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MCN > Procreative Health > Flashcards

Procreative Health Flashcards

1
Q

The entire reproductive process of producing offspring

A

Procreation

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2
Q

The creation of a new human person by the act of sexual intercourse by a man and the woman

A

Procreation

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3
Q

Making of all things from nothing by an act of God at some time in the past

A

Creation

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4
Q

The sum of the cellular and genetic phenomena by which organisms produces offspring similar to themselves so that the species is perpetuated

A

Reproduction

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5
Q

Theory that all things came about by the repeated random actions of natural selection

A

Evolutionary theory

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6
Q

What kind of theory indicates that life came into existence and then primitive life evolved into more and more complex organisms and eventually producing mankind

A

Evolutionary theory

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7
Q

It requires the assumption of billions of years for its processes

A

Evolutionary theory

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8
Q

What are the seven theories related to procreation

A

A. Christian theory of procreation
B. Monogenetic theory of procreation
C. Duogenetic theory of procreation
D. “View of clement of alexandria”
E. “Aristotle’s conception theory”
F. Theory of evolution
G. Red queen hypothesis

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9
Q

What kind of theory states that man is created in the likeliness of God

A

Christian theory of procreation

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10
Q

What theory indicates that man is created to be fruitful and to multiply

A

Christian theory of procreation

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11
Q

In what theory did Pope Paul vi said that just as man does not have unlimited dominion over his body in general so also and with more particular reason he has no dominion over his specifically sexual faculties

A

Christian theory of procreation

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12
Q

Who said that just as man does not have unlimited dominion over his body in general so also and with more particular reason he has no dominion over his specifically sexual faculties

A

Pope Paul VI

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13
Q

A theory otherwise known as seminal conception

A

Monogenetic theory of procreation

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14
Q

What is monogenetic theory of procreation otherwise known as

A

Seminal conception

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15
Q

What theory indicates that men-not men and women-are thought to bring life into this world thus only the fathers are the true blood relatives of their children

A

Monogenetic theory of procreation

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16
Q

According to who said that monogenetic theory of procreation is men not men and women are thought to bring life into this world thus only the fathers are the true blood relatives of their children

A

Turkish

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17
Q

What theory indicates that debut man literally as creating life in relation to preformed fetuses that they carry in their sperm and ejaculate into women’s waiting wombs

A

Monogenetic theory of procreation

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18
Q

Who’s description indicates that monogenetic theory of procreation view men literally as creating life in relation to prefund fetuses that they carry in their sperm and ejaculate into women’s waiting wombs

A

Egyptians

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19
Q

What theory says that there is an equal contribution of man and woman to the hereditary substance of the fetus form through the union of a woman’s ovum and man’s spermatozoa

A

Duogenetic theory of procreation

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20
Q

What theory indicates the formation of the conceived matter occurs when the seed or the sperm has mingled with the pure residue of the menses

A

View of clement of alexandria

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21
Q

According to what theory says that the male sperm contains the power that triggers the process of embryonic development but the sperm itself contributes nothing material to the fetus and vanishes

A

Aristotle’s conception theory

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22
Q

What theory indicates that sexual reproduction allows genetic recombination in order to withstand natural selection and evolve

A

Theory of evolution

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23
Q

According to what theory indicates that greater genetic variation give sexually reproducing species better resistance to rapidly adapting diseases and parasites

A

Red queen hypothesis

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24
Q

What are the four processes of human reproduction

A
  1. Sexual intercourse
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Birth
  4. Parental care
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25
Q

What are the four phases of human sexual response

A
  1. Excitement
  2. Plateau
  3. Orgasm
  4. Resolution
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26
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:

Engorgement of the clitoris

A

Excitement

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27
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Vaginal lubrication

A

Excitement

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28
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Erection of the nipple

A

Excitement

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29
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Enlargement of the breast

A

Excitement

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30
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Lobia majora flattens and spreads apart

A

Excitement

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31
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Labia minora swells

A

Excitement

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32
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Labia minora swells

A

Excitement

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33
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Cervix and uterus pulls up

A

Excitement

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34
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Ballooning of the upper third of the vagina

A

Excitement

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35
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Penile erection

A

Excitement

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36
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Thickening of the scrotal skin, increased scrotal sac tension, scrotum pulled up towards the body

A

Excitement

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37
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Breasts continue to swell

A

Plateau

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38
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Orgasmic platform

A

Plateau

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39
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Clitoris retracts into the body

A

Plateau

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40
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Uterus enlarges

A

Plateau

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41
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Darkening of the labia majora

A

Plateau

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42
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Pre-ejaculatory secretion

A

Plateau

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43
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Complete erection and swelling of the glans

A

Plateau

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44
Q

What is the rhythmic vigorous contraction of muscles in the pelvic area expels or dissipates blood and fluid from the area of congestion

A

Orgasm

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45
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
One contraction every 0.8 seconds

A

Orgasm

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46
Q

What are the two stages of orgasm in male

A

A. Sensation of ejaculatory inevitability
B. Ejaculation

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47
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Internal and external genital organs return to unaroused state

A

Resolution

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48
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Sex flush disappears

A

Resolution

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49
Q

How many minutes does resolution usually take

A

15 to 30 minutes

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50
Q

Also known as refractory period

A

Resolution

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51
Q

Identify which phase is this human sexual response:
Multiple orgasm

A

Resolution

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52
Q

Building block of genes and chromosomes

A

Dna

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53
Q

What are the three units that make up dna

A

Deoxyribose
Phosphate group
One of the four nitrogen bases

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54
Q

It carries the information needed to direct protein synthesis and replication

A

Dna

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55
Q

It carries the information needed to direct protein synthesis and replication

A

Dna

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56
Q

It is a rod shaped structure found in nucleus of a cell that carries the genes that determines the sex and characteristics of a person

A

Gene

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57
Q

Carries the hereditary information

A

Chromosomes

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58
Q

Carries the hereditary information

A

Chromosomes

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59
Q

What is the arrangement of nucleotides in dna

A

Dna
Rna
Proteins

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60
Q

It is the traits showing

A

Dominant

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61
Q

These are the traits that are not showing

A

Recessive

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62
Q

These are the physical attributes

A

Phenotype

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63
Q

What are the three combinations of genes from two alleles

A

AA
Aa
aa

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64
Q

What are the three combinations of genes from two alleles

A

AA
Aa
aa

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65
Q

This shows how we inherit the traits

A

Mendelian inheritance

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66
Q

Give the five mendelian inheritance

A
  1. Homozygous dominant x homozygous dominant
  2. Homozygous dominant x homozygous recessive
  3. Homozygous dominant x heterozygous
  4. Heterozygous x homozygous recessive
  5. Heterozygous x heterozygous
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67
Q

What are the five ways for a disease to be inherited

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance
X-linked dominant inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance
Multifactorial or polygenic inheritance

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68
Q

It is an inheritance where only one dominant gene is needed

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance

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69
Q

Inheritance where it occurs when either or both of the parent have a dominant gene of the disease

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance

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70
Q

True or false:
In autosomal dominant and recessive inheritance the sex of the affected individual is important in terms of inheritance

A

False- it is not important

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71
Q

What kind of inheritance is where there is a family history of the disease in other family members also known as vertical transmission

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance

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72
Q

Inheritance where there is a need of two recessive (both parents are carriers) in order for it to affect the patient

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

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73
Q

Inheritance where disorder occurs only if two genes of the disease are present (homozygous recessive)

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

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74
Q

A characteristic of this inheritance is where both parents of the affected child are clinically free of the disease

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

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75
Q

One of the characteristics of this inheritance is where the sex of the affected individual is not important in terms of inheritance

A

Autosomal dominant and recessive inheritance

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76
Q

Another characteristic of this inheritance is where a known common ancestor between the parents sometime exist

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

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77
Q

Inheritance where the disorders of the affected gene is or are located and transmitted only by the x chromosome

A

X-linked dominant inheritance

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78
Q

The characteristic of this inheritance is where all individuals with the genes are affected

A

X-linked dominant inheritance

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79
Q

Characteristic of this inheritance is where all female children of the affected men are affected; all male children of affected men are unaffected

A

X-linked dominant inheritance

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80
Q

What inheritance is where the disease appears in every generation

A

X-linked dominant inheritance

81
Q

One characteristic of this inheritance is where all children of homozygous women are affected; 50% of the children of heterozygous affected women are affected

A

X-linked dominant inheritance

82
Q

One characteristic of this inheritance is where all children of homozygous women are affected; 50% of the children of heterozygous affected women are affected

A

X-linked dominant inheritance

83
Q

Inheritance of the genes from both parents is incompatible with life

A

X linked recessive inheritance

84
Q

Inheritance of the genes from both parents is incompatible with life

A

X linked recessive inheritance

85
Q

One characteristic of this inheritance is where only males in the family will have the disorder and females are only carriers

A

X linked recessive inheritance

86
Q

One characteristic of this inheritance is where only males in the family will have the disorder and females are only carriers

A

X linked recessive inheritance

87
Q

Characteristic of this inheritance is where a history of girls dying at birth for unknown reason exists

A

X linked recessive inheritance

88
Q

A Characteristic of this inheritance is where the sons of an affected man is unaffected

A

X-linked recessive inheritance

89
Q

One characteristic of this inheritance is when the parents of affected children don’t have the disorder

A

X-linked recessive inheritance

90
Q

The disorders by this inheritance are caused by multiple factors with the involvement of more than a single gene

A

Multifactorial or Polygenic inheritance

91
Q

Give the five factors that will lead to genetic disorder

A

A. Familial factor
B. Mother’s age
C. Exposure to the environment
D. Continuous miscarriage or stillbirth
E. Birth defect in the previous baby

92
Q

It is where the fetus dies inside the womb of the mother

A

Stillbirth

93
Q

What are the two common assessment tests for determination of genetic abnormalities

A

Family history
Physical assessment

94
Q

Identify what assessments are the following found:
Mother’s age

A

Family history

95
Q

Identify what assessments are the following found:
Mother’s age

A

Family history

96
Q

Identify what assessments are the following found:
Birth defect in the previous baby, spontaneous miscarriage, or stillbirth

A

Family history

97
Q

Identify what assessments are the following found:
Ethnic background

A

Family history

98
Q

Identify what assessments are the following found:
Family genogram

A

Family history

99
Q

It is a diagram detailing family structure, providing information about families history

A

Family genogram

100
Q

What is IDDM

A

Insulin-dependent Diabetes Mellitus

101
Q

What is the common genetic disorder of african-american, indian, and middle eastern

A

Sickle-cell anemia; thalassemia

102
Q

What is a common genetic disorder of european jewish, french canadian

A

Tay-Sachs disease

103
Q

What is a common genetic disorder between mediterranean, southeast asian, greek, italian, southeast asia (Philippines), caucasian

A

Thalassemia
- B-thalassemia
- a-thalassemia

Cystic fibrosis

104
Q

This assessment is used to identify common physical characteristics of children with chromosomal disorder

A

Physical assessment

105
Q

What kind of disorder is identified by a physical assessment

A

Chromosomal disorder

106
Q

It is a kind of disorder where there is a late closure of fontanelles

A

Down syndrome

107
Q

A kind of disorder where the patient has meant of eyes and epicanthal fold on the eyelid

A

Down syndrome

108
Q

It is a kind of disorder where the patient has an abnormal iris color, large tongue, abnormal dermatoglyphics, and a simian crease on palm

A

Down syndrome

109
Q

In a down syndrome patient what kind of crease is found on the palm

A

Simian crease

110
Q

What kind of disorder where the patient has a bossing or prominent forehead, prominent jaw, and large hands

A

Fragile x syndrome

111
Q

It is a disorder where the patient has a low set hairline and absence of secondary sex characteristics

A

Turner syndrome

112
Q

What is absent in a Klinefelter syndrome

A

Secondary characteristics

113
Q

It is a kind of disorder where the infant has microcephaly, low set ears, multiple hair whorls, wide set nipples, and rocker-bottom feet

A

Trisomy 13

114
Q

What kind of disorder is where the infant has microcephaly, low set ears, multiple hair whorls, wide set nipples, and overriding of fingers

A

Trisomy 18

115
Q

What are the seven diagnostics and screen tests

A
  1. Karyotyping
  2. Maternal serum screening
  3. Chorionic villi sampling
  4. Amniocentesis
  5. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
  6. Fetal imaging
  7. Fetoscopy
116
Q

It is a type of screen test where there is a visual presentation of the chromosome pattern of an individual

A

Karyotyping

117
Q

What kind of test is where there is blood extracting or sweeping inside of the mouth in order to see the chromosomal patterns under the microscope

A

Karyotyping

118
Q

What are the two samples tested in a maternal serum screening

A
  • Alpha-feto protein
  • Pregnancy associated plasma protein a analysis
119
Q

It is a glycoprotein produced by the fetal liver and picks in maternal serum between 13th to 32nd weeks age of gestation

A

Alpha-feto protein

120
Q

What maternal serum screening is where blood extraction from the mother is done at the 15th to 20th age of gestation

A

Alpha feto protein

121
Q

When does the Alpha-feto protein blood extraction done

A

At the 15th to 20th age of gestation

122
Q

What is the normal amount of alpha feto protein

A

10 to 150 nm/ml

123
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Neural tube defect

A

Increased

124
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Esophageal obstruction

A

Increased

125
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Abdominal wall defect

A

Increased

126
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Threatened abortion

A

Increased

127
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Undetected fetal demise

A

Increased

128
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Increased amount of leaked by kidney

A

Increased

129
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Underestimation of fetal age

A

Increased

130
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Multifetal gestation

A

Increased

131
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Decreased maternal weight

A

Increase

132
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Maternal IDDM

A

Increased

133
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Chromosomal disorders such as trisomy 21

A

Decreased

134
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Gestational trophoblastic disease

A

Decreased

135
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Overestimation of gestational age

A

Decreased

136
Q

Identify if the afp is increased or decreased based on this symptom:
Increased maternal weight

A

Decreased

137
Q

What screening becomes multiple marker screen if maternal serum alpha-feto protein is included with placental hormone

A

Pregnancy associated plasma protein a analysis

138
Q

What are the three placental hormone used in pregnancy associated plasma protein a analysis

A

hCG (2-part screening)
Estriol (3-part screening)
Inhibin (4-part screening)

139
Q

This study should be done to reduce false positive results, moreover analysis of pregnant associated plasma protein a and measurement of the fetal neck thickness by sonogram should be done if msafp test is positive

A

Triple marker study

140
Q

What tests are done if the msafp test is positive

A

Analysis of pregnancy associated plasma protein a and measurement of the fetal neck thickness by sonogram

141
Q

What type of test involves retrieval and analysis of chorionic villi for chromosome or dna analysis

A

Chorionic villi sampling

142
Q

What is retrieved from the cord connecting the fetus to the placenta

A

Chorionic villi

143
Q

Chorionic villi sampling can be done as early as how many weeks

A

5 weeks aog; commonly at 8 to 10 weeks aog

144
Q

What are the two ways in retrieving chorionic villi

A

Transabdominal
Transervical

145
Q

The disadvantages of this sampling are:
- At risk for excessive bleeding leading to pregnancy loss
- limb reduction syndrome
- not all genetic abnormalities can be detected by it

A

Chorionic villi sampling

146
Q

True or false:
In nursing considerations the nurse should inform to the patient the risk of the diagnostic test

A

True

147
Q

True or false
In nursing considerations the nurse should not secure consent from the patient

A

False

148
Q

What are the 6 nursing considerations in chorionic villi sampling

A
  • Inform of the risks of the diagnostic test
  • secure consent
  • proper positioning for the procedure and skin
  • administer rh immune globulin with rh negative woman after the procedure
  • rest at home for one day post-cvs
  • sexual restriction for few days
149
Q

Post cvs instruct mother to report what?

A

Chills or fever
Uterine contractions or bleeding

150
Q

It is a test where amniotic fluid is withdrawn through the abdominal wall for analysis at 15 to 16 week aog

A

Amniocentesis

151
Q

How many amniotic fluid is withdrawn during amniocentesis

A

20 ml

152
Q

If the patient is more than 20 weeks aog why do we need to ask the patient to void

A

To have a full view of the uterus without the bladder blocking the beat

153
Q

What does it mean if the amniotic fluid is:
Yellow
Dark red
Green
Golden

A

Yellow-normal
Dark red-bleeding or hemolysis
Green-fetus pooped inside
Golden-leak of the mother’s bile

154
Q

What is percutaneous umbilical blood sampling also called

A

Cordocentesis

155
Q

It is a test where the blood from the fetal umbilical cord is aspirated at about 17 weeks aog using an amniocentesis technique

A

Percutaneous umbilical blood sample

156
Q

It is used to assess for general size and structural disorder of the internal organs spine and limbs of a fetus

A

Fetal imaging

157
Q

What are the three examples of fetal imaging

A

Ct scan
Mri
Ultrasound

158
Q

What does is done through the insertion of fiber optic fetoscope through a small incision in the mother’s abdomen into the uterus and membranes to visually inspect the fetus for gross abnormalities

A

Fetoscopy

159
Q

What is inserted through a small in scissor in the mother’s abdomen into the uterus during fetoscopy

A

Fiberoptic fetoscope

160
Q

This test is used to confirm a sonography finding to remove skin cell for dna analysis or to perform surgery for congenital disorders such as stenosed urethra

A

Fetoscopy

161
Q

What is performed on fetal cells when the mother is usually over the age of 35 and therefore most at risk for bearing a child with chromosomal abnormalities

A

Chromosomal analysis

162
Q

What should all women of childbearing age should take daily before conception because this has been found to reduce the incidence of spina bifida and other neural tube defects

A

Folic acid

163
Q

Oh women of childbearing age should take at least 400 mcg of folic acid in order to reduce the incidence of what two defects

A

Spina bifida and neural tube defects

164
Q

It is also called as birth defect or congenital abnormality

A

Congenital disorder

165
Q

It is an abnormality and body structure or function that is present at birth

A

Congenital disorder

166
Q

When does internal abnormalities or functions of a baby can be diagnosed

A

Weeks or months after birth

167
Q

What are the three causes of congenital disorder

A

Chromosomal abnormalities
Gene abnormalities
Teratogens

168
Q

Give the 9 risk factors of congenital disorder

A
  • family history
  • maternal illness in the first trimester
  • maternal diabetes
  • alcohol or substance abuse
  • maternal age greater than 35 years old
  • poly or oligo hydramnios
  • persistent breech presentation
  • multigestational pregnancy
  • small gestational age
169
Q

Condition where there is too much or too less amniotic fluid

A

Poly or oligo hydramnios

170
Q

Also called as your patau syndrome

A

Trisomy 13

171
Q

It is a disorder where there is an extra chromosome 13

A

Trisomy 13 or patau syndrome

172
Q

The mental capacity of patients with this syndrome has severely cognitively challenged and most do not survive beyond early childhood

A

Trisomy 13

173
Q

The incidence of this syndrome is 0.45 per 1000 live births

A

Trisomy 13

174
Q

Most of children with this syndrome die at the age of one

A

Trisomy 13

175
Q

The clinical manifestations of the syndrome are:
Midline body disorders (cleft lip and door palate, ventral septal defect, abnormal genitalia)
Polydactyl
Microcephaly
Multiple hair whorls
Micropththalmos
Low set ears

A

Trisomy 13

176
Q

What is it called if the patient has an extra finger

A

Polydactyl

177
Q

Patients with this disorder has three copies of chromosome 18

A

Trisomy 18

178
Q

The incidence of this syndrome happening is 0.25 per 1,000 live births

A

Trisomy 18

179
Q

The clinical manifestations of this condition are:
- small for gestational age
- low set ears
- micrognathia
- multiple hair whorls
- congenital heart defects
- misshape and fingers and toes
- rocker bottom feet
- severe organ malformation

A

Trisomy 18

180
Q

What is the term if the patient has a small chin

A

Micrognathia

181
Q

It is also called cat cry syndrome

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

182
Q

Syndrome where there is a misin portion of chromosome 5

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

183
Q

Patients with this syndrome has malformed larynx and vocal problems causing to have a cat like cry

A

Cri-du-chat Syndrome

184
Q

The clinical manifestation of this syndrome are:
Cat like cry
Small head
Wide set eyes
Downward slant to the palpebral feature of the eyes

A

Cri-du-chat Syndrome

185
Q

It is a type of gonadal dysgenesis

A

Turner syndrome

186
Q

This syndrome has only one functional x chromosome

A

Turner syndrome

187
Q

The incidence of the syndrome is one per 10,000 live births in females

A

Turner syndrome

188
Q

The clinical manifestations of the syndrome are:
Short stature; low set airline and at the nape of the neck
Webbed and short neck
Edematous hands and feet
Congenital abnormalities (CoA, kidney d/o)
Streak gonads; sterility

A

Turner syndrome

189
Q

The classical features of this syndrome are short webbed neck cubitus valgus edema of the extremities

A

Turner syndrome

190
Q

This disorder is where the forearm is angled away from the body at a greater angle

A

Cubitus valgus

191
Q

The management of the syndrome includes human growth administration to achieve additional height and also administration of estrogen

A

Turner syndrome

192
Q

What does human growth administration and estrogen can cause

A

Withdrawal bleeding that results in menstruation

193
Q

Patients with this syndrome are mostly males with xxy chromosome pattern (47 xxy)

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

194
Q

Clinical manifestations of the syndrome are and develop secondary sex characteristics, small penis and testes, gynaecomastia, infertility

A

Klinefelter syndrome

195
Q

Enlarged breasts of males

A

Gynaecomastia

196
Q

Syndrome in which x-linked disorder in which one long arm of an x chromosome is defective

A

Fragile x syndrome

197
Q

In this syndrome males have marked deficits in speech and arithmetic while females have poor concentration and is impulsive

A

Fragile x syndrome

198
Q

Males with this syndrome at puberty have maladaptive behavior, bossing forehead, long face with slight high forehead, prominent lower jaw, and large protruding ears, hyper extensive joints and cardiac disorder, and enlarged testicles

A

Fragile x syndrome

199
Q

This disorder has three copies of chromosome 21

A

Trisomy 21

MCN (5 decks)

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