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Aviation > PSTAR + Aviating > Flashcards

PSTAR + Aviating Flashcards

1
Q

V Normal Sea Level Climb

A

75-85 KIAS

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2
Q

Vy Sea and 10,000 feet

A

Best Rate-of-Climb, Sea Level 74 KIAS
Best Rate-of-Climb, 10,000 Feet 72 KIAS

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3
Q

Vx Sea and 10,000 ft

A

Best Angle-of-Climb, Sea Level 62 KIAS
Best Angle-of-Climb, 10,000 Feet 67 KIAS

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4
Q

Maximum Glide

A

68 KIAS
1.5nm/1000ft

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5
Q

Power on Descent

A

Power 1500

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6
Q

ELT Freq

A

121.5

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7
Q

Fuel Quantities

A

56 Total
53 Usable

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8
Q

Speed and power trick

A

5KIAS = 100RPM = 100ft/m Vertical

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9
Q

AROWJILI

A

airworthiness
registration
operating handbook
weight and balance
Journey log
insurance
licence or pilot
intercept orders

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10
Q

HASEL

A

height >2000 AGL (PRACTICE AREA IS AT 1000 SO 3000).
area unpop
security seatbelts loose obj windows doors
engine parameters
lookout turns

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11
Q

Cruise Configuration

A

2300 rpm 105kias

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12
Q

Monitor on route

A

121.5 (ETF) and 126.7?

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13
Q

Blast Area
Turbo Prop Idle

A

60

  1. Blast area behind large turbo-prop during taxi = 60 feet
  2. Ground idle blast behind executive jet = 200 feet
  3. Ground idle blast behind medium jet = 450 feet
  4. Ground idle blast behind jumbo jet = 600 feet and
  5. Take-off thrust blast danger area behind a medium size jet = 1,200 feet.
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14
Q

Blast Area
Exec Jet Idle

A

200

  1. Blast area behind large turbo-prop during taxi = 60 feet
  2. Ground idle blast behind executive jet = 200 feet
  3. Ground idle blast behind medium jet = 450 feet
  4. Ground idle blast behind jumbo jet = 600 feet and
  5. Take-off thrust blast danger area behind a medium size jet = 1,200 feet.
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15
Q

Blast Area
Med Jet Idle

A

450

  1. Blast area behind large turbo-prop during taxi = 60 feet
  2. Ground idle blast behind executive jet = 200 feet
  3. Ground idle blast behind medium jet = 450 feet
  4. Ground idle blast behind jumbo jet = 600 feet and
  5. Take-off thrust blast danger area behind a medium size jet = 1,200 feet.
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16
Q

Blast Area
Jumbo Idle

A

600

  1. Blast area behind large turbo-prop during taxi = 60 feet
  2. Ground idle blast behind executive jet = 200 feet
  3. Ground idle blast behind medium jet = 450 feet
  4. Ground idle blast behind jumbo jet = 600 feet and
  5. Take-off thrust blast danger area behind a medium size jet = 1,200 feet.
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17
Q

The take-off thrust blast danger of a medium size jet

A

1200

  1. Blast area behind large turbo-prop during taxi = 60 feet
  2. Ground idle blast behind executive jet = 200 feet
  3. Ground idle blast behind medium jet = 450 feet
  4. Ground idle blast behind jumbo jet = 600 feet and
  5. Take-off thrust blast danger area behind a medium size jet = 1,200 feet.
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18
Q

low level

A

18000 asl domestic

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19
Q

ft away from humans or structure

A

500ft away

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20
Q

VFR Controlled cloud clearance

A

500ft vertical
1 mile horizontal

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21
Q

caribou

A

2000ft

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22
Q

a dry transport Canada wind direction indicator horizontal

A

15kt

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23
Q

infant

A

under 2

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24
Q

standard transponder codes

A

1200 below 12500

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25
Q

Any pilot who has had a local anaesthetic for extensive dental procedures should not act as a flight crew member during the next:

A

24 hours

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26
Q

broadcast intentions attempting to land when no unicom

A

123.2

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27
Q

a serviceable landing light is required equipment on aircraft

A

carrying passengers at night

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28
Q

When a NORDO aircraft crosses an airport for the purpose of obtaining landing information it should maintain:

A

at least 500 ft above circuit height

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29
Q

Transponder Emerge

A

7700

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30
Q

Transponder Comms Failure

A

7600

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31
Q

Transponder Hijacking

A

7500

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32
Q

Cross Country Danger Saying

A

From high to low (pressure), look out below

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33
Q

In Flight Steady Green

A

Cleared to land

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34
Q

In Flight Steady Red

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

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35
Q

In Flight Green Flashes

A

Return for landing

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36
Q

In Flight Red Flashes

A

Airport unsafe; do not land

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37
Q

Series of Green Flashes on Ground

A

Cleared to Taxi

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38
Q

Steady Green Light on Ground

A

Cleared for takeoff

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39
Q

Series of Red Flashes ground

A

Taxi clear of landing area in use

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40
Q

Steady Red Light ground

A

Stop

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41
Q

Flashing White Light

A

Return to starting point on airport

42
Q

Blinking Runway Lights

A

Vacate runway

43
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separations behind:

Medium
Heavy
Super-Heavy

A

4 miles behind a medium-sized aircraft
6 miles behind a heavy
8 miles behind a super-heavy

44
Q

Vb

A

Maxiumum gust intensity speed. The maximum speed for penetration of gusts of maxiumum intensity. In most light airplanes, the manufatcturer does not recommend ifferent design speeds for Vb and Va.

45
Q

Va

A

Maneuvering speed. This is the max speed at which the flight controls can be fully deflected ONCE without damage to the airplane structure. On the Cessna 172, VA speeds are:

2550 Pounds 105KIAS
2200 Pounds 98KIAS
1900 Pounds 90KIAS

46
Q

Vno

A

Maximum structural cruise, or normal operating limit speed. For which the airplane was designed and is the max safe speed at which the airplane should be operated in the normal category. Nno should NEVER be entered deliberately during normal operation, not even during descent because of unexpected gust loads.

47
Q

Vne

A

Never exceed, or max permissible dive speed. Max speed at which airplancan be sefealy operated in smooth air. A higher speed may result in structureal failure, flutter, or loss of control.

48
Q

The normal recommended airspeed for power-on approaches to short field landings is

A

1.3x the power-off stalling speed

49
Q

When gliding into fairly strong wind, greater distance may be covered over the ground if the nose of the airplane is…

A

kept somewhat lower than the attitude for best L/D ratio (FTGU p28)

50
Q

How would you calculate the angle of bank required for a Standard Rate Turn, without a turn and bank indicator?

A

10% of TAS + 7 (e.g., 10% of 100kts + 7 = 17° of bank required)

51
Q

ANDS

A

accelerate north, decelerate south

52
Q

If the wind is 30° off the runway, your crosswind component is roughly:

If the wind is 45° off the runway, your crosswind component is roughly:

A

30° is 50% of the wind speed.
45° is 75% of the wind speed

53
Q

Density vs Pressure Altitude

A

Density Altitude is formally defined as “pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations.”

54
Q

What is the 20% rule?

A

If your aircraft doesn’t have a crosswind tolerance limit, use 20% of the stall speed.

55
Q

Tire Pressure

A

Typically around 30 lbs per square inch.

56
Q

When taxiing with the wind behind you, remember the little memory aid…

A

When wind is coming from behind you, it’s “Down and Away” (Push the Yoke)

57
Q

Caution should be exercised when operating behind and less than _______ feet behind a heavy aircraft.

A

1000

58
Q

Types of de-icing fluid used in North America

A

Type 1
Red/Orange, for De-Icing. Goes on Hot.

Type 4
Emerald Green, Anti-Icing, used on top of Type 1 to prevent refreezing.

59
Q

If you’ve made a blood donation, how long should you wait before flying?

A

48 hours.

60
Q

If you take any medication, you are required…

A

to consult an aviation medical examiner.

61
Q

After consuming alcohol, how long must a pilot wait before operating an aircraft?

A

12 hours.

62
Q

Pilots must remain _____ from forest fires

A

3000ft AGL and 5NM (check to see if this is nautical miles or statute)

63
Q

Performance Shear Memory Aid Saying

A

“Headwind Up, Performance Up”
“Headwind Down, Performance Down”

64
Q

Runway Illusion: Upslope Runways

A

Runway presents a “taller image”, Pilot perceives approach as High, Tendancy to hit terrain.

65
Q

Runway Illusion: Downslope Runways

A

Runway presents a “shorter image”, tendency to fly an approach too high and flare too early/high.

66
Q

Runway Illusion: up/downslope terrain prior to runway

A

CARD IS UNVERIFIED; REVIEW WITH AL

  • When there is a downslope prior to the runway, the runway presents a “taller image”, Pilot perceives approach as High, Tendancy to hit terrain.
  • When there is an upslope prior to the runway, the runway presents a “shorter image”, tendency to fly an approach too high and flare too early/high.
67
Q

Illusion: Black Holes

A

Created by:
* Flying to a runway surrounded by unlighted terrain
* Pilots may overestimate alitude

Try to:
* Use the PAPIs

68
Q

Illusion: False Horizon

A

Created by:
* Sloping cloud layers
* Ground lights confused with stars
* Receding shoreline

69
Q

Illusion: Vectional Illusion

A

Illusion of false movement.

Created by:
* Moving grass or blowing snow
* In IMC, rain running down the windscreen

70
Q

Illusion: Flying in Rain

A

Can Cause
1. Poor visibility
2. Refraction Error: will bend the light, and causes pilots to think the runway and terrain are lower than they are (you think you’re higher than you really are)

Refraction Error
* Reduced Transparency - upper part of the windshield is brighter than the lower part, drawing the eye down, and gives the pilot the sense that the horizon is lower than actual
* Shape and pattern of ripples on the windscreen makes you feel you’re higher than you really are.
* You can get up to a 5 degree error, which is a lot!

71
Q

Illusion: Runway Narrower than Usual

A

Will feel like you’re too high, and you’ll flare late

72
Q

Illusion: Runway Wider than Usual

A

Will feel like you’re too low, and you’ll flare early

73
Q

For VFR Over the Top, what are the rules?

A

All minimas below:
* Req conditions must be forecast for 1 hour before to 2 hours after the ETA (or to 3 hours after if you are using an AF (Area Forecast) / GFA rather than a TAF).
* You must use the worst forecast moment.

Cruise Portion of Flight
* You must operate 1000 above the cloud deck
* Min flight visibility is 5 SM
* Where you are operating between 2 cloud layers, vertical difference between the layers must be at least 5000ft

Destination Weather
* No broken, overcast, or obscured cloud layer lower than 3000ft above the planned flight altitude.
* Min 5 SM visibility
* No thunderstorms, rain, or snow.

You need:
* All the Daytime VFR Equipment (Basic 6 pack, radio, “Adequate” radio nav equip)

74
Q

What does (V) mean

A

The FSS monitors the VHF emergency freq 121.5

75
Q

PAL always connects you to a:

A

Radar controller.

76
Q

When landing at an MF Aerodrome, you must make the following calls:

A
  • Joining the circuit
  • Turning final
  • Exiting the runway/lake landing area
77
Q

When departing from an MF Aerodrome, you must make the following calls:

A
  • Prior to entering the Maneuvering Area
  • Mention the ATIS (that you listened to :)
  • Communicate intentions for departure/taxiing
  • Entering Runway
  • Beginning Takeoff
  • Leaving MF area
78
Q

When doing circuits in an MF aerodrome, you must make the following calls:

A
  • Joining downwind
  • On Final
  • Leaving runway after last circuit
79
Q

If a flight plan is not filed, a flight itinerary must be filed

A

for flights proceeding 25 NM or more from the point of origin.

80
Q

The term ‘APRX’ when contained in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid

A

until a cancelling or replacing NOTAM is issued.

81
Q

A new or replacing NOTAM without the term ‘APRX’ is valid…

A

until the time quoted in the NOTAM.

82
Q

What is the load factor increase in a 60° bank turn?

And what is the equation for the increase stall speed as related to bank angle?

A

60° bank carries two g’s of force.

This stall speed increases at the square root of the load factor.

83
Q

Vfe

A

The Top of the White Arc depicts the Maximum Flap Extended Speed. This is referred to as Vfe for Velocity (V) with Flaps (f) Extended (e).

84
Q

Describe relative ice accumulation in terms of:
Air foil shape
Aircraft speed
Droplet size

A
85
Q

Helicopter over built-up area clearance

1

A

1000 vertical
500 horizontal

86
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude. You would take the MEF, and add a comfort margin.

87
Q

Carburetor icing can occur at temperatures as high as…

A

38°C

88
Q

Carburetor icing is most likely to occur in this temp range, but can occur at temps as high as:

A

Carburetor ice is most likely to occur when temperatures are between 20°F/-7°C to 70°F/21°C and the relative humidity is above 80 percent.

icing can occur even in outside air temperatures as high as 100 °F (38 °C) and humidity as low as 50 percent.

89
Q

When two power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude…

A

the one on the right has the right of way.

90
Q

An initial call to Timmins FSS should be ‘Timmins…

A

radio this is…’

91
Q

What is the difference between Static Stability, and Dynamic Stability?

A

Static stability has been defined as the initial tendency to return to equilibrium that the aircraft displays after being disturbed from its trimmed condition.

Occasionally, the initial tendency is different or opposite from the overall tendency, so a distinction must be made between the two.

Dynamic stability refers to the aircraft’s response over time when disturbed from a given AOA, slip, or bank.

92
Q

When it comes to Mixture Control, what will be the Best Economy setting for the aircraft?

A

Peak EGT

93
Q

Agonic vs Isogonic

A

In each hemisphere there will be places where the north pole and the north magnetic pole will lie in the same straight line. These places, therefore, have no magnetic variation. Lines drawn through places with no variation are called agonic lines. Like isogonic lines, they also twist and bend due to the local magnetic fields in the earth.

94
Q

“Day” in Canada is defined as that period of time between

A

the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.

95
Q

If you are looking at a featureless sky during hazy or dark conditions, your eyes will tend
to focus at a point approximately . . . . . ft away.

A

3 to 5 ft

96
Q

The diurnal change of surface wind velocity is such that during the day the surface wind
will usually

A

veer and increase in speed.

97
Q

If you have dived to a depth of more than 30 feet, it is best not to fly for…

A

24 hours.

98
Q

Details on civil aviation accident reporting procedures can be found in the…

A

TC AIM

99
Q

A pilot must do the following every:

6 Months
2 Years
5 Years

A

6 Months, 5 T/Offs and Landings if carrying passengers
2 Years, one of a bunch of things.
5 Years, Fly at least once.

100
Q

ELT Testing is allowed…

A

First 5m UTC for a max of 5 seconds.

“5 for 5”

101
Q

Speed Limit

A

250kts under 10,000 ASL

200kts under 3000 AGL within 10NM of a controlled aerodrome.

Aviation (5 decks)

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