Protein Metabolism Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of amino acids?

A

Essential, conditionally essential, and nonessential amino acids

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2
Q

How can certain nonessential amino acids become essential?

A

Under certain conditions and states

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3
Q

What is the daily protein requirement for high-quality protein?

A

0.8 g per kg ideal body weight

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4
Q

What is the term for the constant breakdown and synthesis of body proteins?

A

Turnover

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5
Q

What is the range of half-lives for proteins?

A

From 11 minutes to life-long

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6
Q

How are extracellular and membrane proteins catabolized?

A

Via endocytosis and fusion with lysosomes

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7
Q

What system degrades intracellular proteins?

A

Ubiquitin Proteasome System (UPS)

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8
Q

What is the primary waste product from excess nitrogen?

A

Urea

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9
Q

What are the daily unavoidable nitrogen losses?

A

Must be replaced by synthetic reactions using dietary amino acids

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10
Q

What is the first form of Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM)?

A

Kwashiorkor

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11
Q

What characterizes Kwashiorkor?

A

Protein deficiency with sufficient carbohydrates, edema

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12
Q

What is the second form of Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM)?

A

Marasmus

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13
Q

What characterizes Marasmus?

A

Deficiency in both calorie and protein, no edema

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14
Q

What is the mnemonic for essential amino acids?

A

PVT TIM HALL

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15
Q

What are the essential amino acids represented by the mnemonic?

A
  • Phe
  • Val
  • Thr
  • Trp
  • Ile
  • Met
  • His
  • Arg
  • Leu
  • Lys
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16
Q

What is the role of gastric parietal cells?

A

Secrete HCl to partially denature proteins

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17
Q

What activates pepsin in the stomach?

A

The acidic environment through self-cleavage

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18
Q

What activates trypsinogen in the small intestine?

A

Enteropeptidase

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19
Q

What is the primary transport mechanism for free amino acids into cells?

A

Na+-dependent transport

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20
Q

What condition is characterized by defective transport of large neutral amino acids?

A

Hartnup disease

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21
Q

What condition is characterized by defective transport of basic amino acids?

A

Cystinuria

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22
Q

What is the function of ubiquitin in protein degradation?

A

Targets proteins for degradation by the proteasome

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23
Q

What are the FDA-approved proteasome inhibitors for treating multiple myeloma?

A
  • Velcade (Bortezomib)
  • Kyprolis (Carfilzomib)
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24
Q

What is the acidic environment in lysosomes primarily maintained by?

A

Vacuolar H+ ATPase

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25
Q

What are the two types of autophagy?

A
  • Micro-autophagy
  • Macro-autophagy
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26
Q

What is the purpose of amino acid catabolism?

A
  • Provide materials/presursors for synthesis
  • Provide intermediates for TCA cycle
  • Provide intermediates for glucose or lipid biosynthesis
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27
Q

What are glucogenic amino acids?

A

Amino acids that produce pyruvate or TCA intermediates

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28
Q

What are ketogenic amino acids?

A

Amino acids that produce ketone bodies

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29
Q

What are the main enzymatic reactions involved in amino acid catabolism?

A
  • Aminotransferases
  • Glutamate Dehydrogenase
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30
Q

What is the role of glutamine in the body?

A

Non-toxic plasma transporter for ammonium to the liver

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31
Q

What amino acids are related to α-ketoglutarate?

A
  • Glutamine
  • Glutamate
  • Proline
  • Arginine
  • Histidine
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32
Q

What amino acids are related to oxaloacetate (OAA)?

A
  • Aspartate
  • Asparagine
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33
Q

What is FA oxidation?

A

Fatty acid oxidation process that breaks down fatty acids to generate energy

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34
Q

What does TCA cycle stand for?

A

Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle

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35
Q

Which amino acid is a non-toxic plasma transporter for ammonium to the liver?

A

Glutamine

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36
Q

Name two amino acids related to TCA cycle intermediates OAA.

A
  • Aspartate
  • Asparagine
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37
Q

List three amino acids related to TCA cycle intermediates fumarate.

A
  • Phenylalanine
  • Tyrosine
  • Glutamate
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38
Q

What is the Krebs bi-cycle?

A

The common steps between the TCA cycle and urea cycle

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39
Q

Identify two amino acids that are related to the TCA cycle intermediate Succinyl-CoA.

A
  • Methionine
  • Threonine
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40
Q

Which important vitamin is involved in the synthesis of Methionine?

A

B12

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41
Q

Fill in the blank: The five cofactors involved in branched-chain α-keto acid dehydrogenase are TPP, riboflavin, lipoic acid, pantothenic acid, and _______.

A

niacin

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42
Q

What is the main substrate of branched-chain α-keto acid dehydrogenase?

A

Branched-chain α-keto acids

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43
Q

What is Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)?

A

A deficiency of the branched-chain α-keto acid dehydrogenase leading to abnormal metabolism of leucine, isoleucine, and valine

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44
Q

What is a treatment for MSUD?

A

Strict dietary control of BCAA and possible supplementation with thiamine

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45
Q

Which amino acids are exclusively ketogenic?

A
  • Leucine
  • Lysine
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46
Q

What condition is characterized by defective transport of large neutral amino acids like tryptophan?

A

Hartnup disease

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47
Q

What is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A

A genetic disorder caused by a deficiency in the enzyme that metabolizes phenylalanine

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48
Q

What unusual metabolites appear in the blood and urine of PKU patients?

A
  • Phenylpyruvate
  • Phenylacetate
  • Phenyl lactate
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49
Q

What is the musty urine odor in PKU patients due to?

A

Unusual metabolites of phenylalanine

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50
Q

What is the incidence of classical PKU in newborns?

A

About 1 in 15,000 newborns

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51
Q

What dietary treatment is recommended for pregnant women with PKU?

A

Maintain low plasma levels of phenylalanine during gestation

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52
Q

What causes urine to darken in Alcaptonuria?

A

Oxidation and polymerization of homogentisate

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53
Q

Name two symptoms of Alcaptonuria.

A
  • Homogentisic aciduria
  • Arthritis
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54
Q

What is the clinical relevance of amino acid metabolism?

A

Understanding nitrogen balance, glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids, and related diseases

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55
Q

What is the treatment for cystinuria?

A

Dietary restriction of cysteine and methionine, increase fluid intake

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56
Q

What is the condition characterized by excessive phenylalanine levels in infants?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

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57
Q

What is the main characteristic of lysosomal storage disorders?

A

Defects in lysosomal enzyme targeting or function

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58
Q

What is the purpose of the Urea Cycle?

A

To dispose of nitrogen and excrete ammonia.

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59
Q

Which substrates are involved in the Urea Cycle?

A
  • NH4+
  • HCO3-
  • Ornithine
  • Aspartate
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60
Q

What are the main reactions of the Urea Cycle?

A

Involves the conversion of ammonium to urea in the liver through specific enzymatic reactions.

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61
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of the Urea Cycle?

A

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I (CPS-I)

62
Q

How is the Urea Cycle regulated?

A
  • Allosteric effectors
  • Substrate availability
  • Enzyme levels
63
Q

What are the causes of hyperammonemia?

A
  • Excess protein intake
  • Fasting
  • Trauma
  • Liver disease or toxins
  • Genetic defects in Urea Cycle enzymes
  • Intestinal bacteria
64
Q

True or False: High levels of ammonium are toxic to the CNS.

65
Q

What role does glutamate play in amino acid metabolism?

A

It is formed from the transfer of amino groups and can release ammonia.

66
Q

Fill in the blank: The Urea Cycle occurs primarily in the ______.

67
Q

What is the major nitrogenous excretory product of amino acid degradation?

68
Q

What is the significance of the Krebs bi-cycle in relation to the Urea Cycle?

A

It recycles fumarate back to aspartate, replenishing TCA cycle intermediates.

69
Q

What is the effect of a high protein diet on the Urea Cycle?

A

It induces the synthesis of urea cycle enzymes.

70
Q

How does the body transport ammonium to the liver?

A

Through glutamine and alanine as nitrogen carriers.

71
Q

What happens to urea excretion during fasting?

A

It is high during the first few days due to muscle proteolysis.

72
Q

What is the role of arginine in the Urea Cycle?

A

It stimulates the synthesis of N-Acetyl-Glutamate, activating CPS-I.

73
Q

What are the three main enzymatic reactions converting NH4+ to organic forms?

A
  • Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GDH)
  • Glutamine Synthetase
  • Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS-I)
74
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperammonemia?

A
  • Tremors
  • Slurred speech
  • Blurry vision
  • Somnolence
  • Vomiting
  • Coma
  • Death
75
Q

What is the main function of aminotransferases?

A

To transfer amino groups to α-ketoglutarate, forming glutamate.

76
Q

What is the clinical significance of Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)?

A

High in kidney disease but generally low in liver failure.

77
Q

What happens to glutamine levels during acquired hyperammonemia?

A

They are generally high in the blood due to urea cycle backup.

78
Q

What is the first step in the Urea Cycle?

A

Formation of Carbamoyl Phosphate by CPS-I.

79
Q

What is the role of Nitric Oxide Synthase (NOS) in relation to arginine?

A

It uses arginine to synthesize Nitric Oxide (NO).

80
Q

What is a common defect in congenital hyperammonemia?

A

Defects in Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I (CPS I) or Ornithine TransCarbamoylase (OTC).

81
Q

What happens to muscle proteolysis as the brain adapts to ketone bodies during fasting?

A

The rate of muscle proteolysis and gluconeogenesis from muscle amino acids drops.

82
Q

What is the result of Ornithine TransCarbamoylase deficiency?

A

Excessive orotic acid in the urine

Orotic acid is an intermediate of the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway.

83
Q

What symptoms do infants with urea cycle defects typically develop shortly after birth?

A

Lethargy, irritability, vomiting, and coma.

84
Q

What happens to ornithine levels in Argininosuccinate lyase deficiency?

A

Ornithine quickly becomes depleted.

85
Q

How can oral arginine help individuals with Argininosuccinate lyase deficiency?

A

It regenerates ornithine from arginine and stimulates the removal of carbamoyl phosphate.

86
Q

What does the buildup of carbamoyl phosphate lead to in Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency?

A

Increased synthesis of orotic acid.

87
Q

What is the main treatment strategy for hyperammonemia?

A

Low protein diet.

88
Q

What is one consequence of prolonged fasting in patients with hyperammonemia?

A

Increased muscle proteolysis.

89
Q

Which drugs are administered to dispose of excess glutamine and other amino acids in hyperammonemia?

A

Phenyl Butyrate, Phenyl Acetate, Benzoic Acid.

90
Q

What is the role of phenyl acetate in treating hyperammonemia?

A

It is activated to a CoA derivative, attaches to glutamine, and is excreted.

91
Q

What is the primary carrier of nitrogen atoms generated from amino acid catabolism?

92
Q

Where does urea synthesis occur?

A

In the liver.

93
Q

Which amino acids carry nitrogen from peripheral tissues to the liver?

A

Alanine and Glutamine.

94
Q

What does the urea cycle incorporate to form urea?

A

One nitrogen from free ammonia and another from aspartate.

95
Q

What condition results from disorders of the urea cycle?

A

Hyperammonemia.

96
Q

What clinical symptoms were observed in the 5-month-old female infant with a urea cycle defect?

A

Periodic bouts of vomiting, failure to gain weight, irritability, and lethargy.

97
Q

What were the laboratory findings in the infant with urea cycle defect?

A

Increased plasma ammonia, increased glutamine, and low citrulline.

98
Q

Why was orotate noted to be excreted in the urine of the infant?

A

Due to the deficiency in Ornithine transcarbamoylase.

99
Q

What was the treatment provided to the infant upon hospital admission?

A

Intravenous phenylbutyrate and benzoate.

100
Q

Why was the infant put on a low protein diet?

A

To avoid increased ammonia levels from protein metabolism.

101
Q

What does the level of ornithine transcarbamoylase activity in the patient’s liver indicate?

A

About 10% of normal activity.

102
Q

True or False: The further down the urea cycle the defective enzyme is located, the more toxic effect is observed in the patient.

103
Q

Fill in the blank: The urea cycle consists of ______ steps.

104
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of glutamate and Acetyl CoA to N-Acetyl Glutamate?

A

N-Acetyl Glutamate Synthase.

105
Q

What is the pathogenesis of PKU

A

cells are not able to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine; Tyr becomes an essential amino acid for these pts.

106
Q

What vit. deficiency can result from insufficient or impaired transportation of tryptophan

A

niacin Vit. B3

107
Q

cytoplasmic membrane bound materials targeted for lysosomal degradation are transported into the lysosome via what cytosis mechanism

A

endocytosis

108
Q

large particles like bacteria cytosed into the lysosome via

A

phagocytosis

109
Q

pinocytosis into the lysosomal compartment is for what matter

A

fluid and small particles

110
Q

UPS functional inadequacy has been implicated in which 2 neurodegenerative diseases

A

Huntington’s & Alzheimer’s

111
Q

UPS functional inadequacy contributes to the oncogenesis of what protooncogenes

A

HMD2/MDM2 for p53

112
Q

Aminotransferases require what Vit.

A

Vit. B6/PLP

113
Q

ammonium is converted into what non-toxic metabolite

114
Q

alpha-ketoglutarate, a TCA intermediate, can be used to synthesisze what amino acids

A

Glutamine
glutamate
proline
arginine
histidine

115
Q

what AAs rely on TCA intermediate oxaloacetate for synthesis

A

aspartate & Asparagine

116
Q

what AA rely on TCA intermediate fumarate for synthesis

A

phenylalanine & tyrosine

117
Q

what AAs rely on TCA intermediate succinyl-CoA for synthesis

A

methionine; threonine; isoleucine; valine

118
Q

what important vit. are invovled in the Succinyl-CoA AA pathway

A

B12 & folate for Met. synthesis
B6
Biotin
Thiamine

119
Q

what vit.s are required for activation of the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase

A

Thiamine (B1)
Riboflavin (B2)
Niacin (B3)
Pantothenic acid (B5)

120
Q

List the branched AAs

A

Leu; Ile; val

121
Q

what AAs are linked to intermediates of glycolysis

A

glycine; serine; cysteine; alanine

122
Q

what AAs are both glucogenic & ketogenic

A

ALL OF THE AROMATICS: F, W, & Y
Isoleucine

123
Q

Tyrosine is degraded into what TCA intermediate

124
Q

what are clinical manifestations of alcaptonuria

A

spinal arthritis; dark ochronotic pigmentation of cartilage and collagenous tissue

125
Q

What affect does alcohol have on ammonium metabolism

A

decreases hepatic capacity to convert NH4 to urea

126
Q

What AA is the amino group donor for the urea cycle

127
Q

what AA is the carbon donor for gluconeogenesis

A

most of them except lys & Leu

128
Q

does the rate of urea production increase or decrease during fasting state

A

it decreases

129
Q

what role do proteins play during the fasting state

A

their carbons are used for gluconeogenesis

130
Q

what enzyme converts gluamate to ammonium

A

glutamate dehydrogenase

131
Q

what AA carries ammonium from the muscle into the liver

A

alaline & glutamine

132
Q

what is the rate-limiting step for the Urea cycle

A

formation of Carbamoyl phosphate by CPS-I

133
Q

What Urea Cycle enzymes are invovled in the first 2 steps of Urea synthesis that take place in the mitochondria

A

CPS-I & OTCase

134
Q

describe the process by which the Urea Cycle is initiated

A

Arginine allosterically stimulates synthesis of NAG which allosterically activates CPSI

135
Q

Arginine is also used to produce what endothelial anti-inflammatory modulator

136
Q

BCAAs are great for muscle fuel during times of fasting; how are they used for hepatic gluconeogenesis

A

amino groups on BCAAs are transferred to pyruvate & alpha-ketoglutarate to form alanine & glutamine; these are released into the blood and travel to the liver for gluconeogenesis

137
Q

where does the formation of CPS-I occur

A

in the mitochondria

138
Q

Describe how aspartate is used to produce arginine

A

N combines w/ citrulline to form Arginine from its amino group and fumarate from its remaining carbons

139
Q

what enzyme regenerates’ ornithine for another round of the urea cycle

140
Q

how can fumarate be recycled back into the urea cycle

A

Fumarate conversion to aspartate via oxaloacetate

141
Q

describe the mitochondria-cytosol transport system for the urea cycle

A

In the cytosol, arginine gets converted back to ornithine by arginase; ornithine gets transported back into the mitochondria where it gets converted to citrulline; citrulline then shuttles back into the cytoplasm where it gets converted to aspartate to initiate another round of the urea cycle

142
Q

what mitochondrial substrate is required for activation of the ornithine transcarboxylase to convert ornithine into citrulline

A

carbamoyl phosphate

143
Q

what stimulates the urea cycle

A

fasting; high protein diet; NAG stimulation via arginine activates CPSI

144
Q

Transformation of Arginine to citrulline realses what byproduct

145
Q

the argininosuccinate lyase converts arginosuccinate to what molecules

A

arginine & fumarate

146
Q

would you expect levels of alanine & glutamine to be high or low during fasting? Explain.

A

High
Explanation:
prolonged fasting results in increased muscle proteolysis to utilize amino acids for gluconeogenesis. this is going to increase serum levels of ammonia

147
Q

How does increasing colonic pH contribute to management of hyperammonia?

A

bacterial flora in the gut will favor formation of ammonium when pH of colon decreases; unlike ammonia which is neutrally charged, its conjugate base is + charged and therefore cannot pass through the colonic tight junction barriers; ION TRAPPING

148
Q

what substances can be administered to promote excretion of excess glutamine in hyperammonia?

A

phenylbutyrate; phenyl acetate; benzoic acid

149
Q

what gets excreted in urine from phenylbutyrate

A

phenylacetylglutamine

150
Q

describe the MOA for benzoic acid induced excretion of excess nitrogen

A

benzoyl CoA attaches to glycine and excretes it as hippuric acid
when nitrogen is in excess, the body will divert nitrogen to synthesize serine which is subsequently converted to glycine

151
Q

a pt. has been fasting for 4 days. what primary energy source is predominating?
what source will predominate over a week

A

gluconeogenesis
over a week: ketogenesis