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DE AGA ÉLE provinhas > Prova C4 > Flashcards

Prova C4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the maximum take-off and landing altitude?
A

A. 8,400 feet pressure altitude

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2
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable runway slope during take-off and landing?
A

B. + -2%

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3
Q
  1. What happens to temperature control if you operate the aircraft with the TRIM AIR switch off or there-
    loss of the Trim Air System?
A

D. During operation with the trim air system off, the packs attempt to maintain all compartments at an ave
temperature

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4
Q
  1. What is the function of the On position of the Light Override switch?
A

B. Overrides the normal controls and illuminates the :
-forward panel flood lights, -glareshield flood lights,
-dome lights,
-aisle stand flood lights and -illuminated indicator lights at full brightness.

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5
Q
  1. In flight, the RAT deploys automatically when
    power to the flight controls portion of the
    power at speeds above
    knots:
A

A. both engines fail, center, 130

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6
Q
  1. With LNAV in use, executing “direct to with ABEAM” selected when approaching an active waypoint
A

D. May induce an uncommanded turn and should be avoided

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7
Q
  1. Antiskid protection is provided in the normal and________ brake hydraulic systems.
A

A. Alternate

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8
Q
  1. With the EICAS Computer selection in Auto, which computer is operating the system under normal
    operations?
A

B. Left

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9
Q
  1. It is permissible for Pilots to attempt to clear Status messages whilst on the ground. True of False?
A

A. TRUE

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10
Q
  1. What is the meaning of a Pack Off light?
A

D. The pack valve is closed

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11
Q
  1. After experiencing a pack outlet overheat, an attempt to restore pack operation may be made
    pack has cooled by pushing which switch?
A

D. PACK RESET switch

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12
Q
  1. What is the function of the index mark setting on the Cabin Altitude AUTO RATE Control?
A

A. Establishes approximately 500fpm climb and 300fpm descent
B. Sets limit for cabin altitude rate of climb or descent during auto control

D. A & B is correct

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13
Q
  1. What happens to the Pressurisation System when the selected AUTO mode fails?
A

B. Automatically switches to the other auto mode

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14
Q
  1. What is the meaning of an ICE DET OFF light and EICAS message?
A

D. Ice is no longer detected

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15
Q
  1. What modes will the Autopilot engage in when CMD is selected with both Flight Directors off?
A

D. V/S-HDG HOLD

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following in flight conditions can generally be defined as an Upset?
A

C. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up;
-pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down;
-bank greater than 45 degrees;
-within these parameters but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the condition.

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17
Q
  1. What is the recommended procedure for dealing with an engine fire on the ground?
A

A. Captain to carryout QRH memory items for NNC.8.2

B. Wait for 30 seconds (as per QRH) and if the fire warning light remains illuminated, fire the second by
after a further 20 seconds the fire warning light still remains illuminated, evacuate the aircraft;

CORRECT ANSWER IS D:

D. A and B are correct

(OM 3.4.3. Engine Fire on the Ground)

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18
Q
  1. Normal checklists are used after doing all respective procedural items_________________must
    visually each item is in the needed configuration OR that the step is done.
A

A. Both pilots

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19
Q
  1. The maximum crosswind component on takeoff with reported braking action Good is?
A

B. 25 Knots

(OM 1.3.5. Non-AFM Operational Information)

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20
Q
  1. Payloads LMC are restricted to _________
    and for fuel ___________
    If these figures are exceeded:
A

C. A+ 1100 lbs, ± 4400 lbs, a new loadsheet must be generated.

(OM 1.3.6.5 Last Minute Change)

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21
Q
  1. The maximum FDP without the use of extensions for acclimatised crew on a three sectors for
    reporting time 1215 UTC is:
A

B. 12:30

22
Q
  1. During a circling approach, wings should be level on final when the aircraft reaches:
A

C. 300 feet above airport elevation
(OMB 2.30.7 - Circling Approach)

23
Q
  1. On which runway(s) at EDDP can the crew plan for a Cat III (A or B) approach?
A

C. All Runways

24
Q
  1. What is the Oxygen requirement for Flight Crew on aircraft certified to fly above 25,000 feet?
A

D. 2 hours

(OM 1.14 - The minimum pressure for recharging by Engineering is 1200 psi. This will provide at least 30 mins of O2 supply for all occupants at 100% O2 with all seats occupied.

The other oxygen requirement is for operating flight crew to have sufficient O2 for 2 hrs flight at 25,000 ft in the event of a smoke or fumes event. Again the chosen min pressure of 1200 psi will provide for this.

25
Q
  1. When dispatching on a
    __________________runway, with both thrust reversers operative,
    an operative anti-skid
    system
    and all brakes operating, regulations allow deceleration credit for_____________
    thrust reverser in the
    failure case and____________
    thrust reversers in the all engine stop case.
A

B. WET, one, two

(OM 4.2.12 - Credit for Thrust Reversers)

26
Q
  1. What must be considered when starting an engine during Cold Weather operations?
A

A. Oil pressure may be slow to rise.

B. Initial oil pressure rise may be higher than normal.
C. Additional warm-up time may be needed to allow oil temperature to reach the normal range.

D. ALL THE ABOVE.

(OM 2a.16.2.2 Engine Start Procedure)

27
Q
  1. The authority to order de-icing and anti-icing services is delegated to the
    necessary due to current conditions.
A

B. Pilot in Command

(OM 2a.16.2.6 De-icing /Anti-icing )

28
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is correct with regard to an exterior inspection in cold weather
    operations?
A

B. Take-off with light coatings of frost, up to 3mm in thickness on lower wing surfaces due to cold
lowable; however, all leading edge devices, all control surfaces, and upper wing surfaces must be free of ice and frost.

C. Thin hoarfrost is acceptable on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear.

D IS CORRECT- B and C. are correct
(OM 2a.16.2.1 Exterior Inspection)

29
Q
  1. When calculating performance in adverse weather, is it allowed to use reduced thrust (assumed
    temperature method) for take-offs on wet runways and contaminated runways?
A

A. Wet - yes, Contaminated - No

(OM 2a.16.1. Takeoff – Wet or Contaminated Runway Conditions)

30
Q
  1. The following factors contribute to cold soaking:
A

A. Temperature of re-fuelled fuel, Time since re-fuelling.

C. Temperature and quantity of fuel in fuel cells, Type and location of fuel cells, Length of time at high altitudes

D. A and C

31
Q
  1. You are flying in RVSM airspace and climbing to your cleared Flight Level. What rate of climb should be
    reduce your vertical speed to and when?
A

A. 1000 fpm maximum, within 1500 feet of the cleared flight level.

32
Q
  1. In the event that a deviation of greater than _________feet has occurred from the assigned flight level
    airspace, what must you do?
A

A. 300 feet,
Report it to ATC and to the
Authority via the Mandatory
Occurrence Reporting
Scheme.

33
Q
  1. The phrase “____________” should be included when an RNP degradation or failure
    subsequently whenever initial contact has been established on a new ATC frequency.
A

C. UNABLE RNP DUE EQUIPMENT

34
Q
  1. The following conditions take precedence over TCAS:
A

D. Stall warning, windshear and GPWS warnings

(OM 2a.11.8.5.7) Alert Priorities

35
Q
  1. The initial PF actions for a “Climb” RA in landing configuration are:
A

A. Disengage the autopilot
and autothrottle.
Advance thrust levers
forward to ensure
maximum thrust
and call for FLAPS 20.
Smoothly adjust pitch to
satisfy the RA command

36
Q
  1. Two destination alternates must be selected when:
A

D. A & B are correct

A. The appropriate meteorological reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome, or any combination
thereof, indicate that during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated ti
of arrival, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima

B. When no meteorological information is available

37
Q
  1. What does the acronym RETS mean in the following METAR report: VTBS 081000Z 30003KT 230V360 95
    RA FEW020CB SCT040 BKN070 27/21 Q1006 RETS NOSIG
A

C. Recent Thunderstorm observed since the previous observation, but which was not current at the time of
present observation.

38
Q
  1. What would you consider if during a layover in Kuwait, with the airplane parked at the stand, an
    unexpected sandstorm hits the region.
A

D. Follow the supplementary procedure - Operation in a Sandy or Dusty Environment

39
Q
  1. When flying in an area in which mountain wave conditions are suspected, which of the following
    you consider?
A

D. All of the above are correct.

A. Do not attempt to penetrate or approach rotor clouds or rotor zones in the lee mountains.

B. Allow at least 5000 ft flight clearance over mountains which are up to 5000 ft higher than the surrounding
terrain.

C. Allow a flight clearance at least equal to the height of a mountain, which is more than the surrounding terrain

40
Q
  1. What is the Turbulent Penetration Speed?
A

B. 290 Kias/M.78 whichever is lower

41
Q
  1. In the event of an emergency evacuation what is the primary mean for exiting the aircraft?
A

C. Main Entry Door L1

42
Q
  1. You are an operating crew member on B767 with 2 passengers on-board. They must receive a safety and
    evacuation briefing based on the briefing card which is kept on the aircraft for reference. Where else can you
    find this card?
A

C. OMB - B767 Emergency Evacuation Procedures

(OM chapter 11)

43
Q
  1. How many Classes of Fire are there and what is Class D?
A

C. 5, Combustible metals

(OM 10.2.2 Classes of Fire)

44
Q
  1. In a fire fighting situation the action of removing the oxygen, is known as:
A

D. Smothering

(OM 10.2.1 Chemistry of Fire)

45
Q
  1. In the event of an emergency evacuation what is the primary mean for exiting the aircraft?
A

C. Main Entry Door L1

46
Q
  1. When completing the memory items for Airspeed Unreliable, the following should be considered: The
    extended pitch and thrust settings will result in a climb. The flaps up pitch and thrust settings will result in
    slight climb at light weights and low altitudes, and a slight descent at heavy weights and high altitudes.
A

A. TRUE FCTM

47
Q
  1. Select the correct statement on preparation for a circling approach:
A

D. A and C are correct

A. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the missed approach specific
that particular approach procedure must be followed.

C. Minimum Descent Altitude for the procedure will be the published circling minima, with 50 feet addition

48
Q
  1. Select the correct crew Actions for a Bird Strike During Approach or Landing
A

D. Only A and B

A. If the landing is assured, continuing the approach to landing is the preferred option. If more birds are
encountered, fly through the bird flock and land. Maintain as low a thrust setting as possible.

B. If engine ingestion is suspected, limit reverse thrust on landing to the amount needed to stop on the Reverse thrust may increase engine damage, especially when engine vibration or high EGT is indicated.

49
Q
  1. Which statement is correct with regard to Overweight Landings and use of Autoland?
A

C. Overweight autolands are not recommended.

Autopliots on Boeing airplanes are not certified for auto landings above maximum landing weight.

An automatic approach may be attempted, however a manual landing must be accomplished with autopilot disconnected prior to flare height.

50
Q
  1. What is the ICAO PANS-OPS Circling Area Radius from Threshold for a speed of 175 Kias?
A

C. 5.28 NM

(OM 2.30.7 Circling Approach)

DE AGA ÉLE provinhas (3 decks)

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