Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3b > HAEMATOLOGY > Flashcards

HAEMATOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of anaemia

A

Low haemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Interpreting FBC

A

Hb, White cell, platelets

MCV - clue of cause of anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you classify anaemia

A

Size of red cells

Microcytic - iron deficiency (95% of microcytic caused by this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you classify anaemia

A

Size of red cells
Microcytic - iron deficiency (95% of microcytic caused by this)
Macrocytic - B12/ folate deficiency
Normocytic - blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Macrocytosis without anaemia causes

A

Liver disease
Hyperthryroid
Excess alcohol use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sickle cell anaemia

A

Autosomal recessive

Single point mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Key feature of sickle cell

A

Painful vaso occlusive crises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Triggers for sickle cell crises

A

Infection
Cold weather
Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What would you see on a smear for sickle cell

A

Target cells

erythroblasts - dont usually see these in normal population represent high turnover in marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is myelodysplasia

A

disease of elderly
pre-malignant condition
bone marrow not working properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is lymphoma

A

malignancy of lymphocytes in lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

symptoms of hodgkins lymphoma

A

B symptoms

painless lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

types of non -hodgkins lymphoma

A

high (acute/ progress rapidly, but curable) or low grade (slow progression but incurable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

symptoms of hodgkins lymphoma

A

B symptoms
painless lymphadenopathy
4 sub types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is myeloma

A

proliferation of plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

causes of thrombocytosis

A

bleeding, malignancy, inflammation, infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

warfarin

A

slow on and off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

test for haemophillia

A

factor 8 and 9

APTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

treatment of pernicious anaemia with hb very low

A

still dont transfuse as will have acquired deficiency slowly over time, if transfuse quickly can tip into heart failure (if elderly and features of hf)

20
Q

neurological manifestations of folate

A

none

21
Q

blood components from one donation

A

red cells
platelets
fresh frozen plasma
cryprecipitate (used to replace fibringogen)

22
Q

complications of blood transfusions

A 
fluid overload
viral infection 
bacterial infection
incompatibility reaction 
iron overload
23
Q

risk factors for vte

A 
surgery 
obesity 
immobility
cancer 
cocp
pregnancy
24
Q

treatment for pe

A

rivaroxiban for 3 months
15 mg for 3 weeks then 20 mg for remainder
different dose after 3 weeks

25
Q

treatment for pe

A 
rivaroxiban for 3 months
15 mg for 3 weeks then 20 mg for remainder 
different dose after 3 weeks
provoked 3 months 
unprovoked 6 months
26
Q

what is the action of tranexamic acid

A

Anti-fibrinolytic

Stops (prevents) the breakdown of clots

27
Q

what is a direct and indirect coombs test

What is an indirect coombs test used for

A

Direct tests for antibody on RBC surface

Indirect tests for antibodies in blood, this one is used to diagnose reactions to blood transfusion.

28
Q

What is the response to protamine sulphate by

1) heparin
2) LMWH
3) Fondaparinux

A

1) Complete response
2) Partial response
3) No response

29
Q

Why are LMWH and fondaparinux preferred to unfractioned heparin

A 
Better pharmacokinetics (stable half lives regardless of dose so dont need daily monitoring)
Less adverse reactions - lower risk of HIIT because dont have mechanism of action on thrombin (which is mechanism of action that caused thrombocytopaenia)
30
Q

Management of major haemorrhage

A

Activate major haemorrhage protocol
Administer high flow oxygen
Insert 2 wide bore peripheral cannulae and provide fluid resuscitation.
Contact key personnel, including experts to treat bleeding cause.
Arrest bleeding and treat underlying cause as soon as possible.
Request laboratory investigations and perform Point of Care Tests where available, including blood gas analysis and viscoelastic tests (ROTEM/ TEG).
Transfuse red cells to maintain a haemoglobin level of 70-90 g/L
Administer tranexamic acid within 3 hours of onset of haemorrhage unless complicated by disseminated intravascular coagulation
Transfuse FFP empirically if estimated blood loss greater than 20% blood volume or if microvascular bleeding
Anticipate the need for additional blood components (including red cells, FFP, platelets and cryoprecipitate)
Use cell salvage where available and appropriate
When bleeding is under control additional doses of FFP should be based on results

31
Q

what are the complications of major haemorrhage

A 
thrombocytopaenia 
hypothermia 
hypocalcaemia 
hyperkalaemia 
ARDS
coagulopathy
32
Q

what bloods should you take during major haemorrhage

A

FBC - Hb, infection, platelets
Clotting - PT, APTT, including Fibrinogen (DIC)
Group and save - group blood
Cross match - cross matched blood
Calcium - needed for coagulation factors to work
ABG - ongoing Hb and electrolytes

33
Q

How should blood be given in major haemorrhage

A

2 units RBC (O negative emergency)
1 unit of FFP to every 2 units of RBC
Platelets if fall below <75
Cryo only if fibrinogen is not correcting by FFP and is <1.5

34
Q

what is fibrinogen concentrate indicated for

A

Fibrinogen supplementation in patients with congenital hypofibrinogenaemia; as prophylaxis before surgical procedures, or to treat bleeding
Correction of low fibrinogen levels due to acquired bleedingdisorders in Europe and in the Republic of Ireland, although not yet licensed for this indication in the UK.

Alert!! Fibrinogen concentrate can cause widespread thrombi, if administered inappropriately or in excessive dose. A critically low fibrinogen level should be confirmed beforehand.

35
Q

What are the common acute transfusion reactions

A 
Febrile, allergic, hypotensive reactions
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction 
TACO - circulatory overload 
TA Lung injury 
Transfusion related dyspnea 
Septic shock - from bacterial contaminant
36
Q

what are the common delayed transfusion relactions

A

Haemolytic reactions from pregnancy or previous transfusion
Graft vs host disease
Iron overload
Post transfusion purpura

37
Q

Outline the management of a suspected acute red cell transfusion reaction

A

STOP THE TRANSFUSION
Rapidly assess patient
A-E (observations and interventions as necessary)
Any concerns - call for help
Check component and patient are correct/ correct blood has been given
Commence medical treatment as necessary eg salbutamol for bronchospasm
Send giving set to blood bank for coombs test
Document event
Report on local incident management
Report to SHOT

38
Q

How should you manage a transfusion reaction

A

STOP the transfusion
Maintain IV access
Undertake rapid clinical assessment including ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)
If appropriate, call for help
Check identification details between the patient, their identity band and the compatibility label of the blood component
Visually assess the unit looking for evidence of unusual clumps or discolouration and check the expiry date
Check standard observations.

39
Q

management of severe transfusion reaction

A

Call for help/medical staff immediately
Disconnect the component and giving set from the patient and retain for further investigation
Maintain IV access with physiological saline and use blood pressure, pulse and urine output to guide fluid administration
Ensure the airway is patent, and if the patient is severely dyspnoeic give high flow oxygen through a mask with a reservoir.

Shock/severe hypotension associated with wheeze/stridor i.e. anaphylaxis
Shock/severe hypotension without clinical signs of anaphylaxis or fluid overload i.e. ABO incompatibility or bacterial contamination
Severe dyspnoea without shock i.e. TRALI or TACO (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury or Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload).

40
Q

Treatment of moderate transfusion reactions

A

Moderate febrile symptoms
Differential diagnosis is similar to severe ATR
In most cases the transfusion will be discontinued.
If the transfusion is resumed then the patient should be monitored closely.

Moderate allergic symptoms
Symptoms may include angioedema and dyspnoea but not sufficiently severe to be life-threatening.
Antihistamines should be given.
Consider oxygen therapy and inhaled salbutamol.

41
Q

Treatment of mild transfusion reaction

A

In mild ATR, medical staff should be informed, but the transfusion may be continued with appropriate treatment and close observation. Treat mild febrile reactions with oral paracetamol (500-1000mg in adults). Treat mild allergic reactions with antihistamines and slow the transfusion rate.

BEST PRACTICE POINT
A mild reaction may be the early stages of a severe reaction - DON’T IGNORE IT. Observe the patient closely

42
Q

investigations for moderate-severe transfusion reactions

A

Full Blood Count (FBC)
Urea and Electrolytes (U&Es), Liver Function Test (LFTs)
Urine analysis (for haemoglobinuria, to exclude haemolysis)

43
Q

what is the threshold and considerations for transfusing platelets

A

Well patient / no RFs - if fall below 10
(as long as plts are >5 there shouldnt be any increased risk of bleeding in the absence of any other RFs)
If RFs - transfuse at <20
If having surgery <50
If having anything to do with brain eyes - <100
Epidural - <80
Severe bleeding <50
Multiple trauma incl intracerebral bleed <100

44
Q

what are the indications for cryo

A

< fibrinogen
von willebrands disease
factor 8 and 13 deficiency
DIC

45
Q

why is cryo preferred in fibrinogen replacement to FFP

A

15 mls of cryo
Can keep replacing without overload
Higher concentration of fibrinogen in cryo (250mg in 10 mls) than FFP (400 mg in 200 mls)

Phase 3b (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions