Procreative Health Flashcards
The entire reproductive process of producing offspring
Procreation
The creation of a new human person by the act of sexual intercourse by a man and the woman
Procreation
Making of all things from nothing by an act of God at some time in the past
Creation
The sum of the cellular and genetic phenomena by which organisms produces offspring similar to themselves so that the species is perpetuated
Reproduction
Theory that all things came about by the repeated random actions of natural selection
Evolutionary theory
What kind of theory indicates that life came into existence and then primitive life evolved into more and more complex organisms and eventually producing mankind
Evolutionary theory
It requires the assumption of billions of years for its processes
Evolutionary theory
What are the seven theories related to procreation
A. Christian theory of procreation
B. Monogenetic theory of procreation
C. Duogenetic theory of procreation
D. “View of clement of alexandria”
E. “Aristotle’s conception theory”
F. Theory of evolution
G. Red queen hypothesis
What kind of theory states that man is created in the likeliness of God
Christian theory of procreation
What theory indicates that man is created to be fruitful and to multiply
Christian theory of procreation
In what theory did Pope Paul vi said that just as man does not have unlimited dominion over his body in general so also and with more particular reason he has no dominion over his specifically sexual faculties
Christian theory of procreation
Who said that just as man does not have unlimited dominion over his body in general so also and with more particular reason he has no dominion over his specifically sexual faculties
Pope Paul VI
A theory otherwise known as seminal conception
Monogenetic theory of procreation
What is monogenetic theory of procreation otherwise known as
Seminal conception
What theory indicates that men-not men and women-are thought to bring life into this world thus only the fathers are the true blood relatives of their children
Monogenetic theory of procreation
According to who said that monogenetic theory of procreation is men not men and women are thought to bring life into this world thus only the fathers are the true blood relatives of their children
Turkish
What theory indicates that debut man literally as creating life in relation to preformed fetuses that they carry in their sperm and ejaculate into women’s waiting wombs
Monogenetic theory of procreation
Who’s description indicates that monogenetic theory of procreation view men literally as creating life in relation to prefund fetuses that they carry in their sperm and ejaculate into women’s waiting wombs
Egyptians
What theory says that there is an equal contribution of man and woman to the hereditary substance of the fetus form through the union of a woman’s ovum and man’s spermatozoa
Duogenetic theory of procreation
What theory indicates the formation of the conceived matter occurs when the seed or the sperm has mingled with the pure residue of the menses
View of clement of alexandria
According to what theory says that the male sperm contains the power that triggers the process of embryonic development but the sperm itself contributes nothing material to the fetus and vanishes
Aristotle’s conception theory
What theory indicates that sexual reproduction allows genetic recombination in order to withstand natural selection and evolve
Theory of evolution
According to what theory indicates that greater genetic variation give sexually reproducing species better resistance to rapidly adapting diseases and parasites
Red queen hypothesis
What are the four processes of human reproduction
- Sexual intercourse
- Pregnancy
- Birth
- Parental care
What are the four phases of human sexual response
- Excitement
- Plateau
- Orgasm
- Resolution
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Engorgement of the clitoris
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Vaginal lubrication
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Erection of the nipple
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Enlargement of the breast
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Lobia majora flattens and spreads apart
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Labia minora swells
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Labia minora swells
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Cervix and uterus pulls up
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Ballooning of the upper third of the vagina
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Penile erection
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Thickening of the scrotal skin, increased scrotal sac tension, scrotum pulled up towards the body
Excitement
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Breasts continue to swell
Plateau
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Orgasmic platform
Plateau
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Clitoris retracts into the body
Plateau
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Uterus enlarges
Plateau
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Darkening of the labia majora
Plateau
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Pre-ejaculatory secretion
Plateau
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Complete erection and swelling of the glans
Plateau
What is the rhythmic vigorous contraction of muscles in the pelvic area expels or dissipates blood and fluid from the area of congestion
Orgasm
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
One contraction every 0.8 seconds
Orgasm
What are the two stages of orgasm in male
A. Sensation of ejaculatory inevitability
B. Ejaculation
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Internal and external genital organs return to unaroused state
Resolution
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Sex flush disappears
Resolution
How many minutes does resolution usually take
15 to 30 minutes
Also known as refractory period
Resolution
Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Multiple orgasm
Resolution
Building block of genes and chromosomes
Dna
What are the three units that make up dna
Deoxyribose
Phosphate group
One of the four nitrogen bases
It carries the information needed to direct protein synthesis and replication
Dna
It carries the information needed to direct protein synthesis and replication
Dna
It is a rod shaped structure found in nucleus of a cell that carries the genes that determines the sex and characteristics of a person
Gene
Carries the hereditary information
Chromosomes
Carries the hereditary information
Chromosomes
What is the arrangement of nucleotides in dna
Dna
Rna
Proteins
It is the traits showing
Dominant
These are the traits that are not showing
Recessive
These are the physical attributes
Phenotype
What are the three combinations of genes from two alleles
AA
Aa
aa
What are the three combinations of genes from two alleles
AA
Aa
aa
This shows how we inherit the traits
Mendelian inheritance
Give the five mendelian inheritance
- Homozygous dominant x homozygous dominant
- Homozygous dominant x homozygous recessive
- Homozygous dominant x heterozygous
- Heterozygous x homozygous recessive
- Heterozygous x heterozygous
What are the five ways for a disease to be inherited
Autosomal dominant inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance
X-linked dominant inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance
Multifactorial or polygenic inheritance
It is an inheritance where only one dominant gene is needed
Autosomal dominant inheritance
Inheritance where it occurs when either or both of the parent have a dominant gene of the disease
Autosomal dominant inheritance
True or false:
In autosomal dominant and recessive inheritance the sex of the affected individual is important in terms of inheritance
False- it is not important
What kind of inheritance is where there is a family history of the disease in other family members also known as vertical transmission
Autosomal dominant inheritance
Inheritance where there is a need of two recessive (both parents are carriers) in order for it to affect the patient
Autosomal recessive inheritance
Inheritance where disorder occurs only if two genes of the disease are present (homozygous recessive)
Autosomal recessive inheritance
A characteristic of this inheritance is where both parents of the affected child are clinically free of the disease
Autosomal recessive inheritance
One of the characteristics of this inheritance is where the sex of the affected individual is not important in terms of inheritance
Autosomal dominant and recessive inheritance
Another characteristic of this inheritance is where a known common ancestor between the parents sometime exist
Autosomal recessive inheritance
Inheritance where the disorders of the affected gene is or are located and transmitted only by the x chromosome
X-linked dominant inheritance
The characteristic of this inheritance is where all individuals with the genes are affected
X-linked dominant inheritance
Characteristic of this inheritance is where all female children of the affected men are affected; all male children of affected men are unaffected
X-linked dominant inheritance
What inheritance is where the disease appears in every generation
X-linked dominant inheritance
One characteristic of this inheritance is where all children of homozygous women are affected; 50% of the children of heterozygous affected women are affected
X-linked dominant inheritance
One characteristic of this inheritance is where all children of homozygous women are affected; 50% of the children of heterozygous affected women are affected
X-linked dominant inheritance
Inheritance of the genes from both parents is incompatible with life
X linked recessive inheritance
Inheritance of the genes from both parents is incompatible with life
X linked recessive inheritance
One characteristic of this inheritance is where only males in the family will have the disorder and females are only carriers
X linked recessive inheritance
One characteristic of this inheritance is where only males in the family will have the disorder and females are only carriers
X linked recessive inheritance
Characteristic of this inheritance is where a history of girls dying at birth for unknown reason exists
X linked recessive inheritance
A Characteristic of this inheritance is where the sons of an affected man is unaffected
X-linked recessive inheritance
One characteristic of this inheritance is when the parents of affected children don’t have the disorder
X-linked recessive inheritance
The disorders by this inheritance are caused by multiple factors with the involvement of more than a single gene
Multifactorial or Polygenic inheritance
Give the five factors that will lead to genetic disorder
A. Familial factor
B. Mother’s age
C. Exposure to the environment
D. Continuous miscarriage or stillbirth
E. Birth defect in the previous baby
It is where the fetus dies inside the womb of the mother
Stillbirth
What are the two common assessment tests for determination of genetic abnormalities
Family history
Physical assessment
Identify what assessments are the following found:
Mother’s age
Family history
Identify what assessments are the following found:
Mother’s age
Family history
Identify what assessments are the following found:
Birth defect in the previous baby, spontaneous miscarriage, or stillbirth
Family history
Identify what assessments are the following found:
Ethnic background
Family history
Identify what assessments are the following found:
Family genogram
Family history
It is a diagram detailing family structure, providing information about families history
Family genogram
What is IDDM
Insulin-dependent Diabetes Mellitus
What is the common genetic disorder of african-american, indian, and middle eastern
Sickle-cell anemia; thalassemia
What is a common genetic disorder of european jewish, french canadian
Tay-Sachs disease
What is a common genetic disorder between mediterranean, southeast asian, greek, italian, southeast asia (Philippines), caucasian
Thalassemia
- B-thalassemia
- a-thalassemia
Cystic fibrosis
This assessment is used to identify common physical characteristics of children with chromosomal disorder
Physical assessment
What kind of disorder is identified by a physical assessment
Chromosomal disorder
It is a kind of disorder where there is a late closure of fontanelles
Down syndrome
A kind of disorder where the patient has meant of eyes and epicanthal fold on the eyelid
Down syndrome
It is a kind of disorder where the patient has an abnormal iris color, large tongue, abnormal dermatoglyphics, and a simian crease on palm
Down syndrome
In a down syndrome patient what kind of crease is found on the palm
Simian crease
What kind of disorder where the patient has a bossing or prominent forehead, prominent jaw, and large hands
Fragile x syndrome
It is a disorder where the patient has a low set hairline and absence of secondary sex characteristics
Turner syndrome
What is absent in a Klinefelter syndrome
Secondary characteristics
It is a kind of disorder where the infant has microcephaly, low set ears, multiple hair whorls, wide set nipples, and rocker-bottom feet
Trisomy 13
What kind of disorder is where the infant has microcephaly, low set ears, multiple hair whorls, wide set nipples, and overriding of fingers
Trisomy 18
What are the seven diagnostics and screen tests
- Karyotyping
- Maternal serum screening
- Chorionic villi sampling
- Amniocentesis
- Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
- Fetal imaging
- Fetoscopy
It is a type of screen test where there is a visual presentation of the chromosome pattern of an individual
Karyotyping
What kind of test is where there is blood extracting or sweeping inside of the mouth in order to see the chromosomal patterns under the microscope
Karyotyping
What are the two samples tested in a maternal serum screening
- Alpha-feto protein
- Pregnancy associated plasma protein a analysis
It is a glycoprotein produced by the fetal liver and picks in maternal serum between 13th to 32nd weeks age of gestation
Alpha-feto protein
What maternal serum screening is where blood extraction from the mother is done at the 15th to 20th age of gestation
Alpha feto protein
When does the Alpha-feto protein blood extraction done
At the 15th to 20th age of gestation
What is the normal amount of alpha feto protein
10 to 150 nm/ml
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Neural tube defect
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Esophageal obstruction
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Abdominal wall defect
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Threatened abortion
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Undetected fetal demise
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Increased amount of leaked by kidney
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Underestimation of fetal age
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Multifetal gestation
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Decreased maternal weight
Increase
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Maternal IDDM
Increased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Chromosomal disorders such as trisomy 21
Decreased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Gestational trophoblastic disease
Decreased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Overestimation of gestational age
Decreased
Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Increased maternal weight
Decreased
What screening becomes multiple marker screen if maternal serum alpha-feto protein is included with placental hormone
Pregnancy associated plasma protein a analysis
What are the three placental hormone used in pregnancy associated plasma protein a analysis
hCG (2-part screening)
Estriol (3-part screening)
Inhibin (4-part screening)
This study should be done to reduce false positive results, moreover analysis of pregnant associated plasma protein a and measurement of the fetal neck thickness by sonogram should be done if msafp test is positive
Triple marker study
What tests are done if the msafp test is positive
Analysis of pregnancy associated plasma protein a and measurement of the fetal neck thickness by sonogram
What type of test involves retrieval and analysis of chorionic villi for chromosome or dna analysis
Chorionic villi sampling
What is retrieved from the cord connecting the fetus to the placenta
Chorionic villi
Chorionic villi sampling can be done as early as how many weeks
5 weeks aog; commonly at 8 to 10 weeks aog
What are the two ways in retrieving chorionic villi
Transabdominal
Transervical
The disadvantages of this sampling are:
- At risk for excessive bleeding leading to pregnancy loss
- limb reduction syndrome
- not all genetic abnormalities can be detected by it
Chorionic villi sampling
True or false:
In nursing considerations the nurse should inform to the patient the risk of the diagnostic test
True
True or false
In nursing considerations the nurse should not secure consent from the patient
False
What are the 6 nursing considerations in chorionic villi sampling
- Inform of the risks of the diagnostic test
- secure consent
- proper positioning for the procedure and skin
- administer rh immune globulin with rh negative woman after the procedure
- rest at home for one day post-cvs
- sexual restriction for few days
Post cvs instruct mother to report what?
Chills or fever
Uterine contractions or bleeding
It is a test where amniotic fluid is withdrawn through the abdominal wall for analysis at 15 to 16 week aog
Amniocentesis
How many amniotic fluid is withdrawn during amniocentesis
20 ml
If the patient is more than 20 weeks aog why do we need to ask the patient to void
To have a full view of the uterus without the bladder blocking the beat
What does it mean if the amniotic fluid is:
Yellow
Dark red
Green
Golden
Yellow-normal
Dark red-bleeding or hemolysis
Green-fetus pooped inside
Golden-leak of the mother’s bile
What is percutaneous umbilical blood sampling also called
Cordocentesis
It is a test where the blood from the fetal umbilical cord is aspirated at about 17 weeks aog using an amniocentesis technique
Percutaneous umbilical blood sample
It is used to assess for general size and structural disorder of the internal organs spine and limbs of a fetus
Fetal imaging
What are the three examples of fetal imaging
Ct scan
Mri
Ultrasound
What does is done through the insertion of fiber optic fetoscope through a small incision in the mother’s abdomen into the uterus and membranes to visually inspect the fetus for gross abnormalities
Fetoscopy
What is inserted through a small in scissor in the mother’s abdomen into the uterus during fetoscopy
Fiberoptic fetoscope
This test is used to confirm a sonography finding to remove skin cell for dna analysis or to perform surgery for congenital disorders such as stenosed urethra
Fetoscopy
What is performed on fetal cells when the mother is usually over the age of 35 and therefore most at risk for bearing a child with chromosomal abnormalities
Chromosomal analysis
What should all women of childbearing age should take daily before conception because this has been found to reduce the incidence of spina bifida and other neural tube defects
Folic acid
Oh women of childbearing age should take at least 400 mcg of folic acid in order to reduce the incidence of what two defects
Spina bifida and neural tube defects
It is also called as birth defect or congenital abnormality
Congenital disorder
It is an abnormality and body structure or function that is present at birth
Congenital disorder
When does internal abnormalities or functions of a baby can be diagnosed
Weeks or months after birth
What are the three causes of congenital disorder
Chromosomal abnormalities
Gene abnormalities
Teratogens
Give the 9 risk factors of congenital disorder
- family history
- maternal illness in the first trimester
- maternal diabetes
- alcohol or substance abuse
- maternal age greater than 35 years old
- poly or oligo hydramnios
- persistent breech presentation
- multigestational pregnancy
- small gestational age
Condition where there is too much or too less amniotic fluid
Poly or oligo hydramnios
Also called as your patau syndrome
Trisomy 13
It is a disorder where there is an extra chromosome 13
Trisomy 13 or patau syndrome
The mental capacity of patients with this syndrome has severely cognitively challenged and most do not survive beyond early childhood
Trisomy 13
The incidence of this syndrome is 0.45 per 1000 live births
Trisomy 13
Most of children with this syndrome die at the age of one
Trisomy 13
The clinical manifestations of the syndrome are:
Midline body disorders (cleft lip and door palate, ventral septal defect, abnormal genitalia)
Polydactyl
Microcephaly
Multiple hair whorls
Micropththalmos
Low set ears
Trisomy 13
What is it called if the patient has an extra finger
Polydactyl
Patients with this disorder has three copies of chromosome 18
Trisomy 18
The incidence of this syndrome happening is 0.25 per 1,000 live births
Trisomy 18
The clinical manifestations of this condition are:
- small for gestational age
- low set ears
- micrognathia
- multiple hair whorls
- congenital heart defects
- misshape and fingers and toes
- rocker bottom feet
- severe organ malformation
Trisomy 18
What is the term if the patient has a small chin
Micrognathia
It is also called cat cry syndrome
Cri-du-chat syndrome
Syndrome where there is a misin portion of chromosome 5
Cri-du-chat syndrome
Patients with this syndrome has malformed larynx and vocal problems causing to have a cat like cry
Cri-du-chat Syndrome
The clinical manifestation of this syndrome are:
Cat like cry
Small head
Wide set eyes
Downward slant to the palpebral feature of the eyes
Cri-du-chat Syndrome
It is a type of gonadal dysgenesis
Turner syndrome
This syndrome has only one functional x chromosome
Turner syndrome
The incidence of the syndrome is one per 10,000 live births in females
Turner syndrome
The clinical manifestations of the syndrome are:
Short stature; low set airline and at the nape of the neck
Webbed and short neck
Edematous hands and feet
Congenital abnormalities (CoA, kidney d/o)
Streak gonads; sterility
Turner syndrome
The classical features of this syndrome are short webbed neck cubitus valgus edema of the extremities
Turner syndrome
This disorder is where the forearm is angled away from the body at a greater angle
Cubitus valgus
The management of the syndrome includes human growth administration to achieve additional height and also administration of estrogen
Turner syndrome
What does human growth administration and estrogen can cause
Withdrawal bleeding that results in menstruation
Patients with this syndrome are mostly males with xxy chromosome pattern (47 xxy)
Klinefelter Syndrome
Clinical manifestations of the syndrome are and develop secondary sex characteristics, small penis and testes, gynaecomastia, infertility
Klinefelter syndrome
Enlarged breasts of males
Gynaecomastia
Syndrome in which x-linked disorder in which one long arm of an x chromosome is defective
Fragile x syndrome
In this syndrome males have marked deficits in speech and arithmetic while females have poor concentration and is impulsive
Fragile x syndrome
Males with this syndrome at puberty have maladaptive behavior, bossing forehead, long face with slight high forehead, prominent lower jaw, and large protruding ears, hyper extensive joints and cardiac disorder, and enlarged testicles
Fragile x syndrome
This disorder has three copies of chromosome 21
Trisomy 21
