Investment Planning Flashcards

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1
Q

This is the investment banker who agrees to lead the offering process for an IPO

A

originating house/lead underwriter

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2
Q

Other securities firms that agree to assist with marketing the IPO

A

syndicates

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3
Q

This underwriting agreement provides no guarantees from the investment bankers to the company going public - they will sell as many shares as possible

A

best efforts agreement

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4
Q

In this underwriting agreement, investment bankers guarantee the company that the entire issue will be purchased. The investment bankers absorb the loss if they fail to sell the entire issue.

A

First commitment

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5
Q

This is the right to increase the size of the offering

A

Green shoes

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6
Q

This is a sale of securities to the public by insiders or other affiliated persons

A

Secondary offering

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7
Q

Agents of sellers of securities who receive a commission for executing a transaction

A

brokers

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8
Q

Principals who buy and sell securities for their own accounts

A

dealers

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9
Q

This is the market for new issues

A

primary market

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10
Q

This is the market for previously issued securities

A

secondary market

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11
Q

The number of shares that are available for trading by investors

A

public float

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12
Q

How many shares is in a round lot?

A

100

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13
Q

An order to buy or sell at the current price

A

market order

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14
Q

An order to buy or sell at a specific price

A

limit order

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15
Q

An order that is good just for the day, if not executed, it expires at the end of the day

A

pay order

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16
Q

an order that will remain in effect until either it is executed or canceled

A

good-til-canceled order

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17
Q

An order to buy or sell if the price of a stock trades at or through a set price

A

Stop order

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18
Q

When an investor borrows a stock and sells it on an exchange

A

short position

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19
Q

Who sets the initial margin requirement?

A

The Fed

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20
Q

What is the current initial margin requirement?

A

50%

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21
Q

What is the margin call formula?

A

(1-initial margin %)/(1-maintenance margin %) x purchase price of stock

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22
Q

How much does the FDIC insure per bank account?

A

$250,000 per owner

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23
Q

These are short term debt issued by the U.S. government

A

Treasury bills

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24
Q

These are unsecured short-term promisory notes issued by large corporations with maturities up to 270 days

A

Commercial paper

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25
Q

This money market instrument allows lenders and banks to negotiate terms. It involves amounts larger than $100,000.

A

Negotiable CDs

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26
Q

These are short term drafts guaranteed by a bank and used to finance international trade by guaranteeing payment to the exporter of goods

A

Bankers’ acceptances

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27
Q

These are dollar denominated time deposits (6 months or less) made at foreign banks or at foreign branches of American banks

A

Eurodollar CDs

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28
Q

How is interest income taxed?

A

at ordinary income tax rates

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29
Q

How are qualified dividends taxed?

A

At long term capital gains rates

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30
Q

How long must a security be held to classify as long term?

A

More than 1 year

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31
Q

What is the maxium tax rate for collectibles?

A

28%

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32
Q

Gains and losses are netted with

A

Gains and losses of a similar type (ST or LT)

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33
Q

If a taxpayer has short term losses and long term gains

A

The losses are netted with the gain. If there is a net loss, up to $3,000 loss is allowed annually. If there is a net gain, it is taxed at long term rates.

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34
Q

If a taxpayer has short term gains and long term losses

A

The losses are netted with the gains. If there is a gain, it is taxed at the marginal tax rate. If there is a loss, up to $3,000 loss is allowed to be taken annually.

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35
Q

If a taxpayer has short term and long term gains

A

They are taxed separately at their respective rates

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36
Q

What is the medicare contribution tax

A

3.8% of the lesser of net investment income or the excess of the modified AGI over a specified threshold amount

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37
Q

When you sell a security at a loss and buy it back within 30 days of the sale, or purchase a security within 30 days prior to the sale, this is known as

A

wash sale

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38
Q

What is the penalty for a wash sale?

A

The loss is disallowed. It is added to the cost basis of the shares.

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39
Q

What are the three goals of the Fed and the U.S. Treasury?

A
  1. Full employment
  2. Stable prices (low inflation)
  3. Economic growth
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40
Q

When prices are falling in absolute terms

A

deflation

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41
Q

During periods of deflation, investments should center on

A

very-high quality debt instruments

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42
Q

What are three tools the Fed has?

A
  1. Setting reserve requirements of banks
  2. Setting the federal funds rate and the discount rate
  3. Buying and selling U.S. government securities in the open market
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43
Q

The rate at which banks borrow money from the Fed

A

discount rate

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44
Q

Rate at which banks can borrow from each other

A

federal funds rate

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45
Q

What actions mark expasionary policy for the Fed?

A
  1. lower reserve requirement
  2. lower discount rate
  3. purchase government securities
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46
Q

What actions mark contractionary policy for the Fed?

A
  1. Increase reserve requirement
  2. increase discount rate
  3. sell government securities
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47
Q

The diversifiable component of total risk

A

unsystematic risk

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48
Q

The risk associated with the nature of the business

A

business risk (unsystematic)

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49
Q

The possibility that a debt security will be called in by its issuer prior to maturity

A

call risk (unsystematic)

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50
Q

The risk that an enterprise’s financial condition will deteriorate, resulting in a downgrading of its debt

A

credit risk (unsystematic)

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51
Q

The risk that an enterprise’s financial conditions will deteriorate to the point where it will not meet its financial obligations

A

default risk (unsystematic)

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52
Q

The risk associated with the extent to which debt has been used to finance a company’s operations

A

financial risk (unsystematic)

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53
Q

The risk that an investment does not have an active market within which to trade the investment

A

Marketability risk (unsystematic)

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54
Q

The degree of uncertainty associated with the time it takes to sell an investment with a minimum of capital loss from the current market price.

A

Liquidity risk (unsystematic)

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55
Q

The risk associated with actions and decisions of the investment manager that could adversely impact one’s investment in the fund he or she is managing.

A

Investment manager risk (unsystematic)

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56
Q

The risk associated with the uncertainty of an adverse outcome due to the interpretation of tax laws and regulations

A

Tax risk (unsystematic)

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57
Q

The uncertainty caused by the possibility of adverse political events occurring in a country.

A

Political risk (unsystematic)

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58
Q

The nondiversifiable component of total risk (expressed as beta)

A

Systematic risk

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59
Q

The risk that future inflation will cause the purchasing power of cash flow from an investment to fall

A

purchasing power risk (systematic)

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60
Q

The risk that falling interest rates will cause the cash flow from an investment to fall when the principal or interest payments of that investment are reinvested at lower rates

A

Reinvestment risk (systematic)

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61
Q

The risk that a change in interest rates, especially rising rates, will cause the market value of a fixed-income security to fall

A

Interest rate risk (systematic)

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62
Q

The risk that changes in the overall market prices will cause changes in the market value of a specific security.

A

Market risk (systematic)

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63
Q

The risk that an appreciating home-country currency, compared to a foreign currency, will cause an investment in a foreign security denominated in the foreign currency to be worth less, in dollar terms, than what that investment would have been worth if the currency rates had remained stable

A

Exchange rate risk (systematic)

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64
Q

Risk from shocks that are generated and amplified within the financial system

A

Endogenous risk

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65
Q

The tendency of the returns of two assets over time to move in the same or in different directions

A

Covariance

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66
Q

The statistical measure of the strength of the relationship of the return of two assets

A

Correlation coefficient

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67
Q

The proportion of the total variation in returns of a security that is explained by the variation in returns of another security or of a benchmark index

A

Coefficient of determination

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68
Q

An investment’s risk per unit of expected return

A

Coefficient of variation

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69
Q

A measure of systematic risk. It measures a stock’s volatility.

A

Beta

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70
Q

This form of risk cannot be diversified away

A

Systematic

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71
Q

A well diversified portfolio can be formed by how many securities?

A

10 to 15

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72
Q

A well diversified portfolio can be achieved by how many mid to small cap stocks?

A

25 to 30

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73
Q

How many different mutual funds in different assets classes can create a diversified portfolio?

A

4 to 7

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74
Q

A distribution that has a hump to the left

A

positively skewed

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75
Q

A distribution that has a hump to the right

A

negatively skewed

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76
Q

Investment returns tend to be _______ skewed.

A

positively

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77
Q

A distribution that has a greater peak.

A

Leptokurtic

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78
Q

A distribution that has a lesser peak.

A

Platykurtic

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79
Q

This form of kurtosis has less variance.

A

Leptokurtic

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80
Q

This form of kurtosis has a wide variance in returns.

A

Platykurtic

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81
Q

Returns fall within one standard deviation of the mean ___% of the time.

A

68%

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82
Q

Returns fall withint two standard deviations of the mean ___% of the time.

A

95%

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83
Q

Returns fall within three standard deviations of the mean ___% of the time.

A

99%

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84
Q

Coefficient of variation equals

A

standard deviation / arithmetic mean

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85
Q

A statistical measure of the relative dispersion of data points around a mean.

A

Coefficient of variation

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86
Q

Is a higher or lower coefficient of variation better?

A

lower - less risk being taken to achieve the return

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87
Q

What is the problem with covariance?

A

It does not tell us magnitude

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88
Q

Correlation coefficient has a range between

A

-1 and 1

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89
Q

R represents the

A

correlation coefficient

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90
Q

A correlation coefficient of 1 means

A

the two assets have a perfectly positive relationship

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91
Q

A correlation coefficient of 0 means

A

the two assets have no relationship

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92
Q

A correlation coefficient of -1 means

A

the two assets have a perfectly negative relationship

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93
Q

Correlations tend to __________ in rising markets and ___________ in falling markets.

A

decrease, increase

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94
Q

A beta of 1.2 means that the assets has ____% of the volatility of the benchmark.

A

120%

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95
Q

In order for beta to be reliable, the stocks must have a coefficient of determination (R squared) of

A

70% or greater

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96
Q

market risk premium

A

return of the market - risk free rate

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97
Q

This provides an absolute measure of risk adjusted return

A

Jensen’s Alpha

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98
Q

A graph showing the relationship between systematic risk and the required return for an investment for any given level of risk. Determined by CAPM.

A

Security Market Line (SML)

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99
Q

A graph showing the relationship between the total risk and return for a portfolio of securities in which risky securities are combined with a risk-free asset.

A

Capital Market Line (CML)

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100
Q

A graph that represents various combinations of securities plotted so that a maximum expected return is shown for each incremental risk level

A

Efficient frontier

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101
Q

The portfolio that maximizes an investor’s expected return consistent with that investor’s given level or risk

A

Optimal portfolio

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102
Q

What are the seven assumptions of Markowitz Portfolio Theory?

A
  1. Investors are risk averse
  2. Investors make investment decisions based on expected return and risk only
  3. Investors have homogenous expectations
  4. One-period time horizon
  5. Free access to all relavent information
  6. No transaction costs
  7. Capital market is perfectly competitive
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103
Q

The optimal portfolio is located at the point where the investor’s ______________ and the _______________ are tangent.

A

indifference curve, efficient frontier

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104
Q

What is the formula for the capital market line?

A

expected return of the portfolio = risk free return + standard deviation of the portfolio x ([market return - risk free return]/standard deviation of the market)

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105
Q

If interest rates increase the SML will

A

shift up

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106
Q

If inflation is expected, the SML will

A

shift left

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107
Q

If investors are risk averse, the SML

A

has a steeper slope

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108
Q

A multi-factor model that is an alternative to CAPM. Posits that four major factors affect a stock’s return.

A

Arbitrage Pricing Theory

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109
Q

What are the four major factors that affect a stock’s return under Arbitrage Pricing Theory?

A
  1. Inflation
  2. Industrial production (changes in GDP)
  3. Risk premiums
  4. Yield curves (interest rates)
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110
Q

The identification of an asset mix that will provide the optimal balance between expected risk and return for a long investment horizon.

A

Strategic Asset Allocation

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111
Q

Focus on sector and securities. Periodically revising the asset mix, moving funds from one category that appears to be overvalued to one that appears undervalued.

A

Tactical Asset Allocation

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112
Q

Divide a portfolio into a core holding of stocks and bonds and a satellite portion. The satellite portion is used to take advantage of opportunities that add return, diversification, and/or reduce risk.

A

Core/satellite Asset Allocation

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113
Q

Changes the asset mix as the market changes.

A

Dynamic Asset Allocation

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114
Q

The idea that security prices adjust rapidly to the arrival of new information, and current security prices reflect all information about the security.

A

Efficient Market Hypothesis

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115
Q

What are the assumptions of the efficient market hypothesis (6)?

A
  1. Large number of competing participants
  2. Information is readily available
  3. Transaction costs are small
  4. An investor cannot outperform or underperform the market
  5. An investor can earn a return that is commensurate with the amount of risk assumed
  6. Even if a security is mispriced, one cannot predict the direction of the error in an efficient capital market
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116
Q

The idea that successive price changes in a stock are independent.

A

Random walk

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117
Q

Investors should not be able to achieve above-average returns consistently using trading rules based on historical information. Fundamental analysis can help investors spot information errors and potentially find undervalued securities.

A

Weak form efficient market hypothesis

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118
Q

Trading rules based upon information after it becomes publicly available should not result in consistently above-average returns. Fundamental analysis is of no value. The only way to beat the market is inside information.

A

Semi-strong form of the efficient market hypothesis

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119
Q

Stock prices fully reflect all public and private information. No group of investors should be able to consistently achieve above average returns. There is no way to outperform the market.

A

Strong form of the efficient market hypothesis

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120
Q

The anomaly that stock prices are lower in December than in January (especially for small-cap stocks)

A

January Effect

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121
Q

The anomaly that stocks with high dividend rates tend to outperform stocks paying lower dividend rates

A

Dividend-yield anomaly

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122
Q

The anomaly that stock prices tend to peak in value on Friday and decline in value on Monday

A

Weekend effect

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123
Q

The anomaly that low P/E stocks outperform high P/E stocks

A

Low P/E

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124
Q

The anomaly that small-cap stocks outperform large-cap stocks

A

Size (small firm) effect

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125
Q

The anomaly that stocks with high book to market prices outperform stocks with low book to market prices

A

BV/MV effect

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126
Q

The anomaly that it is profitable to buy stocks with few analysts

A

Neglected firm effect

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127
Q

The anomaly that stocks rated 1 in Value Line ourpeform stocks rated 5

A

Value Line effect

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128
Q

The idea that investors hate to take losses and will generally prefer to avoid losses than to achieve gains

A

Loss aversion

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129
Q

Investors may choose to invest or not invest based on a fear of missing out or of losing money

A

Fear of regret

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130
Q

People tend to be over optimistic about the market and believe they are above average

A

Overconfidence (Optimism Bias)

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131
Q

Investors make judgements based on stereotypes. They become overly pessimistic about investments that have performed poorly in the past and overly optimistic about investments that have done well.

A

Representativeness

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132
Q

Investors attempting to determine the potential success of a new investment by comparing it to an already understood category or previously held investment

A

Based-rate neglect (a form of Representativeness)

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133
Q

An investor failing to accurately consider the sample size of the data used to make a judgement

A

Sample-size neglect (a form of Representativeness)

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134
Q

Investors are influenced by the way an idea is presented.

A

Framing

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135
Q

Investors search for and rely on information that supports their decisions.

A

Confirmation bias (Rationalization)

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136
Q

Discomfort experienced when newly acquired information conflicts with preexisting understandings.

A

Cognitive Dissonance

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137
Q

Individuals only register information that appears to affirm an already chosen decision

A

Self perception (a form of Cognitive Dissonance)

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138
Q

Rationalizing actions that enable a person to adhere to the original course

A

Selective decision making (a form of Cognitive Dissonance)

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139
Q

Investors, when looking back, see events that took place in the past as having been more predictable than they seemed before they happened

A

Hindsight bias

140
Q

The tendency of investors to ascribe their success to talent or foresight, while blaming failures on others or outside influences

A

Self-Attribution Bias

141
Q

The tendency to hold on to certain beliefs even when faced with new information that should alter those beliefs

A

Anchoring

142
Q

The problem of putting too much weight on current events or data and not enough weight on past, historic trends

A

Recency

143
Q

Treating one dollar different from another depending on where it comes from, where it is kept, and how it is spent

A

Mental Accounting

144
Q

The misunderstanding people have in relating nominal rates or prices with real (inflation-adjusted) rates or prices

A

Money illusion

145
Q

Giving more importance to data or information that is easy to obtain

A

Availability bias

146
Q

People faced with a selection of choices tend to choose whatever option ratifies, confirms, or continues the existing situation

A

Status Quo Bias

147
Q

The tendency to believe that one can control or influence outcomes, when this is not possible

A

Illusion of Control Bias

148
Q

Individuals value an owned asset more than those that are not owned

A

Endowment Bias

149
Q

The dividend payout ratio

A

the percent of earnings per share a company pays out in a dividend

150
Q

The date the board of directors declares that a dividend will be paid and identifies the key dates

A

declaration date

151
Q

The date the dividend is paid to shareholders

A

distribution date

152
Q

The date the corporation closes its books and identifies who the shareholders are

A

Record date

153
Q

How many days before the distribution date must an investor buy a security in order to receive the dividend on the distribution dates

A

two days

154
Q

One business day before the record date. An investor who executes a trade on this day will not receive the dividend on the next distribution dats.

A

ex-dividend date (ex-date)

155
Q

A dividend paid in the company’s stock rather than cash

A

stock dividend

156
Q

When management decides to lower the market price of the stock in order to encourage more investors to purchase shares of the company.

A

Stock split

157
Q

How do you calculate the new stock price after a stock split?

A

divide original price by ratio of new stock to old

158
Q

Converting a certain number of old shares into one new share.

A

Reverse split

159
Q

Allow individuals to reinvest their cash dividend distributions into additional shares of the company’s stock.

A

Dividend Reinvestment Plans (DRIPs)

160
Q

A company repurchases some of its outstanding shares of stock

A

Stock repurchase

161
Q

How is required return for a security calculated?

A

using CAPM

162
Q

The value of the security that is computed using a discounted cash flow approach to valuation.

A

intrinsic value

163
Q

An investor will want to buy a stock if the current market price is __________ its intrinsic value.

A

less than or equal to

164
Q

If a company’s P/E ratio is lower than either industry P/E or market P/E or both, it may be

A

undervalued

165
Q

Stocks with price-to-sales ratio of less than ___ are generally undervalued

A

1.0

166
Q

Stocks with price-to-sales ratio of greater than ___ may be overvalued

A

3.0

167
Q

How is price-to-sales ratio computed

A

(Net sales/number of shares outstanding)/price per share

168
Q

How is the growth-adjusted P/E ratio (PEG) calculated?

A

P/E ratio/earnings growth rate

169
Q

A PEG ratio of less than ___ may identify an undervalued company

A

1.0

170
Q

How is price-to-book ratio calculated?

A

(equity/number of shares outstanding)/book value

171
Q

What is the zero growth model?

A

V = D zero/r

172
Q

When is the zero growth model used?

A

with stocks whose dividend is fixed and will never grow

173
Q

How do you calculate the dividend growth rate based on company earnings?

A

g = ROE x rr
ROE - return on equity
rr - retention rate

174
Q

What are the four purposes of an investment policy statement?

A
  1. Setting objectives
  2. Defining the asset allocation policy
  3. Establishing management procedures
  4. Determining communication procedures
175
Q

What should be included in an IPS?

A
  1. Return requirments
  2. Risk tolerance
  3. Liquidity
  4. Time Horizon
  5. Laws and regulations
  6. Taxes
176
Q

Which ratios of risk adjusted performance assume a well diversified portfolio?

A

Treynor and Jensen (use beta which assumes diversification)

177
Q

What is the order for using risk adjusted performance metrics?

A
Beta
Alpha
Treynor
Sharpe
BATS
178
Q

Calculation for HPR that is not on the formula sheet

A

(S+I+P)/P
S-current price or sale price
P - purchase cost
I - income received during the holding period (subtract margin interest paid)

179
Q

This form of weighting reflects the actual return to the client

A

dollar weighted

180
Q

This form of weighting reflects the actual performance of the manager over a specified period of time

A

Time weighted

181
Q

If NPV is greater than 0

A

The investment should be purchased

182
Q

If NPV equals 0

A

the investment should be purchased

183
Q

If NPV is less than 0

A

the investment should not be purchased

184
Q

Considers things such as the past records of assets, earnings, sales, products, management, and markets of a company in order to predict a company’s future success or failure

A

Fundamental analysis

185
Q

Analyzes the price movement patterns of a company’s securities

A

Technical analysis

186
Q

How is return on equity ratio calculated?

A

(earnings after tax - preferred dividends)/(equity - preferred stock)

187
Q

Bonds that are backed by a legal claim to some specific property of the issuer in case of default

A

Secured (senior) bonds

188
Q

Bonds that are backed by the general credit of the issuer

A

Unsecured bonds (debentures)

189
Q

A type of bond that may be exchanged for the company’s common stock under certain conditions

A

Convertible bonds

190
Q

Bond that pay interest only if and when it is earned. They can omit interest payments and not be in default.

A

Income bonds

191
Q

How does maturity affect a bond’s volatility?

A

Usually, the longer the term, the greater the volatility

192
Q

This type of bond has no reinvestment risk

A

zero-coupon bond

193
Q

This type of bond has greater interest rate risk than similar grade and maturity bonds

A

zero-coupon bond

194
Q

What bonds are considered investment grade?

A

Those with a rating of BBB (Baa) or better

195
Q

When will an issuer call a bond?

A

If interest rates decline enough

196
Q

What are the main risks associated with bond investing?

A
Default risk
Reinvestment risk
Interest rate risk
Purchasing power risk
DRIP
197
Q

These are federal debts with maturities over 1 year and up to 10 years?

A

Treasury notes

198
Q

These are federal debts with maturities over 10 years?

A

Treasury bonds

199
Q

These are federal debts that offer a rate of return that increases with inflation?

A

Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS)

200
Q

How are TIPS calculated?

A

The coupon rate stays the same, but it is paid on principal which is adjusted for inflation

201
Q

What is the annual limit on purchases of Savings Bonds per social security number?

A

$10,000

202
Q

Gurantees mortgages that are issued by the FHA, VA, or the Rural House Service. It is an obligation of the U.S. government.

A

Ginnie Mae

203
Q

Guarantees the principal and interest on mortgage participation certificates on conventional residential and multifamily properties.

A

Freddie Mac (FHLMC)

204
Q

Guarantees principal and interest on securities backed by pools of conventional mortgages.

A

Fannie Mae (FNMA)

205
Q

The risk that interest rates fall and prepayments risk

A

Prepayment risk

206
Q

Unsecured bonds backed by the full faith and credit of the issuer and its taxing power

A

General obligation bonds

207
Q

Municipal bonds serviced by specific revenue producing projects

A

Revenue bonds (private activity bonds)

208
Q

Which municipal bonds have interest that is subject to AMT?

A

private activity bonds

209
Q

The yield that a fully taxable security must earn in order to provide the same promised return as a tax-exempt security

A

taxable equivalent yield

210
Q

Corporate bonds that are collateralized by a first mortgage lien on some of or all of a firm’s property.

A

mortgage bond

211
Q

A corporate bond that is secured by financial assets, such as stocks, bonds, or notes.

A

collateral trust bonds

212
Q

Corporate bonds that are issued by transportation companies and are secured by the equipment that is purchased with the debt issue’s proceeds.

A

equipment trust certificates

213
Q

How are zero coupon bonds taxed?

A

taxes must be paid on implied interest

214
Q

These bonds correlate more closely with common stocks than other bonds

A

high-yield bonds

215
Q

Bonds denominated in a currency not native to the country where they are issued

A

Eurobonds

216
Q

Bonds issued by foreign banks, corporations, or governments, but sold in the U.S. and denominated in U.S. dollars

A

Yankee bonds

217
Q

Bonds sold outside of the U.S. by overseas companies, but denominated in U.S. dollars and underwritten by a non-U.S. bond syndicate

A

Eurodollar bonds

218
Q

What risks is preferred stock subject to?

A

interest rate risk, business risk, default risk

219
Q

This rule allows corporations holding stock of domestic companies to exclude from income 50% of dividend income they receive from other corporations (if they own less than 20% of the investee).

A

Dividend exclusion rule

220
Q

Are the dividends of preferred stock tax deductible?

A

No

221
Q

What direction does a positive yield curve slope?

A

upwards to the right

222
Q

What direction does a negative (inverted) yield curve slope?

A

downwards to the right

223
Q

When is an inverted yield curve likely to be seen?

A

When inflation is high and the Fed increases short term interest rates to combat it

224
Q

The idea that current long term interest rates contain an implicit prediction of future short term interest rates.

A

Unbiased Expectations Theory

225
Q

The idea that long term interest rates should be higher than a combination of short term rates because of the extra risk involved in holding longer maturities.

A

Liquidity Preference Theory

226
Q

The idea that asset/liability management constraints contribute to the rate structure.

A

Market Segmentation Theory

227
Q

When an imbalance in supply and demand exists within a given market maturity, lenders and borrowers could be induced to shift to maturities that are less preferred as long as they are compensated for taking on additional risk.

A

Preferred Habitat Theory

228
Q

How should income investors invest with a flat yield curve?

A

Only buy long term bonds if they are highly confident that interest rates will fall in near future.

229
Q

How can income investors take advantage of an inverted yield curve?

A

Buy high yield bonds that also have tremendous price appreciation potential. When interest rates return to normal, long term rates will fall less than short term. Long term bonds will appreciate more in price than short term and higher rates are locked in.

230
Q

How can income investors take advantage of a steeply sloped yield curve?

A

They may be able to generate a higher coupon rate in return for willingness to invest for 3-4 more years.

231
Q

How can speculators take advantage of a steeply sloped yield curve?

A

Speculators can get significant capital gains if the steep slope returns to a normal slope.

232
Q

How is current yield on a bond calculated?

A

annual coupon rate/current price

233
Q

How is yield to maturity on a bond calculated?

A

sum of the current yield and the appreciation or depreciation the bond will experience between the current date and its maturity date

234
Q

How is Tax Equivalent Yield calculated for bonds free from federal income tax but subject to state income tax?

A

tax-free yield/(1-marginal tax bracket)

235
Q

How is Tax Equivalent Yield calculated for bonds free from both federal and state income tax?

A

tax-free equivalent yield/[(1-SMTB)(1-FMTB)]

236
Q

What is the relationship between current yield, yield to maturity, and yield to call for bonds trading at par?

A

They are equal

237
Q

What is the relationship between current yield, yield to maturity, and yield to call for bonds trading at a premium?

A

current yield > yield to maturity > yield to call

238
Q

What is the relationship between current yield, yield to maturity, and yield to call for bonds trading at a discount?

A

current yield < yield to maturity < yield to call

239
Q

This enables us to compare the interest rate risk of bonds with different coupon rates and maturities.

A

Duration

240
Q

How does duration affect interest rate risk?

A

The longer a bond investment’s duration, the more sensitive the investment is to changes in interest rates.

241
Q

If a bond fund has a duration of 15.3, how will it be affect by a 1% drop in interest rates?

A

It will increase 15.3%

242
Q

Bonds with higher coupon rates have ______ durations.

A

lower

243
Q

Duration of a zero coupon bond is equal to

A

its maturity

244
Q

All other factors equal, an increase in interest rates _________ duration.

A

decreases

245
Q

All other factors equal, an increase in maturity _________ duration.

A

increases

246
Q

A bond that declines more in value than duration alone would explain in a rising interest rate environment and will not rise as much as expected in a declining interest rate environment is exhibiting

A

negative convexity

247
Q

What are examples of bonds with negative convexity?

A

callable bonds and mortgage backed bonds

248
Q

A bond’s unsystematic risk is reflected in its

A

credit rating

249
Q

When interest rates rise, the spread between high and low quality debt

A

widens

250
Q

Bonds with lower credit ratings have higher ________ to compensate for the greater risk.

A

coupon rates

251
Q

These bonds are best for those with low capacity for volatility.

A

short to intermediate term bonds

252
Q

These bonds are best for those with high capacity for volatility.

A

long-term bonds, zero-coupon bonds, and high-yield bonds when confident about lower interest rates in the near future

253
Q

When an investor has a specific goal at the end of a known time horizon, he may implement this strategy of matching the duration of the bond or bond portfolio to the time horizon of a cash need. This offsets interest rate risk and reinvestment risk.

A

Immunization

254
Q

In order to practice immunization in a bond portfolio, individuals must use

A

zero-coupon bonds

255
Q

Bonds with maturities spread out over the time horizon are used.

A

Bond ladder

256
Q

The amount to be invested in bonds is divided beween short-term issues and long-term issues.

A

Bond barbell

257
Q

Maturities are concentrated in intermediate-term maturity relative to shorter or longer maturities.

A

Bond bullet portfolio

258
Q

Swapping out of a lower-yield bond into a higher-yielding bond.

A

Pure yield pick-up swap

259
Q

Swapping two bonds that are essentially the same as far as maturity, quality, call features, and coupon when one bond is mispriced.

A

Substitution swap

260
Q

A bond swap that takes advantage of a perceived mispricing between two sectors of the market.

A

Intermarket spread swap

261
Q

Swapping bonds based on an investor’s opinion on the direction of interest rates.

A

Rate anticipation swap

262
Q

An investor sells a bond for a capital loss, then purchases a bond with very similar characteristics from another user.

A

Tax swap

263
Q

Which types of debt instruments are best for stability of income?

A
  1. Treasury bills
  2. money market funds
  3. AAA rated issues
264
Q

Which types of debt instruments are best for capital gains?

A
  1. zero-coupon bonds
  2. high yield bond funds
  3. funds with longer duration
265
Q

Which types of debt instruments are best for investor in higher tax brackets?

A
  1. tax-free bonds
266
Q

Which types of debt instruments are best for those concerned about default risk?

A
  1. Treasury securities
267
Q

Which types of debt instruments are best for those who want a current yield higher than Treasury bills, notes, or bonds but still want a high level of security?

A

US agency bonds

268
Q

Which types of debt instruments are best for those who want a specific amount of money in the future?

A

zero coupon Treasury bond

269
Q

These are bonds issued locally by a domestic borrower and denominated in the local currency.

A

domestic bonds

270
Q

These are bonds issued in a local market by a foreign issuer and denominated in the local currency.

A

international bonds

271
Q

When should aggressive investors choose bonds with a low duration?

A

When they expect interest rates to rise

272
Q

How is the conversion value (CV) for a convertible bond calculated?

A

CV = (face value of the bond/conversion price) x current market price of the underlying stock

273
Q

What is the conversion ratio?

A

the number of share of stock into which a bond can be converted

274
Q

How is the converstion ratio calculated?

A

face value of the bond/conversion price

275
Q

The amount over the investment value (intrinsic value) that an investor pays for a convertible bond.

A

Investment premium

276
Q

The difference between the market price of the convertible bond and the conversion value.

A

Conversion premium

277
Q

An investor will not convert a convertible bond until the _________ exceeds the _________.

A

conversion value; investment value

278
Q

What is a way to calculate duration that is not on the formula sheet?

A

(price decrease - price increase)/(2(current price)(0.01))

279
Q

An investment instruments that gets its value from an underlying investment product

A

derivative

280
Q

The right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell a stock at a specified price within a specified period of time

A

option

281
Q

The last date on which the option can be exercise.

A

Expiration date

282
Q

The price at which the stock can the purchased or sold if the option is exercised

A

Exercise price (strike price)

283
Q

The market price of the option

A

premium

284
Q

The amount that the option is “in the money”

A

Intrinsic value

285
Q

The amount by which the market price of the option exceeds its intrinsic value

A

Time premium (time value)

286
Q

When the underlying stock of a call option is selling above the exercise price, or when the underlying stock of a put option is selling below the exercise price.

A

In the money

287
Q

When the underlying stock is trading at the exercise price.

A

At the money

288
Q

When the underlying price of a call option is selling below the exercise price, or when the underlying stock of a put option is selling above the exercise price

A

Out of the money

289
Q

Long-term options that may not expire for several years.

A

LEAPS - long-term equity anticipation securities

290
Q

If you anticipate the price of stock will go up you should purchase a _____ option.

A

Call

291
Q

If you anticipate the price of a stock will go down, you should purchase a _____ option.

A

Put

292
Q

This occurs when an investors writes a call option for stocks they already own.

A

covered call

293
Q

In order to hedge your portfolio with options, you must take a position in options that is _______ your portfolio.

A

opposite

294
Q

What is the intrinsic value of an option that is at or out of the money?

A

zero

295
Q

For a long call option, the profit potential is _______ and the loss potential is _______.

A

unlimited; limited

296
Q

For a short call option, the profit potential is _______ and the loss potential is _______.

A

limited, unlimited

297
Q

For a long put option, the profit potential is _______ and the loss potential is _______.

A

substantial; limited

298
Q

For a short put option, the profit potential is _______ and the loss potential is _______.

A

limited; substantial

299
Q

A call written when the investor does not own the underlying stock.

A

naked call

300
Q

A put written when the investor has no position in the underlying stock.

A

naked put

301
Q

To make profitable trades when buying or selling a put or a call, the investor must be right about three things

A
  1. The direction of the stock’s future price movement
  2. The specific price
  3. The time period
302
Q

A speculative strategy invests with a limited time frame where the maximum loss is the cost of the option.

A

Purchase a call or put

303
Q

A conservative strategy that keeps the premium but gives up upside potential.

A

Covered call writing

304
Q

An extremely risky strategy, in which the loss increase as the stock price rises

A

Naked call writing

305
Q

A moderately conservative strategy in which put options are written on stocks you wouldn’t mind owning.

A

Naked put writing

306
Q

A more aggressive strategy in which you are short a stock and write a put.

A

Covered put writing

307
Q

A strategy where you own stocks and want to protect the stock or portfolio from downturn by purchasing a put

A

Protective put

308
Q

Combining a put and a call on the same stock with the same expiration and exercise price. It is betting on a large price movement, but uncertain of the direction).

A

Straddle

309
Q

Combining into one transaction two or more options with different strike prices and/or expiration dates (looking for a change in the differential between the contracts)

A

Spread

310
Q

A company creates an option to buy its stock at a specified price within a specified period of time

A

warrants

311
Q

A contract that provides for the future exchange of an asset in the future at a specified delivery date for a specified payment amount

A

Futures

312
Q

The initial margin requirement for a futures contract

A

Good faith deposit (performance bond)

313
Q

If equity falls below this amount, then the investor must deposit enough funds into the account immediately in order to bring the account back to at least the initial margin requirement amount.

A

Maintenance margin

314
Q

The current price of an asset in the cash market if you were buying a commodity right now

A

spot price

315
Q

Price of a contract for future delivery

A

future price

316
Q

When an investor purchases a contract for future delivery

A

long position

317
Q

When an investor sells a contract for future delivery

A

short position

318
Q

A daily settlement process whereby any increase or decrease in account equity is adjusted for daily changes in the price of the underlying asset

A

marked-to-market

319
Q

Real assets usually have a ______ correlation with financial assets.

A

low or negative

320
Q

What affect do high interest rates have on gold prices?

A

they depress them

321
Q

A REIT must invest ____% of total assets in real estate and derive at least ___% of gross income from rents.

A

75; 75

322
Q

Earnings from a REIT are taxed as

A

ordinary income

323
Q

This form of REIT owns real estate property

A

equity REIT

324
Q

This form of REIT invests in mortgages, not properties

A

Mortgage REIT

325
Q

How does a weak U.S. dollar affect the returns of foreign securities?

A

It increases them

326
Q

This is the default method for taxing mutual funds

A

FIFO

327
Q

This type of mutual fund may trade at a premium or a discount to NAV

A

closed-end fund

328
Q

This type of mutual fund invests overseas and in the U.S.

A

Global

329
Q

A passive investment with a fixed portfolio

A

Unit Investment Trust (UIT)

330
Q

A bond will a smaller coupon will have _______ relative price fluctuation.

A

greater

331
Q

A bond will a smaller coupon will have _______ reinvestment risk.

A

lower

332
Q

The lower the interest rate, the _______ the relative price fluctuation.

A

greater

333
Q

The longer the term to maturity, the _______ the relative price fluctuation.

A

greater

334
Q

How will higher inflation affect bond values?

A

They will fall

higher inflation = higher interest rates = lower bond values

335
Q

How will higher coupon rates affect a bond’s interest rate risk?

A

It will be lower

higher coupon rates = lower duration = lower interest rate risk

336
Q

As interest rates decrease, duration _______

A

increases

337
Q

If R squared is low, what is the relavent measure to use when comparing securities.

A

Standard deviation

338
Q

Buying a call and selling a put are both _______ strategies.

A

bullish

339
Q

Buying a put and selling a call are both _______ strategies.

A

bearish

340
Q

An investor who expects a large price fluctuation, either up or down, should _______ a call or put, respectively.

A

buy

341
Q

An investor who expects a small price fluctuation, either up or down, should _______ a put or call, respectively.

A

sell

342
Q

Buying a put and selling a call

A

collar

343
Q

These allow for the trading of international securities in domestic countries. Their dividends are declared in local currencies and paid in U.S. dollars.

A

American Depository Receipts (ADR)

344
Q

What tax benefits to ADR holders receive?

A

foreign tax credits for income tax paid to a foreign country

345
Q

A disguised dividend such as a below-market shareholder loan.

A

constructive dividend

346
Q

A payment to shareholders that exceeds the company’s retained earnings.

A

Liquidating dividend