorder - patients want to be sick, they will falsify signs of sickness. Also known as ___ syndrome
factitious, Munchausens
543
What are the 3 personality disorders in cluster A?
Paranoid, schizoid (anitsocial), Schizotypal (odd beliefs, magical thinking)
544
What are the 4 personality disorders in Cluster B?
Antisocial, borderline, histrionic (attention seeking), narcissistic (BAHN)
545
What are the 3 personality disorders in cluster C?
avoidant, dependent (submissive and clingy), Obsessive-compulsive personality disorders (not same as OCD)
546
__ __ breathing- crescendo then decrescendo breathing followed by a stop in breathing
cheynes-stroke
547
What is central sleep apnea?
breathing repeatedly starts and stops during sleep
548
What is obstructive sleep apnea?
airways are obstructed (causes snoring)
549
How is obstructive sleep apnea diagnosed?
a sleep study (polysomnography) and 15+ apneas/hour
550
What is hypoventilation disorder?
not able to ventilate lungs fully and remove all CO2 (common in obese people)
551
Alzheimer's disease starts in the ___ lobe of the brain, important for memory
temporal
552
In an Alzheimer's patient, there are 3 abnormalities in the brain which are__
loss of neurons, plaques (amyloid), tangles (neurofibrillary tangles, clumps of a protein tau)
553
Group of neurons are the base of the cerebrum called the __ __ is often lost early in Alzheimer's
nucleus basalis (base of brain)
554
What factors increase the chance of getting Alzheimer's?
genetic mutations (processing of amyloid protein)
ApoE4 (metabolism of fats)
high blood pressure
555
What factors can decrease chance of getting Alzheimer's?
higher education
| challenging jobs w difficult thinking
556
Brains of patients with Parkinson's disease have less __ color of the __ __.
dark, substantia nigra
557
The loss of color in the substantia nigra in Parkinson's patients indicate that the neurons lost are only __ __.
dopaminergic neurons
558
substantia nigra is a part of the __ __ of the brain
basal ganglia
559
Basal ganglia plays a role in __ function and some __ functions
motor, mental
560
the cause of most motor abnormalities in Parkinson's disease is loss of __ neurons from substantia nigra to __
dopamine, striatum
561
the diseased neurons of Parkinson's patients have __ bodies
Lewy
562
Lewy bodies (Parkinson's) contain a protein called __ __, which is clumped together in Parkinsons
alpha synuclein
563
Lewy body disease- __ motor abnormalities than Parkinson's but more __ dysfunction in cerebral cortex
less, cognitive
564
___ disorder - characterized by prolonged feeling of helplessness and discouragement about the future
depression
565
People with depression have physical and emotional symptoms including :
Suicidal thoughts, Interests decrease, guilt, energy decreased, concentration decrease, appetite disturbance, psychomotor changes, sleep disturbances
Sadness + SIG E CAPS
566
the ___ gene is associated with depression, but only if the individual is in a stressful environment
5-HTTLPR (5 hitlers need PR)
567
What biological factors increase chances of getting depression?
decreased activation of prefrontal cortex
lower levels of activity in reward circuit
fewer receptors for serotonin and NE
568
one of the psychological factors of depression is __ __- getting trapped in negative thought pattern
cognitive distortions
569
__- a psychological factor of depression that links pessimistic thoughts to internal causes
attribution (cognitive theory)
570
What are some sociocultural/environmental factors that contribute to depression?
co-rumination, low socioeconomic status, child abuse, dependent and independent stressors
571
bipolar disorder is very related to __
depression
572
__ a state of high optimism, high energy, euphoria, poor judgement, followed by a depressive episode
mania
573
___ - mild forms of mania, lots of energy and don't need to sleep
hypomania
574
___ __ - is a period of abnormally elevated mood and energy lasting at least _ consecutive days, not severe enough for hospitalization
hypomanic episode, 4
575
___ episode - a period of abnormally elevated mood and energy lasting 7 days, causes impairment in function
manic
576
bipolar _ disorder- when hypomania becomes manic w or w/o major depressive disorder
1
577
bipolar _ disorder - when it remains hypomania and one major depressive episode
2
578
__ - peer pressure, tendency for people to bring behavior in line w group norms.
conformity
579
__ influence - look to group for guidance when you don't know what to do and you assume the group is correct
informative
580
___ influence- even if you know what's right, do what group's negative actions to avoid social rejection
normative
581
__ conform- change behaviors and opinions to align w group
privately
582
__ conform- you're outwardly changing but inside you maintain core beliefs
publicly
583
__ __ - a phenomenon where group decision making amplifies the original opinion of group members
group polarization
584
___ occurs when maintaining harmony among group members is more important than carefully analyzing problem at hand
groupthink
585
___ - describes how we follow orders . no cognitive component
obedience
586
___ ___ -breakdown of social bonds between an individual and community
social anomie
587
___ - situations where we do behavior to get a reward or avoid punishment
compliance
588
___ - when people act/dress a certain way to be like someone they respect
identification
589
__ - idea/belief has been integrated into our own values (stronger than other types of conformity)
internalization
590
One of the most famous conformity studies was lead by __ __ who was part of the Gestalt Psychologists
Solomon Asch
591
The Gestalt psychologists believed that is wasn't possible to understand human behavior by breaking down into parts, people must be understood as a ___
whole
592
What did Asch find in his study of conformity?
Many of the participants conformed to the wrong answer because they felt like they would be ridiculed by the group, or they felt the actors knew the answer
593
Why was Asch's study of conformity criticized?
all participants came from same population (male undergrads)
participants knew they were coming in for a study
ecological validity (real world application)
demand characteristics
594
One of the most famous studies on conformity/obedience (in response to Holocaust)
milgram studies
595
According to the study conducted by Milgram, the participants did not ___ to authority
resist
596
What was milgram's study of conformity/obedience test?
participants were teachers of learners (confederates) and taught word pairs, if they got a word pair wrong, the learners were shocked. The experimenters instructed what the real participants did to see how far they would respond to authority
597
What is self-serving bias?
the thought that we would never commit acts like this, but in the real situation we probably would
598
__ __ error- focuses only on actions of others, tendency to believe that others in out-groups behave a certain way based on inherent personalities/flaws
fundamental attribution
599
What was found in the Zimbardo Prison Study? (Stanford Prison experiment)
their is a strong influence of situational attribution to behavior
becomes easier to behave badly towards individuals who suffered from deindividualization
role internalization
600
What is the bystander effect?
a group process in which individuals observe an injustice and they do not intervene
601
______ theory- explains bystander effect. When individuals are in presence of others where help is needed, feel less personal responsibility to help them
diffusion of responsibility
602
__ - those in group are more likely to act inappropriately because crowd conceals person's identity
Deindividuation
603
__ __- when an individual completes a task in front of an audience
social facilitation
604
presence of others increases your __ - general physiological or psychological excitement
arousal
605
What is the Yerkes-Dodson Law?
Presence of others improves performance (helps) on simple tasks, and hinders it on difficult tasks/unpracticed tasks (lots of yorkies and dads help improve)
606
__ __ - a tendency to put forth less effort in group task if the individual contributions aren't evaluated
social loafing
607
The __ effect- a type of reactivity in which individuals modify or improve an aspect of their behavior in response to their awareness of being observed
Hawthorne (observe the THORNEs)
608
one of the most important agents of socialization
family
609
What are 3 other agents of socialization?
school, peers, mass media
610
__ - standards for what behaviors, set by groups of individuals are acceptable
norms
611
Norms are reinforced by __ - rewards or punishments for behaviors in accord with or against norms respectively
sanctions
612
___ - the mildest type of norm, just common rules/manners we are supposed to follow on a day to day basis
folkways (tell friend fly is down)
613
__ - norms based on some moral value. generally produce strong feelings
mores
614
___ - norms still based on right and wrong, but have formal consequences
laws
615
___ - behaviors completely forbidden/wrong in any circumstance and violation results in consequences far more extreme
taboos (incest)
616
__ __ - society is a product of everyday interactions of individuals
symbolic interactionism
617
the Theory of ___ ___- states that deviance is a learned behavior that results from continuous exposure to others whom violate norms and laws
differential association
618
___ theory- a behavior deviant if people have judged the behavior and labelled as deviant
labeling
619
What is the difference between primary and secondary deviance?
primary- no big consequences
| secondary- more serious consequences
620
___ theory- if person is blocked from attaining a culturally accepted goal, may become frustrated/strained and turn to deviance
strain
621
collective behavior is different from group behavior because it is defined by __ __ interactions
short social
622
__ - a type of collective behavior, something that becomes incredibly popular very quickly, but loses popularity just as quickly
fad
623
__ __- a type of collective behavior, a large # of people who experience unmanageable delusions and anxiety at the same time
mass hysteria
624
__ - a type of collective behavior, characterized by large # of people who engage in dangerous behavior, such as vandalism
riot
625
___ ___ learning - when an organism is repeatedly exposed to one type of stimulus
non-associative
626
__ - is increase in responsiveness to a repeated stimulus
sensitization
627
__ learning - when one event is connected to another (ex. classical and operant conditioning)
associative
628
__ __ - a learning process in which an innate response to a potent stimulus comes to be elicited in response to a previously neutral stimulus
classical conditioning (guinea pig and carrot)
629
___ - tendency of a stimulus similar to conditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response
generalization
630
__ __- when old conditioned stimulus elicits response
spontaneous recovery
631
__ __ - when an animal no longer receives regular reinforcement, its original behavior will sometimes spike
extinctive burst
632
__ conditioning - used to stop a particular behavior (involves pairing a habit a person wishes to break with an unpleasant stimulus)
aversive
633
__ __ - developed by Joseph Wolpe and is a process that involves teaching the client to replace feelings of anxiety with relaxation (works well for phobias)
systematic desensitization
634
implosive therapy
throw patient into a seemingly scary environment to get over irrational fear (increases anxiety)
635
___ - a form of respondent conditioning that involves the conditioning of an unwanted behavior or response to a stimulus into a wanted behavior by the association of positive actions w the stimulus
counterconditioning
636
__ occurs in both operant and classical conditioning
extinction
637
__ responses are acquired through classical conditioning
phobic
638
Operant conditioning focuses on the relationship between __ and their __
behavior, consequences
639
What is the difference between positive and negative reinforcement?
positive- something is being added to increase tendency of behavior
neg - something taken away
640
What is the difference between positive and negative punishment?
positive- something is added to decrease tendency (speeding ticket)
negative- something taken away " "
641
What are primary reinforcers?
innately satisfying/desirable, like food, water, sexual activity
642
What are secondary reinforcers?
learned to be reinforcers, such as previously neutral
| stimuli. Requires a pairing or association with a primary reinforcer for it to have value.
643
__ __ - system of behavior modification based on systematic reinforcement of target behavior
token economy (ex.prizes)
644
operant extinction
results from some response by the
| organism no longer being reinforced
645
__ __ - is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually replaced by innate food-related behaviors
instinctual drift
646
___ - reinforcing behaviors that approximate the target behavior
shaping
647
__ __ schedule - behavior is reinforced only some of the time
partial reinforcement
648
__ reinforcement becomes less reinforcing so there is a need for ulterior reinforcement
continuous
649
What is the type of schedule of reinforcement that deals with getting a reward for a fixed number of behaviors?
fixed-ratio
650
What type of schedule of reinforcement has a fixed reward for every time interval (get payed every 2 weeks)?
fixed-interval
651
the type of reinforcement schedule where reinforcement is delivered after avg # of right responses has occurred
variable-ratio
652
type of reinforcement schedule where responses are reinforced after a variable amount of time pass, regardless on amount (most effective)
variable- interval
653
In what order of effectiveness are the schedules of reinforcement (from least to most effective)?
fixed-interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio
654
What are examples of simple innate behaviors?
reflexes, taxis (bugs moving toward a light)
654
What are examples of simple innate behaviors?
reflexes, taxis (bugs moving toward a light)
655
What are examples of complex innate behaviors?
fixed action patterns (mating dance), migration, circadian rhythms
656
What type of learned behavior is a loss of response to a repeated stimuli?
habituation
657
what type of learned behavior is solving a problem using past skills?
insight learning
658
What kind of learned behavior is not expressed until required?
latent learning
659
What type of learned behavior is fixed action patterns that are hard wired?
innate learning
660
What type of aversive control involves reacting to an unpleasant stimulus once it has occurred?
escape
661
the type of aversive control where a signal is given before aversive situation
avoidance
662
What are the 2 types of non-associative learning?
sensitization and habituation
663
Who popularized operant conditioning?
Skinner
664
What is taste aversion?
mind connects negative thoughts towards a food without clear rationale
665
__ __ model - explains how attitudes are formed and likely they are to be changed
elaboration likelihood
666
The 3 main characteristics that impact how we are persuaded for/against a message:
```
Message characteristics (clarity, logical, well thought out)
Source characteristics (level of expertise)
Target characteristics (how we receive message)
```
667
the first stage of the elaboration likelihood model is the pre-processing stage due to target characteristics, what are the 2 different processes?
central processing - importance high
| peripheral processing - don't care ab topic
668
What is the 2nd stage of the elaboration likelihood model?
processing of message
central processing - deep processing
peripheral processing- shallow processing (attractiveness of presenter, pictures)
669
What is the 3rd stage of the elaboration likelihood model?
change in attitude
central processing - lasting attitude change
peripheral processing - temporarily attitude change
670
__ __ - the interaction between a person's behaviors, personal factors, and environment are all determined by one another
reciprocal determinism
671
__ __ theory- views behaviors as being influenced by people's traits and their social context
social-cognitive
672
__ __ __- refers to a person's ability to carry out intentions to perform a certain behavior
perceived behavior control
673
What is internal locus of control?
can control fate of our own destiny
674
What is external locus of control?
perceive outside forces that help to control fate (unfair test)
675
What is tyranny of choice?
too many choices negatively impacts cognition
676
__ __ - the ability to control our impulses and delay gratification
self -control
677
What did the marshmallow test (self-control test) find?
kids who waited for the marshmallow had better life outcomes (higher SAT scores, lower drug use etc)
678
__ __ - the idea that self-control is a limited resource
ego depletion
679
What are 4 ways to improve self-control?
change environment, operant conditioning, classical conditioning, deprivation
680
_____ self- most basic concept of self-concept, the sense of being separate and distinct from others
existential
681
___ self- becoming aware that even though we're separate, we also exist in the world with others
categorical
682
__ __ (humanistic theory), believed self-concept had 3 different components. What were the 3 components?
Carl Rogers
self image
self esteem
ideal self
683
When ideal self does not match real self, the result is ___
incongruity
684
What are the 3 steps of the social identity theory?
categorizing, identification and comparison
685
self worth vs self esteem
self worth - I am lovable and am of value
| cant have lasting self -esteem without self-worth
686
___ ___- belief in one's abilities to succeed in a situation
self-efficacy
687
difference between strong and weak self-efficacy
strong- recover quickly from setbacks
weak- focus on personal failures, avoid challenging tasks, lose confidence , lack ability to take on complex tasks (FALL)
688
What are the 4 sources to determine if person has strong/weak self-efficacy?
mastery of experience, social modeling, social persuasion (positive comments), psychological responses (learning to minimize stress)
689
Freud proposed the ___ theory of development. _ stages, if issues aren't resolved at a certain stage, then ___ occurs
psychosexual, 5 , fixation
690
Erikson proposed the __ development theory - personality occurs through one's ___ lifespan. _ stages
psychosocial, entire, 8
691
Vygotsky proposed the __ __ developmental theory - believed children learn actively through __ __ processes
sociocultural cognitive, hands on
| vygotsky - vy got sky
692
Kohlberg proposed the ___ development theory- focused on __ __ and difference between right and wrong
moral, moral-reasoning
693
Freud and Erikson were interested in __ development and Vygotsky and Kohlberg were interested in __ development
personality, cognition
694
What are the 5 stages of Freud's psychosexual development? (ages)
oral (1-3), anal (1-3), Phallic (3-6), latent (6-12), genital (12+)
old age parrots like grapes
695
What are the stages of Erikson's psychosocial development?
(0-1) trust vs. mistrust, (1-3) autonomy vs. shame/doubt, (3-6) initiative vs. guilt (ask questions), (6-12) industry vs inferiority, (age 12-20) identity vs role confusion, (20-40) intimacy vs isolation, (40-65) generativity vs stagnation, (65+) integrity vs despair
696
Vygotsky said babies have 4 elementary mental functions, which are?
attention, sensation, perception and memory
697
According to Vygotsky, __ __ functions are developed from a more knowledgable tutor
higher mental
698
the zone of proximal development (Vygotsky) is between zone of __ and __
can't do and can do
699
Who introduced the famous story the Heinz Dilemma? What was the Heinz Dilemma?
Kohlberg, his wife was dying from cancer and chemist charged a lot of money for the cure. the man broke into chemists lab and stole it
700
Kohlberg's 3 stages of morality (1st stage)
Pre-Conventional (pre-adolescent) (ACRONYM: PREacher smacking oBEEdience with a Fish (self-interest)
o 1. Obedience vs. Punishment – reasoning is based on physical consequences of actions, so obeying the rules is a means to avoid punishment.
§ Age: Children.
o 2. Individualism and Exchange or SELF-Interest – recognize not just one right
view by authorities, different individuals have different viewpoints. Doing what is
right for personal gain.
701
Kohlbergs 3 stages of morality (2nd)
Conventional (ACRONYM: CONvict named Norm (Societal Norms – Good Girl/Bad Girl) behind bars (Law-and-order)
o 3. Societal Norms /Acceptance- Good Boy and Good Girl - Authority is internalized, but not questioned, and reasoning is based on group person belongs. Individual is good in order to be seen as good by others, emphasis on conformity. “to gain acceptance and to avoid disapproval”
o 4. Law and Order / Law abidance – maintaining social order, child is aware of wider roles of society and obeying laws. “to follow rules”
702
Kohlberg's 3 stages of morality (3rd)
Post-Conventional (moral) (ACRONYM: POSTman delivering a contract (social contract) and Universal today (Universal principles). Higher moral reasoning.
o 5. Social Contract – Individual becomes aware that even though rules and laws exist for greater good, there are times this law works against interest of particular people. Ex. for Heinz, is protection of life more important than breaking/stealing? People at this stage said yes. Sometimes law must be broken to reach these principles.
o 6. Universal Ethical Principle – people develop own set of moral guidelines, which may or may not fit the law, and principles apply to everyone. People who uphold and believe in these have to be prepared to act towards these even if they have to obey consequences/disapproval/imprisonment. Very few people
220
who reach this stage, ex. Ghandi, Nelson Mandela, Martin Luther King. “to promote social welfare”
703
___ - a type of individual social influence, one of most basic forms of social behavior. Begins with understanding there’s difference between others and our self.
imitation
704
__ __ - the group to which people refer in evaluating themselves. People’s beliefs, attitudes, behaviors.
reference group
705
What did Charles Cooley and George Herbert Mead think about social behaviorism?
Cooley- every person you interact with influences identity
| Mead- only certain people can influence at certain times
706
According to Mead, what are the 3 stages of our belief of how others perceive us?
preparatory stage - interaction through imitation
play stage- more aware of social relationships
game stage - realize people have multiple roles
707
What is the difference between I and Me?
Me- socialized, conforming aspect of self
| I- spontaneous, less socialized aspect of self
708
Our actual self is the balance between __ and __
Me and I
709
__ introduced the looking glass self, which suggests that the self-concept is internalized by how people __ how other people view us
```
Charles Cooley (you look cool charles)
perceive
```
710
__ theory- how we explain behaviors of others around us
Attribution
711
__ __ error occurs when a person assigns too much weight to internal causes rather than external factors when looking for the cause of another person's behavior
Fundamental attribution
712
What are the 3 cues of Kelley's co-variation model?
consistency- when consistency high= internal factors
distinctiveness - situational
consensus - (when a lot of people do same behavior)
713
When we consider our own behaviors, more likely to blame on __ __
external factors
714
Actor-observer bias
we attribute out personal behavior but others behavior on internal factors
715
In ____ cultures (Western cultures), success is over-attributed to __ and failure us over-attributed to __ factors
individualistic, internal, external
716
In ___ cultures (eastern- africa/asia), success is attributed to __ and failure is to __ factors
collectivist, external, internal
717
self serving bias
If we succeed it’s due to our internal/personal qualities, but if we fail no hit on self-esteem because likely to do with things outside of our control.
718
optimism bias
belief bad things happen to others, but not to us
719
__ is attributing a certain thought to a group of individuals, and overgeneralizing
stereotyping
720
stereotype threat
exposure to a negative stereotype surrounding a task can actually cause decrease in the performance of an individual performing task. Stereotype threatens performance
721
__ - stereotypes can lead to behaviours that affirm the original stereotypes.
self-fulfilling prophecy
722
What are the 3 components of prejudice?
cognition (stereotype), affect (emotional component), discrimination capacity to carry out a behavior and act of prejudice
723
What is the frustration aggression hypothesis?
not personality based, more emotional (tendency of frustration leading to prejudice and aggression towards minorities)
724
Hypothesis of __ __ - upsurge in prejudice/discrimination when people are deprived of something they feel entitled to
relative deprivation
725
__ __ - Extreme disapproval/discrediting of individual by society
social stigma
726
social stigma can be fueled or associated with ___
stereotypes, prejudices, discrimination
727
self stigma
internalization of social stigma - lead to rejection, denial and isolation
728
___ bias - first impression is more important than later data
primary
729
Your most recent actions are also very important, and people place a lot of emphasis on
your recent actions/recent performances, more than ones before
regency bias
730
the __ __- tendency people have inherently good/bad natures, rather than looking at individual characteristics (we think more attractive people are good)
halo effect
731
The devil/reverse halo effect
bad first impression can carry over to other attributes of the person
732
What is the Just World Hypothesis?
Predictable result as a consequence for our actions.
| Noble actions performed/good deeds by an individual are rewarded, while evil acts/deeds are always punished.
733
to keep the just world hypothesis in tact we use __ techniques or __ techniques
rational irrational
734
Study of particular people and places
ethnography
735
judging someone else’s culture from the position of your own culture
ethnocentric
736
the practice of assessing a culture by its own standards rather than viewing it through the lens of one's own culture
cultural relativism
737
xenocentrism
judging another culture as superior to one's own culture
738
cultural imperialism
the deliberate imposition of one's own cultural values on another culture
739
"in" group vs "out" group
in- who we are connected to
| out- group we are not associated with
740
In-group favoritism
we favor people in our own group, those in out-group are neutral
741
Out-group derogation
friendly to in-group, not friendly to out-group
742
group polarization
group makes decisions that are more extreme than any individual member in the group would want
743
the most powerful predictor of friendships and relationships
geographical proximity
744
__ __ effect- repeated exposure to novel people or objects increases our liking for them
mere exposure
745
__ attraction is more important than body attraction
facial
746
What facial features are considered universally attractive for women?
high forehead, small nose and chin, full lips, high cheekbones
747
What facial features are universally attractive for men?
strong chin, jaw, cheekbones, and long lower face
748
What is the relationship between similarity and attraction?
More likely to be attracted to people with similar facial features, ideals, beliefs etc.
749
perceived similarity
over time interests/beliefs are more aligned
750
similarity bias
implies we won't befriend people different from us
751
projection bias
we assume others share the same beliefs as we do
752
false consensus
we assume everyone else agrees with what we do
753
What were the Harlow monkey experiments?
```
2 different monkey mothers to replace real mother
wire mother - provide food
cloth mother - comfort
baby monkeys preferred cloth mother
cloth mother acts as SECURE BASE
```
754
Mary Ainsworth's Strange situation (stranger anxiety experiment)
mom, baby and stranger are placed in a room
| mom leaves and researchers determine if they have secure or insecure attachment (60% secure attachment)
755
What may cause an insecure or secure attachment between parents and baby?
sensitive and responsive mothers - secure
| unresponsive - insecure
756
What are the 3 types of parenting?
authoritarian - strict, break will of child
authoritative (best)- strict, consistent and loving. balance responsibility with rights of child
permissive/indulgent - non-directive and lenient
757
What are some biological factors of aggression?
genes
brain structure- perhaps decreased frontal lobe activation
testosterone - high levels = more aggression
758
psychological factors that contribute to aggression
```
frustration-aggression principle
reinforcement modeling (parents giving into demanding kids)
```
759
sociocultural factors that contribute to aggression
```
people act more aggressive in groups (de-individuation)
social script (instructions provided by society on how to act)
```
760
___ - care about welfare of other people and are acting to help them
altruism
761
type of altruistic behavior where people act more altruistically to family than non-family
kin selection
762
Type of altruistic behavior where people are also more likely to help if they got something from that person
reciprocal altruism
763
giving signals to others that person who's giving has resources (type of altruistic behavior)
cost signaling
764
__ __ hypothesis - suggests some people are altruistic due to empathy.
empathy - altruism
765
helping behavior begins around the age of __
2
766
What are the 5 types of social support?
emotional, esteem (encouragement), informational (advice), tangible/instrumental (material), companionship
767
ascribed statuses
statuses you can't change, given from birth
768
achieved status
status you earn yourself (olympic athlete)
769
master status
supersedes other roles (perceived role ie mother)
770
__ __ - when you can't carry out all obligations of a status, tensions within one status
role strain
771
__ __- conflict/tension between two or more different statuses, the different statuses compete for one's time
role conflict
772
__ __ - when a person leaves a role previously central to their identity and the process of establishing a new identity
role exit (ie retiring)
773
difference between primary and secondary groups
primary- close friends and family
| secondary- formal, impersonal, business-like relationships
774
__ __ - studied the nature of people's interactions, introduced the process of dramaturgy (how people behave in a social setting)
erving Goffman (ms. goff theatre teacher)
775
what does front stage and back stage represent in the dramaturgy metaphor?
front stage- how we present ourselves in front of people
| back stage- more comfortable environment (can be more ourselves)
776
__ __ - our attempt to control how others see us on the front stage
impression management
777
discrimination
differential treatment and harmful actions against minorities
778
individual discrimination
Individual person acting to discriminate based on something
779
institutional discrimination
organization discriminating – including governments, banks, schools
780
unintentional discrimination
how policies can discriminate unintentionally
781
Past-In-Present discrimination
how things done in the past, even if no longer allowed they can have consequences for people in the present.
Ex. After Brown vs. Board verdict, but girl in integrated school still doesn’t feel welcome in her classroom. (Negative attitude of the past coming forward to the present and causes minority to be discriminated against unfairly)
782
Type of organization where members are paid/rewarded for their efforts, ex. Businesses and government jobs, and universities
utilitarian organizations
783
type of organization where members come together through shared goals, ex. religion groups
normative organizations
784
type of organization where members don’t have choice about membership, ex. people in a prison, or the military
coercive organization
785
__ - the rules, structures, and rankings that guide organizations
bureaucracy
786
___ - process by which organizations become increasingly governed by laws and policy
bureaucratization
787
Mcdonaldization
policies of fast food organizations have come to dominate other organizations in society. Primarily, Principles of efficiency, calculability, predictability, uniformity, and control – These principles have come to dominated everything, from medicine to sporting events to entertainment,
788
__ __ (sociologist) that introduced the 5 main characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy
max weber
789
What are the 5 main characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy?
division of labor, hierarchy of organization, written rules and regulations, impersonality, employment based on technical qualifications
790
__ __ - the principle where every employee in hierarchy keeps getting promoted until they reach level of incompetence
Peter principle
791
___ - the search for food in animal's environment
foraging
792
What are the 2 types of foraging?
solitary foraging and group foraging
793
foraging behavior is strongly driven by __
genetics
794
__ - can give information to themselves. Ex. bats and
| echolocation and this allows them to gain information about the environment
auto-communication
795
__ - attributing human characteristics to non-human animals
anthropomorphism
796
What are the different ways animals can communicate with each other?
sound, chemical signals, somatosensation, visual cues
797
__ mating - all individuals within a species are equally likely to mate with each other. Mating not influenced by environment/heredity or any behavioral/social limitation. Ensures a large amount of genetic diversity.
random
798
___ mating - Non-random mating where individuals with certain phenotypes/genotypes/similarities/genes/physical appearance tend to mate with each other at a higher frequency
assortative
799
___ mating - opposite of assortative mating – situation where individuals with individuals with different or diverse traits mate with higher frequency than with random mating.
dis-assortative
800
___ ___ - concerns the # of offspring an animal has, how they support them, and how offspring support each other.
inclusive fitness
801
__ __ theory - those best fit to environment will survive and pass on to offspring
evolutionary game
802
__ - large scale perspective, looking at big phenomena that affect big portion of population. Social structures and institutions, whole civilizations/populations.
macrosciology
803
___ - comes from macrosociology – looks at society as a whole and how
institutions that make up the society adapt to keep society stable and
functioning.
functionalism
804
__ theory- the idea society is made of institutions that benefit powerful and create inequalities. Large groups are at odds until conflict is resolved
conflict
805
___ - face to face interactions, families, schools, other social interactions. Interpretive analysis of the society, look at sample of society and how individual interactions would affect larger groups in society
microsociology
806
___ ___ - social theory that’s a micro-perspective, focuses on the individual and significance they give to objects, events, symbols, etc. in their lives.
symbolic interactionism
807
What is the conservative view of institutions vs. progressive views on institutions?
conservative - institutions are natural by-products of human nature
progressive view - institutions are artificial creations that need to be redesigned if they are not helpful
808
___- dominant religious organizations that includes most member of society
ecclesia
809
___ - private ownership of production with market economy based on supply and demand.
capitalism
810
___ - motivated by what benefits society as whole, common ownership of production that focuses on human needs and economic demands.
socialism
811
__ __ -looks at health disparities through social indicators like race, gender, and income distribution, and how social factors affect a person’s health.
social epidemiology
812
___ - is a system of thinking based on ideas of Emile Durkheim that look at society from large-scale perspective, and how each part helps keep society stable.
functionalism
813
__ __ - ways of thinking and acting formed by society that existed before any one individual and will still exist after any individual is dead
social facts
814
____ ___- Intended consequences of institutions (ex. school- educate to get jobs)
manifest functions
815
__ __ - indirect effects of institutions.
latent functions
816
__ __ - is process that has undesirable consequences and may reduce the stability of society.
social dysfunction
817
What are some problems with functionalism?
focuses entirely on institutions without regard for individual (only acknowledged). Also largely unable to explain social change and conflict, so focussed on equilibrium (between social facts and institutions) little change and conflict is modeled and no conflict can occur. More to society than just stable state of its part, but functionalism is still useful in examining the functions of its integral parts.
818
__ - the term that refers to individuals of the working class (europe)
proletariat
819
___ - Desire of working class to change was the thesis
antithesis
820
__ __ - expanded on Marx by proposing that society is shaped by war/conquest, and cultural/ethnic conflicts lead to certain groups becoming dominant over others.
Ludwig Gumplowicz
821
__ __ - argues that people actively shape their reality through social interactions/agreement
social constructionism
822
__ __ - is concept/practice everyone in society agrees to treat a certain way regardless of its inherent value
social construct
823
What is the difference between weak and strong social constructionism?
weak- brute and institutional facts
| strong- whole of reality is dependent on language and social habits
824
Symbolic interactionism
examines small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups
825
What were the 3 tenants that Herbert Blumer used to explain symbolic interactionism?
1. we act based on meaning
2. different people assign different meanings to things
3. the meaning we give something isn't permanent
826
feminist theory focuses on __
focuses on different expectations, salary differences, gender inequalities that permeate everyday life
827
__ __ theory - people not only motivated by money, but do what’s best to get better.
rational choice
828
What are the 3 main assumptions of the rational choice theory?
completeness, transitivity, independence of irrelevant alternatives
829
__ theory - addresses decision making via cost- benefit analyses
exchange
830
What is sexual selection?
natural selection arising through preference for one
| sex for characteristics in individuals of the other sex
831
__ __ theory - aging is a social, psychological, and biological process that begins from time you born till time you die.
life course
832
__ __ theory - suggests age is way of regulating behavior of a generation
age stratification
833
__ theory- looks at how older generation looks at themselves. Certain activities or jobs lost, those social interactions need to be replaced so elderly can be engaged and maintain moral/well-being
activity
834
___ theory- older adults and society separate, assumes they become more self-absorbed as they age.
disengagement
835
__ theory -people try to maintain same basic structure throughout their lives overtime. As they age people make decisions that preserve that structure and use it to adapt to external changes and internal changes of aging.
continuity
836
difference between race and ethnicity?
race- physical
| ethnicity - defined by shared language, culture, nationality etc.
837
___ - encourages racial and ethnic variation.
pluralism
838
What is the syndrome resulting from XYY?
Jacob's syndrome
839
What does Non-binary mean? (gender)
not identifying with any specific gender
840
__ __ - attraction and fornication
sexual orientation
841
__ - biological determination of male/female/intersex people
sex
842
___ - social construction on how a person of a specific sex should behave
gender
843
__ __ theory - Theory that explains how individuals should be gendered in society. How sex-linked characteristics are maintained and transmitted to other members of a culture.
gender schema
844
__ __ - what we expect men and females to do
gender script
845
____ - movement of people from rural to urban areas
urbanization
846
___ - anywhere with <1000 people per square mile
rural
847
__ - have over 50 000 people
cities
848
__ - have over 500 000 people
metropolis
849
If many metropolises are connected, called ___
megalopolis
850
What is the functionalist perspective on cities?
important for building culture and diverse populations
| host to crime
851
What is the conflict theory of cities?
source of inequality that are entertainment for wealthy
852
What is the symbolic interactions theory on cities?
where people have different ways of looking at life
853
___ - which means when redone they target a wealthier community which increases property value.
gentrification
854
What are the 3 factors that contribute to total growth rate of a population?
fertility, migration, mortality
855
___ - the potential reproductive capacity of a female
fecundity
856
If a women has less than 2 kids the population will __
decrease
857
If a women has more than 2 kids the population will __
increase
858
If a women has 2 kids then the population will __
neither increase or decrease
859
__ __ - Graphs the age and sex distribution of a
| population.
population pyramid
860
__/__ pyramid - indicate low birth and death rates in population
stationary/constrictive
861
___ ___ - fewer young people than old people
constrictive period
862
How to calculate total population decrease rate
(#death + #emigration/ 1000) x population #
863
What are the 5 stages of the demographic transition model?
stage 1 - high birth rates
stage 2 - population increases as death rates decrease
stage 3 - death rates continue to decrease
stage 4- population stabilizes
stage 5- world forced the stabilize
864
___ __ theory- importance of world as a unit rather than individual countries. Divides world into 3 countries: core, periphery, and semi-periphery
world-system theory
865
What are the core, periphery and semi-periphery countries?
core- western Europe and US
periphery- latin america and africa
semi-periphery- india and brazil
866
___ theory - all countries follow similar path of development from traditional to modern society.
modernization
867
___ theory - Reaction to Modernization theory. Uses idea of Core + Periphery countries to look at inequalities between countries
dependency
868
___ perspective - sees globalization as a new age in human history – countries become interdependent and nation states themselves are less important. Countries become one global society.
hyperglobalist
869
__ perspective - critical of globalization, considers it as being regionalized instead of globalized. Third world countries aren’t being integrated into global economy with same benefits as first world countries.
skeptical
870
____ perspective - Believe national governments are changing, perhaps becoming less important but difficult to explain change so simply. They see the world order is changing.
transformationalist
871
Companies that extend beyond borders of a country are called ____
multinational/transnational corporations
872
globalization has 2 major impacts on the country which are ___ and ___
economy culture
873
___ ___ theory- Skepticism about groups that were involved in social movement, said social movements would only form for people seeking refuge from main society.
mass society (ex nazism)
874
__ __ theory - actions of groups oppressed/deprived of rights that others in society enjoy. Ex. Civil Rights Movement
relative deprivation
875
What are the 3 things needed for social movement?
relative deprivation
feeling of deserving better
conventional means are useless
876
__ __ theory - looks at social movements from different angle. Instead of looking at deprivation of people, focuses on factors that help/hinder a social movement like access to resources
resource mobilization
877
__ __ theory- people compare pros and cons of different courses of actions and choose the one they think is best for themselves. These choices shape pattern of behavior in society.
rational choice
878
Exurbs are
beyond suburbs who are very prosperous
879
What characterizes an expanding population pyramid?
high birth rate decreasing death rate
880
____ - way of life shared by group of individuals – the knowledge, beliefs and values that bind a society together.
culture
881
What are the 4 points of culture?
people share culture in society
culture is adaptive
culture builds on itself
culture is transmitted
882
__ __ - population size falls between micro and macro levels. They are medium sized groups such as communities, organizations, cities, states, clans, and tribe
meso-level
883
micro-culture
groups only affecting limited period of one's life
884
__ __ - is the fact culture takes time to catch up with technological innovations, resulting in social problems.
culture lag
885
___ - is the spread of an invention or discovery or ideas from one place to another
diffusion
886
What is the glass ceiling effect?
poorly represented in higher positions in companies (women)
887
Difference between vertical and horizontal social mobility
vertical - move up or down social hierarchy
| horizontal- move within the sam class
888
Caste system has very little __ __
social mobility
889
Which social system allows for a degree of social mobility? (combination of background and movement)
class system
890
Meritocracy
people achieve social position solely based on ability and achievements
891
___ - If change in social class happens in a person’s own lifetime
intra- generational mobility
892
___ - change in social class between generations, ex. Parent is working class and son is working class.
intergenerational mobility
893
__ poverty - Minimum level of resources a human being needs to survive
absolute
894
__ poverty - its people whose incomes are so low in
| their own society they’re being excluded from society
relative
895
__ __ - People with rich parents end up wealthy themselves
social reproduction
896
__ __ - the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively.
social capital
897
__ __ - is a society's categorization of
| people into socioeconomic strata, based upon their occupation, income, wealth and social status, or derived power
social stratification
898
__ ___ - looks at the fair distribution of the environmental benefits and burdens within society across all groups.
environmental justice
899
type of segregation where there’s clustering of different groups
concentration
900
___ - type of segregation where segregation + clustering in a central area
centralization
901
Theory of ____ - asks us to consider all the different levels of discrimination. Intersectionality calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification.
intersectionality
902
What kind of statistics would you use with categorical data?
chi square
903
___ - look at a group of different people at one moment in time
cross sectional study
904
__ __ - following a subset of population over a lifetime. A cohort is a group of people who share a common characteristic (ex. people born and exposed to same pollutant/drug/etc.) in period of time
cohort study
905
__ study - follows variables over a long period of time to look for correlations.
longitudinal
906
__ __ study - observational study where 2 groups differing in outcome are identified and compared to find a causal factor. Ex. comparing people with the disease with those who don’t but are otherwise similar
case control
907
__ __ design - design is similar to an experimental design but lacks random assignment. This type of design describes an effect on a specific cohort of the population
quasi-experimental
908
__ __ study - type of survey, questionnaire, or poll in which respondents read the question and select a response by themselves without researcher interference.
self-report
909
___ - accuracy. Items that are high in validity accurately address the construct
validity
910
internal vs external validity
external - results can be applied to other people and studies
internal- extent to which a causal conclusion based on a study is warranted
911
population validity
type of external validity which describes how well the sample used can be extrapolated to a population as a whole
912
ecological validity
external validity which looks at the testing environment and determines how much it influences behavior
913
__ __ - refers to whether a variable is able to predict a certain outcome
criterion validity
914
____ validity - measures how well a test matches up with a
| benchmark test, which is usually another valid measure of the same
concurrent
915
___ validity - measure of how well a test predicts abilities
predictive
916
___ validity- Construct validity describes the extent to which the theory is supported by the data or results of the research.
construct
917
___ validity - describes the extent that the test measures the construct accurately.
content
918
___ - CONSISTENT RESULTS WITH
| REPEATED EXPERIMENTS.
reliabilty
919
___ __ reliability - is shown by a high positive correlation between the first and second administration of a test
test-retest
920
___ control - what experimental group does without the directly desired impact
vehicular
921
to the degree to which different raters give consistent estimates of the same behavior
inter rater
922
__ __ - is associated with the processing of both positively and negatively balanced emotions
orbitofrontal cortex
923
The recognition of facial expressions associated with sadness have been linked to the __ __
subcallosal cingulate (callosal subways have singles)
924
The __ and ___ are most associated with disgust
insula basal ganglia
925
Anger is most associated with the left __ __ __
superior temporal sulcus (angry super man has a temper in his sulciness)
926
a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to recognize familiar people based on facial expressions
Prosopagnosia
927
__ __ -visual system in the brain, plays a tole in high level visual processing and recognition
fusiform gyrus
928
__ __ - a disorder of the ventral pathway, because it is an inability to recognize an image
visual agnosia
929
atypical antipsychotics - block __ release
serotonin
930
a type of typical antipsychotic used to treat psychiatric conditions
neuroleptics
931
What is the Thomas theorem?
interpretation of a situation causes the action
