Production EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Coccodia Gross & Histopathology:

A

Catarrhal enteritis-congestive, +/-haemorrhagic
Small 1-2 mm white/grey ‘nodules’ in intestinal mucosa
Loss of epithelial cells
Villous atrophy, crypt destruction

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2
Q

Coccidia prepatent period:

A

Can be up to a year

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3
Q

Risk factors for coccidiosis

A
  • Young age
  • low body weight (at weaning)
  • warm wet environment
  • high stock density
  • fecal contamination of feed/water
  • stressors
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4
Q

Describe a drought feedlot:

A

a facility designed to provide a controlled environment for livestock during periods of drought. It plays a crucial role in maintaining animal welfare and ensuring sustainability of livestock farming operations during challenging environmental conditions.

Neucleus flock

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5
Q

Describe a lamb feedlot

A

a facility where lambs are raised for meat production. It comprises pens or enclosures where lambs receive a controlled diet to promote growth and reach market weight efficiently. Proper nutrition and care are essential to ensure the production of high-quality lamb meat.

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6
Q

Describe an export feedlot

A

These feedlots ensure the animals meet specific quality and health standards required for export. They provide a controlled environment with proper nutrition, healthcare, and handling to produce livestock that meet the criteria set by importing countries, allowing for the export of high-quality meat and livestock products to global markets. Export feedlots play a pivotal role in facilitating international trade and meeting stringent import requirements.

Prepare for export

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7
Q

List some feedlot design considerations:

A

Regulatory Compliance
Shade and Shelter
Feed and Water Infrastructure
Environmental Impact
Waste Management
Health and Veterinary Facilities
Security
Accessibility

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8
Q

How many serotypes of salmonella are identified?

A

2500

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9
Q

Enterobacteriaceae

A

a family of bacteria that includes various Gram-negative, rod-shaped organisms. These bacteria are found in various environments, including the gastrointestinal tracts of humans and animals. Many members of the Enterobacteriaceae family are opportunistic pathogens, meaning they can cause infections when the host’s immune system is compromised. Some well-known genera within Enterobacteriaceae include Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, and Klebsiella.

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10
Q

How can we identify salmonella?

A

Culture
Serology
PCR
Sensitivity

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11
Q

Salmonella pathogenesis:

A

Fecal oral transmission

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12
Q

Salmonellosis risk factors?

A

Stress
- transport
- husbandry events
- parasites
- other disease
- bad weather
- overcrowding
- poor hygiene

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13
Q

Coccidia ateology:

A

Caused by several species of protozoa from the family Eimeriidae

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14
Q

Coccidia pathogenesis:

A

Ingestion of sporulated oocysts

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15
Q

Salmonella localization:

Where may this occur?

A

Brain - meningo-encephalitis
Tips of ears and tails - dry gangrene
Gastro-intestinal tract - diarrhea
Repro. tract - abortion

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16
Q

Salmonella clinical signs

A
  • Fever
  • DIARRHEA
  • Dehydration
  • Inappentence
  • Weakness
  • Weight loss
  • Pain (abdo.)
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17
Q

Chronic carriers of Salmonella

A

Harboring the bacteria in their intestines for an extended period without displaying symptoms - can potentially shed the bacteria, posing a risk of transmission to others.

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18
Q

Salmonella gross pathology:

A

Varied
congested, red-purple lungs and liver
enlarged fatty liver and thickened and inflamed gall bladder
inflamed abomasum and intestines
enlarged, moist or bleeding intestinal lymph nodes
khaki-coloured diarrhoea, containing mucus or blood flecks
Intestinal fibrinous/diphteric casts

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19
Q

Coccidia diagnosis

A

History (risk factors)
Clinical signs
Gross pathology
Laboratory diagnosis (FEC) is not definitive as little relationship betw. numbers of oocysts and severity of disease.

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20
Q

Acidosis

A

Can manifest as either acute or subacute forms, with acute acidosis often resulting from rapid grain consumption and leading to severe clinical signs. Subacute ruminal acidosis is a chronic condition associated with prolonged exposure to high-carbohydrate diets, leading to subtle performance issues. Preventing acidosis through gradual dietary transitions, careful grain management, and access to forage and clean water is essential for maintaining sheep health.

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21
Q

Urolithiasis

A

Formation of urinary stones in the urinary tract, which can obstruct urine flow. This condition can result from various factors, including diet, water quality, and genetics. Prevention involves maintaining a balanced diet, providing clean and ample water, and managing mineral intake

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22
Q

Vitamin A deficiency

A

Leads to a range of health issues, including poor growth, impaired reproduction, and weakened immune function. This deficiency is often associated with a diet lacking in vitamin A-rich forage or feed sources. To prevent vitamin A deficiency, it’s crucial to provide sheep with a well-balanced diet

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23
Q

Laminitis

A

Inflammation of the laminae, which are the sensitive tissues that connect the hoof wall to the underlying structures. Common causes of laminitis in sheep include overconsumption of high-energy feeds, grain-rich diets, or sudden changes in diet. Clinical signs may include lameness, reluctance to move, heat in the hooves, and a characteristic “sawhorse” stance.

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24
Q

What is BRD?

A

Multifactorial disease
Viral:
- IBR (bovine herpes 1v)
- pestivirus (BVDV)
- parainfluenza
bacterial: (commensals of upper respiratory tract)
- mannheimia haemolytica
- pasteurella multocida
- mycoplasma bovis

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25
Q

What is the usual cause of death for BRD cases?

A

Bronchopnemonia

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26
Q

What is IBR?

A

Infective Bovine Rinotracitis
Caused by Bovine Herpesvirus 1 (BoHV-1)
Vaccine available - Bovillis IBR + MH or Rhinogurd BHV 1 (live)

Viral respiratory disease that affects cattle, causing symptoms like fever, nasal discharge, and coughing

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27
Q

Pestivirus

BVDV

Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus

A

Respiratory symptoms (including coughing and nasal discharge)
However, it’s primarily recognized as a reproductive and systemic disease in cattle, but it can cause respiratory issues when transmitted to sheep.
Control measures in sheep may involve vaccination and quarantine procedures.

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28
Q

Corona virus

A

An agent of BRD
Gastrointestinal and respiratory system

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29
Q

Manheimia Haemolytica

Primary BRD pathogen

A

Pneumonia, high fever, and labored breathing
Vaccination = Bovillis IBR + MH or Bovi-shield MH (live)
most severe - death <24h

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30
Q

Pasturella Multocidia

A

Pneumonia, nasal discharge, and coughing.
Proper management, including vaccination and minimizing stress factors

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31
Q

Histophylis somni

A

BRD pathogen
respiratory distress, fever, nasal discharge, coughing, and reduced feed intake

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32
Q

What are the factors (other than (viruses + bacteria) of BRD?

A

Stress
Mechanical damage to lungs
Immunosupression
Transportation
Breed (bos torus)
Sex (steers)
- Disease occurs 2-3 weeks after a stressor

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33
Q

Clinical signs of BRD:

A

Flat
Coughing (wet)
Mucus from nose
Droopy ears
Head down
Separation from herd
Sunken eyes

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34
Q

Best chance of recovery is due to:

A

Being identified early

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35
Q

Gross pathology of BRD:

A

Kills them quickly:
Purple discolouration of lung fields
1-2 weeks:
emphasematus and fibrous lungs (pasturella)
3-4 weeks:
lots of puss, chronic fibrin tags, some adhesions, plutris
the more time that goes by the harder it is to identify the causitive bug
brisket odemia - heart wont work (histophalus - micro abscesses in heart)
lung microabcesses (micoplasma bovis)

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36
Q

Treatment of BRD:

A

Antibiotics
NSAIDs = meloxicam (last 3d SQ)
Vitamin C
Change feed
Give a few weeks

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37
Q

Antibiotic treatment for BRD:

A

Macrolides (not for milk producing animals)
Tulathromycin (draxxin) 7d, WHP 35d
Cephalosporin =
Exceed, Accent & Ceftiofur (last resort)

Allomycin

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38
Q

Control/prevention of BRD:

A

Manage concurrent disease
Starter diet (reduce acidosis) - high in carbs
introduction protocols - lower stress
allocate enough bunk space (feeding) 11m2/hd
yard weaning & backgrounding

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39
Q

Transportation of poddy calves:

A

Vehicle and equipment standards, ventilation, temperature control, loading and unloading procedures, maximum travel time, water and feed provisions, stockmanship, and record-keeping.

40
Q

Transportation of late gestation cows:

A

can’t travel in the last 4 weeks
>6m preg. needto stop every 12 hours

41
Q

Transportation of cows with horns:

A

Cows with horns may require more headroom to prevent them from damaging their horns during transport.

42
Q

Transportation of Lactating dairy cows:

A

stop every 12 hours and milked

43
Q

TEME

Thromboembolic Meningoencephalitis

A

Causative agent: Histophilus somni
Adhers blood vessels in brain
Causes convulsions

44
Q

What is backgrounding?

A

Keeping cattle in paddocks next to the feedlot

45
Q

Yard weaning

A

Done prior to going to backgrounding
getting them used to the feedlot setting/feed

46
Q

Vaccines

BVDV

BVDV

Mannhymeia haemolytica

A

2 vaccines - bovillis MHS
Bovi-shield
Pestigaurd

Backgrounding is better protection than vaccination

47
Q

What should feedlot diets do?

A

Avoid high non protein nitrogen (NPN)
Avoid acidosis in the starter period
Support the immune system

add vit. E
add zinc

add ammonia
add vit. B
add zinc

48
Q

IBR

part of the BRD complex

A

Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
Bovine Herpes virus 1 (BHV1)
severe (death) tracheal lining really sore

one of the most commmon causes of pneumonia

Very infectious (nasal and oral droplets)
NSAIDs really important
Vaccination

49
Q

Malignant Catarrhal Fever

Looks like?

A

IBR on steroids
caused by Alcelaphine Herpes virus 1
No treatment

Sporadic
Immediatly cull on humane grounds

50
Q

Shipping Fever

A

Pasteurella spp. or Mannheimia
occurs post transport

having their heads up bacteria enter lungs
usually no viral involvment

51
Q

Necrotic laryngitis

“honkers”

A

Diptheria
fusobacterium

52
Q

Shade requirment

A

2.5m2/head

53
Q

Coccidiosis

Treatment

A

Ionophores
(rumensin, bovitek)
work by altering na/k ion channels in bacteria and other organisms

54
Q

Salmonella

treatment

A

Trisoprim (TMS)

55
Q

Salt toxicity

A

held off water - dehydrated
high Na con. in CSF
when regain axcess to water they gourge - water rushes to CSF and causes brain swelling

56
Q

Listeriosis

A

Listeria monocytogenes
comes from silage
CNS clinical signs
droopy ear/eye
facial paralysis

57
Q

PEM

Polioencephalomelacia

A

Bacteria get “acid shocked” in low pH of acidic rumen, release exoenzymes & thiaminases - breakdown B1 compound
caused by increasing ration too quickly or high carbs or sulfur content

Lights on and no ones home

58
Q

Otitis

A

Pasturella or mycoplasma
spread through blood
oxitet/eardrops

59
Q

Urolithiasis

water belly

A

Different types of crystal formation
ca:phosp ratio
if low - struvite crystals (sand like)
if high - calcium carbonate crystals (round stones)
Oxalate pastures - oxalate crystal
- straining

like a blocked cat

60
Q

Viral

Infectious Bronchitis

RNA virus - envelope

A
61
Q

Viral

Avian Influenza

RNA virus - envelope

A

zoonotic
Exotic animal disease
High mortality
migratory water fowl carriers
horozontal

H7N7 strain

62
Q

Viral

Newcastle Disease

envelope

RNA virus - envelope

A

Exotic animal disease
no disease in Aus
vaccine avalible
neurological signs

63
Q

Viral

Infectious Laryngotracheitis

DNA virus - envelope

A
64
Q

Viral

Fowl Pox

DNA virus - envelope

A
65
Q

Bacterial

Fowl Coryza

A

Avibacterium paragallinarum
Sinusitis
PCR
vaccination

66
Q

Bacterial

Fowl Cholera

A

Pasteurella multocidia
re-emerging animal disease
swollen combs/wattles
sudden death

67
Q

Infectious Bronchitis (IB)

A

endemic

68
Q

Infectious Laryngotracheitis (ILT)

Notifiable disease

A

Comes back when immune system is low
histopathology or PCR
coughing up blood
vaccinate layers

69
Q

Bacterial

Chlamydiosis

A
70
Q

Bacterial

Chronic Respiratory Disease (CRD)

A

All respiratory diseases with unknown cause
Avian pathogenic E.coli (APEC)
peritonitis
perihepatitis

71
Q

Antibiotics not registed for any animal in australia:

A
  1. Fluroquinolones
  2. Colistin
  3. Fourth generation Cephalosporins
72
Q

Bacterial

Mycoplasmosis

pathogenic strains

A

M. Gallisepticum
M. Synoviae
M. Meleagridis

73
Q

Mycoplasmosis

Transmission

A

Both vertical and horizontal
Mild in Aus - make vaccines
clinical signs may vary
difficult to culture - do PCR
treatment won’t elliminate the bacteria - can researfice

74
Q

For respiratory disease

What antibiotics do we use in chickens?

A

Amoxicillin Trihydrate
Lincomycin

Nil WHP

75
Q

Fungal

Respiratory Mycosis

Aspergillus fumigatus

A

Occurs in chicks
no antifungal registed
fungal nodules in lungs

76
Q

Enveloped viruses are more ……. in the environment?

A

Fragile
as well as more sensitive to fetergents and disinfectants due to lipidic nature of the envelope

77
Q

Anatomy of respiratory system (chicken)

A

Conjunctiva
Nostrils
Nasal cavity
Nasal sinuses
Pneumatic bones of skull
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Lungs
Airsacs
Pneumatic bones

78
Q

Respiratory illness clinical signs:

Chickens

A

Clowdy airsacs

79
Q

Chlamtdiosis

(Psittacosis, ornithosis)

A

chlamydia psittaci
notifiable
zoonotic

doxicyclin - not registed in chickens

80
Q

Fowl Pox

A

can vaccinate
plaques in mouth (look like scabs)

81
Q

B cell response

A

Ag components are displayed (with MHCII)
T-helper recognise the same ag, binds & produces cytokines
Activated B cell forms plasma & memory cells
plasma cells produce antibodies and memory cells await another invasion

82
Q

Primary Lymphoid organs

  1. Thymus
  2. Bursa of Fabricius
A
  1. T cell precursors
  2. B cell precursors
83
Q

Secondary

Secondary Lymphoid orgains

A
  • Spleen
  • bone marrow
  • Harderian gland
  • CALT (conjunctivial-associated lymphoid tissue)
  • BALT (bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue)
  • GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue

Chickens do not have lymph nodes (except water fowls)

84
Q

Chicken immunoglobulins

A

Ig Y (IgG)
Ig M
Ig A

85
Q

IgA

A

Mucosal membranes
fades quickly

86
Q

Ig Y (G)
Ig M

A

Systemic

87
Q

Types of vaccines in chickens:

Live vaccines:

A
  • Eye/nose drop
  • beak dip
  • spray
  • wing web
  • drinking water
  • in ovo (day 18)
  • injection (IM)
88
Q

Types of vaccines in chickens:

Inactivated vaccines:

A
  • SC
  • IM (may cause lesions due to harsh adjuvants)
89
Q

Neoplastic

Marek’s Disease (MD)

A

Most common - may have pathogen without dissease
Herpesvirus (1,2,3(HVT) strains)
classic paralysis (attacks the siatic nerve (superman))
spread through the feather follicles

90
Q

3 Presentations of Marek’s disease (MD)

A

Classical disease Neurolymphomatosis
Acute form
Inflammatory form
immunosupressive

91
Q

Infectious bursal disease (IBD)

A

RNA virus
non-enveloped
serotype 1 = disease (not in Aus)
immunosupression
1. inapparant <3 weeks
2. Acute 3-6 weeks
3. Severe (any age)

92
Q

Avian Lymphoid Leucosis

ALV

A

retrovirus
incubation 4-6m
horizontal (fecal-oral)
reduced weight, weakness, anorexia
histopath, PCR, serology
no vaccine

93
Q

can we differentiate MDV and ALV

physical signs

A

sometimes
ALV - no nerve, muscle, skin, eye lesions
MDV - T cells - herpesvirus (DNA)
ALV - B cells - oncovirus (RNA)

94
Q

Chicken infectious anaemia

A

vertical transmission
non-enveloped
immunosupression
virus replicates in bone marrow
CD4 & CD8 T cells in the spleen
vaccinate parents

95
Q

Inclusion Body Hepatitis (IBH)

A

Adenovirus
lots of serotypes

96
Q

IBH Fowl Adenovirus (FAV)

A

gross lesions:
* swollen liver, yellow, mottled with petechiae
* kidneys and bone marrow pale
* bursa and spleen small

vertical and horizontal transmission