Prob & Measure Flashcards
(i) Define a sigma-algebra and a measure.
(ii) Define a pi-system and a d-system.
(iii) State and prove Dynkin’s Lemma
(i) A sigma algebra contains the whole set, is closed under complementation and countable unions. A measure is non-negative, countably additive, and is zero on the null set.
(ii) A pi system contains the empty set and is closed under intersections.
A d-system contains the whole set, is closed under differences and countable increasing unions.
(iii) If A a pi-system and D a d-system containing A, then D contains sigma(A).
Proof:
1. Note that intersecting d-systems preserves d-systems. So pick the smallest d-system D containing A.
- Let D_1 = {a in D : a intersect b in D for all b in A}. Note that D_1 is a d-system containing A. Hence D_1 contains D. Hence D=D_1.
- Let D_2 = {a in D: a intersect b in D for all b in D}. Note that D_2 is a d-system for the same reasons as D_1, and note that D_2 contains A. So D=D_2.
- So D is a pi-system and d-system, hence a sigma-algebra.
Applications of Dynkin’s:
(i) Show that if (E, E) is a sigma algebra and mu_1, mu_2 are two finite measures agreeing on a pi-system, then mu_1, mu_2 agree everywhere.
(ii) Show that if A is a pi-system and X a r.v., and A and X are indep, then sigma(A) and X are indep.
State and prove Kolmogorov’s Zero-One Law
Let X_n, n>=1 be indep. Then let T_n = sigma(X_{n+1}, X_{n+2}, …), T=intersect T_n. Then if A in T, P(A)=0.
Proof: We prove A is indep of A. So P(A)=P(A and A)=P(A)^2.
Let F_n = sigma(X_1, …, X_n) so that F_n and T_n are indep. Hence F_n and T are indep. This holds for all n. Hence F=UF_n and T are indep. Note that F is a pi-system, so T is indep of the sigma algebra F generates, namely F_{infinity}=sigma(X_1, X_2, …) (as the sets indep of T form a d-system). Then finally note that T is a subset of F_{infinity}. So T is indep of itself.
(i) Prove P(A_n i.o.) = lim_{n–>infinity} P( A_m for some m >= n) >= lim_{n->infinity} P(A_n)
(ii) Let X_n iid with mean 0 variance sigma^2. Let A_n = {S_n/sqrt(n) >= K}, S_n the sum. Show that P(A_n) >= c > 0 for n large enough.
(ii) Prove P(A_n i.o.) >= c. Deduce that P(A_n i.o)=1.
(iv) Deduce limsup S_n/sqrt(n) = infinity with probability 1
We let B_n = {A_m for some m >= n}. Then B_n decreases to intersect B_n = {A_n i.o.}. Result follows.
(ii) Is immediate from Central limit.
(iii) Immediate form 1, and Kolmogarov.
(iv) P(limsup S_n/sqrt(n) >= K)=1 for all K. Call this B_k, k=1,2,3,4… Note that B_k is decreasing. So P(limsup S_n/sqrt(n)=infinity)=lim P(B_k) = lim 1 = 1.
(i) Let f_n, f integrable, with mu( |f_n|) –> mu(|f|) and f_n –> f pointwise. Prove that mu(f_n+)–> mu(f+) and mu(f_n-)–>mu(f-).
(ii) If f,f_n >=0 are integrable, f_n–>f pointwise, and mu(f_n)–>mu(f), prove mu(|f-f_n|)–>0
(iii) If f,f_n are integrable, f_n–>f pointwise, and mu(|f_n|) –> mu(|f|), then mu(|f-f_n|) –> 0
(i) We have
mu(liminf f_n+)=mu(f+) <= liminf mu(f_n+)
mu(liminf |f_n|-f_n+)= mu(f-) <= liminf mu(|f_n|-f_n+)=mu(|f|) - limsup mu(f_n+).
Thus mu(f_n+) –> mu(f+).
(ii) Have f+f_n-|f-f_n| >= 0, so
mu(liminf f+f_n-|f-f_n|) = 2mu(f) <= liminf mu(f+f_n-|f-f_n|)=2*mu(f)-limsup mu(|f-f_n|), as required.
(iii) |f|+|f_n|-|f-f_n| >=0, use Fatou.
What does A_n i.o and A_n ev mean formally?
State Borelli Lemma version 1 and 2.
A_n i.o = intersection_{m} Union_{n >= m} A_n
A_n ev = Union_{m} Intersection_{n >= m} A_n.
Borelli Version 1:
If sum_{n>=1} P(A_n) < infinity, then P(A_n i.o.)=0
Borelli Version 2:
If A_n indep and sum_{n>=1} P(A_n)=infinit, P(A_n i.o)=1
Show that if X_n iid N(0,1), then limsup (X_n/sqrt(2logn))=1 a.s.
A_n = {X_n > sqrt(2*logn)+eps}.
The standard Gaussian is
f(x)=1/sqrt(2pi) e^(-x^2/2).
Prob(A_n) = 1/sqrt(2pi) integral e^(-x^2/2) from sqrt(2logn) to infinity <= 1/sqrt(2pi) integral x*e^(-x^2/2) = 1/sqrt(2pi) e^(-t^2/2).
So Prob A_n i.o.=0 Thus Prob limsup X_n/sqrt(2logn) > 1+1/m = 0. This decreases to Prob limsup X_n/sqrt(2logn) > 1, which is 0.
Use the other side. The bound is simply the interval t,t+1!
Let B a borel subset of [0,1]. Show for all eps > 0, there exists A=(a_1,b_1] u (a_2,b_2] u … u (a_n, b_n] disjoint intervals such that the Lebesgue measure of (A xor B) is less than eps. Show this remains true for every Borel set in R of finite Lebesgue measure.
Apply Dynkins. Let D the set of all B satisfying the above. We know that D contains the pi-system of finite unions of disjoint intervals. Since these generate the Borel sigma-algebra, it suffices to prove D is a d-system.
(i) Let B_1, B_2 in D, with B_1 subset of B_2. Take the xor of the eps approximations A_1,A_2 of B_1 and B_2. Note that
mu(A xor B) <= mu(A u B) <= mu(A)+mu(B). So,
mu(A_1 xor A_2 xor (B_2\B_1))=mu( (A_1 xor B_1) xor (A_2 xor B_2)) <= 2*eps.
(ii) Let A_n increase to A. So mu(A_n) –> mu(A). For eps > 0, mu(A_n) is within eps of mu(A). And A_n is eps approximated by B_n.
So mu(A xor B_n) = mu(A_n xor B_n xor (A\A_n)) <= mu(A_n xor B_n) + mu(A\A_n) < 2*eps.
[n, n+1) eventually contains no measure. So done.
Let alpha_n be reals such that sum alpha_n^2=sigma^2 < infinity.
Let X_n iid N(0,1). Show that Y_n = sum_{1 <= i <= n} alpha_i * X_i converges in L^2 to some Y.
Find the distribution of Y.
E[(Y_{n+r}-Y_n)^2] = alpha_n^2+…+alpha_{n+r}^2 –> 0 as n–>infinity. Since L^2 is complete, done.
We know that Y_n is normal, mean 0, variance alpha_1^2+…+alpha_n^2.
We know Y_n –> Y in L^2. Hence Y_n –> Y in probability. Indeed, P(|Y_n-Y|>eps)= P(|Y_n-Y|^2>eps^2) <= E[(Y_n-Y)^2]/eps^2 –> 0.
Hence Y_n–>Y in distribution. But the distribution is just
F_n(t) = 1/sqrt(2pisigma_n^2) Integral(-infinty to t) e^(-x^2/(2*sigma^2))
We take sigma_n –> sigma. By dom convergence, or even monotone convergence, we get that F_n(t) –> 1/sqrt(2pisigma^2) Integral e^(-x^2/(2*sigma^2)), i.e., Y is normal.
Show that L^p is Banach.
- Consider f_n Cauchy and ||f_{phi(n+1)}-f_{phi(n)}||_p < 2^{-n}.
- Using Monotone Convergence, deduce || sum |f_{n+1}-f_n| || <= 1.
- Deduce that the sum converges a.e., and hence define f (one may show it is measurable).
- Show that ||f_n-f|| converges to 0 using Fatou’s lemma.
- Explain why f is in L^p.
Define what it means for X_n–>X in distribution (for real r.v.s) and for X_n–>X weakly. Show that they are equivalent.
Show that X_n –> X in distribution iff for all bounded cts f, E[f(X_n)]–>E[f(X)].
Skip these:
- Show that X_n –> X in prob ==> f(X_n) –> f(X) in prob for f cts. (Do not need unif cts!)
- State the bounded convergence theorem.
- Show that convergence in prob ==> convergence in distribution.
X_n –> X in distribution if F_{X_n}(x)–>F_X(x) for all continuity points of F_X.
X_n –> X weakly if E[f(X_n)]–>E[f(X)] for all bounded and cts f.
W ==> D
- Let X_n–>X weakly. If C is closed, then f_m(x)=max(0,1-md(x,C)) is m-lipshitz cts and bounded in [0,1]. Let C_m = f_m^{-1} (0,infinity). Observe that C_m decreases to precisely C, since C is closed, and P(X_n in C) <= E[f_m(X_N)] –> E[f_m(X)] <= P(X in C_m). Hence limsup P(X_n in C) <= inf m>=1 P(X in C_m) = P(X in C).
- Note that if U open, R\U is closed. Hence liminf P(X_n in U) >= P(X in U).
- liminf P(X_n <= a) >= liminf P(X_n < a) >= P(X_n < a)=P(X_n=a) >= limsup P(X_n <= a). Thus we get P(X_n <= a) –> P(X <= a).
D ==> W
- Let f bounded and cts, and wlog that f has image in [0,1]. Then, note only countably many x in [0,1] have that P(f(X_k)=x) > 0 or P(f(X)=x)>0. Hence, we pick a_0=-1 < a_1 < … < a_M = 2 with a_i-a_{i-1} < 1/M.
- |E[f(X)]-E[f(X_n)]| <= |E[f(X)]-sum a_i 1{f(X_n) in [a_i,a{i+1}]}|+sum |a_i| |P(X_n in [a_i,a_{i+1}]) - P(X in [a_i,a_{i+1}]) + … < 2/M +something converging to 0 as n –> infinity. So this can be made arbitrarily small.
State and prove the Bounded Convergence Thm
Let X_n r.v.’s with |X_n| <= C. Let X_n –> X in prob. Then |X| <= C a.e., and X_n –> X in L1.
Proof:
E[ |X_n-X| ] <= E[ |X_n-X| * 1(|X_n-X| >= eps)] + eps <= 2CP(|X_n-X| >= eps)+eps–> eps, using the fact that |X| <= C a.e.
Indeed,
P(|X|>C+eps) <= P(|X-X_n|+|X_n| > C+eps) <= P(|X-X_n|>eps)+P(|X_n|>C)=P(|X-X_n|>eps) –>0. So P(|X|>C+eps)=0.
What is Markov’s inequality. State a better version of it.
You were stuck on this problem:
Show that n^(-1/2) max_{k <= n} |X_k| –> 0 in prob, for X_n iid in L^2.
P(X>=a) <= E[X]/a, since
a1(X>=a) <= X. Indeed, a1(X>=a) <= X1(X>=a). So, P(X>=a) <= E[X1(X>=a)]/a.
If X in L^2(P), show that nP(|X|>epssqrt(n))–>0 as n –> infinity.
nP(|X|>epssqrt(n)) <= nE[X^21(X^2 > eps^2n)]/(epsn) –> 0.
So Prob(|X_k| > eps*sqrt(n) for some k <= n) = 1-(1-p(n))^n <= 1-1+np(n)--> 0.
(i) Define a measure preserving map.
(ii) Define an invariant subset and show they form a sigma-algebra E_{theta}.
(iii) Define an invariant function. How does it relate to E_{theta}?
(iv) Define an ergodic function.
State but don’t prove Birkhoff’s Ergodic Theorem and Von Neumann’s Ergodic Theorem. IT IS NOT EXAMINABLE THANK THE GODS HOLY SHIT
Let E a sigma-finite measure space and f integrable. If theta is measure preserving, there exists an invariant function f^bar such that mu(|f^bar|) <= mu(|f|) and S_n(f)/n –> f^bar a.e.
Let E a finite measure space and let f be in L^p. Then there is f^bar in L^p such that S_n(f)/n –> f^bar in L^p.