Course Hero Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics are most likely indicated in which of the following conditions:

  • Asthma
  • Genital infections
  • Follicular conjunctivitis
  • GERD
A

-Genital infections

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2
Q

Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media?

  • Amoxicillin
  • Aspirin
  • Immunoglobulins
  • Corticosteroids
A

-Amoxicillin

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3
Q

Which of the following best classifies penicillin, cephalosporins, and carbapenems?

  • Protein synthesis inhibitors
  • Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitors
  • RNA synthesis
  • Cell wall inhibitors
A

-Cell wall inhibitors

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4
Q

What statement is true regarding Beta lactamase inhibitors?

  • May decrease absorption
  • First dose effect
  • Often combined with penicillin antibiotics
  • Delayed absorption of oral drugs
A

-Often combined with penicillin antibiotics

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5
Q

Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management of African American population?

  • Clonidine primary
  • Beta Blockers primary
  • Thiazide or CCB primary
  • ACE-I primary
  • ARB primary
A

-Thiazide or CCB primary

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6
Q

Which of the following groups of antibiotics is notable for side effects such as neurotoxicity or ototoxicity?

  • Beta-lactams
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Tetracyclines
A

-Aminoglycosides

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7
Q

Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular structure?

  • Sulfonamides
  • Macrolides
  • Tetracyclines
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Cephalosporins
A

-Cephalosporins

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8
Q

Which of the following medications is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic?

  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Azithromycin
  • Amikacin
  • Penicillin
A

-Ciprofloxacin

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9
Q

Which of the following medications or drug classes is commonly indicated for managing gestational hypertension?

  • Spironolactone (Aldactone)
  • Loop diuretics
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Dobutamine
  • Calcium gluconate
A

-Calcium channel blockers

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10
Q

Which of the following best describes aminoglycosides, macrolides, and clindamycin?

  • Protein synthesis inhibitors
  • Folic acid synthesis inhibitors
  • Cell wall inhibitors
  • Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitors
A

-Protein synthesis inhibitors

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11
Q

The long half-life of amiodarone contributes to which of the following?

  • Enhanced therapeutic effects
  • Liver toxicity
  • Decreased dosing
  • Short onset of action
A

-Liver toxicity

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12
Q

Pharmacokinetics involve the study of which factor?

  • Distribution rates among various body compartments
  • Physiologic interactions of drugs
  • Interactions among various drugs
  • Adverse reactions to medications
A

-Distribution rates among various body compartments

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13
Q

Which route of drug administration is used with potent and lipophilic drugs in a patch formulation and avoids first-pass metabolism?

  • Oral
  • Topical
  • Rectal
  • Transdermal
A

-Transdermal

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14
Q

Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:

  • A need for increased dosages of medications
  • Increased elimination of an active drug
  • Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
  • Slowed metabolism of prodrug into active drug leading to accumulation of prodrug
A

-Slowed metabolism of prodrug into active drug leading to accumulation of prodrug

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15
Q

Lower doses of sublingual nitroglycerin can be used effectively because:

  • It bypasses the liver
  • The potency is 100 times higher
  • It does not need to be absorbed into the bloodstream
  • It is not catabolized down by gastric acids
A

-It bypasses the liver

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16
Q

Which term refers to the ratio between a drug’s therapeutic effects and its toxic effects?

  • Cumulative effect
  • Therapeutic index
  • Tolerance
  • Affinity
A

-Therapeutic index

17
Q

In geriatric patients the percentage of body fat is increased. What are the pharmacologic implications of the physiologic change?

  • A lipid soluble medication will be eliminated more quickly and not work as well
  • Absorption of lipid soluble drugs is impaired in older adults
  • The bioavailability of the lipid soluble drug will be increased in older adults
  • A lipid soluble medication will accumulate in fat tissue and its duration of action may be prolonged
A

-A lipid soluble medication will accumulate in fat tissue and its duration of action may be prolonged

**This does seem like the best answer, but the book says “increase in body fat in older adults provides a storage depot for lipid-soluble drugs. As a result, plasma levels of these drugs are reduced, causing a reduction in responses.

18
Q

A patient diagnosed with otitis externa and taking a fluoroquinolone with glucocorticoid benefit is taking the medication together, you reply:

  • The glucocorticoid reduces the swelling caused by the inflammation and ear infection
  • The glucocorticoid decreases the likelihood of antibiotic resistance
  • The glucocorticoid decreases the adverse effects of the fluoroquinolone
  • The two medications are contraindicated for use together
A

-The glucocorticoid reduces the swelling caused by the inflammation and ear infection

19
Q

A two-year-old child presents to the clinic with arthralgia and fever. The left tympanic membrane is erythematous and bulging. The right tympanic membrane is perforated and draining. The child’s parent states “this is the fifth ear infection this year, what can we do?”. What action will the provider take to address the child’s ear problems?

  • Prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate and refer the child to an otolaryngologist
  • Prescribe both ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM with benzocaine ear drops for pain
A

-Prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate and refer the child to an otolaryngologist

20
Q

A patient is diagnosed with otitis externa. Comorbidities include DM, HTN, and advanced multiple sclerosis. Which type of education regarding medication administration would you provide?

  • The oral administration of a prescription for hydrocortisone/neomycin/polymyxin B combination solution
  • The oral administration of a prescription for fluoroquinolone
  • The administration of topical combination of fluoroquinolone/glucocorticoid combination solution
  • The administration of topical medication for a prescription of alcohol plus acetic acid solution
A

-The oral administration of a prescription for fluoroquinolone

21
Q

A patient who has congestive heart failure requires a diuretic. The patient also has a history of chronic kidney disease with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 30ml/min. Which drug would you prescribe this patient?

  • Methyclothiazide
  • Metolazone
  • Loop diuretics
A

-Loop diuretics

22
Q

Factors released by platelets contribute to hemostasis by enhancing

  • Fibrinolysis
  • Vasodilation
  • Intrinsic pathway
  • Platelet aggregation
A

-Platelet aggregation

23
Q

A patient has been receiving iron replacement therapy for 2 days after hip replacement surgery. The provider is alerted to the following assessment data:
Patient is pale and reports feeling tired, patient’s stools appear black, patients HR is 98, Resp 20, BP 100/50. What order will the provider take initially to best assure appropriate care for this patient?

  • Packed red blood cells
  • Hemoglobin and hematocrit
  • Hypertonic fluid bolus
  • Stool guaiac
A

-Hemoglobin and hematocrit

24
Q

A woman taking a drug for high LDL-cholesterol experiences muscle tenderness and pain with no apparent cause. Which agent is likely to cause this adverse effect?

  • Fenofibrate
  • Niacin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Colestipol
A

-Atorvastatin

25
Q

Which drug inhibits the intestinal absorption of cholesterol?

  • Colestipol
  • Fenofibrate
  • Ezetimibe
  • Colesevelam
A

-Ezetimibe

26
Q

When planning care for a patient receiving a sulfonamide antibiotic, which is the appropriate intervention?

  • Insert a foley catheter for accurate input and output measurement
  • Encourage liquids that produce acidic urine
  • Encourage a diet that causes alkaline ash
  • Force fluids to at least 2000 ml/day
A

-Force fluids to at least 2000 ml/day

27
Q

A 30-year-old pregnant female has cellulitis caused by MRSA. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate option of outpatient therapy?

  • Quinupristin/dalforpristin
  • Doxycycline
  • Clindamycin
  • Tigecycline
A

-Clindamycin

?? I have no idea if this is right

28
Q

What is important teaching to a patient taking minocycline?

  • Wear sunscreen as your skin may become sensitive to light
  • This medication can cause an increase in uric acid levels precipitating a gout attack
  • If you have diabetes, this medication can worsen hyperglycemia
  • You must take this medication with calcium in order for it to be absorbed better
A

-Wear sunscreen as your skin may become sensitive to light

29
Q

Which answer is true regarding cephalosporins?

  • Similar to macrolide structure
  • Bacteriostatic
  • High toxicity
  • Beta-lactam antibiotic
A

-Beta-lactam antibiotic

30
Q

What are the two serious side effects that can occur with Aminoglycoside use?

  • Nephrotoxicity & neurotoxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity & hepatotoxicity
  • Ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity
  • Hepatotoxicity & ototoxicity
A

-Ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity

31
Q

Adverse effects of fluoroquinolone antibiotics include?

  • QT prolongation
  • Tendinitis and tendon rupture
  • Seizures
  • All of the above
A

-All of the above

32
Q

A provider would prescribe which antibiotic to a patient diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Daptomycin
  • Norfloxacin
  • Levofloxacin
A

-Daptomycin

33
Q

Which order for furosemide is written appropriately by the prescriber?

  • Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg po qd
  • Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg po daily
  • Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg daily
  • Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg po QD
A

-Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg po daily

34
Q

A six-year-old who has never received an inactivated influenza vacicne has been brought to the office by his mother to be vaccinated to help protect his four month-old baby sister during influenza “season”. You inform the boy’s mother that:

  • A single vaccination should be administered annually
  • Children under age eight years should not receive the inactivated influenza vaccination
  • Two inactivated influenza vaccinations will be required, the first about one month prior to start of influenza season and the second scheduled four weeks after the first.
  • Two inactivated influenza vaccinations will be required, scheduled four or more weeks apart.
A

-Two inactivated influenza vaccinations will be required, scheduled four or more weeks apart.

35
Q

All of the following medications are safe to use during pregnancy except:

  • Acyclovir
  • Famciclovir
  • Valacyclovir
  • Foscamet
A

-Foscamet

36
Q

Zanamivir is indicated for which of the following?

  • Treatment and prophylaxis of influenza
  • Treatment of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
  • Treatment of influenza
  • Prophylaxis of influenza
A

-Treatment and prophylaxis of influenza

37
Q

Which medication will decrease blood pressure by blocking angiotensin II receptor site?

  • Eplerenone
  • Furosemide
  • Valsartan
  • Enalapril
A

-Valsartan

38
Q

A patient is receiving nifedipine. Which adverse effect should you monitor for in this patient?

  • Ankle edema
  • Diarrhea
  • Pallor
  • Backache
A

-Ankle edema

39
Q

Why does an NP student anticipate administering metoprolol rather than propranolol?

  • Propranolol causes beta 1 and beta 2 blockade
  • Metoprolol helps prevent retinopathy in individuals with diabetes
  • Metoprolol is less likely to cause diabetic neuropathy
  • Propranolol is associated with a higher incidence of foot ulcers
A

-Propranolol causes beta 1 and beta 2 blockade