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Phase 3b > PSA > Flashcards

PSA Flashcards

1
Q

What is d dimer
What is a positive result
What does it tell you

A

Fibrin degradation product
Positive if it is raised
Suggests there may be a clot

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2
Q

what are the different types of anticoagulants

A

Vitamin K antagonists
Direct thrombin inhibitors, direct Xa inhibitors (DOACs)
Indirect Xa and thrombin inhibitors - Heparin

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3
Q

give some examples of direct thrombin inhibitors

A

dabigatran, edoxaban

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4
Q

give some examples of direct xa inhibitors

A

apixaban, rivaroxaban

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5
Q

give some examples of direct xa inhibitors

A

apixaban, rivaroxaban

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6
Q

what patients should DOACs not be used in

A

antiphospholipid syndrome
caution - elderly
renal impairment, egfr <15

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7
Q

What are some limitations / considerations with warfarin

A

Narrow therapeutic window
Frequent monitoring and dose adjustment
Interaction with food and drugs, chemotherapies
Less effective than LMWH for patients with cancer

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8
Q

what should you consider when deciding anticoagulant for DVT/ PE treatment

A

Renal function
Active cancer
Antiphospholipid syndrome

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9
Q

what blood test is used to measure warfarin and extrinsic pathway

A

prothrombin time

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10
Q

what blood test is used to measure heparin and intrinsic pathway

A

activated partial thromboplastin time

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11
Q

what is warfarin most commonly prescribed for

A

AF
Heart valves
VTE prophylaxis

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12
Q

what do you need to consider in a patient with cancer if wanting to anticoagulate

A

account tumour
site, drug interactions
including cancer drugs,
and bleeding risk

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13
Q

what is a side effect of unfractioned heparin

A 
heparin thrombocytopaenia 
(dont get this with LMW heparin - dalteparin)
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14
Q

what is a normal INR

what is a target INR for those on warfarin

A

Normal <1.1

On warfarin 2-3

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15
Q

what vte prophylaxis should be used in pregnancy and why - what about those currently on warfarin for heart valve anticaog

A

LMWH, does not cross placenta and not in breast milk

Warfarin teratogenic

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16
Q

what anticoagulantion is generally used for treatment of an acute venous thrombotic event and why, what are exceptions

A

LMWH or DOAC - faster to work than warfarin

Can use warfarin if problem with renal function - need more monitoring and dose adjustments

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17
Q

what anticoagulation is generally used for short term vte prophylaxis, give some examples of clinical sceanarios

A

LWMH or DOAC eg post surgical prophylaxis, pregnancy (LMWH)

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18
Q

what anticoagulation is generally used for long term vte prophylaxis and why

A

DOAC or warfain

Both oral

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19
Q

list some conditions where warfain is the only anticoag indicated

A

Heart valve vte prophylaxis

AF (sometimes, only if DOAC is problem)

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20
Q

what conditions should you consider when deciding about anticoag

A

Renal function
Age - elderly (caution DOACs)
Cancer (DOACs interact w certain chemos)
Antiphospholipid (DOAC contraindicated)

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21
Q

What is the mode of action of tranexamic acid

A

Antifibrinolytic

Binds to plasminogen and inhibits it so plasmin not secreted = fibrin mesh stays in place and prevents bleeding

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22
Q

What are the adverse effects of aminoglycosides

A

Kidney injury

Hearing changes / loss - can affect cochlear

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23
Q

What group of patients are aminoglycosides contraindicated in

A

Myasthenia gravis

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24
Q

What is a loading dose and why is it used

A

It is a high dose of a drug that is used to build up plasma concentration faster than a lower dose
The ‘steady state’ of a drug - which is when plasma concentration production and elimination are matched, if you aim to reach steady state with low dose it will take a while to get there. If use a higher dose you push the start point up so that you can then use a lower dose later to maintain.
Example - 300 mg aspirin, followed by 75 mg maintenance

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25
Q

what are the contraindications to NSAIDS

A 
GI bleed
Ulcer 
Asthma 
Severe heart failure 
Cerebrovascular event
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26
Q

what should you check with prescribing paracetamol

A

liver function

severe cachexia

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27
Q

what should you check before prescribing nsaids

A 
renal function 
platelets 
any blood thinners
digoxin - dose needs adjusting down 
steroids - increased risk of gi bleed
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28
Q

what is the risk of nsaids during pregnancy

A

first trimester miscarriage

third trimester - closure of ductus arteriosus, risk of pulmonary hypertension

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29
Q

List the common nephrotoxic drugs

A 
ANA
Antihypertensives 
NSAIDs
Aminoglycosides 
(perfusions/ acute tubular necrosis)
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30
Q

Which drugs can cause a metabolic acidosis because of effects on kidney

A

Metformin
Diuretics (reduced bicarb absorption and increase in Cl)
NaCl - raised Cl

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31
Q

List some drugs that can cause electrolyte dysfunction via kidneys and may need dose adjustments

A

(all affect K or Na via action on kidneys)
Trimethoprim - hyperkalaemia
Ampherotericin B - anti fungal
Litium - hyponatraemia
Immunesupression - ciclosporin, tacrolismus
Digoxin - hyperkalaemia

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32
Q

What is the mechanism of NSAIDs, how does this link to the types available to prescribe

A

NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin production via inhibition of COX-1 or COX-2 enzymes that convert aracidonic acid to prostaglandins.
COX-1 pathway involved in homeostasis
COX-2 pathway involved in inflammation
There are NSAIDs that have mixed COX-1 and COX-2 actions, and some selective COX-2 (coxibs) - celecoxib and etoricoxib

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33
Q

what are the common sides effects of NSAIDs and why

A
  1. GI bleed - via effects on COX-1 pathway
  2. Nephrotoxicity - via afferent arteriole vasoconstriction and under perfusion leads to low GFR
  3. HTN - via loss of prostaglandin vasodilation
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34
Q

what are some of the complete contraindications to NSAIDs

A

Previous GI bleed
Severe HF
eGFR <30
Uncontrolled hypertension

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35
Q

what is a life threatening allergy that you should check for before starting any nsaid

A

asthma - can have allergy to nsaid

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36
Q

what are common drug interactions with nsaids

A

digoxin (raised BP)
steroid (immune supression effect?)
other NSAIDs

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37
Q

List some common non-specific NSAIDs

A 
Aspirin 
Ibuprofen 
Mefanamic acid
Diclofenac 
Indometacin 
Naproxen
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38
Q

List some cox-2 specific NSAIDs

A

Coxibs

Celecoxib

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39
Q

What process should you use to consider if a patient is eligible/ should be started on an NSAID

A
  1. Systems contraindications - stomach, kidneys, blood, airways (previous bleed, gfr <30, uncontrolled htn, previous CVD/ PVD, asthma)
  2. Drug contraindications - another nsaid, digoxin, steroid

Then categorise as high, medium, low risk for adverse event

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40
Q

How should you manage high, medium and low risk of adverse event (bleed) when prescribing NSAIDs

A

High risk - cox-2 only plus PPI
Medium risk - cox-2 or nsaid plus ppi
Low risk - nsaid

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41
Q

If somebody has a hx of ischemic hd, cerebrovascular disease, of peripheral vascular disease - how should you prescribe an NSAID

A

There is a risk of HTN and bleeding with a non-selective NSAID
Should have low dose ibruprofen
COX-2 inhibitors and diclofenac are contraindicated in this group

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42
Q

Describe the analgesic ladder

A

Step 1: simple analgesia - paracetamol (check liver function and weight), NSAIDs
Step 2: weak opioids (codeine, dihydrocodeine, tramadol)
Step 3: strong opioids (morphine, oxycodone, diamorphine, bupronorphine)

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43
Q

what should a PRN dose of an opioid be

A

1/6th the total 24 hours dose

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44
Q

How should you work out opioid dose conversions

A

Opioid conversion chart

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45
Q

What is the difference in strength between codeine and morphine

A

morphine is 10x stronger, so need 1/10th of the dose

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46
Q

what are the common side effects of opioids

A 
constipation 
nausea 
sedation 
dry mouth 
sometimes confusion 
sometimes respiratory depression
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47
Q

why is oxycodone preferable to morphine for some people

A

Less side effects

Double the strength of morphine

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48
Q

When filling out a prescription what do you need to ensure

A 
Name of drug 
Suspension - immediate release, modified release, oral etc
strength of tablet - eg 500 mg
total dose - eg 1500 mg TDS
Route - PO, IV, IM etc 
duration - how many days to take 
number of tablets to be dispensed
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49
Q

what do you need to check before prescribing opioids

A

renal function
need dose adjustments if impaired
need low dose and frequency

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50
Q

What antibiotics can be prescribed to breastfeeding mum with UTI

A

Amoxicillin (weak acid so doesn’t accumulate in breastmilk)
Cefalexin
Trimethoprim

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51
Q

What UTI antibiotic is contraindicated in breastfeeding and why

A

Nitrofurantoin - can cause haemolysis

Mechanism of action is DNA damage

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52
Q

Describe the first and second line treatments for type 2 diabetes

A

First line - metformin (need to check renal function, contraindicated if gft <30 and need reduced dose if gfr <45)
Second line - gliptins - DPP-4 inhibitors
Pioglitazone
Sulfonylureas
SGLT-2 inhibitors

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53
Q

What is a normal hba1c level

A

<42
42-46 - prediabetes
>47 - diabetes

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54
Q

What are second and third line treatments for type 2 diabetes

A 
Two hypoglycaemics 
Metformin + second line 
Or 
Two second line
Can then do triple therapy if needed
Then insulin
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55
Q

In what clinical situations is insulin used

A

Type 1 diabetes
Type 2 diabetes- last resort
Pregnancy - gestational diabetes
Hyperkalaemia

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56
Q

rapid onset insulin - how quick does it work and how long

A

10-15 minutes onset

works 3-5 hours

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57
Q

list some of the rapid insulins

A

lispro (Humalog®), aspart (NovoRapid®) and glulisine (Apidra®)

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58
Q

what is the onset and duration of long acting insulin

A

1 hour
24 hours
taken once a day

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59
Q

list some long acting insulins

A

glargine (Lantus®) and detemir (Levemir®).

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60
Q

what is the onset and duration of short acting insulin

A

30 mins

8 hours

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61
Q

what is one of the issues of short acting insulin

A

can cause hypos in between meals

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62
Q

list some short acting insulin

A

Actrapid® and Humulin S®.

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63
Q

what is the onset and duration of intermediate insulin

A

1.5 hrs onset

24 hours duration

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64
Q

what things do you need to discuss with a patient regarding their insulin regimen choice

A

glycaemic control - different regimes have different outcomes with this
flexibility - basal bolus most adaptable but it requires the most input from patient
burden/ patient involvement - one or twice daily regimes are less burdensome but poorer control
How regular are meals
Are days predictable or unpredictable

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65
Q

what are the indications for an insulin pump

A

basal bolus regime not worked - poor glycaemic control

having hypos with multiple injection regime

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66
Q

why should you never omit insulin in a T1 diabetic

A

15 mins of no insulin can be enough to cause DKA

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67
Q

what are some of the indications of IV insulin

A 
DKA, HHS
ACS
Post cardiac event if hyperglycaemia 
Surgery and diabetes 
High/ fluctuation glucose - eg sepsis
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68
Q

what is the traditional fluid regime

A

Saline 0.9% + 20mmol potassium chloride (over 8 hours)
Dextrose 5% + 20mmol potassium chloride (over 8 hours)
Dextrose 5% + 20mmol potassium chloride (over 8 hours)

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69
Q

outline an algorithm for fluid resuscitation/ prescribing / how to chose a regimen

A
  1. Are they hypovolaemic - yes - 500 mls NaCl (or Hartmann’s if vomiting as has K in)
  2. Once normovolaemic - review to identify any existing deficits or ongoing losses - add these to routine maintenance. Do same with electrolytes.
  3. Consider any special circumstances/ redistrubution - HF, Renal failure, sepsis, hyper/ hyponatraemia, refeeding syndrome
  4. Calculate maintenance fluids
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70
Q

How do you calculate maintenance fluids

A 
30 ml/kg 
Or 25 mls/kg if elderly, HF or RF 
Use ideal BW if obese
1 mmol/kg/ day for Na+, K+, Cl-
50-100g glucose a day to prevent starvation ketosis
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71
Q

What needs to be filled in for a fluid prescription

A 
Name of fluid - NaCl 0.9%
Volume - 1000ml
Rate - 8 hours 
Additives - eg K 
Route - IV
72
Q

list some common causes for ongoing losses

A 
drains - any including ng for decompression of bowel 
gi tract - bleed/ diarrhoea
pyrexia 
tachypnea 
sweating 
urinary loss
73
Q

When is adding glucose to fluids contraindicated

A

cerebral event - can make worse?

74
Q

complications of fluid overload

A

pulmonary odema

dilutional hyponatraemia

75
Q

what medical therapy should you give for IV fluid overload

A

Stop intravenous fluids
Furosemide: can be given as a bolus or infusion.
Sublingual nitrate: causes a reduction in preload, the effects of which can be seen within five minutes.
Intravenous nitrate: BP monitoring is essential with this intervention, as hypotension is an indication to stop the infusion.
Continuous positive airway pressure ventilation

76
Q

What rate should blood transfusion be given

A

1.5-2 hours per unit

77
Q

What rate should FFP and platelets transfusion be given

A

30 mins - 1 hr per unit

78
Q

Within what time frame should blood be given after being removed from temp controlled storage

A

4 hours

79
Q

what blood is given in an emergency when patient blood group is not known

A

O negative
O D negative blood (‘Flying squad / Emergency’) - immediate - 5 minutes
Group compatible blood (i.e. same group as patient) - 10 - 15 minutes
Fully crossmatched blood- 30 - 40 minutes (maybe hours if antibody found).

80
Q

can platelets be stored in blood fridge

A

No - causes them to aggregate

81
Q

what is the management of a mild transfusion reaction

A

MANAGEMENT OF A MILD TRANSFUSION REACTION

BSH (2012) recommend if you suspect a mild transfusion reaction:

STOP the transfusion
Seek medical advice immediately
Check it is the correct component for the patient: check blood component laboratory produced label against the patient’s identification band, and with the patient themselves (if possible).
Assess the patient
Treat the signs and symptoms of the mild reaction appropriately. An antipyretic or antihistamine may be required.

Do not use an antihistamine to treat a simple fever. In the event of a mild reaction, the transfusion can usually be restarted after 30 minutes if the patient has responded to symptomatic treatment.

The transfusion should not be restarted if the patient does not respond to treatment or if signs or symptoms worsen.

82
Q

management of a moderate transfusion reaction

A

STOP the transfusion
Seek medical advice immediately
Check is it the correct component for the patient: check laboratory produced label attached to blood component against the patient?s identification band, and with the patient themselves (if possible)
Assess the patient
Bacterial contamination or acute haemolytic transfusion reaction may be considered here.

Treat the signs and symptoms of the moderate reaction appropriately. An antipyretic or antihistamine may be required.

The transfusion might be discontinued, or might be restarted following symptomatic treatment under close supervision, depending on type of reaction indicated.

83
Q

presentation of a moderate transfusion reaction

A

Febrile reactions

A rise in temperature of 2oC or more, or fever 39oC or over and/or rigors, chills, other inflammatory symptoms/signs such as myalgia or nausea which precipitate stopping the transfusion (SHOT 2018)

Allergic reaction

Wheeze or angioedema with or without flushing/urticaria/rash but without respiratory compromise or hypotension (SHOT 2018)

An antipyretic or antihistamine may be required.

The transfusion might be discontinued, or might be restarted following symptomatic treatment under close supervision, depending on type of reaction indicated.

84
Q

presentation of mild transfusion reaction

A

Mild
Defined as a temperature of = 38 oC and a rise between 1 and 2oC from pre-transfusion values, but no other symptoms or signs (BSH, 2012 SHOT 2018).

Allergic reaction

Mild
Transient flushing urticaria or rash (SHOT 2018)

Remember - do not use an antihistamine to treat a simple fever.

85
Q

management of severe transfusion reaction

A

STOP the transfusion
Call the doctor to see the patient urgently
Check compatibility of unit: check the details on the component against the patient’s identification band, and with the patient themselves (if possible).
Assess the patient

Management (under medical direction)
Replace the administration set and preserve IV access with normal saline to maintain systolic BP
Assess the patient
Check urine for signs of haemoglobinuria
Commence appropriate treatment; Maintain airway and give high flow Oxygen. If appropriate administer adrenaline and/or diuretic and resuscitate if/as required.
Reassess patient and treat appropriately - Seek expert advice if patient’s condition continues to deteriorate.

86
Q

what is haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

This is a rare type of transfusion reaction usually seen in patients who have developed red cell antibodies in the past from transfusion or pregnancy. A combination of the features occurs days after the transfusion, suggesting that the red cells are being destroyed abnormally quickly.

Signs and symptoms include:

Fever
Falling haemoglobin or a rise in Hb less than expected
Jaundice
Haemoglobinuria.

87
Q

explain how insulin dosing is calculation

A
  1. BW calculation - 0.5 x bw if normal adult, 0.3 x bw if new TIDM, elderly, frail, any co-morbidities
  2. 6 hourly insulin dose on VRIII divided by 6 = hourly dose, x20 (not 24 bc of risk of hypo)
88
Q

explain how total insulin dose is distributed throughout the day

A

If on twice daily injections - 60% AM, 40% PM

If on basal bolus - 50% background, remaining split 3 ways AM meal, lunch, and PM meal

89
Q

what is the max paracetamol dose a day

A

If over 50g - 4g in 24 hours

90
Q

how many hours should always be given between paracetamol administration, regardless of the dose

A

4 hours

91
Q

Do overweight patients need higher paracetamol doses

A

No

92
Q

What patient group is diclofenac contraindicated in

A

Cardiovascular/ cerebrovascular disease

Anybody with ischemic HD, cerebrovascular, peripheral vascular disease

93
Q

What NSAID can be used in patients with cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease

A

Low dose ibuprofen only (<1200 mg per day)

94
Q

which nsaids have the lowest gi risk amongst nsaids

A

ibuprofen and etoricoxib

95
Q

which nsaids have the highest gi risk amongst nsaids

A

aspirin and ketoralac

96
Q

which nsaids have intermediate gi risk amongst nsaids

A

diclofenac and naproxen

97
Q

what factors should you consider to prescribe nsaids safety

A 
cardiovascular risk factors/ events 
ulcer/ bleeding risk 
asthma 
ckd 
blood thinners - never with warfarin 
severe liver disease
98
Q

what is the difference in potency of codeine and dihydrocodeine

A

same potency orally

iv - dihydrocodeine is twice as potent

99
Q

how do you convert tramadol to morphine

A

you cant
its conversion is not very reliable
have to consult pain team

100
Q

how is morphine usually initially prescribed

A 
immediate release (if dont have prn) - to calculate daily requirement, and then modified release when you know this
prn only used for cancer pain
101
Q

how is morphine usually prescribed for cancer pain

A

modified release plus prn

102
Q

how should prn morphine dosing be prescribed

A

As the dose of the scheduled opioid is increased, the dose for breakthrough pain should be increased to maintain the dose as a percentage of the total daily dose.

103
Q

what should always be prescribed with morphine when administered via pca

A

naloxone

104
Q

what are the long term effects of opiates

A

immune suppression

addiction

105
Q

what should you always check before prescribing codeine

A

if the patient is taking codeine from any other sources/ any other over the counter medicines

106
Q

what is first line management of neuropathic pain

A

antidepressant or antiepileptic drug as first-line non-specialist treatment, either alone or in combination together with non-pharmacological management such as surgical treatment and psychological interventions.

107
Q

second line management for neuropathic pain

A

alternative first line

108
Q

what is adjuvant analgesia

A

Drugs with other indications that may be analgesic in specific circumstances. Some are licensed for specific analgesia, eg neuropathic pain

109
Q

what two analgesics can cause serotinergic syndrome

A

tramadol and amitriptyline

110
Q

contraindications to warfarin

A

Hypersensitivity
Haemorrhagic stroke
Clinically significant bleeding
Pregnancy (especially during the first and third trimester)
Severe liver disease
Severe renal impairment
Within 72 hours of major surgery, with severe risk of bleeding
Concomitant drug treatments where interactions may lead to a significantly increased risk of bleeding
Within 48 hours postpartum

111
Q

what factors can increase sensitivity to warfarin

A
  • Age over 70-years-old (especially those over 80-years)
  • Drug interactions (e.g. amiodarone)
  • Hepatic impairment (baseline INR > 1.4)
  • Severe cardiac failure
  • Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)
  • Low albumin levels
  • Low Body Mass Index (BMI)
112
Q

what must you check before prescribing warfarin

A

What is the indication for treatment?
Do they need rapid or slow loading?
Are there any factors that would increase the patient’s sensitivity to warfarin?

A blood test to check their baseline INR.
The indication for anticoagulation and target INR documented in their medical/patient notes.
Their allergy status confirmed.

113
Q

what book do people on anticoagulants have

A

yellow book

114
Q

what factors increase sensitivity to warfarin

A 
Age over 70-years-old (especially those over 80-years)
Drug interactions (e.g. amiodarone)
Hepatic impairment (baseline INR > 1.4)
Severe cardiac failure
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) 
Low albumin levels
Low Body Mass Index (BMI)
115
Q

what is the onset and half life of DOACs, what is the clinical relevance of this

A

Onset 1-4 hours
half life - 14 hours
It means that any bleeding caused by them should stop after 24 hrs (i.e. you may not see deranged clotting if its 24hrs after event)

116
Q

How are DOACs metabolised and excreted

A

All have varying liver metabolism and renal excretion

Dabigatran does not use CYP450

117
Q

what are the indications for DOACs

A

VTE prophylaxis post knee and hip surgery
Treatment of DVT and PE
Stroke and emoblic event prevention in non-valvular AF, with one or more RFs

118
Q

what are the indications for apixaban

A

vte prophylaxis knee and hip replacement
stroke and emboli prophylaxis non valvular AF
treatment of dvt and pe
prevention of recurrent dvt / pe

119
Q

what factors affect the dose used for apixaban

A

age
weight
renal function

120
Q

what factors indicate a dose reduction for apixaban

A

Age ≥ 80-years
Body weight ≤ 60 kg
Serum creatinine ≥ 133 micromol/litre

121
Q

can doacs ever be prescribed with another anticoagulant

A

no

unless its to provide cover whilst switching to warfarin and waiting for inr to come into range

122
Q

what are some drug contraindications with apixaban

A

caution/ dont use with other blood thinners - antiplatelets, nsaids, ssri’s, snri’s
should not be used alongside antifungals or hiv meds

123
Q

what is the advise with missed apixaban dose

A

Advise patients who miss a dose to take the apixaban immediately and then continue with twice daily intake as before

124
Q

which doac is most affected by renal impairment

A

dabigatran
because it is mostly renally excreted
CI when crcl <30

125
Q

which doac can be prescribed alongside aspirin or aspirin plus clopidagrel (or other antiplatelet)

A

rivaoxaban

can be co-prescribed with antiplatelet in high risk angina and post acs (mi)

126
Q

when should doacs be stopped and re-started perioperatively

A

can be stopped on day of surgery (i.e. last dose 24 hrs before surgery)
if low risk surgery can be re-started 6 hours post op
if high risk surgery more likely 48 hours - if high thrombosis risk LMWH prophylactic dose may be used before restarting doac

127
Q

when should warfarin be stopped and re-started perioperatively

A

stopped 4-5 days before
can give lmwh if needed (high thombosis risk - give last dose d-1)
start lmwh 6-8 hrs post op (depending on bleeding risk and surgery done)
warfarin can be re-started d+1

128
Q

does lmwh affect aptt

A

no - lmwh activity must be monitored by antiXa assay

only unfractioned heparin does

129
Q

can lmwh cross placenta

A

no

130
Q

list some of the contraindications to lmwh

A 
Acute bacterial endocarditis
Active bleeding
Bleeding disorders (e.g. haemophilia)
Hypersensitivity
Severe hypertension
Significant risk of bleeding (e.g. major trauma, peptic ulcer, recent brain/spine/ophthalmic surgery, recent intracranial haemorrhage)
Spinal/epidural anaesthesia with treatment doses
Thrombocytopenia
131
Q

cautions for lmwh

A 
Breastfeeding mothers (amount passed into breast milk and absorbed by the infant is thought to be negligible but manufacturers advise avoid)
Concomitant drug treatments where an interaction may lead to a significantly increased risk of bleeding
Hyperkalaemia
Older adults
Patients with low body weight
Renal dysfunction
Severe liver disease
Severe renal impairment
132
Q

what drugs should lmwh NOT be prescribed with

A 
another anticoagulant (unless loading period for warfarin)
LMWH should not be administered with NSAIDs, since this increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
LMWH can increase potassium, therefore administration with a drug/drug class that also increases potassium could put the patient at risk of hyperkalaemia (e.g. ACE inhibitors). If prescribed together, urea and electrolytes should be monitored regularly.
133
Q

what bl blood tests should you do before starting lmwh and why

A

Weight
FBC - platelets
U&E - renally excreted need baseline, can cause a hyperkalaemia
LFT - baseline, may need to switch if worsens
Anti-factor Xa - routine monitoring not required unless patient more high risk (eg renal failure, pregnancy)

134
Q

what steps help reduce errors when prescribing lmwh’s

A

Know Weight and renal function.

  1. Weigh the patient at the start of therapy, and during treatment where applicable.
  2. Record the patient’s weight (in kg) accurately on the inpatient drug chart (when in use) and in the medical records.
  3. Calculate the treatment dose based on the patient’s weight (kg).
  4. Check the renal function and adjust doses accordingly.
135
Q

how is weight taken in a pregnant patient starting lmwh

A

weight taken from early pregnancy as reference

136
Q

for anticoagulants should you take the patients actual or ideal body weight

A

actual

137
Q

what is the antedote to dabigatran

A

Idarucizumab

138
Q

what is the antedote to apixaban

A

Andexanet alfa

139
Q

what should you do if you ever see two doacs co-prescribed

A

take one off

should never be co-prescribed

140
Q

when should the aptt ratio be checked after starting unfractioned heparin

A

4-6 hours

141
Q

what is the mechanism of cerebral odema in dka

A

hyperosmolar state in dka promotes brain to produce osmolites to prevent dehydration (if didnt do this water would be pulled from intracellular space into intravascular space)
if give insulin and fluid correct at same time, the blood osmolality falls which means water is rapidly drawn into brain cells and odema can occur.
This is why fluids are given for 1 hour before insulin is given. So that the osmolarity of the blood can corrected slowly without fluid shift.

142
Q

when should antiplatelets be stopped before surgery

A

1 week

143
Q

which drugs interavt with G6PD deficience

A

Anti-malarials (e.g. primaquine and chloroquine)
Nitrofurantoin
Quinolone antimicrobials (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
Rasburicase
Sulphonamides (e.g. co-trimoxazole)

144
Q

what antihypertensive should be cautioned with statins and why

A

statins are cp450 inhibitors
CCBs, amlodipine and diltiazem can accumulate and then cause a rhabdomyolisis
Statins should not be prescribed above 20mg in this group

145
Q

symptoms of anaphylaxis

A 
Itching
Urticaria
Hypotension
Angioedema
Wheeze
146
Q

which antihypertensives can cause angioodema

A

ACE inhibitors

147
Q

list some non allergic drug reactions

A

Morbilliform rash
Erythema multiforme
Fixed drug eruptions
Photosensitivity

148
Q

what is a fixed drug eruption

A

Fixed drug eruptions are erythematous plaques that recur in the same place each time the causative drug is taken. Causes include paracetamol, tetracyclines and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

149
Q

what is erythema multiforme

A

Erythema multiforme may arise secondary to infection or drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin and statins. It can rarely progress to Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and the potentially fatal Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN).

150
Q

whats the difference between hives and erythema multiforme

A

hives move in hours

em fixed

151
Q

which commonly prescribed drugs have histamine releasing properties

A

NSAIDS
analgesics
(so if someone gets urticaria or allergy prone may be likely to have reaction to these)
neuromuscular blockers

152
Q

if someone is allergic to plasters what should happen with surgical management

A

not use latex gloves

153
Q

if someone has a suspected allergy how should you give a drug

A

slowly
with steroids and antihistamines if needed
with anaphylaxis agents there if needed

154
Q

how should mild-moderate and severe anaphylaxis be treated

A

mild-moderate - antihistamines (10mg) / steroids (200 mg)

severe - oxygen and im adrenaline (500 mcg)

155
Q

why should IV adrenaline not be given in anaphylaxis

A

because it can cause life threatening arrhythmias

156
Q

what should you do if you give im adrenaline and no response with anaphylaxis

A

repeat after 5mins

157
Q

what should you do after someone has anaphylaxis

A

Prescribe prednisolone for up to 3 days.
Prescribe a non-sedating antihistamine for up to 3 days (adhere to your Trust formulary).
Issue or recommend a medical alert band if re-exposure is possible.
Ensure the allergy is documented in the medical notes and on the drug chart (electronic or paper-based system).
Communicate information to the general practitioner.
Warn the patient if the drug or related drugs are found in medicines available over-the-counter (e.g. salicylates/acetylsalicylates in patients who have reacted to an NSAID). Advise they check with a pharmacist prior to self-medicating with over-the-counter medicines.
Provide structured written information to the patient.
Prescribe two adrenaline auto-injectors for self-administration only when there is a significant risk of re-exposure.
Report the adverse drug reaction to the yellow card scheme.

158
Q

how should you investigate analphyalxis

A

bloods - mast cell tryptase asap, second bloods at 2 hours (not longer than 4 hrs)

159
Q

when assessing a ?analphylaxis what method should you use

A

how fast is it evolving - rapid/ slow/ static

systemic features - breathing, n&v, tachy, drowsy

160
Q

how long should you observe someone with anaphylaxis

A

6-12 hours

161
Q

where should all anaphylaxis be referred to

A

special allergy service

162
Q

when is mast cell typtase useful

A

A mast cell tryptase level is of no help if the patient has had the cardinal signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction but is of use in suspected reactions during anaesthesia (e.g. to differentiate hypotension caused by allergy from that caused by direct action of drugs). In such cases, samples should be taken immediately after the patient has been stabilised, at 1-2 hours and 24 hours if possible.

163
Q

what information should you give to a patient who has had an allergy

A

To avoid any known triggers for allergic reactions.
To avoid any cross-reacting drug classes where necessary.
How to use the adrenaline auto-injector if issued.
To purchase an alert bracelet or similar if necessary.

164
Q

should you report anapylaxis via yellow card

A

yes - if resulted in shock or hospitalisation

165
Q

how does carbamazepine effect the pill

A

makes it less effective

because its a cp450 inducer

166
Q

what antiepileptic drug can cause thrombocytopenia

A

sodium valproate

167
Q

list some general considerations when prescribing for patients with liver disease

A

Monitor LFTs, albumin, pro thrombin time and bilirubin at baseline and at regular intervals throughout treatment with drug treatments known to cause hepatotoxicity.

Monitor drug concentration where possible, to avoid toxicity which can cause liver injury.

Avoid drug-drug interactions which may increase the risk of liver injury.

Drugs that are dependent on the liver for metabolism are likely to need dose reduction.

Drugs that increase the risk of bleeding should be avoided, or used with caution in hepatic dysfunction.

Prescribe drugs that might exacerbate or precipitate the adverse effects of liver disease cautiously.

168
Q

what medicines are contraindicated with COCP and POP

A

Enzyme inducers:
Rifampicin
Anti-epileptic drugs - carbamazepine, phenytoin
St johns wort

169
Q

which anti epileptic drug is not an enzyme inducer

A

Lamotrigine

170
Q

what factors affect whether a woman can be put on COCP

A 
VTE risk (caution, 1RF, no 2RF)
Arterial clot risk  (HTN, CVD risk etc, caution 1 RF, no 2RF)
Cancer - currently or in past 5 years 
Enzyme inducers 
Liver problems
171
Q

which patients is the POP pill useful for

A

Those with VTE risk

172
Q

what is an absolute contraindication to the COCP

A

Migraine with aura

173
Q

what medicines can be used for emergency contraception

A 
Levonorgesterel (if within 72 hours)
Ella one (if within 5 days, but not if high BMI)
174
Q

what do you need to prescribe if inserting a IUCD

A

Antibiotics - erythromycin

175
Q

what are the drug names for common COCP and POP

A

COCP - ethinylestradiol + desogesterel / noresthisterone

POP - levogesterel

176
Q

what drugs need to be cautioned/ stopped with macrolides

A

Any long QT drugs - eg AEDs (carbamazepine)
Warfarin
Statin (stop simvastatin, lower atorvastatin, can use fluvastatin)
CCB
Any drugs that prolong QT
Any drugs that cause low K
Theophylline

177
Q

what is the name of vitamin K to reverse warfarin

A

phytomenadione

Phase 3b (13 decks)

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