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phase 4 > phase 4 set 1 > Flashcards

phase 4 set 1 Flashcards

1
Q

In which type of lymphoma would you find reed sternberg cells?

A

hodgkin

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2
Q

what is the critical diagnostic investigation in lymphoma?

A

lymph node biopsy

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3
Q

What is the lugano classification used to stage?

A

lymphoma
stage 1: confined to one node or group of nodes
stage 2: in more than one group of nodes but on the same side of the diaphragm
stage 3: affects nodes both above and below the diaphragm
stage 4: widespread involvement including non lymphatic organs

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4
Q

What causes dengue fever?

A

the dengue virus

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5
Q

What type of antiemetic is cyclizine ?

A

H1 antihitamine

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6
Q

What type of antiemetics are metoclopramide and domperidone?

A

dopamine antagonist

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7
Q

What type of antiemetic is ondansetron?

A

5HT3 receptor antagonist

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8
Q

What medication might you offer for chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting?

A

ondansetron

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9
Q

which type of lymphoma is a common cause of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Burkitts

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10
Q

which type of lymphoma has a starry sky appearance on lymph node biopsy?

A

Burkitts lymphoma

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11
Q

In which type of leukaemia is the philadelphia translocation seen in?

A

chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

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12
Q

CA 15-3 is a tumour marker associated with which type of cancer?

A

breast

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13
Q

Which tumour marker is associated with ovarian cancer?

A

CA125

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14
Q

What medication do you give if neoplastic spinal cord compression is suspected?

A

oral dexamethasone

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15
Q

describe the rash seen in meningococcal septicaemia

A

non- blanching purpuric rash

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16
Q

What would we give in suspected bacterial meningitis?

A

IV ceftriaxone
in patients over 65 give amoxicillin to cover listeria

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17
Q

What type of antibiotic is ceftriaxone?

A

cephalosporin

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18
Q

what is the antibiotic of choice for prophylaxis for close contacts of a patient with meningococcal meningtis?

A

ciprofloxacin 500mg orally

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19
Q

what is an important investigation to send off in cases of suspected malaria?

A

three sets of thick and thin blood film

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20
Q

In malaria, how should we treat patients with parasitaemia of greater than 2%

A

IV artesunate

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21
Q

What are the different components of the CURB 65 score?

A

c- confusion
u- urea
R- resp rate
B- blood pressure
65- age

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22
Q

what does a curb 65 score of 1 mean?

A

low risk manage at home

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23
Q

what does the respiratory rate have to be to score for the RR section of the curb65 score?

A

30 or more

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24
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia in adults?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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25
Q

A patient has had symptoms of pneumonia for 1 week and you suspect legionella pneumophila is the pathogen- what should we test the urine for ?

A

legionella antigen (nb this is only present in first two weeks of infection)

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26
Q

What is first line for CAP in a patient with a CURB 65 score of 0-1?

A

amoxicillin

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27
Q

What is first line for CAP in a patient with a CURB65 score of 3-5?

A

IV co-amoxiclav and PO/IV clarithromysin

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28
Q

what is the incubation period of ingested staphylococcus aureus?

A

less than 6 hours as the toxin is already in the food

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29
Q

what is the problematic bacteria in reheated rice?

A

bacillus cereus

30
Q

what would you expect the diarrhoea to be like in someone who has ingested reheated rice?

A

watery

31
Q

what is the most common causative organism of gastroenteritis?

A

campylobacter jejuni

32
Q

what organism would you suspect in a patient with bloody diarrhoea and no fever who ingested ground beef 3 days ago?

A

E.coli

33
Q

what type of pneumonia might you see in a person with HIV who does not take their medication?

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

34
Q

which antibiotic is used to treat pneomocystis jirovecii pneumoniae?

A

co trimoxazole

35
Q

what does NRTI stand for?

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

36
Q

how is hepatitis A usually spread?

A

faecal oral route

37
Q

For hepatitis D to cause disease, what must a person already be infected by?

A

hep B

38
Q

Describe vertical transmission of hep B?

A

Infected mother to baby

39
Q

Describe horizontal transmission of hep B?

A

sexual, needles and sharps, sharing razors and toothbrushes, blood transfusion

40
Q

which test is a diagnostic confirmation of current hep B infection?

A

HBsAg

41
Q

In what percentage of patients does HBV spontaneously resolve?

A

95%

42
Q

what are the complications of chronic HBV infection?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma
cirrhosis

43
Q

what is the classic diagnostic triad in infective endocarditis?

A

persistent fever
new/changing heart murmur
embolic phenomenon

44
Q

What are the peripheral stigmata of infective endocarditis?

A

janeway lesions, osler nodes, roth spots, splinter haemorrhages

45
Q

on which part of the body would you find roth spots?

A

the retina

46
Q

on which part of the body would you find janeway lesions?

A

palms of the hands

47
Q

where would you typically find osler nodes?

A

distal fingers

48
Q

How many sets of blood cultures should be taken in infective endocarditis?

A

3 sets at 30 minute intervals

49
Q

what is the first line imaging in infective endocarditis?

A

transthoracic echocardiogram

50
Q

what criteria can be used to help support a diagnosis of infective endocarditis?

A

modified Duke criteria

51
Q

which type of endocarditis is a well known complication of IV drug use?

A

staphylococcus aureus endocarditis

52
Q

what is the tuberculin skin test also known as?

A

mantoux test

53
Q

what is a more specific test for TB than the mantoux test?

A

interferon gamma release assays e.g t spot test

54
Q

what might you see on chest x ray in active TB?

A

apical lobe consolidation
hilar lymph nodes
cavities

55
Q

consuming what drink can put someone at risk of catching TB?

A

unpastutised cows milk

56
Q

which is more sensitive- tuberculin skin test or interferon gamma release assay?

A

tuberculin skin test

57
Q

which is more specifc- tuberculin skin test or interferon gamma release assay?

A

interferon gamma release assay

58
Q

what percentage of people with latent TB never go on to develop active TB?

A

90%

59
Q

what are the drug options for a person with latent TB for prophlaxis of active TB development?

A

6 months isoniazid
or 3 months of rifampicin and isoniazid

60
Q

which TB drug interacts with hormonal contraception ?

A

rifampicin

61
Q

which TB drug can cause red urine ?

A

rifampicin

62
Q

which TB drug can cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

isoniazid

63
Q

what type of antibiotic is doxycyline?

A

tetracycline

64
Q

what would streptococcus pneumonia look like on gram staining?

A

gram positive cocci (lancet shaped diplococci in chains)

65
Q

which organism is classically associated with a pneumonia that causes rust coloured sputum?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

66
Q

what colour do gram negative bacteria stain?

A

pink

67
Q

what class of antibiotic is gentamicin?

A

aminoglycoside

68
Q

how does gentamicin work?

A

inhibits protein synthesis

69
Q

what class of antibiotic is erythromycin?

A

macrolide

70
Q
A

phase 4 (4 decks)

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