Professional Conduct and Regulation Flashcards

1
Q

Code of ethics: Act with

A

Honesty, integrity, competence, and diligence.

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2
Q

Code of ethics: Act in the

A

Client’s best interest

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3
Q

Code of ethics: Excercise

A

Due care

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4
Q

Code of ethics: Avoid

A

Or disclose and manage conflicts of interest.

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5
Q

Code of ethics: Maintain

A

The confidentiality and protect the privacy of client information.

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6
Q

Code of ethics: Act in a

A

Manner that reflects positively on the financial planning profession and the CFP certification.

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7
Q

Fiduciary duty

A

At all time a CFP professional must act in the client’s best interest. This includes a duty of loyalty, duty of care, and duty to follow client instructions.

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8
Q

If a CFP lacks competence, he may

A

1) gain competence
2) obtain the assistance of a competent professional
3) limit or terminate the engagement
4) refer the client to a competent professional

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9
Q

A CFP professional must report a reportable offense to the CFP Board in writing within __ calendar days?

A

30

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10
Q

If a consumer is denied credit, they must be informed which credit reporting agency provided information to the creditor

A

Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971

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11
Q

Negative information may be retained on a credit report for 7 years and bankruptcy for 10 years

A

Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971

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12
Q

Consumer may include a written version of facts in their file if they disagree with the credit reporting agency.

A

Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971

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13
Q

Right to challenge credit card charges

A

Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971

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14
Q

Lenders must make uniform disclosures

A

Truth in Lending Act of 1968 and 1996

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15
Q

Provides a standard method of calculating and reporting interest (APR).

A

Truth in Lending Act of 1968 and 1996

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16
Q

Lenders must disclose payment terms

A

Truth in Lending Act of 1968 and 1996

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17
Q

Regulation Z Required disclosures - the law

A

Truth in Lending Act of 1968 and 1996

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18
Q

Enables borrowers to recover from creditors who break the rules regarding the correction of billing errors

A

Fair Credit Billing Act

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19
Q

Allows a borrower to recover if a creditor discriminates against her for any reason that is prohibited by the Act

A

Equal Credit Opportunity Act

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20
Q

Provides for recovery by those who suffer losses due to a financial institution failing to follow the provisions of the act.

A

Electronic Fund Transfer Act

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21
Q

Requires the registration of IPOs

A

Securities Act of 1933

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22
Q

Requires companies with previously issued securities to keep information current.

A

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

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23
Q

Created the SEC

A

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

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24
Q

Requires brokers and dealers to register with the SEC

A

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

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25
Extended securities laws to investment companies (mutual funds)
Investment Company Act of 1940
26
Requires registration for and regulates the activities of investment advisers
Investment Adviser Act of 1940
27
Insures customers' accounts up to $500,000 in securities and cash with a limit of $250,000 of cash coverage
Security Investors Protection Act of 1970
28
Toughens the accountability for accuracy of financial information released by corporations
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
29
Requires independence on corporate boards
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
30
Set stricter rules for auditors
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
31
Created the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau and the Financial Stability Oversight Council
Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010
32
Wrote into law the fiduciary duty owed by investment advisers to their clients
The Investment Advisers Act of 1940
33
Sets minimum standards for pension and health plans in private industry and provides protection for individuals participating in those plans
Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1975
34
Directed the SEC to supervise the development of a national securities market and a system for nationwide clearing and settlement of securities transactions
Securities Acts Amendments of 1975
35
Exempted derivatives from regulation
Commodity Fututres Modernization Act of 2000
36
Requires broker-dealers to have internal policies, procedures, and controls to meet the "know your customer" mandate
The USA PATRIOT Act of 2001
37
Requires hedge fund managers with assets under management of $100 million or more to register with the SEC
Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010
38
What is step 1 of the financial planning process?
Understanding the client's personal and financial circumstances
39
What is step 2 of the financial planning process?
Identifying and selecting goals?
40
What is step 3 of the financial planning process?
Analyzing the client's current course of action and potential alternative course(s) of action.
41
What is step 4 of the financial planning process?
Developing the financial planning recommendation(s)
42
What is step 5 of the financial planning process?
Presenting the financial planning recommendation(s)
43
What is step 6 of the financial planning process?
Implementing the financial planning recommendations(s)
44
What is step 7 of the financial planning process?
Monitoring progress and updating
45
What are the three tests to be classified as an adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940?
1. Advice - must give advice concerning securities 2. Business - must be engaged in the business of giving advice about securities 3. Compensation - must receive compensation for such advice
46
This was the original law that required investment advisers to register with the SEC?
The Investment Advisers Act of 1940
47
Which law prohibited financial institutions from consolidating and offering any combination of traditional commercial banking, investment banking, and insurance.
Glass-Steagall Act of 1933
48
This law extended SEC regulation to the OTC market.
Maloney Act of 1938
49
This law spread the regulation and control of insurance to the state level.
McCarran-Ferguson Act of 1945
50
What are the purposes of FINRA?
1. Market regulation 2. Member regulation 3. Enforcement 4. Dispute resolution 5. Advertising regulation/investment companies
51
What is the securities industry self-regulating body?
Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA)
52
Which license allow an adviser to sell mutual funds, variable annuities, variable life insurance, and initially offered Unit Investment Trusts?
Series 6
53
What license allow an adviser to sell any securities including individual stocks and ETFs?
Series 7
54
What license allows an adviser to act as a registered principal and is required to manage member's securities or investment banking business?
Series 24
55
What license allow an adviser to sell securities within a state?
Series 63
56
What license allows an adviser to provide investment advice to clients within the holder's primary state of residence?
Series 65
57
What license combines the Series 63 and 65 licenses?
Series 66 - must first pass Series 7
58
Taxes, public spending, and government borrowing are exmaples of what?
Fiscal policy
59
Required reserve ratio, open market operations, and the discount rate are examples of what?
Monetary policy
60
When taxes go down, public spending goes up, and government borrowing goes up
Expansionary policy
61
When taxes up, public spending goes down, and government borrowing goes down
Contractionary policy
62
The Truth in Lending Act states that a credit card holder can only be liable for $___ of unauthorized charges if they report the credit card lost or stolen.
$50
63
How many continuing education hours are required by CFP every two years?
30 hours