Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Parasitology FINAL > Protozoology > Flashcards

Protozoology Flashcards

1
Q

Trypanosoma spp. having undulating membrane?

A
  • T. brucei brucei, T. congolense.

- T. vivax- inconspicuous undulating membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stages of Trypanosoma spp. having undulating membrane:

A

Trypomastigote, Epimastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which trypanosome stage is IC?

A

Amastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which has flagellum, but ø undulating membrane?

A

Promastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which does ø have flagellum?

A

Amastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which phenotype of trypanosomes has kinetoplast ant. next to nucleus +also provided with short undulating membrane?

A

Epimastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which cells do Trypanosomes invade?

A

WBCs, macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Trypanosoma found in old + new world?

A

T. vivax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For how long does Trypanosoma have?

A

Many years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Salivaria vs. Stercocaira; which occur in South America?

A

Both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the size range of trypanosomes?

A

8 - 39 µm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name of cutaneous inflammation after an infection/ infiltration with Trypanosoma.

A

Chancre.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nagana caused by:

A

Trypanosoma vivax, T. congolense, T.brucei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Spp ø effected by Nagana:

A

Wild animals + certain breeds of cattle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is the largest among causative agents of Nagana?

A

T. brucei brucei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which region of Africa does the acute, more rapid form of sleeping sickness ( T. rhodensiense) occur?

A

Eastern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Trypanosoma evansi causes:

A

Mal de caderas/ Surra.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Surra is found where in the world ?

A

North Africa, Asia, Central + South America.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The vector of T. brucei evansi plays a role as:

A

Mechanical vector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mal de Caderas symptoms:

A

Oedema of limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which animal has asymptomatic T. brucei evansi infection:

A

Cattle, H2O Sus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi causes:

A

Chagas disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The amastigote of Trypanosoma cruzi occurs?

A
  • In mesenchymal cells.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can dogs be infected with Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Eating bugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which phenotype is ø characteristic of Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Promastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is ø caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Megalomania.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which has the biggest kinetoplast/ soma from 4 Trypanosoma?

A

T. cruzi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How can the kissing bugs inoculate Trypanosoma cruzi in a host?

A

With their faeces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Trypanosoma brucei equiperdum causes:

A

Dourine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which trypanosoma sp. causes asymptomatic infection in dogs?

A

T. equiperdum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which sp. does causative agent of Dourine belong to?

A

T. brucei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In scientific terms, what is a dollar spot?

A

Uritricia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which ocular problem does Dourine ø cause?

A

Nystagmus, lachrymation, mydriasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dourine has been found where in EU in last 10 yrs?

A

Italy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the main sign seen towards the end of Dourine?

A
  • Paralysis, mainly in HL.

- Genitals, skin, n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is detected by Giemsa staining of blood smear?

A

Theileria, Trypanosoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of biological vector does Salivaria- type Trypanosoma have?

A
  • Biological: Glossina ssp. ( Tsetse flies).

- Mechanical: Stomoxys + tabanus spp ( blood sucking flies).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which phenotype/form is possible for the pathogenesis of Leishmania?

A

Amastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Leishmania develops from:

A

Amastigote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Incubation period of Leishmania?

A

Several years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Leishmaniosis vector is:

A

Sandfly ( Phleobotomus).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How can host be infected by Leishmania?

A

Female Sandfly, Vector disease, via biting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Leishmania transmission can be:

A

Vector borne, Sandfly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is/ are characteristic of pathogenesis of Leishmaniosis?

A
  • MPS killing amastigotes.

- Hyper- globulinemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Symptoms of Leishmania?

A
  • Cutaneous form- Hair loss, hyper- keratosis, desquamation, seborrhoea, small papules, ulcers, crusts, excessive long clawa.
  • Visceral form- Lymph nodes spleen + liver enlarge, fever, anaemia, emaciation, m. atrophy, ataxia, somnelence, lethargy, anorexia, vomit, diarrhoea, cachexia, PU, PD, ocular signs, rhinitis, coughing, epistaxis, melena.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cause of death in Leishmania?

A

Renal insufficiency/ failure ( kidney insufficiency).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which country lacks autochthonous cases ( indigenous, native) of Leishmaniosis?

A

Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the approximate size of Giardia:

A
  • Trophozoite 11- 17 µm.

- Cyst 10- 20 µm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do humans get giardia?

A

Swimming, contaminated drinking H2O, washing food with contaminated H2O, surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do chickens get Giardiasis?

A

Infection/os, Infected H2O, H20- borne infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How Giardia infects?

A

Via contaminated H2O, food, surfaces, coprophagy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where can we find Giardia extra- intestinally?

A

Bile + pancreatic ducts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Giardia cyst location?

A

Environment ( infectious form).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Giardia trophozoite location?

A
  • Host ( vegetative form).

- In intestine, bile duct, pancreatic duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which Giardia duodenalis occurs in dog?

A

Genotypes A- D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Difference between Trichomonas + Tritrichomonas?

A
  • Trichomonas 4 flagella, Birds.

- Tritrichomonas 3 flagella, Cattle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

If the following are present, more susceptible to Trichomonas.

A

Vit A deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How do pigeons acquire Trichomonas?

A
  • Young pigeons ( squabs)- Via feeding of regurgitated feed content.
  • Pigeons- Via kissing/ from contaminated drinking H2O.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

General feature of Trichomonas in pigeons?

A

Penguin- like posture.

birds stand upright with head high + neck straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the characteristic lesion in hepatic form of pigeon Trichomonosis?

A

Pea- size necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is/ are the worst consequences in Trichomonosis in Cows?

A
  • Early abortion ( 1st trimester, before 4th mnth)- Early abortion in 6- 16th week via absorption elimination.
  • Pyometra- Grey- white, odourless fluid swarming with Trichomonas.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Age when bulls are susceptible to Trichomonas spp:

A

> 3 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How does Trichomonas gallinae reach the liver in birds?

A

From navel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Geographical region with Tritrichomonas problems?

A

Certain states of America.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does Tritrichomonas foetus live in genital tract?

A

Epi- cellularly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which can be found in earthworms?

A

Histomonas meleagridis, Heterakis earthworm as a transport host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Predisposing factor of Histomonosis:

A

Turkeys kept together with chickens.

asymptomatic carriers, frequently Heterakis infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Characteristics of Histomonosis disease in birds?

A
  • Cyanosis of head ( blueish colour).

- + weakness, dropping of wings, drowsiness, yellow diarrhoea, death within days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which clinical sign is ø characteristic of turkey Histomonosis?

A

Head cyanosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following is/ are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites?

A

Eccentric endosome, Phagocytised RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What causes anosmia ( loss of smell)?

A

Entamoeba histolytica.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Entamoeba attacks:

A

RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where does the skin abscess of Entamoeba come from?

A
  • Skin: Erythema, alopecia, hyper- keratosis ( desquamation).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Acanthamoebosis

A

Free- living, soil inhabitant, opportunistic amoebae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is chronic granulomatous amoebic encephalitis ( GAE) in humans caused by?

A

Acanthamoeba castellani.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How can a dog become infected with Acanthamoeba castellani?

A
  • Contact with still H2O, through skin lesion.

- Or with distemper.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the form of Naegleria fowleri does ø have?

A

Provided with 1 flagellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the acute 1º amoebic meningoencephalitis ( PAM) in humans caused by?

A

Naegleria fowleri.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is true for infection with Amoeba?

A

Large nucleus + cyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Specific for opportunist amoebas?

A

Big nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Detection of Klossiella:

A
  • Sporocysts- urine : Na hydrogencarbonate, Centrifuge, Examine sediment.
  • Sporoblasts- Basophil staining, bilaminar membrane projections on surface.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What belongs to Alveolata ( meaning ‘ with cavities’, grp of protists)?

A

Apicomplexa, Ciliophora.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Where does the merozoite develop?

A

Inside Schizont.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which statement is ø true for the development of Eimeria sp.?

A

Schizogony occurs in gametogony.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Pre- disposing factors to Eimeria:

6

A

Young age, intensive ( crowded, accelerated keeping), insufficient nutrition ( lack of vit., protein in feed), litter ( deep), neglected hygienic measures, inter- current infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which Eimeria occurs extra- intestinally?

A
  • E. ninakohyakimovae in goats’ lymph nodes + gall bladder.

- E danoilovi in ducks, lesions in cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Difference between Isospora + Eimeria spp.?

A

Only Eimeria has cap, micropyle + residual bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Different Eimeria spp. asking for most pathogenic stage:

A
  • E. tenella 2nd Schizont.
  • E. necatrix 2nd Schizogony.
  • E. brunetti 2nd Schizogony, 3rd Gametogony.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How many Eimeria spp. cause haemorrhagic lesions in small intestine of chicken?

A

3 ( E. necatrix + maxima, brunetti).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How many Eimeria spp. cause haemorrahgic/ fibrinous lesions in caeca?

A

2 ( E. tenella + brunetti).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which Eimeria in small intestine does ø cause haemorrhages?

A

E. acervulina + E. mitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What Eimeria spp in chicken is:

  • Highly pathogenic:
  • Moderately pathogenic:
  • Less pathogenic:
A
  • E. tenella + necatrix.
  • E maxima.
  • E acervulina + mitis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which Eimeria causes ladder- like white bands?

A

E. acervulina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Eimeria acervulina location:

A

Duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which Eimeria spp is complimentary to E. acervulina?

A

E. mitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Location of Eimeria spp tenella:

A
  • Caecum.

- Epithelial cells- Lymphocytes- macrophages- crypt epi.

97
Q

Which is/ are the most pathogenic stage (s) of E. tenella?

A

2nd Schizont.

98
Q

Location of E. maxima?

A

Jejunum.

99
Q

Which Eimeria sp/ spp. cause(s) typically coagulation necrosis?

A

E. brunetti.

100
Q

Which Eimeria sp/ spp have 6- 7 days PreP period?

A

E. tenella + necatrix.

101
Q

Which is most probably ø found in chicken?

A

E. duodenalis + flavescens.

102
Q

ø neurological symptoms?

A

Eimeria of turkey.

103
Q

Which Eimeria sp does ø occur behind the small intestine?

A

E. meleagridis.

104
Q

Which turkey coccidium is at most forward?

A

E. meleagrimitis.

105
Q

The most pathogenic turkey coccidium?

A

E. adenoiedes + gallopavonis + meleagrimitis

106
Q

Which one is ø found in turkey?

A

E. duodenalis ( Pheasant).

107
Q

What is the characteristic colour of necrotic debris during E. adenoeides coccidiosis?

A

White.

108
Q

Which one causes catarrhal haemorrhagic inflammaton in Pheasant?

A

E. colchici.

109
Q

Coccidiosis of pigeon?

A

E. labbeana + columbarum.

110
Q

Where does Eimeria labbeana + columbarum develop?

A

Pigeon, middle of small intestine.

111
Q

Coccidiosis of Goose- Intestinal.

A

E. anseris + nocens + kotlani.

112
Q

Coccidiosis of Goose- Renal.

A

E. truncata.

113
Q

Which coccidia has 4 sporocysts with 4 sporozoites in each?

A

Wenyonella phuliplevinei ( coccidiosis of duck).

114
Q

How many Eimeria spp. does ø cause haemorrhages in small intestine? (Duck).

A

1 (E. anatis).

115
Q

How many Eimeria spp. cause haemorrhages in small intestine? (Duck).

A

3 ( Tyzzeria perniciosia, E. danailovi, Wenyonella philiplevinei).

116
Q

Coccidiosis of Eq.

A

E. leuckarti- small intestine.

117
Q

What characteristic lesion of Eq coccidiosis in small intestine?

A

Catarrhal- inflammatory changes.

118
Q

What type of oocyst is E. leuckarti?

A

80 µm, piriform, ( thick, dark brown wall + large micropyle).

119
Q

Coccidiosis of cattle.

A

E. zuernii + bovis + ellipsoidalis + alabamensis + auburnensis.

120
Q

Which Eimeria spp is highly pathogenic in cattle?

A

E. zuernii + bovis.

121
Q

Which E spp may have a high pathogenicity similar to E. zuernii?

A

E. alabamensis.

According to notes it’s E. bovis.

122
Q

Coccidiosis of Sheep.

A

E. ovinoidalis.

123
Q

Coccidiosis of Goat.

A

E ninakohlyakimovae.

124
Q

E. ovinoidalis of Sheep and what it causes in the intestines:

A

Diffuse hyper- plasia + thickening of wall of caecum, with necrosis, roughness + small haemorrhages on mucosal surface.

125
Q

Coccidiosis of Rabbit- Liver:

A

E. stiedai.

126
Q

Which of the highly pathogenic E sp is in R location?

A

E. flavescens inc aecum.

127
Q

Which of the following is correct?

A

E. irresidua- Jejunum.

128
Q

Rabbit coccidiosis difference:

A
  • Small intestine- x3 - E intestinalis - E.magna, E irresidua.
  • Large intestine- x2- E. flavescens, E. piriformis.
129
Q

Coccidiosis of Sus.

A
  • E. deblicki, E. polita, E. scabra, E. spinosa ( no- pathogenic).
  • Isospora suis ( pathogenic).
130
Q

What is ø characteristic during Sus coccidiosis?

A

Haemorrhagic enteritis.

131
Q

Where are the lesions caused by Isospora suis mostly situated?

A

Jejunum.

132
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts with 2 sporocysts?

A

Isospora.

133
Q

Coccidiosis of Dog.

A

Isospora canis + ohioensis + burrowsi.

134
Q

Coccidiosis of Cat.

A

Isospora felis + rivolta.

135
Q

Difference between Neospora + Isospora?

A
  • Isospora do ø have micropyle in wall.

- Isospora oocysts do ø have residual/ stieda body.

136
Q

If E. oocysts are recognised in dog faeces, then:

A

Belong to dogs as hosts, ø pathological significance; Pseudoparasites.

137
Q

Dog coccidiosis:

A

Host specific, homoxenous parasites ( + paratenic host).

138
Q

Locations of Cryptosporidium spp:
C. parvum
C. muris
C. andersoni

A
  • Small intestine ( ileum)- Ru, rodents, humans.
  • Abomasum/ stomach- rodents, rabbits, Ru, car, humans.
  • Abomasum/ stomach, Ru, humans.
139
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts with 4 free sporozoites?

A

Cryptosporidium.

140
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts without sporocysts?

A

Cryptosporidium.

141
Q

Size of Cryptosporidiosis oocyst?

A

5- 8 µm.

142
Q

What are the characteristics of Cryptosporidium baileyi oocysts?

A

6 - 7 µm, oval.

143
Q

Cryptosporidium infection:

A

/os, with H2O ( H2O- borne), aerogen via coughing, dust, spray.

144
Q

Which form of Cryptosporidiosis has the most severe outcome in mammals?

A

C. parvum.

145
Q

C. parvum more likely in:

A

Immunocompromised animals( opportunism), Giardia ( concurrent infection).

146
Q

Cryptosporidium andersoni in:

A

Gastric gl of Bo abomasum, Older calves.

147
Q

Which Cryptosporidium sp./ spp. occur (s) frequently in post- weaned/ older calves?

A

C. bovis + ryanae + andersoni.

148
Q

Which is ø characteristic of Avian cryptosporidiosis?

A

Hepatic.

149
Q

Crypstosporidium baileyi ø in:

True: in chicken.

A

…

150
Q

In which location will cryptosporidium baileyi ø establish?

A

Stomach.

151
Q

Which form of Cryptosporidiosis has the most severe outcome in broilers?

A

Respiratory form.

152
Q

In which host does Toxoplasmosis play a large role in abortion?

A

Sheep.

153
Q

Hammondia Hammondii is similar to:

A

Toxoplasma gondii.

154
Q

Which are the routes of infection of Toxoplasma?

A

Oral, galactogenic, Transplacental, parenteral.

155
Q

What kind of meat do humans get Toxoplasma from?

A
  • Venison, lamb, pork.

- Undercooked meat.

156
Q

How do humans get Toxoplasma?

A

Soil work, unwashed vegetables, oocyst in H2O, contact with cats.

157
Q

What are potential consequences of Neosporosis in dogs?

A
  • Poly- radiculo- neuritis ( ascending form of HL paralysis).
  • Dysphagia.
  • Dermatitis.
158
Q

When does Neospora caninum cause abortion?

A

Cows- abortion between 3rd- 7th mnth of gestation.( early foetal death may entail resorption, later mummification, autolysis).

159
Q

What is the characteristic gestation period of Neosporosis related abortion in cows? ( IH).

A

4- 6 mnths.

160
Q

Neospora hughesi causes:

A

Eq protozoal myelencephalitis (EPM).

161
Q

Who does Hammondiosis affect?

A
  • Final Host ( Car)- Dog, fox, coyote, cat.

- IH- Ru, guinea pigs, mice, deer dogs.

162
Q

Clinical signs of Hammondia spp:

A
  • H. hammondi, IH- Depression, anorexia, myocarditis, death in mouse, rat.
  • H. heydorni ø clinical signs.
163
Q

Hammondiosis causes symptoms in what?

A

Cat, dog.

164
Q

Which sp. contain Hammondi cysts?

A

Cats only, via faeces.

165
Q

Which sp is related to pathological signs in Hammondia?

A

Mouse- Depression, anorexia, myositis, myocarditis, death.

166
Q

Besnoitia sp. are:

A

Obligatory heteroxenous.

167
Q

Size of besnoitia cyst:

A

3 - 800 µm, visible to naked eye.

168
Q

What is the direction of spreading Bo Besnoitiosis in Europe?

A

South- west to east.

169
Q

Besnoitia vector:

A

Tabanus, stomoxys.

170
Q

Where does Besnoitia cyst occur?

A

Sclera, respiratory m., genital mucosa.

171
Q

Which domestic animals have zoonotic Sarcocystis sp./ spp?

A

Sus, cattle.

172
Q

Ru Sarcocystiosis pathogenesis:

A

Dalmeny disease- General haemorrhages diathesis ( petechial + diffuse).

173
Q

Haemogregarines characteristics:

A

Micro- + macro- gamonts develop next to each other.

174
Q

In Klossiella there is:

A
  • Free sporocyst to discharge via urine.

- Sporocyst with 10 - 15 sporozoites in it.

175
Q

Which animal is pathogenically affected by Klosseliosis?

A

Eq + Mouse.

176
Q

Hepatozoon host:

A

Dog, fox, jackal, (cat).

177
Q

True for hepatozoon:

A
  • Oocyst develops in ticks.

- Biological vectors- hard ticks mainly Rhipicephalus, R. turanicus, Amblyomma maculatum.

178
Q

Hepatozoon americanum develops in which tissue?

A

In m. ( myocardium).

179
Q

Specific for Hepatozoon americanum:

A

Schizonts with multi- lamellar wall ( onion- like).

180
Q

What is the last development stage in Hepatozoon canis of dog?

A

Gamont.

181
Q

Location of Hepatozoon canis:

A

Neu granulocytes.

182
Q

What is characteristic of Hepatozoon canis oocysts?

A

Very large, visible to naked eye.

183
Q

Which infective form in tick of Hepatozoon canis?

A

Oocyst.

184
Q

How can canine Hepatozoonosis be diagnosed?

A

Finding gamonts in blood.

185
Q

Haemosporinids?

A
  • Heteroxenous parasites.
  • Fertilized zygote is motile.
  • ø sporocyst, conoid.
186
Q

Which malaria is crescent shaped?

A

Malaria falciparum gametocytes.

187
Q

Which stage is missing in Plasmodium?

A

ø syzygium nor sporocyst.

188
Q

What cells are infected with Plasmodium?

A

MPS, RBC, ly, liver.

189
Q

In Plasmodium sp., where does the primer exo- erythrocytic schizogony take place?

A
  • Mammals- liver parenchymal cells.

- Birds- MPS of skin.

190
Q

Followed by endo- erythrocytic merogony in:

A

RBCs, within PV, continuing repeatedly + synchronising.

191
Q

Which Plasmodium causes the appearance of Schüffner dots in RBC?

A

P. ovale + P. vivax.

192
Q

Which Plasmodium sp. is ø pathogenic to humans?

A

P. simium.

193
Q

What is the most important biological vector of Plasmodium gallinaceum ( chicken)?

A
  • Culex/ Aedes mosquitoes- Birds.

- Anopheles mosquitoes- Mammals.

194
Q

Which isn’t a characteristic of Haemoproteosis?

A

Lung emphysema.

195
Q

Where does Haemoproetus develop?

A

In vector for 1- 2 weeks.

196
Q

Vectors of Haemoproteus spp?

A
  • Biological vectors.
    > Forest flies ( Hippoboscidae spp.).
    > Biting midges ( Culicoides spp.).
197
Q

Where does the 1st schizogony of Haemoproteus spp. take place?

A

In endothelial cells.

198
Q

Haemoproteus can be detected:

A

Pigmented gamonts in RBCs.

199
Q

Which is correct for Haemoproteus?

A
  • Sausage- shaped gamont inside RBCs.

- Sausage- like in RBCs next to nucleus.

200
Q

Which Leucocytozoon sp. occurs in chicken?

A

L. caulleryi.

201
Q

Which are the vectors of Leucocytozoon sp.?

A
  • Biological vectors.
    > Blackflies ( Simulidae).
    > Biting midges ( Culicoides spp.).
202
Q

Leucocytozoon 1st schizogony takes place where?

A

In liver parenchymal cells.

203
Q

Which is absent from the lifecycle of Leucocytozoon sp.?

A

Sporokinete.

204
Q

Which is the location of Leucocyotzoon sp. don’t usually cause any haemorrhage, necrosis?

A

MM.

205
Q

Which is the location of Leucocyotzoon sp. usually cause haemorrhage, necrosis?

A

Lungs, liver, spleen, kidneys, gall bladder, ovary, oviduct + m.

206
Q

Piroplasmosis characteristics:

A
  • Heteroxenous parasite.

- ø oocyst, conoid.

207
Q

Breed predisposition to Babesia in dogs:

A

Spaniel.

208
Q

Transmission of Babesia

A

Via ticks.

209
Q

Which ticks are vector of large Babesia spp?

A
  • Eq: Dermacentor marginatus.
  • Bo: Boophilus spp + Haemaphysalis punctuata.
  • Car: Dermacentor reticularis.
210
Q

Babesia canis transmittes by Ixodes ricinus + Dermacentor reticulatus?

A

False.

211
Q

Mode of Babesia transmission:

A

Trans- ovarial ( F), Trans- stadial, Intra- stadial ( M).

212
Q

Which is the vector of zoonotic European Babesiosis?

A

Dermacentor reticularis.

213
Q

Can humans get Babesia from dogs?

A

False.

214
Q

Babesia incubation period:

A

4 - 21 days.

215
Q

Form of Theileria that occurs in RBCs?

A

Piroplasm.

216
Q

What is ø characteristic of Eq Theileriosis?

A

ø see neurological signs.

217
Q

Which is ø in South America?

A

Theileria parva( East Africa) + B. microti( North America, Europe).

218
Q

Which Theileria sp. is./ are pathogenic?

A

T. equi, T. parva, T. lawrencei, T. annulata, T. hirei.

219
Q

1st schizogony of Cytauxzoon felis occurs in:

A

MPS cells ( RES, mostly macrophages).

220
Q

Vectors of Cytauxzoonosis?

A

Dermacentor variabilis, Amblyomma americanum.

221
Q

Which genus does the vector of Cytauxzoon felis belong to?

A

Amblyomma.

222
Q

What is 1ºly responsible for pathogenic effect of Cytauxzoon felis?

A

Occlusion of BV by schizonts.

223
Q

Balantidium coli:

A
  • Vegetative form 50 - 150 µm ( ovoid, vestibulum, cytostome).
  • Cyst 40 - 60 µm ( spherical, thick walled).
224
Q

What is Blastocytosis similar to?

A

Cryptosporidium genus.

225
Q

How does Blastocysta infect?

A

Faecal-route or waterborne.

226
Q

What is the smallest in Blastocysta?

A

Cyst ( 3- 6 µm).

227
Q

Into which larger taxonomical category do Blastocystis spp. belong to?

A

Stramenophila protist.

228
Q

Which is in Alveolate grp?

A

Grp of protists.

229
Q

Alveolata is related to:

A

Apicomplexan parasites.

230
Q

Microspora:

A
  • Homoxenous, obligatory IC parasites ( ø mitochondria).`
  • In spore: 1 polar body, spiral duct + sproplasm.
  • Genera: Encephalitozoon, Enterocytozoon (hu), Nosema ( bee).
231
Q

What is the approximate size of Encephalitozoon cuniculi spores?

A

2µm.

232
Q

In what can Encephalitozoon spores be found?

A

Urine, Renal tubular cells, kidney, Brain.

233
Q

Staining Encephalitozoon cuniculi:

A

Ziehl Nielsen, India ink.

234
Q

It is more a fox symptom than a dog in case of Encephalitozoonosis:

A

Thickened arterial wall, smaller diameter.

235
Q

Which clinical sign is ø characteristic of Encephalitozoonosis?

A

Post. paralysis.

236
Q

What is characteristic effect of pathology of Encephalitozoonosis?

A

Chronic interstitial nephritis.

237
Q

How can infection with Encephalitozoon cuniculi be acquired?

A

Prenatally.

238
Q

Representatives of which orders are 1ºly affected by Encephalitozoon cuniculi?

A

Lagomorpha, Carnivora.

Parasitology FINAL (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions