psych Flashcards
Implicit memories are formed _____
unconsciously
All habits are _____ a type of implicit memory
procedural memories
Where are habits/implicit memories stored in the brain?
basal ganglia
The term that describes how previous experiences current interpretation of an event
priming
an implicit memory effect where prior exposure to a stimulus unfavorably influences the response to same stimulus
negative priming
type of priming that speeds up reaction time
positive priming
A memory system consisting of episodes recollected from an individuals life
autobiographical memory
what does memory encoding mean?
transferring info from temporary to long term memory
A working memory is processing anything that you’re thinking about in _____
the moment
If you want to remember more than ___ things, need to process that info so it stays in ____
7 long term memory
the term used to describe enhanced memory when testing takes place under the same conditions as learning
encoding specificity
What is the least effective way to store memories?
rote rehearsal
A memory technique that requires grouping info into meaningful categories
chunking
The term that describes linking what you are trying to learn to previously existing long-term info that is already in memory
mnemonics
The type of mnemonic device where the crazier the better
imagery
the type of mnemonic device where numbers are used to help memorize the order of words based on rhyming
pegword system
the mnemonic device which links info to locations
method of loci
The mnemonic device where each letter of a popular word means something
acronym
A memory technique that takes new info and relates it to yourself
self-referencing
The memory technique that spreads out study sessions instead of cramming
spacing
the term used to describe trying to remember something
retrieval
the term used to describe the environment you encode
context
____ - your state at the moment you encode.
state-dependent
___ can be a cue for state-dependent memory.
mood
What is the order of retrieval memory from most difficult to easiest?
free recall, cud recall, recognition
What is the order of retrieval memory from most difficult to easiest?
free recall, cued recall, recognition
free recall requires ___ ___ in recalling
no cues
What is the difference between primary effect and regency effect in free recall?
primary- first regency- last things on list
The serial position curve/effect is the overall tendency to recall ___ few items well, ___ few items well and ___ items not so great
first last middle
The type of recall that requires extra clues to remember the words
cued recall
The type of recall that presents the info and helps to retrieve memory (easiest)
recognition
____ is the mental blueprint containing common aspects of the world, instead of reality
schema
When people recall info they often forget the information’s source - an error in ___ _____
source monitoring
____ _____ is the inability to remember where, when or how previously learned info has been acquired, while retaining the factual knowledge
Source amnesia
___ ___ are highly emotional memories that feel extremely vivid
flashbulb memories
the term used to describe making connections between neurons (LTP)?
long term potentiation
Presynaptic neurons release ____ on post synaptic neurons, allowing __ and ___ to flow in
neurotransmitters Na+ Ca2+
What is electrical potential?
difference in charge between outside and inside neuron
In the LTP mechanism, the same ___ ___ will elicit a ____ response in the ___ ___
presynaptic stimulation stronger postsynaptic neuron
the greater the post synaptic potential, the more ___ ___ will open in the neuron
ion channels
___ ___ is changes in brain size and involves function of environmental influences
neural plasticity
the term used to describe forgetting memories
decay
most forgetting happens _____
in the first few days
the name of the German psychologist that was the first person to look at decay in human memory
Ebbinghaus
the term describing how some foundation of memory still exists even if the person can’t recall
savings
What are the two types of memory interference?
retroactive and proactive
what type of interference refers to later info interfering with memory of earlier info?
retroactive
What type of interference refers to how earlier info interferes with later info?
proactive
When aging, implicit memory and recognition memory abilities are ___
stable
when aging, ___ memories ____ until the age of ___.
semantic improve 60
when aging, there is a decline in ___ memories. Also ___ memories are impaired (forming new memories are difficult), ____ speed is also slower.
recalling episodic processing
____ memory is remembering to do things in the future
prospective
the term for decline in memory and other cognitive functions to the point of interfering with normal life
dementia
The most common form of dementia is ____ ____
Alzheimer’s disease
In earliest stages of Alzheimer’s disease, people have difficulty remembering the __ of the person they just met
name
Exact cause of AD is ____. may be due to ____ dying off and ___ ___ shrinking in size
unknown neurons cerebral cortex
AD causes buildup of ___ ___ in brain
amyloid plaques
Continual progression of AD might lead to ____ instability and loss of control over ___ ___
emotional bodily functions
____ syndrome is caused by a lack of vitamin b1 (____)
Korsakoff’s thiamine
Korsakoff’s syndrome is caused by malnutrition, ___ ___, and especially ____
eating disorders alcoholism
Thiamine is important because converts ____ into ___ cells needed for energy
carbs glucose
In Korsakoff’s syndrome, the first stage causes poor balance, abnormal ___ movements, mild confusion and ___ loss. this stage is called ___ ____
eye memory Wernicke’s encephalopathy
If Wernicke’s encephalopathy is diagnosed in time it can __ the damage or prevent further damage
reverse
Korsakoff’s syndrome if diagnosed is ____
treatable
treatment of Korsakoff’s syndrome is ___ ___, staying on a healthy diet, abstaining from ___
thiamine injections alcohol
_____ amnesia is inability to recall info previously encoded
retrograde
_____ amnesia is inability to encode new memories
anterograde
____ is a deficit in memory caused by brain damage, disease or ____ ____
amnesia psychological trauma
____ ____ - concepts are organized in mind as connected ideas
semantic networks
What is the first semantic network theory that suggested we store info from higher order categories to lower order categories?
hierarchical semantic network
The hierarchical semantic networks states that more ___ takes more ___ to process
nodes time
The modified semantic network states that ___ nodal links determines the amount of activation emitted to a network
stronger
Which psychologist argued that children actively construct their understanding of the world as they grow?
Piaget
The first stage of Piaget’s stages of development is from ages __ to__. It is called the ____ ____.
0 2 sensorimotor stage
In the sensorimotor stage, children gather info from ___. Their main development in this stage is ___ ____- objects exist even if they can’t see them
senses object permanence
Stage 2 of Piaget is ages __ to __ called the ___ ___
2-6/7 pre-operational stage
In stage 2 of Piaget kids start to ___ play and are very ____ - only concerned about themselves
pretend egocentric
Stage 3 of Piaget is age __ to__. It is called the __ __.
7 11 concrete operational
In stage 3, kids learn the idea of _____. They learn ___ and begin reasoning of ___ skills
conservation empathy math
stage 4 of piaget is age __. It is called ___ ___ ___
12+ formal operational stage
In stage 4 of piaget, children begin to understand ___ concepts. The begin to develop ___ ___
abstract moral reasoning
___ are mental models or frameworks for us to organize and interpret new info
schemas
One way to develop a schema is through ___ - how we describe new info in terms of our current understanding
assimilation
_____ is how we later adjust our schemas to incorporate new experiences
accommodation
____ ____ is moving from a current state to a goal state
problem solving
___ ___ problems - clear starting and ending point
well-defined
___ ___ problems - more ambiguous starting or/and ending point (ex. how to live a happy life)
ill-defined
What method of problem solving involves taking a random guess until something finally works?
Trial and error
What method of problem solving involves a methodical approach, but is not efficient and guarantees a correct solution?
Algorithm
What is the problem solving method that involves mental shortcuts that allow to find solution quicker, but may not guarantee a correct solution?
heuristics
___ ___ ___- a heuristic where we analyze main problem and break down into smaller problems
means-end analysis
___ ___- goal state –> current state. start with goal and use it to suggest connections back to current state
working backwards
What is the method of problem solving that involves relying on instinct. (high chance of error)?
intuition
____- getting stuck on a wrong approach to a problem
fixation
Type 1 error =
false positive
type 2 error =
false negative
__ __ - we make a judgement of the probability of a certain outcome
decision making
What decision making heuristic uses examples that come to mind, but may not match real world situations?
availability heuristic
What decision making heuristic involves looking to match a prototype of the problem?
representativeness heuristic
__ __- occurrence of two instances is more likely than a single one
conjunction fallacy
___ prevent us from making correct decisions or from changing decisions once they are made
bias
going into a test without knowing a lot of info is an example of ___
overconfidence
___ ___ is a type of bias when you ignore/rationalize disconfirming facts
belief perseverance
type of bias that actively seeks out only confirming facts
confirmation bias
___ effects - how you present the info. that can affect decision making (ex. save 200 people vs kill 2/3 of 600)
framing
What does IQ stand for?
intelligence quotient
Spearman’s theory of intelligence states theres 1 __ __
general intelligence
__ __ proposed that there are 3 types of intelligences
Robert Sternburg
The 3 types of intelligences presented by Robert Sternburg are
analytical, creative and practical intelligence
IQ score only measures ___ intelligence
analytical
average score on IQ test is __
100
__ __- the ability to perceive, understand, manage and use emotions in interactions with others
emotional intelligence
___ intelligence- ability to reason quickly and abstractly, such as when solving novel logic problems (think on ur feet)
fluid
___ intelligence - accumulated knowledge and verbal skills (ability to retrieve and acquire knowledge)
crystallized
__ __ - first to develop an intelligence test, but wasn’t intending to. (designed to find child’s mental age)
Alfred Binet
__ __- the psychologist at Stanford that modified Binet’s intelligence test and included adults and teenagers
Lewis Terman
What is the question of nature vs. nurture?
how much is intelligence due to genes and how much is due to environment?
There is no recipe for structuring ___ to make a genius
environment
___ mindset - intelligence is biologically set and unchanging
fixed
___ mindset- praises effort, perseverance, improvement and strategies in improving intelligence
growth
Who introduced the idea of hereditary genius (human ability is hereditary)?
Galton
__ intelligence was proposed by Guilford to describe IQ test related intelligence
convergent
Who proposed the theory of general intelligence and what is the theory of general intelligence?
Charles Spearman
- used factor analysis to identify cluster of related abilities
- 1 general intelligence
- g factor- can predict intelligence in many different areas
What evidence supports the theory of general intelligence and what are the problems with this theory?
supported by research
those who score high in one area score well in others
controversial
can one factor explain all diverse human abilities
limited in what it considers to be intelligence
Who introduced the Theory of Mental Abilities and what is the theory?
L.L. Thurnstone
- 7 factors of intelligence; word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial reasoning, perceptual speed, numerical ability, inductive
reasoning, and memory.
What are the strengths and problems of the Theory of Primary mental abilities?
strength- breakdown seems intuitive
problem- How can scores vary together statistically?
- Limited in what it considers to be intelligence
Who introduced the theory of Multiple Intelligence? What is it?
Howard Gardner
- Expanded ideas of what can be included in intelligence
- logical-mathematical intelligence, verbal-linguistic, spatial-visual, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, musical, naturalist, and existential intelligence
What are the strengths and problems of the theory of Multiple Intelligence?
strength- You can have different strengths independently.
• Intelligence is more than just “book smarts.”
problem- No way to test this theory (not supported by research)
• Intelligence vs. talents/abilities (but maybe this is just a labeling)
Who introduced the Triarchic theory of Intelligence? What is it?
Robert Sternburg
analytical (problem solving ability), creative intelligence, and practical intelligence.
What are the strengths and problems with the Triarchic Theory of intelligence?
strength - reliable, easy to study by research
problem - research shows that scores of all intelligences vary together
- are these 3 sides of the same coin?
What are 4 cognitive abilities that decline as you age?
recall, episodic memory, processing speed, divided attention
What cognitive abilities are STABLE as you age?
implicit memory, recognition memory
What cognitive abilities IMPROVE as you age?
semantic memory, crystallized intelligence, emotional reasoning
Which hemisphere of the brain is language processed?
left
What are the 2 main areas of the brain where language is processed?
Broca’s area (frontal lobe) and Wernicke’s area (temporal lobe- sound processing)
___ is a communication disorder that involves language problems, like speaking, listening, reading and writing
Aphasia
__ __ - disease that produces broken/halted speech. The __ __ region is damaged in the brain
Broca’s aphasia frontal lobe
__ __ - a disease that causes words not to make any sense. people can’t understand what others say. The __ __ region of the brain is damaged.
Wernicke’s aphasia temporal lobe
__ __- disease that is the combination of impaired comprehension and production of speech
global aphasia
the wernicke’s and Broca’s are connected by a bundle of nerve fibers called __ __
arcuate fasciculus
__ __ - disease that causes inability to conduct between listening and speaking. Associated with damage to the __ __
conduction aphasia arcuate fasciculus
__ - the inability to write
agraphia
___ __- disease characterized by the inability to name objects or retrieve words
Anomic aphasia
a split brain patient is caused by damage to the __ __ which connects the two hemispheres of the brain
corpus callosum
The brain has ___ organization; left visual field gets processed by right side and vice versa
contralateral
___ - located on right hemisphere, concerned w larger units of speech like syllables. (contribute to linguistic functions such as intonation, tone, stress)
prosody
___- empiricist, believe that language is a conditioned behavior
behaviorists
___- rationalist, language must be innate
nativists
__- look at what happens in brain when people speak/think/write
materialist
The theory of ____ states that thought determines language completely.
Universalism
Piaget thought that children use __ to describe their thoughts. Language influence is influenced by __ __
language, cognitive development
___ thought that language and thought are both independent, but converge through __
Vygotsky, development
__ __ __ : (relativism) language influences thought. the theory that linguistic structure influences but doesn’t determine the context of everyday encounters
Weak Linguistic Determinism
__ __ __ - (Sapir-Whorfian hypothesis) language determines thought completely. People understand their world through language
Strong linguistic determinism
___ perspective on language- children are born with the ability to learn language. Associated with __ __
nativist, Noam Chomsky
Naom Chomsky thought that all humans had a _ _ _ that allowed them to learn language.
Language acquisition device
In the Nativist perspective of language, there’s an idea of a __ __, where the child is most able to learn a language from age _ to _
critical period, 0-8/9
The __ (behaviorist) theory- children aren’t born with anything, they only acquire language through __ conditioning
learning, operant
__ __- (aka social interactionist approach) theory that states biological and social factors have to interact in order for children to learn language. Associated with __
interactionist approach, Vygotsky
What is lexicon?
a set of vocab items
Lexical access refers to ___ a word and __ to its meaning
identifying, connecting
___- actual sound of a language “sound system”
phonology
there are __ phonemes in english language
40
___ - refers to the structure of words
morphology
___- association of meaning with a word
semantics
____- how words are put together in sentences
syntax
___- dependences of language on context and pre-existing knowledge. affected by __ - the rhythm, cadence and inflection of our voices
pragmatics, prosody
the limbic system is a set of structures in the brain that play a role in regulating ___.
emotions
Structures of the limbic system include (HAT Hippo):
Hypothalamus, amygdala, thalamus, hippocampus
What does the thalamus control?
sensory relay station (directs senses to appropriate areas in cortex)
Amygdala - aka ___ center. when stimulated produces __ and __
aggression, anger fear
__ __ syndrome- destruction of amygdala, results in ___ (put things in mouth a lot) and drunken behaviors
Kluver-Bucy, hyperorality
Patients with a damaged amygdala are given ___ as treatment
Benzos
key role of hippocampus
forming memories
key role of hypothalamus
regulates Autonomic nervous system, controls endocrine system by triggering hormones, responsible for hunger, sleep, thirst and sex
Positive emotions evoke more brain activity on the __ hemisphere
left
Negative emotions are evoked by more brain activity on the __ hemisphere
right
the __ __ of the brain is responsible for executive control (solve problems, make decisions, how you act in social situations)
prefrontal cortex
The ANS (autonomic nervous system) has two branches, the __ and the __
sympathetic, parasympathetic
what physiological changes occur during a sympathetic response?
pupils dilate decrease in salivation increase respiration rate increase HR increase adrenaline increase glucose release
What physiological changes occur during parasympathetic response?
pupils constrict increased salivation decrease respiratory rate increase digestion decrease adrenaline increase glucose storage
What are the 3 components of emotion?
physiological, cognitive, behavioral
__ __ found _ main universal emotions. What are they?
Paul Ekman, 6
happiness, sadness, fear, disgust, anger and surprise
The __ __ theory of emotion - experience of emotion is due to perception of physiological responses
James-Lange
In James-Lange Theory of emotion, an event –> ____ —> Interpretation –> ___
physiological response, emotion
___ ___ theory of emotion- disagreed w James-Lange, physiological responses and emotion occurred ___.
Cannon-Bard, simultaneously
What flaws were found on the James-Lange theory of emotion?
- can experience physiological response w/o emotion
- noticed many emotions had same physiological responses
- physiological responses were slow compared to emotions produced
__ __ (2 factor theory of emotion) - physiological and cognitive responses ___ form experience of emotion.
Schachter-Singer, simultaneously
Schachter-Singer theory of emotion-
event–>PR + ___ —> emotion
identifying reason for situation
The ___ theory- experience of emotion depends on how the situation is cognitively labelled (what events elicit good or bad emotions)
Lazarus
the ___ is the conductor of emotional experiences, communicating between the ___ and prefrontal cortex.
amygdala, hypothalamus
emotions associated with memories are encoded in the ____
hippocampus
the ___ ___ law- people perform best when they are moderately aroused (__ shape curve)
Yerkes-Dodson, bell
What is stress?
the process by which we appraise and cope with environmental threats and challenges
What is a stressor?
Threatening/challenging event
What is the stress reaction?
subsequent physical and emotional response
__ __ believes that stress arises less from physical events but more from the interpretation of those stresses (___ theory of stress)
Richard Lazarus, Appraisal
the 1st cognitive stage of stress is the __ __, which is assessing stress in present situation
primary appraisal
What are the 3 responses to primary appraisal in stress?
irrelevant, benign/positive, stressful/negative
___ ___- evaluation of the individual’s ability to cope with the stressful situation (2nd stage of stress)
secondary appraisal
What are the 4 main categories of stressors?
Significant life changes
catastrophic events
daily hassles
Ambient stressors
Who coined the term “fight or flight”?
Walter Cannon
In the endocrine response, the __ __ releases catecholamines (epinephrine and ___).
adrenal medulla, norepinephrine
The adrenal cortex releases __ -steroid hormone that redistributes glucose energy in body and suppresses __ __
glucocorticoid (cortisol), immune system
What are the 3 phases of stress by Hans Selye? (General Adaptation Syndrome)
Alarm phase- stress kicks in
Resistance - fleeing, temp elevated, BP high
Exhaustion - if resistance isn’t followed by recovery
___ stress has serious __ effects to the body
chronic, negative
What kind of effects does chronic stress have on the heart?
increased BP. - can lead to hypertension and vascular disease
What negative effects does chronic stress have on metabolism?
excess blood sugar can cause diabetes or heart disease
What effects does chronic stress have on the reproductive system?
women- decrease in FSH/LH
men- decrease in testosterone
What effects does chronic stress have on the immune system?
causes inflammation, more susceptible to illness
the 2 areas of the brain with most glucocorticoid receptors are the __ and __
hippocampus, frontal cortex
depression or ____ is the inability to experience pleasure, so perceive more stressors
anhedonia
In depression, the ___ ___ stops responding to __ (the hormone for happiness)
anterior cingulate, serotonin
___ ___- you learn from having control ripped out of hands, lose ability to identify coping mechanisms
learned helplessness
What are the 3 emotional/behavioral effects of stress (3 A’s)?
Anger, anxiety, addiction
What are some ways to manage stress in a healthy way?
exercise, meditation, religious beliefs, cognitive flexibility
one positive coping strategy for stress is anticipating the problem, known as __ __
proactive coping
___ is when one reduces the stress of some difficult challenge by anticipating what it will be like and preparing to cope
anticipation
A type of stress coping that seeks social support from others
social coping
A type of stress coping when a person concentrates on deriving meaning from the stressful experience
meaning-focused coping
What are some examples of maladaptive coping mechanisms?
dissociation, sensitization, safety behaviors, anxious avoidance, escape
What consist of the CNS?
brain and spinal cord
__ __ __ - efferent neurons of the PNS synapse on control skeletal muscle
lower motor neurons
___ - involuntary twitches of skeletal muscle
fasciculations
hyporeflexia
decreased muscle stretch relfex
somatosensation includes 5 main ones:
position sense, vibration, touch, pain and temperature
What kind of receptors detect position, vibration and touch?
mechanoreceptors
What kind of receptors detect pain?
nociceptors
What kind of receptors detect temperature?
thermoreceptors
nociceptors and thermoreceptors are ___ in speed
slow
mechanoreceptors are __ in speed
fast
Mechanoreceptors are located where?
skin, blood vessels, ear
Where are chemoreceptors located in the body?
tongue, blood, nose, tissue
Where are thermoreceptors located?
skin, hypothalamus
mechanoreceptors have __ myelin sheath
thick
reflexes have 2 parts: __ (stimulus) and __ (response)
afferent, efferent
muscle stretch reflex- causes a muscle to ___ after ___
contract, stretched
sympathetic NS starts ___ of spinal cord –> __ axon synapses with short ganglia close to spine –> second neuron goes to target cell
middle, short
PNS starts at the __ __ or bottom of spinal cord –> 1st neuron sends long axon –> synapse with ganglion of second neuron –> sends __ axon to target cell
brain stem, short
What does gray matter consist of?
neuron somas (cell bodies)
White matter consists of?
myelinated axons
__ matter in on inside of spinal cord, and __ matter is on outside
grey, white
In the brain, __ matter is on inside and __ matter is on outside
white, gray
__ __ __ control the LMNs (lower motor neurons)
Upper motor neurons
a collection of axons that carry movement-related information from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord
corticospinal tract
collections of axons that travel from cerebral cortex to the brain stem
corticobulbar tract
___ - increase in the muscle stretch reflexes
hyperreflexia
___- rhythmic contractions of antagonist muscle
clonus
___- increased tone of skeletal muscles. increase muscle tension
hypertonia
__ __ __ - if you take a hard object and scrape along bottom of foot, normal response is flexor – toes will come down on the object. But with extensor, toes extend up.
extensor plantar response
all somatosensory pathways __ to the other side of the __
cross, brain
Which part of the brain processes sensory information?
parietal lobe
Which part of the brain processes visual info?
occipital lobe
Which part of the brain processes auditory info?
temporal lobe
The ___ hemisphere is dominant for a vast majority of people
left
What part of the brain helps to maintain balance and motor control?
cerebellum
The brainstem consists of what 3 structures?
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
__ __- neuron somas scattered throughout the brainstem (role in autonomic functions)
reticular formation
__ __- collections of axons connecting cerebrum and brainstem
long tracts
There are __ pairs of cranial nerves
12
What part of the brain regulates waking and relaxing?
pons
What part of the brain is involved in motivation and alertness?
reticular formation
What part of the brain regulates the autonomic activity of the heart and lungs?
medulla
___ ___ - contains many important pathways, including the corticospinal tract
internal capsule
__ __ - major role in motor functions, don’t have UMNs but help motor areas to perform proper movements. Also cognition + emotion. (part of brain)
basal ganglia
___ - responsible for sensory functions, also higher functions of brain such as cognition and emotion.
thalamus
___ - controls the pituitary gland, the master gland that controls all other glands in body
hypothalamus
the most common excitatory neurotransmitter
glutamate
the 2 most common inhibitory Neurotransmitters
glycine and GABA
Which neurotransmitter is released for lower motor neurons? (released from nuclei in frontal lobe)
acetylcholine
Which neurotransmitter is sent from the hypothalamus to cerebral cortex?
histamine
Which neurotransmitter is released from the pons (locus coeruleus) and sent to the cerebral cortex?
norepinephrine
Which neurotransmitter is released by nuclei all over the brainstem called raphe nuclei to cerebral cortex?
serotonin
dopamine is produced in the __ __ and the __ __ __
substantia nigra, ventral tegmental area
When dopamine produces negative symptoms, it is produced in the VTA –> __
pre-frontal cortex
The pathway for positive effects of dopamine=
___ —> ____
VTA, limbic (nucleus accumbens, amygdala, hippocampus)
in the PNS, the two main neurotransmitters are
acetylcholine and epinephrine
GABA affects the __ and glycine affects the __
CNS, PNS
Low levels of __ are associated with Parkinson’s disease
dopamine
high levels of __ are associated with schizophrenia
dopamine
____ - people who thought each brain area is devoted to a certain personality characteristic, thought, emotion
phrenologist
___ studies- when parts of the brain are purposefully destroyed to find out what their function is (not done on humans)
lesion
lesions studies can be done by ___ ___- used to destroy tissue on surface of brain and deep inside brain. Wire is inserted into brain to determine the area. Then pass high frequency current which heats up and destroys tissue.
radiofrequency lesions
__ __- a lesion study technique that uses surgical removal of parts of brain
tissue removal
the most precise method of lesion studies of the brain (excitotoxins are used to bind to glutamate receptors)
neurochemical lesions
What is an example of a excitotoxin that destroys cell bodies but doesn’t influence axons passing by?
kainic acid
Which excitotoxin selectively destroys dopamine and NE neurons?
oxidopamine
What lesion study method involves cooling down neurons until they stop firing?
cortical cooling (cryogenic blockade)
Which brain imaging technique uses x-rays to show the structure of the brain, but can’t show brain activity?
CAT (computerized axial tomography) scan
Which type of brain imaging method uses radio waves and a magnetic field?
MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
How does an MRI work?
radio waves are added to a magnetic field which disorients atoms. when atoms move back to alignment w the magnetic field they release signals and they used to create an image
Which type of brain imaging method can give info of seizures, sleep stages and cognitive tasks? (don’t get a picture of the brain)
EEG (electroencephalogram)
Which of the brain studying methods has a better resolution than an EEG and uses magnetic fields produced by electric currents in the brain. Measured by using SQUIDS
MEG (megnetoencephalogram)
Which type of brain imaging uses MRI images but tells us about brain activity? (measures oxygen in the brain)
fMRI (functional MRI)
What type of scan involves injecting glucose into cells to see which parts of the brain are active (more invasive)? (also requires swallowing a radioactive tracer)
PET (positron emission tomography)
What part of the brain regulates blood volume?
hypothalamus
What hormones does the Anterior pituitary gland produce?
FH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, Endorphins, GH
What hormones does the posterior pituitary gland produce?
ADH and oxytocin
What hormone does the Pars Intermedia produce?
MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone)
What is the main function of the thyroid?
regulate body metabolism
What is the main role of the parathyroid?
regulate calcium levels
What is the function of the adrenal glands?
involved in stress response and produces catecholamines and glucocorticosteroids
FSH/LH stimulation releases ___ hormones
sex
What is the main role of the pancreas?
regulates blood sugar (PAN of sugar)
Hormone concentration in the body is regulated by ____ and ___
metabolism, secretion (negative feedback loops)
the name of the layer with many glycoproteins on a human egg before cell membrane
zona pellucida
What is the acrosome reaction in fertilization?
enzymes leak into the zona pellucida and digest it. sperm gets closer to the plasma membrane of the egg
what is the cortical reaction in fertilization?
when sperm binds to plasma membrane, cortical granules are released and plasma membranes fuse, genetic material is transferred
What is the order of embryogenesis? zygote —> __ —> ___
zygote, morula, blastula
How many cells is a morula?
32
What is gastrulation?
formation of germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm)
in Neurulation, the ___ differentiates and thickens to a ___
ectoderm, neural plate
the neural plate eventually forms the ___
neural tube (becomes spinal cord)
____ is when the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium
apposition
during implantation of the blastocyst, what cells provide nutrients to the embryo and later forms the placenta?
trophoblasts
___ form villi, which turn into fetal blood vessels
synciotrophoblasts
the endoderm forms__
GI tract tube, lungs, liver and pancreas
the mesoderm forms ___
inner layers of skin, muscles, bones, cardiac muscles, kidneys, bladder, ovaries and testes
ectoderm forms___
skin, sweat glands, hair, nervous system
What characterizes embryogenesis?
divided cells and organ system formed
at what week of gestation is an embryo considered a fetus?
week 10
at week ___ of gestation there is a 50% chance of survival
24
how long is the avg. human gestation period (in weeks)?
37-42 weeks
___- preprogrammed motor skills
reflexes
major motor milestones at 2-4 months old
heads up/chest up
major motor milestone at 2-5 months
roll over
major motor milestone at 5-8 months
sit up
major motor milestones at 5-10 months
stand with support
major motor milestone at 6-11 months
pull up to standing position
major motor milestone at 7-12 months
crawling
major motor milestone at 7-13 months
walk with support
major motor milestone at 10-14 months
stand on own
major motor milestone at 11-15 months
walking
Gross motor skills develop ___ fine motor skills
before
What does head to toe development mean?
babies can lift heads before crawling
___ reflexes - important for newborns and also present throughout life
permanent
___ reflexes - these disappear as baby ages. helps doctors assess if something is not developing correctly
neonatal
rooting reflex (babies)
cheek stroking - baby turns head
Babinski reflex
how baby turn/unturn toes when stroked at sole of foot
moro relfex
fan out arms then back
tonic neck reflex (baby)
when babies head turned, the arm on that side straightens, while other arm bends
galant reflex (baby)
when skin stroked, baby moves/swings to side of stroking
palmer grasp reflex (baby)
close hands on anything that comes near palm
sucking reflex (baby)
baby suck on anything close to mouth
stepping reflex (baby)
hold infant upright and touch feet to flat surface, start taking steps
swimming reflex (baby)
infants in water move arms and legs, involuntarily holds breath
the ___ cortex is developed during adolescence
prefrontal
What are the top 2 parts of the limbic system that are developed in adolescence?
amygdala and hypothalamus
the corpus collosum develops until ___
puberty
in adolescence, there is an increase in __ in the brain
myelination
___ ___- breaking down connections between certain neurons. focus resources on the ones we use most (in adolescence)
synaptic pruning
__ __ - looking at genetic component or hardwiring component to behavior
behavioral genetics
we have aprox. 20,000 to __ genes
25 k
__ - units of hereditary
genes
What is an example of a simple trait?
eye color , hair color
What is an example of a complex trait?
happiness, intelligence, aggressiveness
simple traits interact ___ with the environment, while complex traits are more impacted by ___ ___
minimally, environmental influences
____ - broader than personality. characteristic emotional reactivity, intensity
temperament
Personality is believed to be __ over a person’s lifestyle
constant
monozygotic twins are __
identical
dizygotic twins are __
fraternal
__ __ - when an adopted child is compared to biological family and adopted family
adoption studies
__ or __ studies are used to look at the effect of nature vs nurture
adoption twin
if genes are strong identical twins are the __
same
if environmental factors in twin studies are strong then identical twins may seem like __
fraternal twins
In adoption studies, if genes are strong then the adopted child would ____
be similar to biological parents
In adoption studies, if environmental factors are strong, then the adopted child would be similar to __
adopted family
___ - variability of traits can be attributed to differences in genes
heritability
boys with a 100% controlled environment have different IQs, what percent of the difference in IQ heritable?
100%
__ __- a new field of science that looks at the molecular structure and function of genes
molecular genetics
What is the central dogma of molecular genetics?
DNA –> RNA —> protein
__ % of our genes do not code for proteins, but regulate how proteins are coded
95
___ - changes to gene expression resulting from changes other than DNA/gene sequence
epigenetics
What is an example of epigenetic change?
methylation
Gene Environment interaction describes how __ and environment affect ___
genes behavior
An example of a gene-environment interaction is PKU (__), which is a genetic mutation that causes a build up of __
phenylketonuria, phenylalanine
The function of behavior is to keep ___
homeostasis
___ focuses on the observation of behaviors
ethology
___ behavioral traits - genetically programmed behavior
innate
What are the 3 main types of innate behaviors?
reflexes, orientation behaviors, fixed action pattern (sequence of coordinated movement without pausing)
__ behavioral traits - persistent changes in our behavior that result from our experiences
learned
__ behavior - combination of innate and learned behavior (ex. insects learning how to fly)
complex
___ behavior - not observable
covert
positive feedback - process that ___ production of product
increase
negative feedback- process that needs to be __ to decrease product
controlled
The evolutionary approach to motivation is that ___ play in motivation
instincts
The __ __ theory of motivation is based on the need-drive balance
drive reduction
the __ __ theory of motivation - people want to reach full arousal/alertness
optimum arousal
the ___ theory of motivation - thought processes drive behavior
cognitive
What is Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
we want to satisfy needs in particular order (pyramid)
What is “Id”?
innate; Makes up all instincts and wants to get rid of all uncomfortable feelings
the ___ principle - to gain pleasure and avoid pain
pleasure
What is “ego”?
reality principle; mediates the demands of reality vs. desires of Id. how we identity with/believe ourselves to be
___ - inhibits sexual and aggressive impulses, and tries to replace reality with morality, striving for perfection
superego (angel) (id- devil)
___ motivation- associated with rewards or obligated behavior. (driven by money or fame)
extrinsic
___ motivation- internal motivation
intrinsic
___ __ motivation- based on the need to fulfill a certain drive, like hunger or thirst
Drive reduction
Amotivation is
the lack of motivation
What are the 5 needs according to Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs?
(Please Stop Liking Stupid Shite)
Physiological, Safety, Love, Self-esteem, Self-actualization
____ theory- reward is presented after the occurrence of an action with intention of causing the behavior to occur again (doing well at work and getting a promotion)
incentive
Incentive theory focuses on ___ ___ is done through continuous positive stimulation
positive reinforcement
___ ___- removal of stimuli to encourage a response
negative reinforcement
The 2 factors that affect/regulate out intake of food, sex and drugs
biological factors, socio-culture
What part of the hypothalamus sends positive signals to start eating?
lateral
What part of the hypothalamus sends signals for us to stop eating?
ventromedial (vulture)
What hormone is present in high amounts to suppress appetite?
lectin (licking)
The sociocultural factor that affects eating is___
eat for occasions, time, desire, appeal
Who were the 2 people that studied 100s of male and female volunteers during sexual activity?
Master and Johnson (MJ loved sex)
What are the stages of the sexual response cycle?
excitement phase (HR increases, muscle tension, BP)
plateau phase
orgasm
resolution/refractory phase
Master and Johnson found that the hormone __ was related to sexual drive/activity
testosterone
sociocultural factors for sex are __
age, cultural background, emotions, and desires
What hormone is related to sexual gratification and is associated with relieving sexual arousal after an orgasm?
prolactin (pros are gratified)
What hormones are released post-orgasm that produce feelings of euphoria and pleasure?
endorphins
What hormone is released after an orgasm to facilitate bonds and feelings of connectedness between sexual partners?
oxytocin
If a family member has a predisposition to drug addiction, then the chance of offspring abusing drugs is __
higher
Drugs like Marijuana and heroin mimic ___ of our brain
neurotransmitters
cocaine cause the abnormal release of natural NTs like __
dopamine
___ - a learned tendency to evaluate things in a certain way
attitude
What are the 3 components of attitude?
affective (emotional), behavioral (how we act), cognitive (form thoughts)
ABC model of attitude
Theory of __ __- we consider our implications of actions before we decide how to behave (how attitude influences behavior)
planned behavior
What 3 things are intensions based on?
attitude, subjective norms, perceived behavioral control
___ to behavior process model - event triggers attitude —> attitude + knowledge causes a behavior
attitude
__ __ model - our behavior is a function of past behavior, attitudes, subjective norms, willingness, prototyping/modeling
prototype willingness
Elaboration Likelihood Model for Persuasion (ELM)- more __ approach (focuses on why/how of persuasion)
cognitive
What is the central route of Persuasion (part of ELM)?
Degree of attitude change depends on quality of the argument presented
What is the Peripheral route of Persuasion (part of ELM)?
looks at superficial/expertise/non-verbal persuasion cues
The phenomenon where we have a tendency to agree to small actions first, later comply to larger actions
foot in door phenomenon
The phenomenon where you eventually become adjusted to a new role (parent, student, job) and it becomes the new normal
role-playing
___ ___- people’s tendency to attribute a greater value to an outcome they had to put effort into achieving
effort justification
__ __ - the discomfort experienced when holding 2 or more conflicting cognitions (contradictions)
Cognitive dissonance
According to the Cognitive dissonance theory, what are the 4 things that might occur when there is a contradiction?
modify our cognitions
trivialize (make less important)
add (more ideas to lessen discomfort)
deny (deny facts)
___ ___ principle - when someone does something and there is minimal justification for them doing it, but makes up a significant rationale to justify
minimum justification
Situational approach to behavior - under the branch of ___ psychology
social
___ ___- a branch of psychology that analyzes the situational approach to behavior and emphasizes interactions with people
Social psychology
___ is the process of inferring causes of events/behaviors
attributions
What are the 3 main parts of external attribution?
consistency (does person usually behave this way)
distinctiveness (do they behave differently in diff situations)
consensus (do others behave similarly)
__ __ was the founder of psychoanalysis and the psychoanalytic theory
sigmund freud
The psychoanalytic theory - personality is shaped by ___ experiences, ____ thoughts/desires, and past memories
childhood, unconscious
What are the 2 instinctual drives that motivate human behavior?
libido (natural energy source -motivation for survival, growth, pleasure)
death instinct - drives aggression
defense mechanism where unwanted impulses are transformed into something less harmful
sublimation
Freud said there are 3 parts of the mind: __ __ __
id, ego, superego
According to Freud, there is a ___ mind and a ___ mind
conscious, unconscious
According to freud, __ is at the bottom of the iceberg. it develops after birth and demands ___ gratification
Id, immediate
Ego - part of __ and __. involved in our perceptions, thoughts and judgements (seeks ___ gratification)
conscious and unconscious, long-term
superego - develops around age __, its our ___ conscience
4, moral
Freudian __ - example of mental conflict
slip
The humanistic theory (developed by __ __) focuses on healthy ___ __, and humans are seen as ___ ___
Carl Rogers, personality development, inherently good
mr. rogers = nice
The humanistic theory states the basic motive of humans is to ___ ___ (enhance oneself)
self-actualize
One of the first theorists of humanistic theory was __ __
Abraham Maslow
According to Carl Rogers, __ relationship with others and __ is what allows us to live up to our real self.
genuine, acceptance
Humanist Maslow ____, Humanist Rogers ___
actualizes, accepts
Both Rogers and Maslow believe that personality is __ __- achieved when we bring genuineness and acceptance together to achieve __
self-concept, growth
The biological theory of personality suggests important components of personality are ___, or determined by our genes
inherited
__ __ - proposed extroversion level is based on differences in the reticular formation (introverts are more aroused than extroverts so they seek lower levels of stimulation)
Hans Eysenck
Jeffrey Alan Gray proposed personality is governed by ___ ___ and activation system.
behavioral inhibition (50 shades of gray is based on punishment/rewards)
C. Robert Cloninger linked personality to __ __ in reward/motivation/punishment
brain systems (clone the brain)
Personality traits that are strongly correlated with genetics are (2 things)
social potency (leadership roles), traditionalism (tendency to follow authority)
People with more ___ receptor gene are more likely to be thrill seekers
dopamine-4
The Behaviorist theory of personality - personality is the result of learned behavior patterns based on ___
environment
The behaviorist theory of personality focuses on __ and measurable behavior. Opposite of ___ theory.
observable, psychoanalytic
Skinner - a ___, associated with the concept of __ __ (uses rewards/punishments to increase/decrease behavior)
behaviorist, operant conditioning
Pavlov - a behaviorist, associated with the concept of __ __ (place a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to trigger an involuntary response)
classical conditioning (pavlova is a classic dessert)
The __ theory of personality connects the observable to mental approach
cognitive
What are surface traits of personality?
evident from a person’s behavior
What are source traits of personality?
factors underlying human personality (fewer and more abstract)
What is a personality trait?
A relatively stable characteristic of a person that causes individuals to consistently behave in certain ways
What do the letters in the Myers Briggs Personality test mean?
I- introvert E- extrovert S- Sensing I-intuition T-thinking F-feeling J-judgement P-perception
Ed Sits To Jump
I Need the Feeling of Pain
Gordon Allport - came up with 3 basic categories of personality traits : __ __ __
cardinal (directs most of person’s activities)
central (less dominant - honesty, sociability)
secondary (preferences or attitude)
Raymond Cattell- proposed we had all __ essential personality traits that represent the basic dimensions of personality
16
Hans Eysenck- proposed that we have __ traits, but we express to __ degrees.
all, different
What are the 3 dimensions of personality (Eysenck)?
psychoticism (degree to which reality is distorted)
Extroversion (vs. introversion)
Neuroticism (emotional stability)
Eysenck’s PEN
What are the big 5 personality traits? (OCEAN)
openness conscientiousness extroversion agreeableness neuroticism
__ __- a statistical method that categorizes and determines major categories of personality traits (used by cattell, eysenck and Big 5)
factor analysis
What kind of neurons are found to support observational learning?
mirror
the social cognitive theory- theory of behavior change that emphasizes interactions between __ and their ___
people, environment
What was the Bobo Doll experiment?
group of children were exposed to violent actions and some did it when frustrated and some didn’t (difference between learning behavior and performing it)
what is Bandura’s social cognitive theory? (acronym)
Attention, Memory, Imitation, motivation (AM I Motivated?)
What kind of defense mechanism deals with distortion of reality (denial)?
Pathological defense mechanism
What 2 defense mechanism are considered immature defense mechanisms?
projection (accusing another person of something u did)
passive aggression
___- a type of neurotic defense mechanism, taking intellectual aspects and detaching emotional aspects of situation
intellectualization
___ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism, making yourself believe you’re not at fault
rationalization
___ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism, acting like a baby (throwing a tantrum)
regression
___ - unconscious process where thoughts pushed down to unconscious
repression
___- a type of neurotic defense mechanism where anger is placed on someone different from the actual person they are angry at (safer target)
displacement
__ __ - a type of neurotic defense mechanism where unconscious feelings make person the complete opposite
reaction formation
What are the 4 ways of mature defense mechanisms? (HASS)
humor, sublimation (channeling neg energy to pos), Suppression, Altruism (service)
___ outlined the pleasure principles and the reality principle
Freud
Freud’s pleasure principle
as a child, you want immediate pleasure and to avoid suffering
Freud’s reality principle
when we become mature, you realize there is delayed gratification
Eros drives__
life drive (health, safety, sex)
Thantos drives__
death drive (harm to others, fear, anger, hate)
define distress
negative type of stress that builds over time and is bad for your body
Define eustress
positive type of stress (motivating)
Define neustress
neutral type of stress that doesn’t really affect you directly
What are the 2 classification systems used for mental disorders?
ICD-10 and DSM-5
What category of mental disorders involve distress due to abnormality in development of nervous system (Autism and ADHD)?
Neurodevelopmental disorders
Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by a variety of issues related to __ and __ abilities
social communication
Dyscalculia
mathematics learning disorder
dysgraphia
writing disorder
The category of mental disorders that involve loss of cognitive/other functions of the brain AFTER the nervous system developed
neurocognitive disorders (delirium) (dementia)
Category of mental disorders that result in distress from sleep-related issues
Sleep-wake disorders (insomnia)
Category of mental disorders that result in distress from abnormal worry/fear
Anxiety disorders (social anxiety and general anxiety disorder)
Category of mental disorders that result in distress from abnormally negative mood
depressive disorders
Category of mental disorders that involve abnormal negative mood, but these may have periods of abnormally positive mood called mania
bipolar and related disorders
category of mental disorders that involves distress from psychosis
Schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders
category of mental disorders that involve distress from the abnormal use of substances that affect mental function
Substance-related and addictive disorders
category of mental disorders that involve distress related to personality
personality disorders (cluster A- weird, cluster B- intense emotion, cluster C- worried)
category of mental disorders that involve distress from behaviors that are unacceptably disruptive or impulsive
disruptive, impulse-control and conduct disorders
Mental disorders that involve distress from obsessions or compulsions
Obsessive-Compulsive and related disorders
Mental disorders that involve distress from symptoms similar to those that may occur to illness unrelated to mental disorder, but of psychological origin
somatic symptom and related disorders
Mental disorders involved with distress from behavioral abnormalities related to food
feeding and eating disorders
Mental disorders that involve distress from urination at inappropriate times or places
elimination disorders
Mental disorders that involve distress from abnormalities of identity or memory
dissociative disorders
Mental disorders that involve distress from abnormalities in or performance of sexual activity
sexual dysfunctions
mental disorders that involve distress caused by person identifying as a different gender than society represents them as
gender dysphoria
mental disorders that involve distress from having sexual arousal to unusual stimuli for a person’s culture
paraphilic disorders
schizophrenia cause abnormalities in the brain, there is a high levels of ___ (a neurotransmitter)
dopamine
___ - a period of time before schizophrenia before symptoms are present
prodrome
schizophrenia is diagnosed through clinical __ not brain scans
interview
__ is a antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia
haloperidol
___ - sensory perceptions w/o stimuli like hearing or seeing.
hallucinations
__ hallucinations are most common in patients with schizophrenia
auditory (hearing voices)
___- false fixed beliefs not explainable by a person’s culture (very common in schizophrenia)
delusions
A schizophrenic delusion that involves the belief that others are out to get them
delusions of persecution
a schizophrenic delusion that involves a neutral environment event believed to have a special and personal meaning
delusions of reference
A schizophrenic delusion where there is belief that one is a famous or important figure, such as Jesus or Napoleon
delusions of grandeur
Schizophrenic delusion where they believe that one’s thoughts or actions are being controlled by outside, alien forces
delusions of control
cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia include
abnormalities in attention, organization
__ __- the reduction in the range and intensity of emotional expression (schizophrenia)
affective flattening
__ -the reduction or inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed behavior
avolition
___ - lessening of speech fluency and productivity
alogia
___ schizophrenia - a type of schizophrenia that includes extremes of behavior
catatonic
In brain of schizophrenic, there is a decrease in size of the __ __, and frontal and ___ lobes
cerebral cortex, temporal
In schizophrenic patients there is disorder in __ layers in frontal and temporal lobes
cortical
In schizophrenic patients, the ___ pathway is affected
mesocorticolimbic
Depression involves increased activity in the ___ and decreased activity in the ___ of the brain
limbic structures, frontal lobe
The __ __ of the brainstem is responsible for serotonin release
raphe nuclei
the pathway to release norepinephrine starts in the __ __, which sends long axons to __
locus coeruleus, cerebrum
__ sends long axons to different areas of the cerebrum, supplies dopamine
VTA
What are the 5 types of anxiety disorders?
Generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorders, phobias, OCD, PTSD
Dissociate Identity disorder (multiple personality disorder)- usually people experience __ trauma or extreme __
childhood, abuse
Somatic symptom disorder - mental disorders manifesting in __ symptoms
physical
__ disorder - patients want to be sick, they will falsify signs of sickness. Also known as ___ syndrome
factitious, Munchausens
What are the 3 personality disorders in cluster A?
Paranoid, schizoid (anitsocial), Schizotypal (odd beliefs, magical thinking)
What are the 4 personality disorders in Cluster B?
Antisocial, borderline, histrionic (attention seeking), narcissistic (BAHN)
What are the 3 personality disorders in cluster C?
avoidant, dependent (submissive and clingy), Obsessive-compulsive personality disorders (not same as OCD)
__ __ breathing- crescendo then decrescendo breathing followed by a stop in breathing
cheynes-stroke
What is central sleep apnea?
breathing repeatedly starts and stops during sleep
What is obstructive sleep apnea?
airways are obstructed (causes snoring)
How is obstructive sleep apnea diagnosed?
a sleep study (polysomnography) and 15+ apneas/hour
What is hypoventilation disorder?
not able to ventilate lungs fully and remove all CO2 (common in obese people)
Alzheimer’s disease starts in the ___ lobe of the brain, important for memory
temporal
In an Alzheimer’s patient, there are 3 abnormalities in the brain which are__
loss of neurons, plaques (amyloid), tangles (neurofibrillary tangles, clumps of a protein tau)
Group of neurons are the base of the cerebrum called the __ __ is often lost early in Alzheimer’s
nucleus basalis (base of brain)
What factors increase the chance of getting Alzheimer’s?
genetic mutations (processing of amyloid protein)
ApoE4 (metabolism of fats)
high blood pressure
What factors can decrease chance of getting Alzheimer’s?
higher education
challenging jobs w difficult thinking
Brains of patients with Parkinson’s disease have less __ color of the __ __.
dark, substantia nigra
The loss of color in the substantia nigra in Parkinson’s patients indicate that the neurons lost are only __ __.
dopaminergic neurons
substantia nigra is a part of the __ __ of the brain
basal ganglia
Basal ganglia plays a role in __ function and some __ functions
motor, mental
the cause of most motor abnormalities in Parkinson’s disease is loss of __ neurons from substantia nigra to __
dopamine, striatum
the diseased neurons of Parkinson’s patients have __ bodies
Lewy
Lewy bodies (Parkinson’s) contain a protein called __ __, which is clumped together in Parkinsons
alpha synuclein
Lewy body disease- __ motor abnormalities than Parkinson’s but more __ dysfunction in cerebral cortex
less, cognitive
___ disorder - characterized by prolonged feeling of helplessness and discouragement about the future
depression
People with depression have physical and emotional symptoms including :
Suicidal thoughts, Interests decrease, guilt, energy decreased, concentration decrease, appetite disturbance, psychomotor changes, sleep disturbances
Sadness + SIG E CAPS
the ___ gene is associated with depression, but only if the individual is in a stressful environment
5-HTTLPR (5 hitlers need PR)
What biological factors increase chances of getting depression?
decreased activation of prefrontal cortex
lower levels of activity in reward circuit
fewer receptors for serotonin and NE
one of the psychological factors of depression is __ __- getting trapped in negative thought pattern
cognitive distortions
__- a psychological factor of depression that links pessimistic thoughts to internal causes
attribution (cognitive theory)
What are some sociocultural/environmental factors that contribute to depression?
co-rumination, low socioeconomic status, child abuse, dependent and independent stressors
bipolar disorder is very related to __
depression
__ a state of high optimism, high energy, euphoria, poor judgement, followed by a depressive episode
mania
___ - mild forms of mania, lots of energy and don’t need to sleep
hypomania
___ __ - is a period of abnormally elevated mood and energy lasting at least _ consecutive days, not severe enough for hospitalization
hypomanic episode, 4
___ episode - a period of abnormally elevated mood and energy lasting 7 days, causes impairment in function
manic
bipolar _ disorder- when hypomania becomes manic w or w/o major depressive disorder
1
bipolar _ disorder - when it remains hypomania and one major depressive episode
2
__ - peer pressure, tendency for people to bring behavior in line w group norms.
conformity
__ influence - look to group for guidance when you don’t know what to do and you assume the group is correct
informative
___ influence- even if you know what’s right, do what group’s negative actions to avoid social rejection
normative
__ conform- change behaviors and opinions to align w group
privately
__ conform- you’re outwardly changing but inside you maintain core beliefs
publicly
__ __ - a phenomenon where group decision making amplifies the original opinion of group members
group polarization
___ occurs when maintaining harmony among group members is more important than carefully analyzing problem at hand
groupthink
___ - describes how we follow orders . no cognitive component
obedience
___ ___ -breakdown of social bonds between an individual and community
social anomie
___ - situations where we do behavior to get a reward or avoid punishment
compliance
___ - when people act/dress a certain way to be like someone they respect
identification
__ - idea/belief has been integrated into our own values (stronger than other types of conformity)
internalization
One of the most famous conformity studies was lead by __ __ who was part of the Gestalt Psychologists
Solomon Asch
The Gestalt psychologists believed that is wasn’t possible to understand human behavior by breaking down into parts, people must be understood as a ___
whole
What did Asch find in his study of conformity?
Many of the participants conformed to the wrong answer because they felt like they would be ridiculed by the group, or they felt the actors knew the answer
Why was Asch’s study of conformity criticized?
all participants came from same population (male undergrads)
participants knew they were coming in for a study
ecological validity (real world application)
demand characteristics
One of the most famous studies on conformity/obedience (in response to Holocaust)
milgram studies
According to the study conducted by Milgram, the participants did not ___ to authority
resist
What was milgram’s study of conformity/obedience test?
participants were teachers of learners (confederates) and taught word pairs, if they got a word pair wrong, the learners were shocked. The experimenters instructed what the real participants did to see how far they would respond to authority
What is self-serving bias?
the thought that we would never commit acts like this, but in the real situation we probably would
__ __ error- focuses only on actions of others, tendency to believe that others in out-groups behave a certain way based on inherent personalities/flaws
fundamental attribution
What was found in the Zimbardo Prison Study? (Stanford Prison experiment)
their is a strong influence of situational attribution to behavior
becomes easier to behave badly towards individuals who suffered from deindividualization
role internalization
What is the bystander effect?
a group process in which individuals observe an injustice and they do not intervene
______ theory- explains bystander effect. When individuals are in presence of others where help is needed, feel less personal responsibility to help them
diffusion of responsibility
__ - those in group are more likely to act inappropriately because crowd conceals person’s identity
Deindividuation
__ __- when an individual completes a task in front of an audience
social facilitation
presence of others increases your __ - general physiological or psychological excitement
arousal
What is the Yerkes-Dodson Law?
Presence of others improves performance (helps) on simple tasks, and hinders it on difficult tasks/unpracticed tasks (lots of yorkies and dads help improve)
__ __ - a tendency to put forth less effort in group task if the individual contributions aren’t evaluated
social loafing
The __ effect- a type of reactivity in which individuals modify or improve an aspect of their behavior in response to their awareness of being observed
Hawthorne (observe the THORNEs)
one of the most important agents of socialization
family
What are 3 other agents of socialization?
school, peers, mass media
__ - standards for what behaviors, set by groups of individuals are acceptable
norms
Norms are reinforced by __ - rewards or punishments for behaviors in accord with or against norms respectively
sanctions
___ - the mildest type of norm, just common rules/manners we are supposed to follow on a day to day basis
folkways (tell friend fly is down)
__ - norms based on some moral value. generally produce strong feelings
mores
___ - norms still based on right and wrong, but have formal consequences
laws
___ - behaviors completely forbidden/wrong in any circumstance and violation results in consequences far more extreme
taboos (incest)
__ __ - society is a product of everyday interactions of individuals
symbolic interactionism
the Theory of ___ ___- states that deviance is a learned behavior that results from continuous exposure to others whom violate norms and laws
differential association
___ theory- a behavior deviant if people have judged the behavior and labelled as deviant
labeling
What is the difference between primary and secondary deviance?
primary- no big consequences
secondary- more serious consequences
___ theory- if person is blocked from attaining a culturally accepted goal, may become frustrated/strained and turn to deviance
strain
collective behavior is different from group behavior because it is defined by __ __ interactions
short social
__ - a type of collective behavior, something that becomes incredibly popular very quickly, but loses popularity just as quickly
fad
__ __- a type of collective behavior, a large # of people who experience unmanageable delusions and anxiety at the same time
mass hysteria
__ - a type of collective behavior, characterized by large # of people who engage in dangerous behavior, such as vandalism
riot
___ ___ learning - when an organism is repeatedly exposed to one type of stimulus
non-associative
__ - is increase in responsiveness to a repeated stimulus
sensitization
__ learning - when one event is connected to another (ex. classical and operant conditioning)
associative
__ __ - a learning process in which an innate response to a potent stimulus comes to be elicited in response to a previously neutral stimulus
classical conditioning (guinea pig and carrot)
___ - tendency of a stimulus similar to conditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response
generalization
__ __- when old conditioned stimulus elicits response
spontaneous recovery
__ __ - when an animal no longer receives regular reinforcement, its original behavior will sometimes spike
extinctive burst
__ conditioning - used to stop a particular behavior (involves pairing a habit a person wishes to break with an unpleasant stimulus)
aversive
__ __ - developed by Joseph Wolpe and is a process that involves teaching the client to replace feelings of anxiety with relaxation (works well for phobias)
systematic desensitization
implosive therapy
throw patient into a seemingly scary environment to get over irrational fear (increases anxiety)
___ - a form of respondent conditioning that involves the conditioning of an unwanted behavior or response to a stimulus into a wanted behavior by the association of positive actions w the stimulus
counterconditioning
__ occurs in both operant and classical conditioning
extinction
__ responses are acquired through classical conditioning
phobic
Operant conditioning focuses on the relationship between __ and their __
behavior, consequences
What is the difference between positive and negative reinforcement?
positive- something is being added to increase tendency of behavior
neg - something taken away
What is the difference between positive and negative punishment?
positive- something is added to decrease tendency (speeding ticket)
negative- something taken away “ “
What are primary reinforcers?
innately satisfying/desirable, like food, water, sexual activity
What are secondary reinforcers?
learned to be reinforcers, such as previously neutral
stimuli. Requires a pairing or association with a primary reinforcer for it to have value.
__ __ - system of behavior modification based on systematic reinforcement of target behavior
token economy (ex.prizes)
operant extinction
results from some response by the
organism no longer being reinforced
__ __ - is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually replaced by innate food-related behaviors
instinctual drift
___ - reinforcing behaviors that approximate the target behavior
shaping
__ __ schedule - behavior is reinforced only some of the time
partial reinforcement
__ reinforcement becomes less reinforcing so there is a need for ulterior reinforcement
continuous
What is the type of schedule of reinforcement that deals with getting a reward for a fixed number of behaviors?
fixed-ratio
What type of schedule of reinforcement has a fixed reward for every time interval (get payed every 2 weeks)?
fixed-interval
the type of reinforcement schedule where reinforcement is delivered after avg # of right responses has occurred
variable-ratio
type of reinforcement schedule where responses are reinforced after a variable amount of time pass, regardless on amount (most effective)
variable- interval
In what order of effectiveness are the schedules of reinforcement (from least to most effective)?
fixed-interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio
What are examples of simple innate behaviors?
reflexes, taxis (bugs moving toward a light)
What are examples of simple innate behaviors?
reflexes, taxis (bugs moving toward a light)
What are examples of complex innate behaviors?
fixed action patterns (mating dance), migration, circadian rhythms
What type of learned behavior is a loss of response to a repeated stimuli?
habituation
what type of learned behavior is solving a problem using past skills?
insight learning
What kind of learned behavior is not expressed until required?
latent learning
What type of learned behavior is fixed action patterns that are hard wired?
innate learning
What type of aversive control involves reacting to an unpleasant stimulus once it has occurred?
escape
the type of aversive control where a signal is given before aversive situation
avoidance
What are the 2 types of non-associative learning?
sensitization and habituation
Who popularized operant conditioning?
Skinner
What is taste aversion?
mind connects negative thoughts towards a food without clear rationale
__ __ model - explains how attitudes are formed and likely they are to be changed
elaboration likelihood
The 3 main characteristics that impact how we are persuaded for/against a message:
Message characteristics (clarity, logical, well thought out) Source characteristics (level of expertise) Target characteristics (how we receive message)
the first stage of the elaboration likelihood model is the pre-processing stage due to target characteristics, what are the 2 different processes?
central processing - importance high
peripheral processing - don’t care ab topic
What is the 2nd stage of the elaboration likelihood model?
processing of message
central processing - deep processing
peripheral processing- shallow processing (attractiveness of presenter, pictures)
What is the 3rd stage of the elaboration likelihood model?
change in attitude
central processing - lasting attitude change
peripheral processing - temporarily attitude change
__ __ - the interaction between a person’s behaviors, personal factors, and environment are all determined by one another
reciprocal determinism
__ __ theory- views behaviors as being influenced by people’s traits and their social context
social-cognitive
__ __ __- refers to a person’s ability to carry out intentions to perform a certain behavior
perceived behavior control
What is internal locus of control?
can control fate of our own destiny
What is external locus of control?
perceive outside forces that help to control fate (unfair test)
What is tyranny of choice?
too many choices negatively impacts cognition
__ __ - the ability to control our impulses and delay gratification
self -control
What did the marshmallow test (self-control test) find?
kids who waited for the marshmallow had better life outcomes (higher SAT scores, lower drug use etc)
__ __ - the idea that self-control is a limited resource
ego depletion
What are 4 ways to improve self-control?
change environment, operant conditioning, classical conditioning, deprivation
_____ self- most basic concept of self-concept, the sense of being separate and distinct from others
existential
___ self- becoming aware that even though we’re separate, we also exist in the world with others
categorical
__ __ (humanistic theory), believed self-concept had 3 different components. What were the 3 components?
Carl Rogers
self image
self esteem
ideal self
When ideal self does not match real self, the result is ___
incongruity
What are the 3 steps of the social identity theory?
categorizing, identification and comparison
self worth vs self esteem
self worth - I am lovable and am of value
cant have lasting self -esteem without self-worth
___ ___- belief in one’s abilities to succeed in a situation
self-efficacy
difference between strong and weak self-efficacy
strong- recover quickly from setbacks
weak- focus on personal failures, avoid challenging tasks, lose confidence , lack ability to take on complex tasks (FALL)
What are the 4 sources to determine if person has strong/weak self-efficacy?
mastery of experience, social modeling, social persuasion (positive comments), psychological responses (learning to minimize stress)
Freud proposed the ___ theory of development. _ stages, if issues aren’t resolved at a certain stage, then ___ occurs
psychosexual, 5 , fixation
Erikson proposed the __ development theory - personality occurs through one’s ___ lifespan. _ stages
psychosocial, entire, 8
Vygotsky proposed the __ __ developmental theory - believed children learn actively through __ __ processes
sociocultural cognitive, hands on
vygotsky - vy got sky
Kohlberg proposed the ___ development theory- focused on __ __ and difference between right and wrong
moral, moral-reasoning
Freud and Erikson were interested in __ development and Vygotsky and Kohlberg were interested in __ development
personality, cognition
What are the 5 stages of Freud’s psychosexual development? (ages)
oral (1-3), anal (1-3), Phallic (3-6), latent (6-12), genital (12+)
old age parrots like grapes
What are the stages of Erikson’s psychosocial development?
(0-1) trust vs. mistrust, (1-3) autonomy vs. shame/doubt, (3-6) initiative vs. guilt (ask questions), (6-12) industry vs inferiority, (age 12-20) identity vs role confusion, (20-40) intimacy vs isolation, (40-65) generativity vs stagnation, (65+) integrity vs despair
Vygotsky said babies have 4 elementary mental functions, which are?
attention, sensation, perception and memory
According to Vygotsky, __ __ functions are developed from a more knowledgable tutor
higher mental
the zone of proximal development (Vygotsky) is between zone of __ and __
can’t do and can do
Who introduced the famous story the Heinz Dilemma? What was the Heinz Dilemma?
Kohlberg, his wife was dying from cancer and chemist charged a lot of money for the cure. the man broke into chemists lab and stole it
Kohlberg’s 3 stages of morality (1st stage)
Pre-Conventional (pre-adolescent) (ACRONYM: PREacher smacking oBEEdience with a Fish (self-interest)
o 1. Obedience vs. Punishment – reasoning is based on physical consequences of actions, so obeying the rules is a means to avoid punishment.
§ Age: Children.
o 2. Individualism and Exchange or SELF-Interest – recognize not just one right
view by authorities, different individuals have different viewpoints. Doing what is
right for personal gain.
Kohlbergs 3 stages of morality (2nd)
Conventional (ACRONYM: CONvict named Norm (Societal Norms – Good Girl/Bad Girl) behind bars (Law-and-order)
o 3. Societal Norms /Acceptance- Good Boy and Good Girl - Authority is internalized, but not questioned, and reasoning is based on group person belongs. Individual is good in order to be seen as good by others, emphasis on conformity. “to gain acceptance and to avoid disapproval”
o 4. Law and Order / Law abidance – maintaining social order, child is aware of wider roles of society and obeying laws. “to follow rules”
Kohlberg’s 3 stages of morality (3rd)
Post-Conventional (moral) (ACRONYM: POSTman delivering a contract (social contract) and Universal today (Universal principles). Higher moral reasoning.
o 5. Social Contract – Individual becomes aware that even though rules and laws exist for greater good, there are times this law works against interest of particular people. Ex. for Heinz, is protection of life more important than breaking/stealing? People at this stage said yes. Sometimes law must be broken to reach these principles.
o 6. Universal Ethical Principle – people develop own set of moral guidelines, which may or may not fit the law, and principles apply to everyone. People who uphold and believe in these have to be prepared to act towards these even if they have to obey consequences/disapproval/imprisonment. Very few people
220
who reach this stage, ex. Ghandi, Nelson Mandela, Martin Luther King. “to promote social welfare”
___ - a type of individual social influence, one of most basic forms of social behavior. Begins with understanding there’s difference between others and our self.
imitation
__ __ - the group to which people refer in evaluating themselves. People’s beliefs, attitudes, behaviors.
reference group
What did Charles Cooley and George Herbert Mead think about social behaviorism?
Cooley- every person you interact with influences identity
Mead- only certain people can influence at certain times
According to Mead, what are the 3 stages of our belief of how others perceive us?
preparatory stage - interaction through imitation
play stage- more aware of social relationships
game stage - realize people have multiple roles
What is the difference between I and Me?
Me- socialized, conforming aspect of self
I- spontaneous, less socialized aspect of self
Our actual self is the balance between __ and __
Me and I
__ introduced the looking glass self, which suggests that the self-concept is internalized by how people __ how other people view us
Charles Cooley (you look cool charles) perceive
__ theory- how we explain behaviors of others around us
Attribution
__ __ error occurs when a person assigns too much weight to internal causes rather than external factors when looking for the cause of another person’s behavior
Fundamental attribution
What are the 3 cues of Kelley’s co-variation model?
consistency- when consistency high= internal factors
distinctiveness - situational
consensus - (when a lot of people do same behavior)
When we consider our own behaviors, more likely to blame on __ __
external factors
Actor-observer bias
we attribute out personal behavior but others behavior on internal factors
In ____ cultures (Western cultures), success is over-attributed to __ and failure us over-attributed to __ factors
individualistic, internal, external
In ___ cultures (eastern- africa/asia), success is attributed to __ and failure is to __ factors
collectivist, external, internal
self serving bias
If we succeed it’s due to our internal/personal qualities, but if we fail no hit on self-esteem because likely to do with things outside of our control.
optimism bias
belief bad things happen to others, but not to us
__ is attributing a certain thought to a group of individuals, and overgeneralizing
stereotyping
stereotype threat
exposure to a negative stereotype surrounding a task can actually cause decrease in the performance of an individual performing task. Stereotype threatens performance
__ - stereotypes can lead to behaviours that affirm the original stereotypes.
self-fulfilling prophecy
What are the 3 components of prejudice?
cognition (stereotype), affect (emotional component), discrimination capacity to carry out a behavior and act of prejudice
What is the frustration aggression hypothesis?
not personality based, more emotional (tendency of frustration leading to prejudice and aggression towards minorities)
Hypothesis of __ __ - upsurge in prejudice/discrimination when people are deprived of something they feel entitled to
relative deprivation
__ __ - Extreme disapproval/discrediting of individual by society
social stigma
social stigma can be fueled or associated with ___
stereotypes, prejudices, discrimination
self stigma
internalization of social stigma - lead to rejection, denial and isolation
___ bias - first impression is more important than later data
primary
Your most recent actions are also very important, and people place a lot of emphasis on
your recent actions/recent performances, more than ones before
regency bias
the __ __- tendency people have inherently good/bad natures, rather than looking at individual characteristics (we think more attractive people are good)
halo effect
The devil/reverse halo effect
bad first impression can carry over to other attributes of the person
What is the Just World Hypothesis?
Predictable result as a consequence for our actions.
Noble actions performed/good deeds by an individual are rewarded, while evil acts/deeds are always punished.
to keep the just world hypothesis in tact we use __ techniques or __ techniques
rational irrational
Study of particular people and places
ethnography
judging someone else’s culture from the position of your own culture
ethnocentric
the practice of assessing a culture by its own standards rather than viewing it through the lens of one’s own culture
cultural relativism
xenocentrism
judging another culture as superior to one’s own culture
cultural imperialism
the deliberate imposition of one’s own cultural values on another culture
“in” group vs “out” group
in- who we are connected to
out- group we are not associated with
In-group favoritism
we favor people in our own group, those in out-group are neutral
Out-group derogation
friendly to in-group, not friendly to out-group
group polarization
group makes decisions that are more extreme than any individual member in the group would want
the most powerful predictor of friendships and relationships
geographical proximity
__ __ effect- repeated exposure to novel people or objects increases our liking for them
mere exposure
__ attraction is more important than body attraction
facial
What facial features are considered universally attractive for women?
high forehead, small nose and chin, full lips, high cheekbones
What facial features are universally attractive for men?
strong chin, jaw, cheekbones, and long lower face
What is the relationship between similarity and attraction?
More likely to be attracted to people with similar facial features, ideals, beliefs etc.
perceived similarity
over time interests/beliefs are more aligned
similarity bias
implies we won’t befriend people different from us
projection bias
we assume others share the same beliefs as we do
false consensus
we assume everyone else agrees with what we do
What were the Harlow monkey experiments?
2 different monkey mothers to replace real mother wire mother - provide food cloth mother - comfort baby monkeys preferred cloth mother cloth mother acts as SECURE BASE
Mary Ainsworth’s Strange situation (stranger anxiety experiment)
mom, baby and stranger are placed in a room
mom leaves and researchers determine if they have secure or insecure attachment (60% secure attachment)
What may cause an insecure or secure attachment between parents and baby?
sensitive and responsive mothers - secure
unresponsive - insecure
What are the 3 types of parenting?
authoritarian - strict, break will of child
authoritative (best)- strict, consistent and loving. balance responsibility with rights of child
permissive/indulgent - non-directive and lenient
What are some biological factors of aggression?
genes
brain structure- perhaps decreased frontal lobe activation
testosterone - high levels = more aggression
psychological factors that contribute to aggression
frustration-aggression principle reinforcement modeling (parents giving into demanding kids)
sociocultural factors that contribute to aggression
people act more aggressive in groups (de-individuation) social script (instructions provided by society on how to act)
___ - care about welfare of other people and are acting to help them
altruism
type of altruistic behavior where people act more altruistically to family than non-family
kin selection
Type of altruistic behavior where people are also more likely to help if they got something from that person
reciprocal altruism
giving signals to others that person who’s giving has resources (type of altruistic behavior)
cost signaling
__ __ hypothesis - suggests some people are altruistic due to empathy.
empathy - altruism
helping behavior begins around the age of __
2
What are the 5 types of social support?
emotional, esteem (encouragement), informational (advice), tangible/instrumental (material), companionship
ascribed statuses
statuses you can’t change, given from birth
achieved status
status you earn yourself (olympic athlete)
master status
supersedes other roles (perceived role ie mother)
__ __ - when you can’t carry out all obligations of a status, tensions within one status
role strain
__ __- conflict/tension between two or more different statuses, the different statuses compete for one’s time
role conflict
__ __ - when a person leaves a role previously central to their identity and the process of establishing a new identity
role exit (ie retiring)
difference between primary and secondary groups
primary- close friends and family
secondary- formal, impersonal, business-like relationships
__ __ - studied the nature of people’s interactions, introduced the process of dramaturgy (how people behave in a social setting)
erving Goffman (ms. goff theatre teacher)
what does front stage and back stage represent in the dramaturgy metaphor?
front stage- how we present ourselves in front of people
back stage- more comfortable environment (can be more ourselves)
__ __ - our attempt to control how others see us on the front stage
impression management
discrimination
differential treatment and harmful actions against minorities
individual discrimination
Individual person acting to discriminate based on something
institutional discrimination
organization discriminating – including governments, banks, schools
unintentional discrimination
how policies can discriminate unintentionally
Past-In-Present discrimination
how things done in the past, even if no longer allowed they can have consequences for people in the present.
Ex. After Brown vs. Board verdict, but girl in integrated school still doesn’t feel welcome in her classroom. (Negative attitude of the past coming forward to the present and causes minority to be discriminated against unfairly)
Type of organization where members are paid/rewarded for their efforts, ex. Businesses and government jobs, and universities
utilitarian organizations
type of organization where members come together through shared goals, ex. religion groups
normative organizations
type of organization where members don’t have choice about membership, ex. people in a prison, or the military
coercive organization
__ - the rules, structures, and rankings that guide organizations
bureaucracy
___ - process by which organizations become increasingly governed by laws and policy
bureaucratization
Mcdonaldization
policies of fast food organizations have come to dominate other organizations in society. Primarily, Principles of efficiency, calculability, predictability, uniformity, and control – These principles have come to dominated everything, from medicine to sporting events to entertainment,
__ __ (sociologist) that introduced the 5 main characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy
max weber
What are the 5 main characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy?
division of labor, hierarchy of organization, written rules and regulations, impersonality, employment based on technical qualifications
__ __ - the principle where every employee in hierarchy keeps getting promoted until they reach level of incompetence
Peter principle
___ - the search for food in animal’s environment
foraging
What are the 2 types of foraging?
solitary foraging and group foraging
foraging behavior is strongly driven by __
genetics
__ - can give information to themselves. Ex. bats and
echolocation and this allows them to gain information about the environment
auto-communication
__ - attributing human characteristics to non-human animals
anthropomorphism
What are the different ways animals can communicate with each other?
sound, chemical signals, somatosensation, visual cues
__ mating - all individuals within a species are equally likely to mate with each other. Mating not influenced by environment/heredity or any behavioral/social limitation. Ensures a large amount of genetic diversity.
random
___ mating - Non-random mating where individuals with certain phenotypes/genotypes/similarities/genes/physical appearance tend to mate with each other at a higher frequency
assortative
___ mating - opposite of assortative mating – situation where individuals with individuals with different or diverse traits mate with higher frequency than with random mating.
dis-assortative
___ ___ - concerns the # of offspring an animal has, how they support them, and how offspring support each other.
inclusive fitness
__ __ theory - those best fit to environment will survive and pass on to offspring
evolutionary game
__ - large scale perspective, looking at big phenomena that affect big portion of population. Social structures and institutions, whole civilizations/populations.
macrosciology
___ - comes from macrosociology – looks at society as a whole and how
institutions that make up the society adapt to keep society stable and
functioning.
functionalism
__ theory- the idea society is made of institutions that benefit powerful and create inequalities. Large groups are at odds until conflict is resolved
conflict
___ - face to face interactions, families, schools, other social interactions. Interpretive analysis of the society, look at sample of society and how individual interactions would affect larger groups in society
microsociology
___ ___ - social theory that’s a micro-perspective, focuses on the individual and significance they give to objects, events, symbols, etc. in their lives.
symbolic interactionism
What is the conservative view of institutions vs. progressive views on institutions?
conservative - institutions are natural by-products of human nature
progressive view - institutions are artificial creations that need to be redesigned if they are not helpful
___- dominant religious organizations that includes most member of society
ecclesia
___ - private ownership of production with market economy based on supply and demand.
capitalism
___ - motivated by what benefits society as whole, common ownership of production that focuses on human needs and economic demands.
socialism
__ __ -looks at health disparities through social indicators like race, gender, and income distribution, and how social factors affect a person’s health.
social epidemiology
___ - is a system of thinking based on ideas of Emile Durkheim that look at society from large-scale perspective, and how each part helps keep society stable.
functionalism
__ __ - ways of thinking and acting formed by society that existed before any one individual and will still exist after any individual is dead
social facts
____ ___- Intended consequences of institutions (ex. school- educate to get jobs)
manifest functions
__ __ - indirect effects of institutions.
latent functions
__ __ - is process that has undesirable consequences and may reduce the stability of society.
social dysfunction
What are some problems with functionalism?
focuses entirely on institutions without regard for individual (only acknowledged). Also largely unable to explain social change and conflict, so focussed on equilibrium (between social facts and institutions) little change and conflict is modeled and no conflict can occur. More to society than just stable state of its part, but functionalism is still useful in examining the functions of its integral parts.
__ - the term that refers to individuals of the working class (europe)
proletariat
___ - Desire of working class to change was the thesis
antithesis
__ __ - expanded on Marx by proposing that society is shaped by war/conquest, and cultural/ethnic conflicts lead to certain groups becoming dominant over others.
Ludwig Gumplowicz
__ __ - argues that people actively shape their reality through social interactions/agreement
social constructionism
__ __ - is concept/practice everyone in society agrees to treat a certain way regardless of its inherent value
social construct
What is the difference between weak and strong social constructionism?
weak- brute and institutional facts
strong- whole of reality is dependent on language and social habits
Symbolic interactionism
examines small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups
What were the 3 tenants that Herbert Blumer used to explain symbolic interactionism?
- we act based on meaning
- different people assign different meanings to things
- the meaning we give something isn’t permanent
feminist theory focuses on __
focuses on different expectations, salary differences, gender inequalities that permeate everyday life
__ __ theory - people not only motivated by money, but do what’s best to get better.
rational choice
What are the 3 main assumptions of the rational choice theory?
completeness, transitivity, independence of irrelevant alternatives
__ theory - addresses decision making via cost- benefit analyses
exchange
What is sexual selection?
natural selection arising through preference for one
sex for characteristics in individuals of the other sex
__ __ theory - aging is a social, psychological, and biological process that begins from time you born till time you die.
life course
__ __ theory - suggests age is way of regulating behavior of a generation
age stratification
__ theory- looks at how older generation looks at themselves. Certain activities or jobs lost, those social interactions need to be replaced so elderly can be engaged and maintain moral/well-being
activity
___ theory- older adults and society separate, assumes they become more self-absorbed as they age.
disengagement
__ theory -people try to maintain same basic structure throughout their lives overtime. As they age people make decisions that preserve that structure and use it to adapt to external changes and internal changes of aging.
continuity
difference between race and ethnicity?
race- physical
ethnicity - defined by shared language, culture, nationality etc.
___ - encourages racial and ethnic variation.
pluralism
What is the syndrome resulting from XYY?
Jacob’s syndrome
What does Non-binary mean? (gender)
not identifying with any specific gender
__ __ - attraction and fornication
sexual orientation
__ - biological determination of male/female/intersex people
sex
___ - social construction on how a person of a specific sex should behave
gender
__ __ theory - Theory that explains how individuals should be gendered in society. How sex-linked characteristics are maintained and transmitted to other members of a culture.
gender schema
__ __ - what we expect men and females to do
gender script
____ - movement of people from rural to urban areas
urbanization
___ - anywhere with <1000 people per square mile
rural
__ - have over 50 000 people
cities
__ - have over 500 000 people
metropolis
If many metropolises are connected, called ___
megalopolis
What is the functionalist perspective on cities?
important for building culture and diverse populations
host to crime
What is the conflict theory of cities?
source of inequality that are entertainment for wealthy
What is the symbolic interactions theory on cities?
where people have different ways of looking at life
___ - which means when redone they target a wealthier community which increases property value.
gentrification
What are the 3 factors that contribute to total growth rate of a population?
fertility, migration, mortality
___ - the potential reproductive capacity of a female
fecundity
If a women has less than 2 kids the population will __
decrease
If a women has more than 2 kids the population will __
increase
If a women has 2 kids then the population will __
neither increase or decrease
__ __ - Graphs the age and sex distribution of a
population.
population pyramid
__/__ pyramid - indicate low birth and death rates in population
stationary/constrictive
___ ___ - fewer young people than old people
constrictive period
How to calculate total population decrease rate
(#death + #emigration/ 1000) x population #
What are the 5 stages of the demographic transition model?
stage 1 - high birth rates
stage 2 - population increases as death rates decrease
stage 3 - death rates continue to decrease
stage 4- population stabilizes
stage 5- world forced the stabilize
___ __ theory- importance of world as a unit rather than individual countries. Divides world into 3 countries: core, periphery, and semi-periphery
world-system theory
What are the core, periphery and semi-periphery countries?
core- western Europe and US
periphery- latin america and africa
semi-periphery- india and brazil
___ theory - all countries follow similar path of development from traditional to modern society.
modernization
___ theory - Reaction to Modernization theory. Uses idea of Core + Periphery countries to look at inequalities between countries
dependency
___ perspective - sees globalization as a new age in human history – countries become interdependent and nation states themselves are less important. Countries become one global society.
hyperglobalist
__ perspective - critical of globalization, considers it as being regionalized instead of globalized. Third world countries aren’t being integrated into global economy with same benefits as first world countries.
skeptical
____ perspective - Believe national governments are changing, perhaps becoming less important but difficult to explain change so simply. They see the world order is changing.
transformationalist
Companies that extend beyond borders of a country are called ____
multinational/transnational corporations
globalization has 2 major impacts on the country which are ___ and ___
economy culture
___ ___ theory- Skepticism about groups that were involved in social movement, said social movements would only form for people seeking refuge from main society.
mass society (ex nazism)
__ __ theory - actions of groups oppressed/deprived of rights that others in society enjoy. Ex. Civil Rights Movement
relative deprivation
What are the 3 things needed for social movement?
relative deprivation
feeling of deserving better
conventional means are useless
__ __ theory - looks at social movements from different angle. Instead of looking at deprivation of people, focuses on factors that help/hinder a social movement like access to resources
resource mobilization
__ __ theory- people compare pros and cons of different courses of actions and choose the one they think is best for themselves. These choices shape pattern of behavior in society.
rational choice
Exurbs are
beyond suburbs who are very prosperous
What characterizes an expanding population pyramid?
high birth rate decreasing death rate
____ - way of life shared by group of individuals – the knowledge, beliefs and values that bind a society together.
culture
What are the 4 points of culture?
people share culture in society
culture is adaptive
culture builds on itself
culture is transmitted
__ __ - population size falls between micro and macro levels. They are medium sized groups such as communities, organizations, cities, states, clans, and tribe
meso-level
micro-culture
groups only affecting limited period of one’s life
__ __ - is the fact culture takes time to catch up with technological innovations, resulting in social problems.
culture lag
___ - is the spread of an invention or discovery or ideas from one place to another
diffusion
What is the glass ceiling effect?
poorly represented in higher positions in companies (women)
Difference between vertical and horizontal social mobility
vertical - move up or down social hierarchy
horizontal- move within the sam class
Caste system has very little __ __
social mobility
Which social system allows for a degree of social mobility? (combination of background and movement)
class system
Meritocracy
people achieve social position solely based on ability and achievements
___ - If change in social class happens in a person’s own lifetime
intra- generational mobility
___ - change in social class between generations, ex. Parent is working class and son is working class.
intergenerational mobility
__ poverty - Minimum level of resources a human being needs to survive
absolute
__ poverty - its people whose incomes are so low in
their own society they’re being excluded from society
relative
__ __ - People with rich parents end up wealthy themselves
social reproduction
__ __ - the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively.
social capital
__ __ - is a society’s categorization of
people into socioeconomic strata, based upon their occupation, income, wealth and social status, or derived power
social stratification
__ ___ - looks at the fair distribution of the environmental benefits and burdens within society across all groups.
environmental justice
type of segregation where there’s clustering of different groups
concentration
___ - type of segregation where segregation + clustering in a central area
centralization
Theory of ____ - asks us to consider all the different levels of discrimination. Intersectionality calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification.
intersectionality
What kind of statistics would you use with categorical data?
chi square
___ - look at a group of different people at one moment in time
cross sectional study
__ __ - following a subset of population over a lifetime. A cohort is a group of people who share a common characteristic (ex. people born and exposed to same pollutant/drug/etc.) in period of time
cohort study
__ study - follows variables over a long period of time to look for correlations.
longitudinal
__ __ study - observational study where 2 groups differing in outcome are identified and compared to find a causal factor. Ex. comparing people with the disease with those who don’t but are otherwise similar
case control
__ __ design - design is similar to an experimental design but lacks random assignment. This type of design describes an effect on a specific cohort of the population
quasi-experimental
__ __ study - type of survey, questionnaire, or poll in which respondents read the question and select a response by themselves without researcher interference.
self-report
___ - accuracy. Items that are high in validity accurately address the construct
validity
internal vs external validity
external - results can be applied to other people and studies
internal- extent to which a causal conclusion based on a study is warranted
population validity
type of external validity which describes how well the sample used can be extrapolated to a population as a whole
ecological validity
external validity which looks at the testing environment and determines how much it influences behavior
__ __ - refers to whether a variable is able to predict a certain outcome
criterion validity
____ validity - measures how well a test matches up with a
benchmark test, which is usually another valid measure of the same
concurrent
___ validity - measure of how well a test predicts abilities
predictive
___ validity- Construct validity describes the extent to which the theory is supported by the data or results of the research.
construct
___ validity - describes the extent that the test measures the construct accurately.
content
___ - CONSISTENT RESULTS WITH
REPEATED EXPERIMENTS.
reliabilty
___ __ reliability - is shown by a high positive correlation between the first and second administration of a test
test-retest
___ control - what experimental group does without the directly desired impact
vehicular
to the degree to which different raters give consistent estimates of the same behavior
inter rater
__ __ - is associated with the processing of both positively and negatively balanced emotions
orbitofrontal cortex
The recognition of facial expressions associated with sadness have been linked to the __ __
subcallosal cingulate (callosal subways have singles)
The __ and ___ are most associated with disgust
insula basal ganglia
Anger is most associated with the left __ __ __
superior temporal sulcus (angry super man has a temper in his sulciness)
a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to recognize familiar people based on facial expressions
Prosopagnosia
__ __ -visual system in the brain, plays a tole in high level visual processing and recognition
fusiform gyrus
__ __ - a disorder of the ventral pathway, because it is an inability to recognize an image
visual agnosia
atypical antipsychotics - block __ release
serotonin
a type of typical antipsychotic used to treat psychiatric conditions
neuroleptics
What is the Thomas theorem?
interpretation of a situation causes the action
