Professors Key Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Elderly patients have a high incidence of drug interactions due to the likelihood of _____________________

A

Polypharmacy

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2
Q

Intrinsic factors in pharmacokinetic differences in systemic exposure are a result in changes in:

A
Age (pediatric, young adults, elderly)
Gender
Race
Weight (obesity)
Height
Disease
Genetic polymorphism
Organ impairment (renal & hepatic)
Pregnancy
Pathophysiologic conditions
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3
Q

Extrinsic factors in pharmacokinetic differences in systemic exposure are a result in changes in:

A

Use of other drugs (interactions)
Tobacco
Alcohol
Food habits (ie. grapefruit juice)

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4
Q

Short-acting benzodiazepines, such as Midazolam, may be used for:

A
Acute episode of delirium
Seizure disorders
Alcohol withdrawal
Benzodiazepine withdrawal
Severe generalized anxiety disorder
Pre-procedural anesthesia
End-of-life care
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5
Q

Benzodiazepine use will increase the risk of:

A

Cognitive impairment
Falls
Accidents (MVA)
Fractures in older patients

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6
Q

First-pass effect or first-pass metabolism

A

When swallowed, a drug is absorbed by the digestive system and enters the hepatic portal system. It is carried through the portal vein into the liver where it undergoes liver metabolism before it reaches the systemic circulation.

Alternative routes of drug administration that can avoid first-pass metabolism are intravenous, intramuscular, sublingual, suppository, and inhalational aerosol. These medications allow drugs to be absorbed directly into the systemic circulation

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7
Q

Drugs that have a high first pass effect

A

Nitroglycerin
Lidocaine
Morphine

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8
Q

The principal factors that determine the actual applications of a particular benzodiazepine are:

A
  1. The pharmacokinetic properties of the drug itself

2. Research & marketing decisions of pharmaceutical companies

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9
Q

Long-Acting Benzodiazepines

A

Diazepam (Valium)
Temazepam (Restoril)
Clonazepam (Klonopin)
Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

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10
Q

Medium-Acting Benzodiazepines

A

Alprazolam (Xanax)

Lorazepam (Ativan)

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11
Q

Short/Fast-acting Benzodiazepines

A

Midazolam (Versed) IV

Triazolam (Halicon)

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12
Q

Contraindications for Benzodiazepine use in the elderly

A
Falls & fractures
Unsteadiness
Confusion
Short-term cognitive defects
Dizziness
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13
Q

Drug distribution in neonates

A

Protein binding is decreased in the neonate. The amount of serum albumin is relatively lower than adults and have decreased binding affinity for many drugs. Bilirubin and free fatty acids are present in higher concentrations in neonates and compete with some drugs that bind to albumin.

The reduced plasma protein binding of drugs results in a larger fraction of free drug in neonatal serum and greater drug effect. Serum albumin concentrations do not reach adult levels until 10 months to 1 year of age

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14
Q

Drug metabolism in neonates

A

Full-term infants have a slower hepatic drug metabolism as compared to children 1 year and older. By age 1, children metabolize drugs faster than adults. However, this increase in metabolism slows to adult levels around the second year of birth as the children go through puberty into adulthood.

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15
Q

Acetaminophen overdose & antidote

A

APAP overdose is medical emergency. Early diagnosis and treatment are necessary for a positive patient outcome.
Acetylcysteine is the antidote, best given within 8-10 hours of overdose or as soon as possible after injection. May be administered orally or intravenously.

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16
Q

Acetylcysteine

A

APAP antidote
Acetadote 200 mg/ml vial diluted in 5% dextrose solution.
Given in 3 dosages:
150 mg/kg IV infusion over 15 min to 1 hour (1 hour is preferred to decrease rare adverse effects of rash, itching, angioedema, bronchospasm, and hypotension)
2nd dose infused over 4 hours at rate of 50 mg/kg.
Last dose over 16 hours at 100 mg/kg

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17
Q

Naloxone

A

Opioid antagonist for opioid overdose
Can be given IV, IM, SQ, or intranasal route.
Has a shorter half-life than morphine, so doses of Naloxone may be repeated at 2-3 minute intervals until results are effective.
In an emergency, Naloxone IV 0.4 mg for adults, the dosage is titrated to prevent withdrawal.
Naloxone is a mu-receptor antagonist. IV is the preferred method to reverse opiate effects of respiratory and CNS depression

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18
Q

Naltrexone (Vivitrol)

A

Naltrexone (Vivitrol) IM 380 mg is administered every 4 weeks, so it would remain in the patient’s system and have a longer duration of action compared to the oral formulation.
Naltrexone mimics the action of naturally occurring opiate neurotransmitters in the brain by acting as an opioid receptor antagonist.

The administration should be delayed between 7-10 days after the last use of opiates until there are no opiates left in the patient’s system.

Common SE: Injection site reactions (IM), depression, suicidal ideation, sedation, and nausea. Hepatocellular injury is rare but serious side effect that can occur at a higher dose, but this is usually reversed after the medication is discontinued.

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19
Q

Codeine

A

Prodrug that must undergo hepatic metabolism to its active form, morphine, to relieve pain in the body.

Black box warning about ultra-rapid metabolizers

20
Q

What is the difference between a nondihydropyridine and dihydropyridine?

A

Both are calcium channel blockers. Nondihydropyridines act on both the heart and blood vessels. Dihydropyridines act primarily on the blood vessels

21
Q

Which hypertension medications should be avoided if a patient has a sulfa allergy?

A
Loop Diuretics (Furosemide, Torsemide)
Thiazide diuretics
22
Q

Which subtype of CCB is more likely to cause edema?

A

Dihydropyridines

23
Q

What is a hypertension medication option for a patient with osteoporosis and hypertension?

A

Thiazide diuretics

24
Q

What adverse effects should we monitor for when a patient is taking a statin medication?

A

Muscle pain or tenderness, elevated CK with muscle pain, increased liver function studies, and rhabdomyolysis

Most common complaints from patients taking statin drugs are GI upset

25
Q

Should statin medications be taken during pregnancy?

A

No

26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of statin medications?

A

Similar in structure to HMG-CoA reductase which is an enzyme needed to synthesize cholesterol. They block the pathway for synthesizing cholesterol in the liver, reducing the rate of synthesis of cholesterol.

The liver increases the number of LDL receptors, which allows it to remove more LDL from the blood.

27
Q

Which drug class is the most effective for lowering low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol?

A

Statin medications

28
Q

Which statin medications are metabolized by CYP3A4? How are the others metabolized.

A

Metabolized by CYP3A4: atorvastatin, lovastatin, simvastatin

Most absorbed statin doses are extracted from the blood on its first pass through the liver. They undergo rapid hepatic metabolism followed by excretion primarily in the bile. Only four agents (Lovastatin, pitavastatin, pravastatin, and simvastatin) undergo clinically significant excretion in the urine.

29
Q

What can happen if a patient takes expired Tetracycline?

A

Fanconi Syndrome:
Rare disorder that affects the proximal tubules of the kidney. Can lead to severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Causes malabsorption of various electrolytes and substances.

30
Q

Why are Tetracyclines contraindicated in pregnancy, breastfeeding, and children <8

A

Tetracyclines are readily bound to calcium and deposited in newly formed bone or teeth. This can cause permanent yellowing or discoloration of the teeth or skeletal defects

31
Q

In a patient with penicillin allergy, what drug class is a risk for cross allergenicity?

A

Cephalosporins

32
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient with Trichomoniasis?

A

Metronidazole. Tinadazole as an alternate option

33
Q

What common medications can cause a disulfiram-like effect in patients if taken with alcohol? What are the symptoms that happen if these medications are combined with alcohol?

A

Metronidazole, Cefazolin, and Cefotetan

Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, headache, decreased blood pressure

34
Q

Which Macrolide has the best activity against H. pylori?

A

Clarithromycin

35
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Macrolides?

A

Protein synthesis inhibitors. Bind to 50S ribosomal subunit of RNA and block peptide formation

36
Q

Common side effects of Macrolide antibiotics

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, acute cholestatic hepatitis/jaundice, ototoxicity, and prokinetic properties.

Can have profound cardiovascular effects, QT prolongation, and Torsades de Pointe

37
Q

Which antibiotic class needs to be used in caution in patients with Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Fluoroquinolones

Macrolides- can interfere with neuromuscular transmission and can cause muscle weakness to worsen

38
Q

What antibiotics have a strong association with c.diff?

A

Clindamycin**

2nd & 3rd generation cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and amoxicillin

39
Q

Patients with which condition should avoid taking Clindamycin?

A

Ulcerative colitis or pseudomembranous because Clindamycin can cause severe inflammation of the lining of the intestines

40
Q

What toxicities are associated with Fluoroquinolones?

A

Phototoxicity and Photosensitivity

Tendonitis

41
Q

What are the 1st & 2nd line treatment options for acne?

A

Mild Acne- topical treatment of benzoyl peroxide. Often combined with topical clindamycin or erythromycin. Topical retinoids can be used, they are derivatives of vitamin A.

Mild-to-Moderate Acne-
Topical Azelaic acid is a keratolytic drug that suppresses growth of P acnes and decreases proliferation of keratinocytes.
Salicylic acid is another topical keratolytic drug that can be used.

If topical treatment alone is not working, adding an oral antibiotic and topical retinoid is the next choice. Doxycycline and Minocycline are often the first choice agents. Tetracycline and Erythromycin are alternatives but there has been more resistance developing to these drugs.

42
Q

What sort of infection is impetigo?

What are some treatment options for this?

A

Bacterial infection of the skin caused by staphylococcus aureus and/or Streptococcus pyogenes

Mild-to-moderate infections can be treated with topical mupirocin (Bactroban) or retapmulin (Altabax)

(This is a student answer to the teacher’s question)

43
Q

What is the difference between a dermatophyte and candida?

A

Dermatophyte: fungal infection of skin, hair, nails caused by Arthrodermataceae. Ex: Tinea pedis, tinea corporis, tinea cruris, tinea capitis, dermatophyte onchomycosis

Candida is a fungal infection caused by yeast

**This is a student answer to the teacher’s question

44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Metronidazole (Flagyl)

A

Interruption of DNA synthesis of anaerobic bacteria, slowing their replication. Disrupts DNA synthesis and repair, leading to cell death

(Student Answer)

45
Q

What are some interactions/adverse effects associated with Metronidazole (Flagyl)?

A

Alcohol cannot be consumed with Metronidazole

46
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Tetracyclines?

A

Bind to 30S subunit and prevent the binding of incoming charged tRNA. Inhibit protein synthesis.
Bacteriostatic

47
Q

What are some treatment options for scabies?

A

Permethrin, Ivermectin, Lindane cream