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Phase 3b > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

1
Q

What are the positive acute phase reactants

A

CRP, ferritin, fibrinogen, hepcinin, amyloid A

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2
Q

What are the negative acute phase reactants

A

Albumin, transferrin, antithrombin

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3
Q

What is iron with holding - when would you see it

A

Acute infection
Drop in transferrin (prevent bacteria getting iron - they can scavenge from transferrin and macrophages)
Rise in ferritin because of fall in transferrin
Rise in hepcidin - causes reduced uptake of iron from gut and release of iron from cells (hepcidin regulates ferroportin)
Over long time this mechanism causes anaemia bc iron isnt absorbed, moved out of cells or transported

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4
Q

What needs to be checked when starting a pt on a macrolide

A

LFTs and stop statin

macrolides are P450 inhibitors

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5
Q

What is CURB 65

A 
Confusion 
Urea >7
Respiratory rate >30
BP <90 / 60
>65
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6
Q

What is the management of CAP based on curb65 score

A

0-1 consider home management
2 consider admission / closer home monitoring
3 admit

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7
Q

What is the antibiotic management based on curb 65

A

0-2 PO amox plus/ or clarithyromycin ; 2nd line PO doxcy or levofloxacin
3-5 IV amox plus/ or IV clarithyromycin
If legionella pneumophila
1st line: PO/IV Levofloxacin or Clarithromycin

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8
Q

Complications of pneumonia

A 
ARDS 
Pneumothorax
Emphyema 
Pleural effusion 
PE
Lung abscess
Sepsis
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9
Q

Common and atypical pathogens for CAP

A

Strep pneumoniae

atypical - mycoplasma pneumoniae, legionella, chlamydia pneumoniae

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10
Q

Criteria for hospital acquired pneumonia

A

> 48 hours after hospital admission
pseduomonas more likely organism
klebsiella
bacteroides

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11
Q

Investigations for pneumonia

A

Sputum culture and PCR

Urinalysis for legionella antigens

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12
Q

What is the criteria for ARDS

A

CXR - bilateral infiltrates (normal heart size)
Acute onset (1 week)
Refractory hypoxaemia
Pulmonary wedge pressure <19 mmHg

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13
Q

What are red flags for ARDS

A

Diffuse fine crackles, non cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (on XR)

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14
Q

What is the main differential for ARDS

A

Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (HF)

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15
Q

Features of HF on an XRay

A 
A - alveolar odema 
B - Kerley B lines
C - cardiomegaly 
D - dilated prominent upper lobe veins 
E - pleural effusions
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16
Q

What is an important consideration when considering whether NIV is appropriate for a pts

A

Secretions
Consciousness
Severe hypoxaemia

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17
Q

What are absolute contraindications to NIV

A

Facial burns/ trauma
Vomiting
Fixed obstruction upper airway
Recent facial upper airway surgery

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18
Q

what are the different levels of oxygen therapy and indications

A

Nasal cannula - 24-50% o2
Simple mask - 24-60% o2
Venturi mask - 24 - 60% o2 - COPD when need to know specificially what FiO2 being delivered
Non-rebreather + bag - 60-80% O2

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19
Q

What considerations should you think of before starting oxygen therapy

A

Acutely unwell - non rebreather + bag to get highest oxygen delivered
Risk of type 2 respiratory failure (COPD) - venturi lowest 28% - 4 L O2 until ABG results

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20
Q

What are the indications for noninvasive ventilation

A

Type 1 or 2 RF

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21
Q

If a patient has a NEWS of >3 what should you do

A

Sepsis screening tool ASAP

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22
Q

What size is petechiae

A

<3mm

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23
Q

What is the first step of management in suspected meningitis

A

IV ceftriaxone

Other investigations shouldnt delay giving antibiotics

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24
Q

What is the management of suspected meningitis

A

IV Ceftriaxone 2-4g daily, dose at the higher end of the recommended range used in severe cases.
Abx should be given within 1 hour

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25
Q

Symptoms of meningitis

A

Headache
Photophobia
Neck stiffness
N/ V

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26
Q

What type of antibiotics if ceftriaxone

A

Cephalosporin

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27
Q

What is the overlap of penicillin and cephalosporin allergies

A

Both beta lactams
0.5-6.5% of patients with penicillin allergy will also be allergic to other Beta-Lactams such as cephalosporins.

For this reason, patients with only a mild penicillin allergy (not anaphylaxis) should be given cephalosporins and be monitored closely for any drug reactions.

For patients with anaphylaxis to penicillin suspected of having acute bacterial meningitis, empirical guidelines state they should be given chloramphenicol 25mg/kg 6 hourly.

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28
Q

When should you do a lumbar puncture in suspected meningitis

A

Patient not in shock
In patients with suspected meningitis (with no signs of shock or severe sepsis) LP should ideally be performed within 1hr of admission to hospital. Treatment should be commenced immediatly after the LP. If delays to LP are anticipated this should not delay treatment which should be given straight after blood cultures and within the hour.

In patients who are unstable with rapidly evolving sepsis &/or rash, LP should not be performed at this time. Treatment should be given immediatly.

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29
Q

What bloods would you request for an unstable patient with suspected meningitis

A

full blood count, C-reactive protein, coagulation screen, blood cultures, meningococcal PCR and blood glucose

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30
Q

How do you determine if it is safe to do an LP

A 
CT head if:
- Focal neurological signs
- Presence of papilloedema
- Continuous or uncontrolled seizures
- GCS <12
Lumbar puncture should not be performed in those with an uncorrected coagulopathy or those with evidence of skin infection near the site of the lumbar puncture.
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31
Q

What are the commonest causes of meningitis in adults

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria meningitidis

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32
Q

What should you consider in patients over 65 with suspected meningitis

A

Listeria

Include amoxicillin in treatment

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33
Q

What is the treatment for viral meningitis

A

Viral meningitis does not require antibiotics however antibiotic treatment may be commenced initially in an unwell patient until bacterial causes have been fully excluded. Treatment of viral meningitis is often supportive requiring analgesia, fluids & rest. If herpes simplex virus is isolated the patient may require a course of aciclovir.
Usually self resolving in 10-14 days

34
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis

A

Viral

Causative organisms include enteroviruses, herpes simplex virus, varicella zoster virus and mumps.

35
Q

What should be given to close contacts of those with bacterial meningitis

A

500 mg ciprofloxacin oral single dose

36
Q

How would you determine if someone should get prophylaxis treatment for bacterial meningitis

A
  1. People who have had prolonged close contact with the case in a household-type setting during the 7 days before onset of illness (for example, people who are living or sleeping in the same household, pupils in the same dormitory, boy/girlfriends, or university students sharing a kitchen in a hall of residence).
  2. People who have had transient close contact with a case only if they have been directly exposed to large particle droplets/secretions from the respiratory tract of a case around the time of admission to hospital.
37
Q

Is bacterial meningitis a notifiable disease

A

Yes - tell PHE

38
Q

Difference between pneumonitis and pneumonia

A

Pneumonia localised area of lung inflammation

Pneumonitis entire lung inflammed

39
Q

Common causes for deterioration in covid

A

Pneumonitis progressing to ARDS
PE/ VTE
Secondary bacterial pneumonia
Myocarditis

40
Q

What blood borne infection/s test should you do for any patient with CAP

A

HIV, Hep B, Hep C

41
Q

What blood results would make you suspicious of HIV

A

Raised protein

Low WBC

42
Q

List some AIDs defining diseases that you would do a HIV test for

A 
Non hodgkins lymphoma (T cells)
Pneumocystis (fungal infection)
Glandular fever 
TB
Cervical cancer
Toxoplasmosis 
Primary CNS lymphoma 
Kaposi sarcoma
43
Q

List some clinical sceanarios where you should consider a HIV test

A 
Any recurrent and unexplained disease
Unexplained enlarged lymph node 
Weight loss 
Recurrent skin infections/ rashes
Oral candida 
Unexplained B symptoms - fatigue etc
Recurrent pneumonia 
Recurrent diarrhoea 
Dementia
44
Q

What CD4 count represents AIDS

A

<200

45
Q

What is the management of HIV - how do the drugs work and what problems are associated

A

Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
Work by inhibiting reverse transcription of the virus
Problems: viral resistance
Should push virus to undetectable level

46
Q

What is the vertical transmission rate of HIV in pregnant women

A

20-40 %
In utero, labour, breastmilk
Main transmission risks are labour (blood to blood and mucous membrane contact, high viral load in breast milk)

47
Q

What is the transmission rate of HIV sexually

A

Receptive anal sex 0.1-3%
Receptive vaginal 0.1
*receptive risk greater than insertive
Insertive 0.03-0.01

48
Q

What prevention methods are there for HIV

A

PrEP - pre-exposure prophylaxis (contraceptive pill)
PEP - post exposure prophylaxis (morning after pill - must take within 72 hrs for 1 month - 28 days)
condoms

49
Q

How is HIV transmitted

A

Blood contact
Sexual contact through mucous membranes
Vertical - blood, genital tract, breast milk

50
Q

What are the clinical features of HIV

A 
Unexplained enlarged lymph nodes 
Flu like symptoms - malaise
Oral thrush 
Recurrent unexplained fever 
Unexplained weight loss
Recurrent opportunistic infections (viral, particularly VZV and CMV), bacterial - pneumonia 
Immuno compromised tumours - cervical, NHLymphoma, kaposi's sarcoma, CNS lymphoma (primary), recurrent diarrhoea 
Recurrent flu like symptoms
51
Q

List some AIDS defining illnesses

A 
Oral thrush 
Any fungal infection in an organ 
NHL 
Kaposis sarcoma 
TB
Toxoplasmosis 
Cervical canver 
Primary CNS lymphoma
52
Q

What is an important differential for HIV

A

Secondary syphilis

53
Q

When can you test for HIV

A

early test from 2 weeks post contact but risk of false negative - if so, repeat in 4 weeks
Ideally anytime from 6 weeks
Seroconvert around 2 months - this is when you would get primary illness

54
Q

What is HIV primary illness, what causes it

A

Seroconversion - when immune system kicks it to target HIV - flu like/ glandular fever

55
Q

Explain the pathophys of HIV

A

Virus - enters through mucous membranes or blood to blood
Has gp 120 protein on it which is same as CD4/ Antigen presenting cells so taken in bc body recognises it
Predominantly enters CD4 cells, but also some antigen presenting cells
It then reverse transcribes RNA to DNA and puts this in cells DNA - the cells then makes more virus protein which is released into blood
First couple of month - immune system responds and kills infected cells (CD8 response) - virus count depletes
Then move into latent stage where virus and immuno system co-exist, but pt grdually becomes more immune compromised as viral load is slowly increasing
Eventually load becomes so high that cd4 count is too low for any sufficient immune response (<200) - AIDS

56
Q

What is the role of CD4 cells

A

Support CD8 cytotoxic effects (T1)
Activate macrophages
Activate B cells - humoural response (antibody production)
Eventually HIV depletes functional cd4 count to the point where the body has no humoral response (no antibodies can be make in response to infection) and any cd8 response is too weak without cd4 support, the innate immune system is also compromised without cd4 support as part of innate inflammatory response
Also modulate NKC - so get less immune surveillance

57
Q

What blood tests can be helpful for considering HIV

A

FBC - low white cell count
LFT - raised total protein (IgM chucked out by immune system as can detect virus but struggling to develop effective IgG as virus keeps mutating)

58
Q

Explain the different hep b tests you can do and what they mean

A

Hep B core antibody (always positive in anybody infected with hep b)
Hep b surface antibody - present in those who mounted an adequate immune response
Hep b surface antigen - present in those who have active viral replication

59
Q

What organ does hep b target, what is the difference in response between adults and children

A

Liver
Children - 90% cant clear and develop chronicity
Adults - 90% clear and dont develop chronicity

60
Q

Explain what conditions are associated with what falling cd4 levels

A

> 500 : more of common bacterial and viral infections, eg pharyngitis, sinusitis, TB
200-500 : recurrent bacterial infections when wouldn’t expect this, eg pneumonia, atypical viral infections VZV pneumonia
<200 : fungal infections, PJP, disseminated TB
<100 : fungal infections, aspergillus pneumonia, CMV pneumonia

61
Q

what blood results would you see in DIC

A 
Clotting:
Low platelets 
High fibrinogen 
High d-dimer 
Bleeding:
Raised (long) prothrombin time
Raised (long) aptt time
62
Q

what are cytokines

A

peptides that immune cells communicate with

eg alpha-TNF, interferons, interleukins

63
Q

what is the pathophys of sepsis

A

innate immune system - massive vasodilation in response to pathogen
endothelium activation - leaky as part of immune response
coagulation cascade activation - part of endothelium activation
= reduced perfusion = increase in tissue co2 and reduced oxygen
Initially warn shock with vasodilation stage then get surge in catecholamines to shunt blood to vital organs - cold shock

64
Q

differentials for sepsis

A

thyroid storm
neuroleptic malignant syndrome
sertionergic syndrome
massive pulmonary embolus

65
Q

outline the management of a patient news-ing >3

A

sepsis screening tool

66
Q

how would you manage a patient with suspected sepsis

A

news score >3 - sepsis screen

67
Q

what clinical features do you need for diagnosis of SIRS

A

two of:
Temperature >38°C or <36°C
Tachycardia: >90 beats per minute
Tachypnoea: >20 breaths per minute) or PCO2 <4.3kPa
WCC >12 or <4 (or >10% immature (band) forms)

68
Q

what is septic shock

A

lactate >2 despite adequate fluid resus

pt requires vasopressors to maintain MAP >65 mmHg

69
Q

sepsis symptoms

A 
Drowsiness
Confusion
Dizziness
Malaise
Localising symptoms of infection (e.g. productive cough, vomiting, diarrhoea, dysuria etc.)
70
Q

sepsis signs

A 
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Tachypnoea
Cyanosis
Fever/hypothermia
Reduced urine output
Rash
Mottled/ashen appearance
71
Q

what is part of the sepsis 6 care bundle

A 
Give high flow oxygen (monitor oxygen saturations – aim for SaO2 over 94%)
Take blood cultures 
Measure lactate levels
Give IV antibiotics
Give IV fluids
Monitor urine output
pair as take 3, give 3 
Take cultures, give IV abx
Take lactate, give oxygen 
Take urine, give fluids
CUL (cultures, urine, lactate)
72
Q

Outline an approach for managing a patient with sepsis

A 
ABCDE 
History - infection source focused
Lungs (most common) - cough, SOB, pain, 
GI - diarrhoea, vomitting, abdo pain 
Pancreas - back pain 
GU - flank pain, UTI, dyuria 
Neuro - headache, photophobia, GCS 
Skin - lesions, ulcers?
MSK - joint pain, trauma
Travel? Contact with anyone sick? Animals/ pets?
PMHx - diabetes?, immuno suppressed? Meds - any that would immuno supress? Cancer? weight loss? past/ recent surgery?
Exam:
Respiratory - crackles? Fluid?
Heart - murmurs? 
GI/ GU - peritonitis, flank pain, supra pubic pain, jaundice, hepatomegaly 
Skin - ulcerations/ breaks?, rash
Investigations:
All bloods, cultures, CRP, lactate, glucose, ABG, clotting 
ECG 
CXR 
?echo, invex organ focused
73
Q

Outline ABCDE approach for septic patient

A

Airway - can patient talk, any signs of airway compromise, can you see chest movement, obstruction in airway - consider calling anaesthetist if sign of airway compromise, Basic airway manoevers - head tilt, chin lift, jaw thrust, nasopharyngeal airway, or guedel airway

Breathing - see-saw, kaussmaul, tachynpnea, oxygen sats, percussion (dull, hyperrosonate?), expansion, auscultate (reduced air entry, absent sounds)
Intervention - high flow oxygen - non-rebreather
Request ?CXR, ABG

Circulation - BP, CRP, pulse (bounding/ irregular), temp, fluid output (oligouria hypoperfusion of kidneys)
Feel peripheries, JVP
Auscultate - murmur, muffled / pericardial rub (pericarditis)
IV access and fluids
ECG
Full bloods

Disability - GCS (eyes, motor, verbal), drug chart (opioids, sedatives, anxiolytics, antihypertensives), blood glucose

Exposure - rashes, wound, surgical site incisions, source of infection

74
Q

what investigations should you consider in addition to sepsis 6

A

All bloods - plus CRP, lactate , clotting, blood sugar, ABG
CXR
ECG
Invex focused at particular source of infection, MRI, echo etc

75
Q

what antibiotics should you give straight away for meningitis in an adults

A

IV ceftriaxone 2-4 g

76
Q

what should you give instead of ceftriaxone if patient has an allergy

A

chloramphenicol 25mg/kg 6 hourly.

77
Q

list some non infective causes of gastroenteritis

A

Inflammatory causes (Inflammatory bowel disease, diverticular disease)
Loss of absorptive area (coeliac, small bowel resection, tropical sprue)
Pancreatic disease
Drugs (e.g. antibiotics, magnesium, digoxin)
Colon cancer
Systemic disease (thyrotoxicosis, uraemia, carcinoid)
Others: IBS, gastrectomy, HIV (diarrhoea for >2 weeks in the absence of a clear cause should prompt HIV testing!)

78
Q

what is the main treatment of gastroenteritis

A

supportive - IV fluids, manage electrolytes

79
Q

risk factors for cellulitis

A 
Immunodeficiency
Underlying skin conditions (e.g. eczema &amp; athletes foot)
Lymphoedema
Chronic venous insufficiency
Wounds and injuries
Obesity
diabetes
80
Q

what are the most common causes of cellulitis (pathogens)

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Beta-haemolytic streptococcus

81
Q

what is the main differential for cellulitis

A

necrotising fascitis

Phase 3b (13 decks)

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