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OPFD Drugs > 6 month test > Flashcards

6 month test Flashcards

1
Q

When do DNR forms expire?

A

Never

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2
Q

What is required for DNR form?

A

Original or copy (with original signature). On yellow paper with black “DNR” written, patient identification and signed by doctor.

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3
Q

Can a DNR be revoked?

A

Yes

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4
Q

How can a DNR be revoked?

A

In writing, destruction or failure to present form or verbally.

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5
Q

4 signs of presumptive death?

A

Pulseless
Unresponsive
Apneic
Fixed and dilated pupils

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6
Q

4 conclusive signs of death?

A

Rigor mortis
Liver mortis (lividity, blood pooling down)
Tissue decomposition
Injuries incompatible with life

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7
Q

Can time of death be called on pediatrics?

A

Yes, only in cases of prolonged death

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8
Q

When can trauma patients be pronounced?

A

Pulseless and apneic with asystole in 2 leads with blunt trauma arrest, extrication time >15min or arrest from primary brain injury

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9
Q

Can resuscitation be stopped once started?

A

If DNR is presented or doctors orders

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10
Q

When do FF’s need to go to rehab?

A

After 2 bottles or 30 min
SCBA failure
Chest pain, weakness, dizzy etc
Officer discretion

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11
Q

Minimum rehab time?

A

15min

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12
Q

What is required if presentation in rehab is abnormal for more than 15min?

A

ALS treatment

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13
Q

What is abnormal rehab spo2?

A

<94%

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14
Q

Rehab abnormal HR?

A

120+ bpm

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15
Q

Rehab abnormal CO?

A

More than 8% but less than 15% (give 5 min to bring down

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16
Q

What CO level requires immediate transport?

A

25%

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17
Q

Abnormal rehab temp?

A

> 100.6

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18
Q

Minimum dispatch for rescue

A

1 Engine and 1 Rescue

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19
Q

Who has the final say for pilot landing

A

Pilot in charge

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20
Q

How far away do obstacles need to be?

A

Anything 40+ feet need to be 100+ feet away

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21
Q

How must you approach helicopter?

A

In pilots field of vision and in low crouch

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22
Q

When can you approach a helicopter

A

When the all clear is given

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23
Q

What must be worn when approaching a helicopter?

A

Full PPE

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24
Q

Can you use road flairs for helicopters?

A

No

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25
Q

Minimum size for helispot?

A

100 x 100

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26
Q

Who is able to refuse care?

A

Competent person, 18+ yo or emancipated minor

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27
Q

Who is unable to refuse care?

A

Suicidal
AMS
Severely altered vitals
Mentally retarded
Not acting reasonable
< 18yo

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28
Q

MCI levels

A

1= 5-10
2= 11- 20
3= 21- 100
4= 101 -1000
5= 1000+

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29
Q

What are MCI priorities

A

Red, Yellow, Green and Black

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30
Q

What is assessed in MCI?

A

RPM= Respirations, Pulse and Mentation

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31
Q

What signs classify patient RED?

A

Resp 30+, no radial pulse, unable to follow commands

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32
Q

Classify as black?

A

No breathing despite opening airway

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33
Q

Jump start triage black?

A

No resp no pulse, no resp with pulse after 5 breaths

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34
Q

During MCI, Ped not breathing with pulse but resumes breathing after 5 vent. What color?

A

Red

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35
Q

MCI, Ped cap refill >2sec and no radial, what color?

A

Red

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36
Q

What equipment is needed for Ped cric?

A

14g, 15mm adapter from small tube and 10cc

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37
Q

What angle do you insert needle cric?

A

45 degrees

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38
Q

What solution is used prior to performing cric?

A

Provodine iodine swab

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39
Q

What is age cutoff for needle cric?

A

<12 yo

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40
Q

What is the age cutoff for safe haven of newborns

A

7 days

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41
Q

What questions should be asked of parent during safe haven event?

A

Only medically pertinent questions

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42
Q

What needs to be done immediately after safe haven event?

A

Create a run , complete report, transport, notify of a Safe Haven

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43
Q

When do you notify LEO in a safe haven event?

A

In case of obvious abuse

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44
Q

Red trauma criteria

A

Airway- assistance required
Circulation- BP <90, No radial pulse
Fractures- Multiple long bone fractures
Burns- 2-3rd degree burns > 15%BSA
High voltage
Amputations
Penetrating injury head, neck or torso
GCS < 12
Exhibits paralysis

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45
Q

If patient does not meet trauma criteria what can you do?

A

Paramedic judgement

46
Q

Blue trauma alert

A

Airway sustained resp >30
Sustained HR of >120
Fractures single long bone Fx site due to MVA or fall greater than 10ft
Injuries- major degloving, Avulsion >5in, GSW to extremities
MOI- Ejection from vehicle or deformed steering wheel
Age- 55 or older

47
Q

Pediatric red trauma criteria

A

Airway- assisted or intubated
Motor response- AMS, Paralysis
Weak or no carotid/femoral pulse
Systolic <50
Any open bone fx,multiple fx sites, multiple dislocations
Major soft tissue disruption
Burns- 10% or greater
Penetrating trauma head, neck, torso

48
Q

Pediatric Blue criteria

A

Size red or purple 11kg
Amnesia or reliable history of LOC
Only carotid or femoral pulses present
SIngle bone Fx

49
Q

What is the fall height for level 2 trauma

A

Adult = 12ft
Ped= 6ft

50
Q

MVA criteria for level 2 trauma?

A

> 15min extrication time
Rollover
Death of an occupant
Major intrusion
Ejection from bike

51
Q

What is speed criteria for Pedestrian vs Vehicle

A

Adult >15mph
Ped >6mph

52
Q

Age criteria for level 2 trauma

A

55+

53
Q

What are the medication criteria for level 2

A

Anti-platelet and anti cougulant

54
Q

GCS eye response score

A

4- spontaneous
3- Verbal
2- Pain
1- None

55
Q

GCS verbal response score

A

5 oriented
4 Confused
3 Inappropriate
2 Garbled
1 None

56
Q

What is GCS motor response score

A

6 obeys
5 localizes
4 Withdraws
3 Flexion
2 Extension
1 None

57
Q

What is the RACE assessment for the face?

A

Facial droop

58
Q

What is the RACE assessment for arm function?

A

Arm drift 10 seconds

59
Q

What is the RACE assessment for leg function?

A

Lift leg for 5 seconds

60
Q

What is the RACE assessment for gaze and head?

A

Check for deviation

61
Q

RACE assessment for aphasia?

A

Give a command (make a fist ie.)

62
Q

What is the RACE assessment for agnosia?

A

Have a patient name an object and show use

63
Q

What RACE score is a stroke alert?

A

Anything greater than 0

64
Q

What is added to the race score if deviation, agnosia, aphasia are present?

A

“A “symbol

65
Q

What does adding “A” symbol to RACE score mean?

A

High possibility of large vessel occlusion

66
Q

How and for how long do you mix the Cyanokit?

A

Rocking motion for 30 seconds

67
Q

What is required for the delivery of a Cyanokit?

A

A dedicated line

68
Q

Over how long do you infuse Cyanokit?

A

15 min

69
Q

When do you not use an NPA?

A

Patients with frontal head or midfacial injuries (poss basilar fractures)

70
Q

How to measure an NPA?

A

Nostril to earlobe

71
Q

How to insert an NPA?

A

Bevel to the septum

72
Q

How to measure an OPA?

A

Corner of mouth to earlobe

73
Q

How long can you suction a patient?

A

10 seconds

74
Q

How do you measure a rigid suction catheter?

A

From the earlobe to the corner of the mouth

75
Q

What direction is your incision done for a cric?

A

1st Vertically
2nd Horizontally

76
Q

How to assess for tension penumothorax?

A

Absent sounds to affected side
Poor ventilation
Tracheal deviation
JVD
Decreased Spo2 or EtCo2

77
Q

When would JVD not be present in tension pneumo?

A

Severe hemorrhage

78
Q

Where do you perform a needle decompression

A

2nd or 3rd intercostal space

79
Q

What needle is used foro chest decompression?

A

3 1/2 inch 14 gauge needle

80
Q

At what heart rate do you set the lifepak before pacing?

A

70-80 bpm

81
Q

How do you check the effectiveness of pacing

A

Check for a pulse on the carotid or femoral or brachial

82
Q

Why do you check a pulse on Right side during pacing?

A

Because of muscle twitching

83
Q

What do you do if you have no mechanical pulse during pacing?

A

Treat as Asystole/PEA

84
Q

What do you do immediately after pacing?

A

Print a continuous rhythm strip

85
Q

Where can you place pads for pacing?

A
  • anterior and posterior to the heart
    or - Upper right, left midaxillary (lateral to the left nipple)
86
Q

For how long do you flush chemicals or foreign bodies from the eye?

A

20 min

87
Q

Max volume you can administer intranasal?

A

1 ml per nostrile

88
Q

What locations can you perform an IO?

A

Proximal tibia
Proximal humerus

89
Q

What must be recorded when applying a trauma tourniquette?

A

Time of application

90
Q

What is an emancipated minor?

A

Completely self sufficient, married or in military

91
Q

What is age cutoff for trauma

A

16

92
Q

What is the age cutoff for medical?

A

18yo

93
Q

What is a newborn?

A

Patient just born

94
Q

What is a neonate?

A

Patient is less than 6 weeks (1 month)

95
Q

What is an infant?

A

Under 1 year

96
Q

What is a child?

A

1 year to puberty

97
Q

What is adolescent?

A

Child that has reached puberty

98
Q

What determines a trauma alert?

A

1 red or 2 blue criteria

99
Q

What Sat do you give support to?

A

less than 94%

100
Q

What are signs of tube confirmation

A

ETco2, Visualized, Neg epigastric, and positive lung sounds

101
Q

What is BP cutoff for Morphine?

A

90 systolics

102
Q

How is nitrous given?

A

Self-administered

103
Q

What is normal Etco2 range?

A

35-45

104
Q

What is done if you cant visualize FBAO?

A

Intubate, if unable to cric

105
Q

In what position do we place respiratory patients

A

Fowlers

106
Q

What is first line drug for asthma patients

A

Albuterol

107
Q

When can you use atrovent

A

With any albuterol dose

108
Q

How many epi doses are in the ACLS asthma?

A

2

109
Q

What is the asthma epi dose?

A

1:1000 .3mg IM

110
Q

What is the asthma Mag dose?

A

2gm in 50 ml over 5-10 min

111
Q

What is CPAP peep for asthma

A

2.5- 5

112
Q

What is asthma ALS-2

A

Repeat Epi

OPFD Drugs (4 decks)

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