Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DE AGA ÉLE provinhas > Prova C5 > Flashcards

Prova C5 Flashcards

1
Q

You are on the remote parking bay G8 in Djibouti and are ready to start engines. The
marshaller has no headset therefore he clears you to start engine 2 by hand signals. After
starting engine 2 you get the EICAS message R ENGINE FIRE and all alarms and warning
lights that confirm that you have a fire in the right engine.
With regards to this, answer questions 1 to 3.

    1. After identifying and confirming the right engine fire with the first officer what will the
      Captain’s initial actions be?
A

d) Crew to carry out NNC Engine Fire on the Ground (Back Cover .2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

You are on the remote parking bay G8 in Djibouti and are ready to start engines. The
marshaller has no headset therefore he clears you to start engine 2 by hand signals. After
starting engine 2 you get the EICAS message R ENGINE FIRE and all alarms and warning
lights that confirm that you have a fire in the right engine.
With regards to this, answer questions 1 to 3.

  1. After the checklists are completed the fire does not stop and an evacuation is required.
    How is the back page QRH emergency evacuation checklist accomplished?
A

d) the checklist is challenge and response and person of responsibility followed by checking the item
and repeating the response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You are on the remote parking bay G8 in Djibouti and are ready to start engines. The
marshaller has no headset therefore he clears you to start engine 2 by hand signals. After
starting engine 2 you get the EICAS message R ENGINE FIRE and all alarms and warning
lights that confirm that you have a fire in the right engine.
With regards to this, answer questions 1 to 3.

    1. What RFFS hand signals would you expect to see from the marshaller indicating
      “Emergency Contained” - No outside evidence of dangerous conditions or “all clear”.
A

b) arms extended outward and down at a 45-degree angle. Arms moved inward below waistline
simultaneously until wrists crossed, then extended outward to starting position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. On the B767-300 aircraft, what is the maximum altitude for flaps extension?
A

C. 20,000 feet

(OM 1.3.1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. On the Boeing 767-300 aircraft, what is the wingspan dimension?
A

C. 50.88 meters (767-300 W)

At Dilmun all 767-300 have winglets.

767 without winglets 47.57m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What does this symbol mean in the QRH?
A

d) Separator symbol used to separate the memory items from the reference items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What is the Maximum EGT for T/O?
A

c) 960 for 5 minutes

(O.M 1.8.7. Engine EGT )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. What is the Ground maneuvering group for the Boeing 767-300 aircraft?
A

C. Group D

(OM General - Ground Maneuvering: Boeing 767-300 belongs to Group D for airport ground maneuvering. )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. What would constitute an aerodrome as Category B and what do we need to do before conducting a flight to a Cat B aerodrome?
A

d) The PIC should be briefed or self-briefed on the aerodrome concerned. Commander acknowledges this by ticking A/F brief at the bottom of the Journey log page in the OFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. On the Boeing 767-300 aircraft, the speed trend vector indicates:
A

C. Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. During Engine start, name some conditions that would require an aborted start?
A

c) ENGINE OIL PRESSURE light does not extinguish when the engine stabilised at idle.

Engine Start Procedure FCOM.

Do the Aborted Engine Start checklist for one or more of the following abort start conditions:

• the EGT does not increase by 25 seconds after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN

• there is no N1 rotation by 30 seconds after N2 is stabilized at idle

• the EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit

• the oil pressure indication is not normal by the time that the engine is stabilized at idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What is the minimum in-flight weight on A9C-DHS?
A

a) 179,000lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. How is climb thrust 1 or 2 selected after take-off?
A

c) climb thrust is manually selected by the PNF by pushing CLB 1 or 2 in the TMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What is recommended if a Low - Level Altitude capture occurs during a Go - Around?
A

c) FMA will change to SPD / Alt Cap - select CLB thrust and set an appropriate speed for flap retraction (example Vref30+80)

(OM 2.24 GO–AROUND AND MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURE )

Note 5: If a “Low-level Altitude Capture” occurs, the following procedure is recommended: Allow the pitch mode FMA to change from GA to ALT CAP (Autothrottle mode will change to SPD and the MCP speed window will open at the aircrafts current IAS), select CLB thrust and set the IAS/Mach speed window to an appropriate speed for flap retraction (example VREF 30+80).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. If you experience a Low - Level Altitude capture after take-off, what is the recommended
    procedure?
A

a) FMA will change to N1 / Alt Cap - select CLB thrust and set an appropriate speed for flap retraction (example Vref30+80) then select SPD mode (N1 will change to SPD)

(OM Manual, 2.18. TAKE-OFF PROCEDURE)

Note 4: If a “Low-level Altitude Capture” occurs, the following procedure is recommended:

Allow the pitch mode FMA to change from TO to ALT CAP (A/T mode will change to N1), select CLB thrust and set the IAS/Mach speed window to an appropriate speed for flap retraction (example VREF 30+80). Select/engage the autothrottle SPD mode.

“CLB Thrust, Vref 30+80, Speed Mode” is the suggested call if the PF is manually flying. “

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. How do we actuate the SCOTT PBE?
A

c) Pulling the actuation ring in the direction indicated away from the smoke hood firmly.

(OM 10.2.3.9 Protective Breathing Equipment - PBE (Smoke Hood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. When is the start of the monsoon season in Bengaluru?
A

a) June to September

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. On a flight to Hong Kong you are told to climb to 11600 meters.
    What is this in FLs and where can you find this information?
A

b) FL 381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Historically, an upset was defined as unintentionally exceeding one or more of the
    following conditions:
A

d) Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down;
bank angle greater than 45 degrees; less than above parameters but flying at an airspeed
inappropriate for the conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What are the maximum allowable wind speeds when conducting an Autoland?
A

d) headwind 25 kts,
crosswind 25 kts,
tailwind 15kts

(OM 1.4.2. Automatic Landing )

The maximum allowable wind speeds for automatic landing are: Headwind – 25 Knots, Tailwind – 15 Knots, Crosswind – 25 Knots [AFM]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. When can we not use assumed temperature for take-off?
A

d) a and b are correct

a) During reported windshear

b) When departing on a contaminated runway

22
Q
  1. You are looking for an item in the MEL contents page. Under the MEL item list is stated
    ‘none’. What does this mean?
A

c) there is no MEL item for the failure condition indicated

23
Q
  1. Out of the following answers what is a standard deviation call on approach?
A

c) more than 1800 fpm descent on the VS for a non-precision approach “sink rate”

(OM - 2.28. STANDARD DEVIATION CALLS)

24
Q
  1. In accordance with the QRH, what is the policy regarding flight crew pulling and resetting
    circuit breakers in flight?
A

d) may be reset at the Captain’s discretion after a short cooling period of two minutes. Tripped
fuel pump circuit breakers are not to be re-set.

QRH

25
Q
  1. Engine anti-ice must be on when icing conditions exist or are anticipated except:
A

c) During all phases of flight when the temperature is below -40°C SAT.

(FCOM SP Cold Weather ops. Engine Anti-ice Operation - In-flight)

26
Q
  1. With a _________ de-icing/anti-icing operation, the holdover time begins at the____________ of the operation, and with a _________ operation at the ________of the final (anti-icing) step.
A

a. one-step / start/ two-step / start

27
Q
  1. A layer of frost up to____
    thick is permitted on the lower wing surface in the spar area if it is caused by cold fuel.
A

a) 3 mm

(OM - 2a.16.2.1 Exterior Inspection )

28
Q
  1. When does the effect of sand or dust ingestion predominantly occur?
A

b) during take-off, landing and taxi.

29
Q
  1. What will you take into consideration? (Regarding sand)
A

d) All of the above

a) The presence of sand or dust will increase brake wear

b) Use autobrakes on landing to help minimize the need for reverse thrust.

c) A light layer of sand or dust on the runway may reduce tire-to-runway friction

30
Q
  1. How do you identify ice crystal icing?
A

(OM 2a.16.8 Ice Crystal Icing (ICI) )

d) A and C

a) TAT remains near 0 degrees Centigrade

c) Amber or red weather returns below the airplane

31
Q
  1. What is the maximum amount of dry snow allowable for take-off?
A

a) 6cm

(OM 4.6 CONTAMINATED AND SLIPPERY PERFORMANCE)

32
Q
  1. On a PBN approaches the autopilot shall be disengaged at a minimum of:
A

b) 300 feet ARTE

(OM 2.30.4 PBN and Other, Non-ILS instrument approaches )

33
Q
  1. Where do we find the runway condition assessment tables?
A

b) Part A

Particularidade DHL

34
Q
  1. Select the correct statement:
A

b) When a Windshear alert is in progress, all TAWS and TCAS aural alerts will be inhibited.

(OM 2a.11.8.5.7 - Alert Priorities)

35
Q
  1. Which is true regarding OPT landing performance calculations?
A

d) All of the above

a) Contaminated runway performance will only be calculated for Standing Water or Slush
b) As per TALPA recommendations a damp runway is to be considered a wet runway.
c) For other contaminates the TALPA runway condition chart (see 4.8) will be used to dete
slippery runway braking action.

36
Q
  1. Volcanic activity can be particularly hazardous to aeroplanes.
    The crew must make every
    attempt to avoid flying through the ash plume or through any visible concentrations of
    ash.
    Note that airborne weather radar __________ detected volcanic ash. And low concentrations may not be detected by the crew.
    __________ gives guidance on how to proceed if volcanic ash is encountered.
A

c) does not; QRH

37
Q
  1. You are operating a flight in poor weather and experiencing turbulence from CB’s and
    observe returns on the weather radar. As you descend below FL220 in general terms,
    what would be the recommended course of action?
A

a) Avoid all echoes by 10 miles.

38
Q
  1. As PF what is your initial response to a GPWS warning?
A

c) Disconnect autopilot and autothrottle, aggressively apply max thrust, roll wings level and pitch to 20 degrees, retract speedbrakes, do not change gear or flap configuration.

QRH maneuvers

39
Q
  1. Operationally what may be considered to reduce the impact of Clear Air Turbulence?
A

a. Clear air turbulence may sometimes be avoided by increasing or decreasing the cruising level if operational considerations permit. Monitoring of other aircraft reports also assists
avoidance.

40
Q
  1. How many Classes of Fire are there and what is Class C?
A

c) 5, Flammable gases Flammable Liquids

41
Q
  1. When does the Hydraulic driven generator (HDG) activate automatically?
A

a) When both the left and right main AC buses are unpowered.

42
Q
  1. What is the ICAO PANS OPS Circling approach maneuvering airspace radius from
    threshold for Boeing 767-300 and B767-200
A

a) 5.28NM / 4.20NM

43
Q
  1. RNP 1 means that the position of the aircraft lies with
    circle of_NM centered at calculated aircraft position.
A

c) 95, 1

44
Q
  1. What is the standard RT call by the PNF when a resolution advisory is in effect?
A

a) Dilmun xxx, TCAS RA

45
Q

With regards to the IS&S flat panel display system:

  1. Select the correct statement(s) applicable to Right DCU Failure
A

d) all are correct

a) Initial display of Right DCU failure will place a red X on the first officer’s PFD and ND
b) Selection of right ALTN EFI will allow the center DCU to be the source of data for the first officer’s PFD and ND
c) An amber DCU flag and a white C CDU flag will annunciate on the PFD and ND

46
Q
  1. After the scenario in question 45, the Left DCU fails. How is this indicated?

(45. …Right DCU Failure)

A

d) all are correct

a) Captain’s PFD and ND displays are automatically switched to the Center DCU
b) An amber DCU flag and a white C CDU flag will annunciate on the PFD and ND
c) The automatic switching function is also available when the Left DCU fails before the Right DC
fails.

47
Q
  1. After scenario in question 46, what will be your actions?

(46 …the Left DCU fails.)

A

b) complete the dual DCU failure QRH checklist. INSTR SWITCH will be shown on the EICAS

48
Q
A

c) CAT 3B is available with CAT 3A reversion - no change to our approved minima

49
Q
  1. Immediate Turn after Takeoff - Select the correct statement:
A

d) A maximum bank angle of 30° is permitted at V2 + 15 knots with takeoff flaps

50
Q
  1. What is the typical Tail strike pitch attitude (degrees) - One Engine Inoperative?
A

d) B762-13.1 / B763 - 9.6

(FCTM - Takeoff and Initial Climb)

DE AGA ÉLE provinhas (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions