PROLOG: Patient Management in the Office Flashcards

1
Q

Smoking in females has been linked to:

A

Accelerated follicular depletion due to harmful effects of tobacco smoke and gametogenesis

Have to undergo more IVF cycles until success is achieved

Increased risk of SAB, ectopic pregnancy, IUGR

Males who smoke have lower semen concentration, motility, and/or morphology. However, even if these parameters are reduced, they are often still in the low normal range.

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2
Q

Pituitary gland during pregnancy

A

Enlarges during pregnancy, primarily due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the lactotropes in response to elevated serum estrogen levels

Tumor growth leading to significant symptoms complicates ~2% of microadenomas and 21% of untreated macroadenomas > significant expansion may lead to headaches or compression of the optic chiasm and blindness so visual field testing is considered in every trimester for women with macroadenomas

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3
Q

First-line treatment for microadenomas and macroadenomas

A

Medical: dopamine agonist (bromocriptine, cabergoline) - decrease [serum prolactin]

Surgery: refractory tumors

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4
Q

Symptoms of urethral diverticulum

A

Dyspareunia (10%)

Dysuria (33%)

Recurrent UTI (50%)

Stress incontinence (50%)

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5
Q

Most likely cause of patients discontinuing oxybutynin for urge urinary incontinence?

A

** Xerostomia **

Constipation

Blurry vision

Anticholinergics: competitively inhibit ACh at the muscarinic receptors and decrease involuntary detrusor muscle contractions (oxybutynin, tolterodine, fesoterodine)

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6
Q

Most common reason discovered during workup for RPL?

Suspected causes of RPL?

A

No apparent reason

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7
Q

AMH and evaluation of infertility:

What are AMH levels predictive of?

Where is serum AMH made?

A

AMH levels = predictor of response to exogenous gonadotropins

Lower serum AMH levels ( <1 ng/mL) have been associated with poor responses to ovarian stimulation, poor embryo quality, and poor pregnancy outcomes in IVF

Serum AMH made by the granulosa cells of pre-antral and small antral follicles. [AMH] gonadotropin-independent; can be obtained any day of the menstrual cycle.

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8
Q

When to discontinue cervical cancer screening in HIV-negative women with a history of negative cervical cytology screening?

A

At age 65 yo

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9
Q

Cushing’s Disease vs Cushing Syndrome

A

Cushing’s Disease: Excess of cortisol in the blood caused by pituitary tumor secreting ACTH > cortisol level will decrease with high dose dexamethasone suppression test

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10
Q

Fragile X premutation and premature ovarian insufficiency

A

X-linked disorder caused by triplet expansion repeats in FMR1 gene

Patients diagnosed with hypergonadotropic hypogonadism should be tested for premutation, should receive genetic counseling.

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11
Q

Proportion of twin births in the US attributable to IVF

A

17% (approximately 1 in 6 twin pregnancies)

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12
Q

What is the longest time GnRH agonist should be used, according to the FDA, for endometriosis?

A

12 months (loss of bone mineral density)

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13
Q

Most common cause of infertility

A

Unexplained infertility

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14
Q

Primary pathophysiology of infertility in obese patients

A

Insulin resistance > hyperinsulinemia > related to androgen excess and reduced SHBG synthesis > increases androgen production > alters HPA axis and therefore, ovarian physiology > anovulation

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15
Q

Key surgical principle for rectovaginal fistula repair

A

Wide margins of adjacent tissue for excision

Complete excision of fistulous tract

Multilayered closure

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16
Q

Treatment of vulvar psoriasis

A

Does not result in classic scaly appearance; repeat moisture and heat may make it resemble candidiasis

Treatment: hydrocortisone for mild disease, prolonged topical steroids for moderate disease

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17
Q
A

Lichen planus

Involvement of mucosal surfaces (oropharynx and vagina)

Treatment: topical high-dose clobetasol

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18
Q

First line treatment for chronic cyclic pelvic pain with regular menses and normal pelvic exam

A

NSAIDs

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19
Q

Treatment for postpartum psychosis

Treatment for postpartum depression (severe)

A

Hospitalization + risperidone

Hospitalization + SSRI

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20
Q

First-line treatment for PMS

A

SSRI

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21
Q

Treatment for female sexual interest and arousal disorder

A

Flibanserin (serotonin receptor agonist/antagonist)

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22
Q

PEP for HIV recommendation post-sexual assault

A
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23
Q

Emergency contraception following sexual assault

A
  • Ulipristal acetate: 30 mg single dose PO, within 5 days from assault
  • Levonorgestrol (plan B): 1.5 mg single dose PO
  • Copper IUD
  • Mifepristone: 600 mg single dose
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24
Q

Best pharmacotherapy option for opioid use disorder in pregnancy

A

Buprenorphine (long-acting partial mu-opioid agonist): decreased risk of overdose, less need for dosage adjustment,

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25
Q

Incidence of IPV

A

50%

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26
Q

STI prophylaxis following sexual assault

A
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27
Q

Incidence of perinatal depression

A

14.3% (approximately 1 in 7 women)

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28
Q

A 53 yo perimenopausal female with history of cHTN presents with hot flashes. BP 140/90.

What medication best to treat both BP and vasomotor symptoms?

A

Clonidine (alpha 2-agonist)

Most common side effects: dry mouth, insomnia, drowsiness

Watch out for: rebound HTN

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29
Q

Female sterilization and relationship to menstrual cycle

A

Decrease in menstrual blood flow, decrease in menstrual pain, increase in cycle irregularities

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30
Q

What DEXA screening result is consistent with osteoporosis?

At what age should DEXA be performed?

A

A T-score greater than or equal to two 2.5 standard deviations below the mean (T-Score is based on a healthy 30-35 yo)

DEXA should be done at age 65 in a patient without risk factors.

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31
Q

In a healthy individual without risk factors, what is the recommendation regarding pneumococcal vaccination?

What are the two kinds of vaccines available?

A

All adults >/= 65 yo should continue to receive one dose of PPSV23. If the decision is made to administer PCV13, it should be given at least 1 year before PPSV23.

Continue to recommend PCV13 in series with PPSV23 for adults aged 19 and older with an immunocompromising condition, CSF leak, or cochlear implant.

  1. Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23/Pneumovax): composed of partially purified pneumococcal capsular polysaccharides
  2. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13/Prevnar): composed of pneumococcal capsular polysaccharides covalently linked (conjugated) to a protein
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32
Q

What is the major limitation of conjugated equine estrogen-bazedoxifene use?

A

There are limited data regarding the long-term effects of bazedoxifene alone and conjugated equine estrogen/bazedoxifene on the breast.

SERMs bind with high affinity to the estrogen receptor and have estrogen agonist and antagonist properties that vary depending on the individual target organ.

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33
Q

What is the pregnancy rate when the copper IUD is used for emergency contraception?

A

0.1% (1 per 1,000)

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34
Q

What contraceptive method has the lowest failure rate in the first year of use?

A

Contraceptive implant (failure rate of 0.05 per 100 women); the 4-cm rod contains etonogestrel, which is slowly released and prevents pregnancy primarily by suppression of ovulation. additionally, it may thicken cervical mucus and thin the endometrial lining

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35
Q

When is colonoscopy for screening of CRC recommended?

A

Age 50

For AA females, at Age 45

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36
Q

A 77-yo patient follows up for the results of her DEXA scan. Her T-score is -1.7. What is the next step in management?

A

Fraction risk assessment (FRAX) calculator must first be used to determine the risk of fracture > used to predict the risk of osteoporotic fracture for a person over the next 10 years

Women who are found to have a 10-year risk of major osteoporotic fracture >/= 20% or a risk of hip fracture >/= 3% using FRAX calculator are candidates for treatment with medical therapy

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37
Q

MOA of denosumab

A

Treatment option for osteoporosis (antiresorptive treatment)

It is the human monoclonal antibody to the receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB ligand. The receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB ligands to the receptor activator of nf-kB on the surface of osteoclasts > promotes proliferation and differentiation of these osteoclasts.

The antibody blocks this interaction therein decreasing bone resorption and increasing BMD as a result.

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38
Q

A 37 yo G6P2042 patient arrives for her annual screening exam. She has no new complaints or problems. She has an extensive family history of breast, ovarian, renal, prostate, lung, small and large bowel, and skin cancers.

Which of these cancers is associated with BRCA1 carriers?

A

The risk of prostate cancer in men with BRCA1 mutation has been associated with a 3.75-fold increase, which translates to ~9% risk by age 65.

Men with BRCA2 mutations are at a higher risk of prostate cancer by age 65, with a 5- to 9-fold increased risk, which translates to ~33%.

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39
Q

Key Facts to Remember for the BRCA 1/2 Syndromes

Chromosome

Risk of Breast Cancer by Age 70

Associated Breast Cancer Type

Risk of Ovarian Cancer by Age 70

Timing of BSO

Associated malignancies

A
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40
Q

BMI Classification

A
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41
Q

What is the MOST common cause of vaginitis in the pediatric population?

Treatment?

A

Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS is found in 7% to 20% of pediatric girls with vulvovaginitis)

Children may transmit respiratory flora from the nose and oral pharynx to the vulva

Treatment: Amoxicillin 40 mg/kg TID for 10 days

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42
Q

Who is a candidate for vulvectomy?

A
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43
Q

What is Elagolix and when is it used?

A

Oral GnRH antagonist that was approved by the FDA in 5/2020 for treatment of HMB 2/2 uterine fibroids

Given with or without hormonal add-back therapy (estradiol and norethindrone acetate) for at least 12 months before reevaluation; preparation available as two co-packaged capsules: one contains elagolix 300 mg + estradiol 1 mg + norethindrone 0.5 mg (AM); other contains elagolix 300 mg alone (PM)

Reserved for cases that did not improve with conventional therapy and myomectomy; associated with 50% reduction of menstrual flow and reduction of leiomyoma size by also 50% in 6 months

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44
Q

Management of uterine fibroids (Medical/Surgical)

A
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45
Q

What colposcopic finding with use of acetic acid associated with high-grade hypoplastic lesion of the cervix?

A

Dull white coloration

If Lugol solution used, a negative stain is noted

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46
Q

Underlying pathophysiology of primary dysmenorrhea

A

Increased prostaglandins E2 and F2 alpha at the beginning of menses to facilitate monthly shedding > increase in prostaglandins leads to uterine contractions > leads to temporary ischemia of the uterine corpus > leads to stimulation of type C pain fibers

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47
Q

Treatment options for urgency urinary incontinence

A

Also botulinum toxin A: primarily acts as a muscle paralytic by inhibiting the presynaptic release of ACh from motor neurons at the NMJ, in this case at the detrusor muscle

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48
Q

PCOS is a diagnosis of exclusion via the Rotterdam criteria:

A

PCOS can be diagnosed in women if they have 2 of the 3 following criteria:

  1. Oligo or anovulation
  2. Clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism
  3. Polycystic ovaries on U/S characterized by having 12 or more antral follicles between 2 and 9 mm or an ovarian volume greater than 10 mL
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49
Q

Pathophysiology of PCOS

A

Abnormal pulse frequency of GnRH > increased pulse frequency causes elevations in LH pulse frequency and, to a less extent, an increase in FSH pulse frequency

Increased LH pulse frequency leads to LH binding to ovarian theca cells > increased steroidogenesis > increased androgen levels

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50
Q

How does insulin resistance (IR) affect PCOS women?

A

IR causes increased insulin levels > insulin binds to IGF-1 receptors on ovarian theca cells and increase ovarian steroidogenesis > increased ovarian androgen production

Increased ovarian androgen production + increased insulin levels combine to decrease hepatic SHBG levels > increases free testosterone level b/c it is not bound to the protein

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51
Q

Most definitive way to diagnose adenomyosis

A

Histology

Endometrial glands and stroma are present within uterine musculature > ectopic endometrial tissue appears to induce hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the surrounding myometrium, which results in a diffusely enlarged uterus

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52
Q

First line treatment for genito-pelvic pain and penetration disorder

A

Pelvic floor therapy

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53
Q

What percentage of women with PCOS have T2DM?

A

10%

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54
Q

Who is most likely to experience pelvic congestion syndrome (PCS)?

A

Premenopausal, multiparous women

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55
Q

What is endometriosis? And what have endometriotic tissue been found to contain?

A

Endometrial cells growing outside of the endometrial canal have been found to contain 5 alpha-reductase (indicates that androgens may have the ability to act on endometriotic cells)

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56
Q

What % of women experience pelvic pain shortly after a UAE due to fibroid uterus?

A

>90%

As the blood within the fibroid clots, ischemia occurs, and women develop intense pelvic cramping (approximately 4-6 hours after the procedure)

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57
Q

Semen Analysis

Aspermia

Asthenospermia

Azoospermia

Hypospermia

Oligospermia

Severe Oligospermia

Teratozoospermia

A
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58
Q

Pelvic Organ Prolapse Classification

Stage 0, I, II, III, IV

A
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59
Q

A 31 yo G4P0 was diagnosed with a Mullerian anomaly, but unsure which one. Reports 4 spontaneous pregnancy losses in 1TS. Which Mullerian anomaly is she most likely to have?

A

Septate uterus

(carries greatest risk of miscarriage; likely the result of implantation on or near the septum leading to poor placental blood flow, and is most common)

Miscarriage rate >50%

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60
Q

Presacral neurectomy

A

Division of superior hypogastric plexus

The hypogastric plexus consists of fine strands of nerves embedded in areolar tissue. The plexus is formed as a continuation of the aortic and inferior mesenteric plexuses and passes over the bifurcation of the aorta. It then continues below the promontory of the sacrum before dividing into the R and L inferior hypogastric nerves

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61
Q

Pudendal nerve block

A

Pudendal nerve provides both sensory and motor innervation to the perineum

As the fetus descends in the late first stage or second stage of labor, distention of the vagina, pelvic floor, and perineum elicit stimuli through the pudendal nerve and anterior primary divisions of the sacral nerves S2 through S4.

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62
Q

Prolapse location and associated procedure

A
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63
Q

What is an ectropion?

A

Normal finding in many adolescent females, women on combined OCPs, and pregnant women; it is the migration of endomcervical/columnar tissue fromt he endocervix distaly > subsequently, red, glandular, columnar epithelium is presents outside the xternal os and is easily seen on speculum exam

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64
Q

Which imaging modality is the most sensitive and specific for confirmation of urethral diverticulum?

A

Pelvic MRI

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65
Q

What percentage of women who are successfully fitted with a pessary will have resolution of their prolapse symptoms at 4 months?

A

75-80%

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66
Q

What is the fertility rate for unilateral cryptorchidism? bilateral cryptorchidism?

A

80%, 50%

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67
Q

Absolute contraindications to UAE

A
  • Current pregnancy
  • PID
  • Uterine malignancy
  • Asymptomatic fibroids
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68
Q

What muscles are chiefly responsible for pelvic floor muscle spasms?

A

Puborectalis

Iliococcygeus

Pubococcygeus

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69
Q

Function of the bulbospongiosis muscle?

A

Clitoral erection and contraction during orgasm

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70
Q

Precocious puberty is defined as?

A

Early breast or pubic hair development or both before age 8 years

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71
Q

Highest PPV in detecting pelvic congestion syndrome?

Treatment for pelvic congestion syndrome

A

TVUS

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72
Q

Stress urinary incontinence > most common complication after placement of midurethral sling? retropubic sling?

A

Urinary urgency

Most patients’ symptoms resolve with conservative treatment with anticholinergics or no treatment at all

Urinary retention

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73
Q

Initial resuscitation for septic abortion

A
  • Establish IV access for IV fluids and blood products
  • Obtain blood cultures
  • Initiate broad spectrum abx
    • IV until patient afebrile for 48 hours then oral abx for 10-14 days
  • Evacuate uterus of any contents
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74
Q

Diagnostic modality for endometriosis vs endometrioma

A

Although diagnostic laparoscopy gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis, pelvis U/S sufficient to make diagnosis of endometrioma

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75
Q

Diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome

A
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76
Q

How should hydrosalpinges be managed re: fertility?

A

Most commonly a result of PID from gonorrhea or chlamydia

They should be removed to increase

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77
Q

What is the prevalence of infertility in women between the ages of 35 to 39 yo?

A

22%

78
Q

First-line treatment for ovulation induction in women with PCOS

A

Clomiphene citrate

Approximately 75% should ovulate, and pregnancy rates are 50% after 3 or 4 cycles in the infertile anovulatory woman

79
Q

Management of hidradenitis suppurativa (early disease vs chronic disease)

A

Early disease: antibiotics (e.g., clindamycin)

Chronic disease: wide operative excision

80
Q

Three of the major muscles involved with vaginismus

A
  1. Bulbocavernosus
  2. Puborectalis
  3. Levator ani group (pubococcygeus**, iliococcygeus)
81
Q

What is abdominal leak-point pressure?

A

The intravesical pressure at which urine leakage occurs because of increased abdominal pressure in the absence of a detrusor contraction

82
Q

First-line treatment in patients with vulvodynia

A

Amitriptyline 5-25 mg tablet nightly and increased by 10-25 mg each week > max dose: 150 mg daily

83
Q

What is the easiest and most objective way to assess whether ovulation has occurred?

A

Serum progesterone 1 week before anticipated next menses

Levels greater than 3 ng/mL signify ovulation when checked approximately 1 week prior to the next anticipated menstrual cycle

84
Q

Most common symptoms of adenomyosis

A

Heavy and painful menstrual cycles

(Should not have dyspareunia, irregular menses)

85
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa, Hurley Stages

A
86
Q

What are the Lynch syndrome-related genes?

A

MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2, EPCAM

87
Q

What is Lynch Syndrome?

Types of testing (3)

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC): Highly penetrant AD hereditary cancer syndrome that accounts for approximately 2% of uterine cancer cases.

Types of testing:

  1. IHC: used to test tumors for the expression of the 4 mismatch repair genes (MLH1, MLH2, MSH6, and PMS2) by testing for the presence of their protein products. If all 4 protein products present, it r/o Lynch syndrome in nearly all cases.
  2. Microsatellite instability testing: used to determine if there has been an insertion or deletion of nucleotides to informative microsatellites. If no microsatellite instability is present, Lynch syndrome is essentially ruled out.
  3. MLH1 promoter methylation testing: must be performed when IHC testing reveals an absence of the MLH1 protein or when microsatellite instability is present.
    1. MLH1 protein is absent and there is methylation of the MLH1 promoter –> Lynch syndrome is excluded.
    2. MLH1 protein is absent and there is no methylation of the MLH1 promoter –> patient requires germline DNA testing for Lynch syndrome
88
Q

Latent syphilis

A

No clinical signs or symptoms of syphilis but has serologic evidence of infection

89
Q

Classic lesion of primary syphilis

A

Chancre, which is usually (but not always) painless

Usually appears approximately 21 days after infection, but it can occur anytime between 3 and 90 days > ulcer has nonexudative base and is associated with mild to moderate regional lymphadenopathy that is often bilateral

90
Q

Correct sequence of the layers of the bladder after the lumen

A
  1. Transitional epithelium
  2. Lamina propria
  3. Submucosa
  4. Detrusor muscle
  5. Adventitia
91
Q

When is the BEST time in the menstrual cycle to perform a hysteroscopy?

A

In the early proliferative phase (when the endometrial lining is the thinnest)

Allows for better visualization of anatomical abnormalities such as polyps; thin lining also allows for easier removal of masses noted

92
Q

What is the failure rate of the copper IUD within its first year of typical use? perfect use?

A

Typical use: 0.8%; Perfect use: 0.6%

93
Q

COCs and SLE

A

Women with SLE are at increased risk for ischemic heart disease, stroke, and VTE.

UNACCEPTABLE HEALTH RISK IF COCs USED

94
Q

Gold standard of diagnosis for postpartum endometritis?

A

EMB (plasma cells)

95
Q

Recommended Screening for PCOS

A
  • Weight
  • BP
  • 2-hour GTT
  • Fasting lipid and lipoprotein levels
96
Q

What is the lifetime risk of developing ovarian cancer in a woman with a BRCA2 mutation?

A

10%-27%

97
Q

Current therapies for primary genital herpes

A
  • Acyclovir 200 mg five times daily for 7-10 days
  • Acyclovir 400 mg three times daily for 7-10 days
  • Famciclovir 250 mg three times daily for 7-10 days
  • Valacyclovir 1 g twice daily for 7-10 days
98
Q

EMB samples approximately how much of the endometrium?

A

5-15%

99
Q

Fluid overload at time of hysteroscopy can lead to:

A

Hypo-osmolality and hyponatremia >> severe levels may cause brain swelling and neurological damage

Incidence <1%

100
Q

ADA Criteria for Diagnosing DM

A
  • Random plasma glucose PLUS symptoms: 200 mg/dL or higher
  • Fasting plasma glucose: 126 mg/dL or higher
  • 2 h plasma glucose: 200 mg/dL or higher
  • HbA1c: 6.5% or higher
101
Q

During what point of the menstrual cycle does PMS occur?

A

Luteal phase

* If PMS symptoms are severe enough to interfere with work, school, social activities or relationships with others, the diagnosis becomes PMDD *

102
Q

During hysteroscopy, which media is easy to use and is BEST at decreasing the risk of electrolyte and osmolar imbalances, as well as decreasing the risk of anaphylactic reaction?

A

Lactated Ringer (isotonic)

103
Q

Paget disease or inflammatory breast cancer

Next step in management?

A

Cancer of the nipple and areola

Associated with an invasive breast carcinoma or ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) in 85% of cases

Management: Mammogram and full-thickness skin biopsy

104
Q

How to clinically diagnose PID?

A
  • Cervical motion tenderness
  • Fever > 101 F
  • Abnormal cervical or vaginal mucopurulent discharge
  • Abnormal WBC count
  • Recent diagnosis of gonorrhea or chlamydia
105
Q

Treatment of PID

A

Outpatient treatment:

  1. Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1
  2. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 14 days
106
Q

Indication for inpatient treatment: PID

Treatment

A

Indication for inpatient treatment:

  • Pregnancy
  • Lack of response to oral abx
  • Persistent N/V
  • Severe clinical illness
  • TOA
  • Inability to adhere to therapy
  • Possible need for surgical intervention

Treatment: Cefoxitin 2g IV every 6 h IV + doxycyline 100 mg BID (oral and IV have same bioavailability) until clinical improvement noted for at least 24 h followed by transition to oral therapy with doxycyline for a 14-day abx course (+/- metronidazole 500 mg BID x 14 days if pelvic abscess or trichomonas present)

107
Q

At what age should you consider biopsying new Bartholin cysts that appear in women?

A

40 years (to r/o risk of cancer)

108
Q

In women over age 30 with palpable breast mass, diagnostic mammogram is first step.

If BIRADS 1-3, next step?

If BIRADS 4-5, next step?

A
  • 1-3: U/S
  • 4-5: tissue biopsy
109
Q

What % of mothers start smoking again within 6 months of delivery?

A

50-60%

110
Q

31 yo G1P0 at 12w with exertional chest pain for the last 3 months > diagnosed with pulmonary arterial HTN. To start on what medication?

A

Epoprostenol (pulmonary vasodilator)

111
Q

Per ACOG recommendations, women at average risk of breast cancer should be offered screening mammography starting at what age?

A

40 years until at least 75 years

112
Q

Cancers associated with BRCA mutation

A
113
Q

Atypical ductal hyperplasia: next step in management

A

Excisional biopsy because 10-20% have underlying ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) or invasive carcinoma

114
Q

What is the maximum dose of local lidocaine with and without epinephrine that can be used for a procedure?

A
115
Q

Recommended Syphilis Treatment Guidelines for Non-pregnant Patients

A
116
Q

Most common side effects of Paragard

A

Heavier and longer periods and spotting between periods

For most women, these side effects diminish after the first 2 to 30 months

117
Q

Strategies approved to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer (4)

A
118
Q

Ulcerative Colitis vs. Crohn’s Disease

A
119
Q

Infertility Categories

A
120
Q

IUD Birth Control Types and Side Effects

A
121
Q

27 yo G2P1 is 6 weeks pregnant. She experienced severe postpartum depression in her prior pregnancy. She is experiencing symptoms of depression now. You consider SSRI.

The most common adverse effect to the fetus or neonate from the use of an SSRI?

A

Neonatal withdrawal syndrome

122
Q

Patients with a positive PPD test and no evidence of active disease by symptoms or CXR are classified as having latent TB.

Treatment?

A

Isoniazid for 9 months with pyridoxine (B6) supplementation to decrease risk of INH-associated neurotoxicity

Patient who are pregnant need to have baseline LFT testing: The baseline rate of 0.1–1% isoniazid-associated hepatotoxicity is increased in pregnancy

Safe to breastfeed

123
Q

Pyelonephritis in pregnancy: Clinical findings

A

Acute pyelonephritis is a manifestation of infection of the upper urinary tract and kidneys.

The typical symptoms of acute pyelonephritis in the pregnant woman are the same as in nonpregnant women and include

fever (>38°C or 100.4°F),

flank pain,

nausea, vomiting,

and/or costovertebral angle tenderness.

Symptoms of cystitis (eg, dysuria) are not always present. Pyuria is a typical finding.

124
Q

Acute pyelonephritis inpatient therapy

A

IV cefazolin, 1 g q8h until patient is afebrile and symptom-free for 24-48 hours and while awaiting cultures

Maintain on nitrofurantoin (macrobid) until 4-6 weeks postpartum

125
Q

27 yo G1P0 at 9 weeks. Heterozygous for prothrombin G20210A polymorphism. Appropriate management to address her potential risk of venous thrombosis?

A

Prothrombin gene mutation G20210A is associated with increased production of prothrombin, leading to thrombophilic tendency

In the absence of a prior VTE, the patient’s risk is less than 0.5% in pregnancy, similar to women without a known thrombophilia

Surveillance without anticoagulation

126
Q

What are the high-risk thrombophilis disorders and their risks of VTE in pregnancy?

A
  • homozygous Leiden V mutation: 1.5%
  • homozygous G20210A mutation: 3%
  • double heterozygote prothrombin G20210A mutation and Leiden V mutation: 4.7%
  • ATIII deficiency: 3-7%
127
Q

What is premature ovarian failure?

A

development of hypergonadotropic hypogonadism before the age of 40 years

128
Q

Up to 6% of young women diagnosed with premature ovarian failure will have the ____ gene premutation.

A

FMR1

Fragile X syndrome is the most common inherited form of mental retardation, affects approximately 1 in 8,000 females

XLR disorder caused by expansion in CGG DNA trinucleotide repeat that leads to impaired transcription of the FMR1 gene

129
Q

How does otitis media occur in adults?

A

Results from URI that causes congestion of the nasopharynx and eustachian tube > obstruction at the narrow part of the ET causes fluid accumulation > infection (H. flu, S. pneumono)

Tx: Amoxicillin

130
Q

Infants of GDM mothers have an increased risk of?

A
  • Birth weight > 4000 g
  • Hyperbilirubinemia
  • Operative delivery
  • Shoulder dystocia
  • Birth trauma
131
Q

Study to analyze rare outcomes with long-latency periods for the development of the outcome

A
132
Q

Contraceptive choice for adolescent with migraines and BMI 40

A

Levonorgestrel IUD

Alternatives: depo medroxyprogesterone acetate and implants (however may add additional weight)

133
Q

Treatment of C. diff infection in adults

A
134
Q

What is Graves Disease?

A

Autoimmune condition where IgG antibodies activate thyrotropin receptor –> increased production of T4 and T3

135
Q

Algorithm for the use of antithyroid drugs with Graves’ Disease

A
136
Q

Flow chart for fetal and placental evaluation of stillbirth

A
137
Q

Maternal Evaluation at time of demise (Stillbirth)

A
138
Q

How does Parvovirus B9 lead to fetal death?

A

Parvovirus B19 is a small single-stranded DNA virus that replicates in rapidly proliferating cells, such as erythroblast precursors.

It leads to arrest of maturation of fetal red blood cells, hemolysis, and transient aplastic crises that potentially lead to fetal anemia, hydrops, and fetal death.

139
Q

For a viable IUP, when should the gestational sac be visualized?

A

Between 5.5-6 weeks

140
Q

What is the primary diagnostic imaging step to evaluate complaints of anal incontinence?

A

Endoanal ultrasonography

Can identify scarring, loss of muscle tissue, or other local pathology. The findings on endoanal U/S can guide surgical management. The internal anal sphincter appears as the hypoechoic inner circle. The external anal sphincter appears as a circumferential hyperechoic structure in the anal canal. Defects are demonstrated by “graying” or incomplete rings presenting scarring

141
Q

How do combined oral contraceptives treat primary dysmenorrhea?

A

Combination OCs decrease uterine prostaglandin production and relieve dysmenorrhea in 70–90% of patients.

The reduction in prostaglandin from OCs is likely due to the reduction in endometrial thickness from the progestin component, because endometrial thickness is directly correlated with prostaglandin release.

142
Q

Suggested approach to management of subclinical hypothyroidism

A
143
Q

How do combined OCPs work to improve hirscutism?

A
  • Suppression of luteinizing hormone
  • Decrease ovarian androgen production
  • Stimulate synthesis of SHBG
144
Q

Workup for appendicitis in pregnant patient

A
  1. TVUS > only 50% sensitivity, 96-100% specificity
  2. MRI > CT to reduce fetal exposure to radiation although levels not associated with known cancer/non-cancer fetal issue

Incidence of fetal loss higher with laparoscopic approach

Incidence of preterm delivery higher with open approach

—> Overall: open appendectomy preferred

145
Q

What has aromatase inhibitor therapy been associated with in postmenopausal patients?

A

Bone mineral density loss

146
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents to your office for infertility. Her gynecologic history is significant for stage III endometriosis and secondary dysmenorrhea. On transvaginal sonography, there is an asymmetric thickening of the myometrium with presence of myometrial cysts. Which of the following is the best next step for treatment of infertility in women with this condition?

A

IVF 2/2 adenomyosis

147
Q

When does adenomyosis occur?

How to diagnose?

What is the main obstetrical concern for adenomyosis surgery in women who conceive after surgery?

A

Adenomyosis occurs when endometrial glands and stroma are present in the myometrial layer of the uterus.

Histologic exam (definitive)

Uterine rupture

148
Q

Diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis

Treatment of choice for symptomatic nonpregnant

women

A

When women present with such symptoms, a wet mount using 5% potassium chloride should be performed.

For a clinical diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis,

3 out of the following 4 Amsel’s criteria must be met:

  1. Abnormal gray discharge
  2. Vaginal pH greater than 4.5
  3. A positive amine test (“whiff test”)
  4. More than 20% of the epithelial cells are clue cells

Treatment: Oral metronidazole for 7 days

149
Q

What is Mondor Disease?

A

Treatment consists of NSAIDS and warm compresses without the need for anticoagulation

150
Q

Approximately what percentage of women with breast cancer present with noncyclic mastalgia as the primary symptom?

A

5%

151
Q

FIGO Staging of Fibroids

A
152
Q

What is the electrolyte abnormality that is most frequently encountered in cases of fluid overload at time of hysteroscopic myomectomy?

A

Hyponatremia

153
Q

A 25-year-old sexually active woman presents with new onset lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. Pelvic exam is notable for cervical motion tenderness. Urine HCG is negative.

What is the most appropriate antibiotic regimen to treat this condition?

A

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x 1

Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID x 14 days

Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID x 14 days

Have low threshold for treating presumptive PID because of long term reproductive sequelae in reproductive aged women

Additional supporting criteria for the diagnosis include: fever, mucopurulent cervical discharge or cervical friability, abundant white blood cells on saline microscopy of vaginal fluid, elevated ESR, elevated CRP, and laboratory documentation of cervical infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis.

154
Q

What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?

A

A rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease causing inflammation of the liver capsule and subsequent adhesions between the liver capsule and anterior abdominal wall.

Perihepatitis + PID

155
Q

Mittelschmerz

When do ovarian follicular cysts typically rupture?

A

After physical activity or sexual intercourse.

156
Q

Which subtype of HPV is mostly involved in high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions?

A

16

157
Q

Prolactinoma symptoms

A
158
Q

A 59-year-old woman presents to your office for health care maintenance. Her medical history is uncomplicated. Her gynecologic history is significant for recently diagnosed lichen sclerosus.

Which type of vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia is associated with her condition?

A

Differentiated vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

The new classification for vulvar lesions comprises three groups: LSIL, HSIL, and VIN differentiated type. Of the three, LSIL is not premalignant while the other two are at risk of malignant transformation.

Differentiated vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia is a condition seen in menopausal women on a background of lichen sclerosus. Differentiated VIN is not associated with high- or intermediate-risk human papillomavirus but women with this condition are predisposed to invasive squamous cell carcinoma.

159
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the development of external genitalia in males?

A

dihydrotestosterone

160
Q

What is the source of anti-Müllerian hormone in males?

A

Sertoli cells

161
Q

A 28-year-old G3P0030 woman presents to the office after her latest miscarriage. She strongly desires pregnancy and is concerned about why none of her pregnancies have lasted past 8 weeks. You initiate a laboratory evaluation that returns positive for a substance that interferes with the assembly of the prothrombin complex. Which of the following represents that test?

A

Lupus anticoagulant

162
Q

A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency room complaining of a severely painful vaginal lesion. She is sexually active and reports being in a monogamous relationship. Physical exam reveals findings as illustrated above and the absence of associated adenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A
163
Q

A 17-year-old woman presents to your office because she has never had a menstrual period. She confirms the presence of cyclic changes in her mood and engorgement of her breasts. Physical exam reveals normal secondary sexual characteristics. Laboratory evaluation demonstrates ovarian reserve markers appropriate for age. She is found to have a uterine anomaly. Which one?

Treatment?

A

Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome (congenital vaginal agenesis)

Treatment? Vaginal dilators constitute the first-line therapy for the creation of a neovagina, with surgical intervention reserved for select cases.

164
Q

A 23-year-old woman is undergoing a colposcopic examination of the cervix because of a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion found on cytology. HPV DNA testing was positive for HPV 16. Which was most likely seen on cytologic examination?

A

Coarse chromatin

165
Q

Which tumor suppressor proteins are inactivated by high-risk human papillomavirus?

A

P53 and retinoblastoma protein.

166
Q

A newborn is noted to have ambiguous genitalia following delivery. In the nursery, the neonate develops life-threatening hypotension. Blood work reveals an elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone. What is the most common cause of this condition?

A

21 alpha-hydroxylase deficiency

167
Q

What anal structures are injured during a fourth-degree laceration?

A

External anal sphincter, internal anal sphincter, and anal epithelium.

168
Q

Above what age should women have an endometrial biopsy performed as a first-line test to evaluate for AUB?

A

45 or older.

169
Q

In the presence of Müllerian anomalies, which other organ system should be screened for associated anomalies?

A

Renal and urinary system.

170
Q

Which cystic breast mass is associated with a “blue breast” if the fluid in the cyst is dark?

A

Mammary duct ectasia.

171
Q

What histologic characteristic is responsible for acetowhite changes seen on colposcopy?

A

Larger nuclear:cytoplasm ratio of dysplastic cells reflect white after the cell is dehydrated by application of acetic acid.

172
Q

What nonhormonal medication is approved by the Food and Drug Administration for treating moderate to severe dyspareunia in postmenopausal women?

A

Ospemifene.

173
Q

Pathophysiology of menstrual migraines

Abortive and prophylactic treatments for migraines

A

Decline in estrogen

Abortive rx: triptans, DHE, antiemetics, NSAIDs

Prophylaxis: Beta-blockers, CCBs, TCAs

174
Q

What organ should be evaluated by ultrasound in a patient with vaginal agenesis?

A

Kidney

175
Q

When is a test of cure needed for pregnant women treated with gonorrhea or chlamydia?

A

At 7–14 days after treatment. Uncomplicated, nonpharyngeal, nonpregnant patients do not need a test of cure unless reinfection is suspected, but they need a test of reinfection at 3 months from treatment.

176
Q

What causes mucocolpos in neonates with an imperforate hymen?

A

Increased vaginal secretions due to maternal estradiol.

177
Q

Recurrent UTI definition

A

two or more uncomplicated UTIs in six months

or

three or more uncomplicated UTIs in 12 months

178
Q

When is treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria recommended?

A

Women who are pregnant, who are undergoing a urologic procedure in which mucosal bleeding is anticipated, and who have catheter-acquired bacteriuria persisting 48 hours after catheter removal.

179
Q

What causes a bulging imperforate hymen to be noted at birth?

A

Mucocolpos resulting from vaginal infant secretions that are stimulated by maternal estradiol.

180
Q

Medications for treatment of osteoporosis

A
181
Q

What oral medication is most effective at increasing high-density lipoprotein serum levels?

A

Niacin.

182
Q

Two different mechanisms for stress urinary incontinence

A
  1. Urethral hypermobility: insufficient support to the pelvic floor and the tissue near the urethra and bladder neck.
  2. Intrinsic sphincter deficiency: loss of urethral mucosal and muscle tone that normally keeps the urethra closed.
183
Q

What is a contraindication to oxybutynin?

A

Narrow-angle glaucoma

184
Q

What are the main coagulation factors that are increased with estrogen use?

A

Factor VII, factor X, and fibrinogen.

185
Q

Which tests should be ordered for a patient with primary amenorrhea and delayed puberty?

A

Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level and karyotype.

186
Q

Recommended doses of antiviral medication for herpes (first vs recurrent) in pregnancy

A
187
Q

Suppressive HSV therapy

A
188
Q

What are the first-line pessaries for women who have pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Ring and Gellhorn

189
Q

When can ovulation resume post abortion?

A

As early as 10 days after an abortion, which puts women who have an abortion at risk of rapid, repeat unintended pregnancy.

190
Q

Which antidepressant also aids in smoking cessation?

A

Bupropion

191
Q

What is the characteristic histologic feature for granulosa cell tumors?

A

Call-Exner bodies

192
Q

Your patient was diagnosed with hypoactive sexual desire disorder and was prescribed flibanserin. What is a contraindication for its use?

A

Cytochrome P450 Inhibitors (e.g. alcohol)