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OPFD Drugs > Protocols > Flashcards

Protocols Flashcards

1
Q

Bradycardia is less than?

A

50 bpm

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2
Q

Atropine dose for Brady patients?

A

0.5 mg IV adult
Max of 3mg

.02 mg/kg for pediatric
Max of .5mg

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3
Q

Omit atropine in?

A

2nd or 3rd degree blocks.

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4
Q

Digitalis toxicity joule setting?

A

5-20 joules

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5
Q

Dosage for synchronized cardiovert for afib and irregular SVT?

A

120-200j

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6
Q

A flutter and regular SVT synchronized cardio version dosage?

A

50-100j

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7
Q

Drops per minute formula

A

Volume/minutes * by drop factor ex. 60gtts/min

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8
Q

Defibrillation for pediatric pulseless patient?

A

2j/kg

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9
Q

What should be monitored when using restraints?

A

Spo2 and EKG

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10
Q

What is required on DNR form?

A

Original or copy on yellow paper with black “DNR” written, patient identification and signed by patients doctor.

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11
Q

Can a DNR expire?

A

Never

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12
Q

How can a DNR be revoked?

A

In writing, destruction of or failure to present form or verbally.

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13
Q

What are the 4 presumptive signs of death?

A

Pulseless, apneic, unresponsive, fixed dilated pupils (F.U.P.A)

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14
Q

What are the 4 signs of death?

A

Rigor mortis, liver mortis, tissue decomposition and injuries incompatible with life

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15
Q

Can resuscitation be stopped once started?

A

Yes, if presented with DNR or doctors orders

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16
Q

What are required to cease resuscitation in the field?

A

Medical direction along with advanced airway, drugs and shock given

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17
Q

Minimum rehab time?

A

15 min

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18
Q

What is required if presentation in rehab is abnormal for 15min?

A

ALS treatment

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19
Q

What is an abnormal rehab HR?

A

+120

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20
Q

What CO levels require immediate transport

A

25%+

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21
Q

Who has the final say on landing zone suitability?

A

Pilot in charge PIC

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22
Q

How far away do obstacles need to be?

A

Anything 40+ feet need to be 100+ feet away

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23
Q

What must be worn when approaching a helicopter?

A

Full PPE

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24
Q

Can you use road flairs for helicopter?

A

No

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25
Q

What are MCI levels

A

1= 5-10
2= 11-20
3= 21-100
4= 101-1000
5= 1000+

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26
Q

What is assessed during MCI?

A

RPM= Respirations, Pulse and mentation

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27
Q

What Jump start triage Black?

A

No resp and no pulse, no resp with pulse after 5 breaths

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28
Q

What equipment is needed for ped cric?

A

14g, 15mm adapter from small tube. 10cc

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29
Q

What solution is placed on patient prior to performing cric?

A

Provodine- Iodine swab

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30
Q

What is age cutoff for safe haven for newborns?

A

7 days

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31
Q

What questions should be asked of parent during safe haven event?

A

Only medically pertinent questions

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32
Q

What needs to be done immediately after safe haven event?

A

Create a run, complete a report, transport to hospital and notify Safe Haven for Newborns

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33
Q

When do you notify DLE during safe haven event?

A

In cases of obvious abuse

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34
Q

What is fall height for level 2 trauma?

A

Adult = 12ft
Ped= 6ft

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35
Q

GCS eye response score?

A

4 spontaneous, 3 Verbal, 2 Pain, 1 none

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36
Q

GCS Verbal score

A

5 oriented, 4 confused, 3 inappropriate, 2 Garbled, 1 none

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37
Q

GCS motor score

A

6 obeys, 5 Localizes, 4 withdraws, 3 Flexion, 2 extension, 1 none

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38
Q

What race is a stroke alert?

A

greater than 0

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39
Q

What does adding __ symbol to race score mean? ** couldnt read the symbol on the actual paper **

A

High possibility of Large vessel occlusion

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40
Q

How do you measure a rigid suction catheter?

A

From earlobe to corner of mouth

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41
Q

In what direction do you perform a incision for cric

A

First vertical and then Secondly horizontal

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42
Q

Where do you perform a needle decompression

A

2 or 3rd intercostal space

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43
Q

How do you check effectiveness of pacing

A

Check pulse on right side

44
Q

Why do you check pulse on right side during pacing

A

Because of muscle twitching

45
Q

For how long should you flush chemicals or foreign bodies from eyes?

A

20 min

46
Q

What is the max volume you can admin in a nare?

A

1ml per nostril

47
Q

What is recorded when applying a tourniquet

A

time of application

48
Q

What does the blue seal on the narcotics container mean?

A

That the drug has not been replaced

49
Q

What should be written on all equipment issued to you for identification

A

Employee number

50
Q

Who should employees refer all media reps to during normal business hours?

A

Fire Admin

51
Q

Who should employees refer media to after hours?

A

On duty battalion chief

52
Q

Who do you notify in case if runaway seeking shelter under safeplace?

A

Dispatch and BSO

53
Q

Who are the results of sexual abuse case shared with?

A

Complainant, accused employee, and Other that are absolutely necessary

54
Q

When an apparatus is involved in a accident should you move the vehicle?

A

No, vehicle should remain till BSO investigation

55
Q

When are you required to move vehicle after an accident?

A

When obstructing traffic

56
Q

What are you never to admit under any circumstance when involved in an accident

A

Guilt

57
Q

What is the minimum response to a fire alarm even if it has been reported false

A

1 unit for completion of ppw

58
Q

What do you do if FLC doesnt call back?

A

Call every 8 hours

59
Q

What is required to be given with all requests for treatment?

A

Urine and drug testing

60
Q

When do you not use NPA?

A

patients with frontal head or facial fractures (possible basilar skull fracture)

61
Q

Red trauma alert criteria?

A

Burns 15% or more, direct lightning burns

62
Q

What classifies patient as red?

A

Respirations greater than 30, unable to follow commands and no radial pulse

63
Q

Age cutoff for trauma?

A

16 yo

64
Q

Age cutoff for medical?

A

18yo

65
Q

What spo2 do you give support to?

A

less 94%

66
Q

What is BP cutoff for morphine?

A

90 mmhg

67
Q

First line drug for asthma patients?

A

Albuterol

68
Q

When can you use atrovent?

A

With any albuterol dose

69
Q

How many Epi doses are in ALS1 Asthma?

A

2 Epi dosages

70
Q

What is the asthma epi dose?

A

1:1000, 0.3 mg IM

71
Q

Asthma mag dose?

A

2gm in 50 ml over 5-10 min

72
Q

BP cutoff for nitro?

A

100 mmhg

73
Q

Nitro dose for CHF with high BP?

A

0.8mg

74
Q

What setting for CPAP on CHF patient?

A

10 PEEP

75
Q

What is ALS1 for pneumonia

A

Albuterol, Atrovent and IV bolus 250-500

76
Q

Treatment for v4R

A

Fluid bolus (500ml) x2 and transport

77
Q

What CANT be given on v4r patients?

A

Nitro or morphine

78
Q

What is sinus tach range?

A

100-160

79
Q

Junctional tach range

A

100-180

80
Q

Atrial tach range?

A

150-250

81
Q

Atrial flutter range

A

250-350

82
Q

Afib range

A

350+

83
Q

Cardizem dosage for SVT stable?

A

0.25mg/kg (5mg every 2 min)

84
Q

Cardizem dosage for second treatment?

A

0.35 mg/kg (5mg every 2min)

85
Q

Contraindication for Cardizem

A

WPW

86
Q

Mag dosage for torsades?

A

2gm in 50ml over 5-10min

87
Q

How long post partum seizures can occur?

A

up to 6 weeks

88
Q

What determines imminent delivery of baby?

A

Crowning

89
Q

Where is the cord cut after deliver?

A

8 inches from baby and 2 inches apart

90
Q

When is cord cut after delivery?

A

30sec- 3min or when stops pulsating

91
Q

What is APGAR

A

Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respirations

92
Q

HOw do you create Epi 1:100,000?

A

Remove 9ml of 1:10,000 and draw 9ml of saline

93
Q

What is treatable BGL level?

A

<60 with symptoms

94
Q

What size burns should be covered with sterile dressing?

A

5% 3rd degree or 20% 2nd degree

95
Q

Can calcium and bicarb be given through same line?

A

No, but if needed use 20 ml flush in between

96
Q

Dopamine dosage after rosc?

A

5-10 mcg/kg/min

97
Q

Max dose nitro for MI?

A

3 dosages= total of .12mg

98
Q

Age albuterol dosage is cut in half?

A

Less than 1 year

99
Q

Age atrovent is cut in half

A

less than 8yr old

100
Q

Fluid bolus for pediatrics

A

20ml/kg

101
Q

Epi dose pediatric

A

.01 mg/kg

102
Q

Infant and newborn arrest is a result of what?

A

Poor oxygenation

103
Q

Where do you check glucose on an newborn?

A

Heel

104
Q

When giving benadryl IV to pediatric what should you do?

A

dilute in 9ml of saline

105
Q

Epi dose for pediatric?

A

.01 mg/kg

OPFD Drugs (4 decks)

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