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phase 4 > PSA > Flashcards

PSA Flashcards

1
Q

what class of drug is gliclazide?

A

sulfonylurea

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2
Q

if trough levels of gentamicin are raised what action needs to be taken?

A

increase interval between doses

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3
Q

if the peak concentration of gentamicin is high then how should the dose be altered?

A

reduce the dose

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4
Q

what should be monitored during gentamicin treatment ?

A

auditory and vestibular function (and renal function)

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5
Q

in a multiple daily dose gentamicin regimen (that is not for endocarditis) what should the peak and trough concentrations be?

A

peak 5-10
trough less than 2

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6
Q

what time of day are statins taken?

A

at night

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7
Q

what time of day is amitriptyline taken?

A

at night

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8
Q

what class of drug is gentamicin?

A

aminoglycoside

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9
Q

How does gentamicin work?

A

impairs ability of bacteria to produce proteins

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10
Q

is gentamicin safe in pregnancy

A

no- may cause otoxicity in fetus

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11
Q

What neuromuscular condition is gentamicin contraindicated in?

A

myasthenia gravis- may impair neuromuscular transmission

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12
Q

How are aminoglycosides such as gentamicin excreted?

A

renally

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13
Q

A patient with normal renal function is started on gentamicin, when should we measure their gentamicin concentrations?

A

After 3 or 4 doses of a multiple daily dose regimen or after a dose change

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14
Q

when do you need to take a blood sample to get a peak gentamicin level?

A

1 hour after administration

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15
Q

when do you need to take a blood sample to get a trough gentamicin level?

A

just before the next dose

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16
Q

what should be assessed before starting treatment with an aminoglycoside like gentamicin?

A

renal function

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17
Q

what is the difference between a NSTEMI and unstable angina?

A

presence of myocardial necrosis

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18
Q

What may an ECG look like in an NSTEMI?

A

ST-segment depression, T wave inversion, may be normal!

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19
Q

A patient has chest pain at rest with a normal ECG- how might we differentiate between NSTEMI and unstable angina?

A

serum troponin

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20
Q

what should be offered in terms of pain relief for a patient with suspected ACS?

A

glyceryl trinitrate and IV morphine

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21
Q

what is the loading dose of aspirin in ACS?

A

300mg

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22
Q

what dose of aspirin should most people be on indefinitely following an ACS?

A

75mg

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23
Q

what common combinations are given as dual antiplatelet therapy following an ACS for up to 12 months?

A

aspirin plus another antiplatelet such as clopidogrel, ticagrelor or prasugrel

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24
Q

what is the hallmark of a near fatal episode of acute asthma?

A

raised PaC02

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25
Q

In all cases of acute asthma, what steroid should be given orally?

A

prednisolone

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26
Q

a peak flow of 33-50% of best or predicted but no other symptoms would put a patient into which severity category of acute asthma?

A

severe

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27
Q

when treating Helicobacter pylori, what does the triple treatment regimen consist of?

A

A PPI and two antibacterials e.g omeprazole plus amoxicillin and clarithromysin

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28
Q

what is the first line choice for prophylaxis in close contacts of a person with meningococcal disease?

A

ciprofloxacin

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29
Q

what is the first line choice for prophylaxis in close contacts of a person with haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)?

A

rifampicin

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30
Q

where in the BNF would you find a treatment summary for antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

‘Antibacterials, use for prophylaxis’

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31
Q

what is the principal side effect of cephalosporins?

A

hypersensitivity in patients with penicillin allergy

32
Q

what type of antibiotic is cefotaxime ?

A

third generation cephalosporin

33
Q

what type of antibiotic is erythromysin?

A

macrolide

34
Q

when is erythromycin contraindicated?

A

Inn patients with Hx of ventricular arrythmia, electrolyte disturbances or Hx of QT prolongation

35
Q

what type of antibiotic is doxycycline?

A

tetracycline

36
Q

what is penicillin G?

A

benzylpenicillin sodium

37
Q

what is the route for benzylpenicillin sodium?

A

injection (inactivated by gastric acid)

38
Q

What is penicillin V?

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

39
Q

what does co-amoxiclav consist of?

A

amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid

40
Q

what is clavulanic acid?

A

betalactamase inhibitor

41
Q

What is piperacillin always combined with?

A

tazobactam

42
Q

What treatment might you offer to a patient with localised non-bullous impetigo who is systemically well and not at risk of complications?

A

hydrogen peroxide 1% cream

43
Q

what is oral first line in impetigo?

A

flucloxacillin

44
Q

what is first line antibiotic for treatment of bites?

A

co-amoxiclav

45
Q

what type of antibiotic is ciprofloxacin?

A

quinolone

46
Q

why should quinolones generally be avoided in children?

A

children are at a higher risk of tendon rupture and tendinitis (adults are also at risk of this)

47
Q

what do quinolones double the risk of a patient developing within 60 days of administration?

A

aortic aneurysm and dissection

48
Q

which class of antibiotic can cause suicidal thoughts and psychosis?

A

quinolones

49
Q

how may ciprofloxacin affect someone with a history of seizures?

A

increase seizure risk

50
Q

what class of antibiotic is levofloxacin?

A

quinolone

51
Q

why shouldn’t doxycycline be used in breastfeeding women?

A

can effect development of the infants teeth

52
Q

how does rifampicin affect the P450 system?

A

rifampicin is a P450 inducer and thus decreases warfarin and thus will decrease INR`

53
Q

what unit is often used to prescribe topical drugs such as creams?

A

FTU

54
Q

how can we remember the enzyme inducers?

A

PC BRAS
phenytoin
carbamazepine
barbiturates
rifampicin
alcohol (chronic)
sulphonylureas

55
Q

How can we remember the enzyme inhibitors?

A

AODEVICES
Allopurinol
Omeprazole
Disulfiram
Erythromycin
Valproate
Isoniazid
Ciprofloxacin
Ethanol (acute)
Sulphonamides

56
Q

what is the general sick day rule of someone taking steroids long term?

A

double dose when ill

57
Q

What medications should be stopped 4 weeks before surgery?

A

COCP and HRT

58
Q

What psychiatric drug should be stopped the day before surgery?

A

lithium

59
Q

why should metformin be stopped before surgery?

A

risk of lactic acidosis

60
Q

why should ACE inhibitors be discontinued before surgery?

A

can cause severe hypotension

61
Q

why should potassium sparing diuretics be withheld the day of surgery?

A

risk of hyperkalaemia

62
Q

give an example of a potassium sparing diuretic ?

A

spironolactone

63
Q

what medications can cause severe hyperkalaemia if taken in conjunction with a potassium sparing diuretic such as spironolactone ?

A

ARBs and ACEis

64
Q

what do angiotensin II receptor blocker names usually end in ?

A

‘sartan’

65
Q

what antibiotic is first line for tonsilitis in penicillin allergic patients?

A

Clarithromycin

66
Q

what should be given in suspected temporal arteritis?

A

prednisolone

67
Q

what can be prescribed for allergic conjunctivitis?

A

sodium cromoglicate

68
Q

how does lithium affect psoriasis ?

A

lithium exacerbates psoriasis

69
Q

what drug class is indapamide?

A

thiazide-like diuretic

70
Q

how does indapamide reduce BP?

A

reduces sodium reabsorption in the kidney and increases urine output

71
Q

How does bendoflumethiazide work?

A

reduces sodium reabsorption in the kidney and increases urine output

72
Q

what type of diuretic is furosemide?

A

loop diuretic

73
Q

what type of diuretic is bumetanide?

A

loop diuretic

74
Q

what type of diuretic is often used in pulmonary oedema due to left ventricular failure?

A

loop diuretics e.g furosemide

75
Q

what type of drug is loratadine?

A

antihistamine

76
Q

what type of drug is fexofenadine ?

A

antihistamine

77
Q
A

phase 4 (4 decks)

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