Private Pilot Knowledge Test Flashcards
1
Q
What are the four forces acting on an aircraft?
A
Thrust, drag, lift, and weight.
2
Q
What’s it called when an aircraft is not changing speed, and not changing direction?
A
Unaccelerated flight.
3
Q
What is the relationship between the four aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft, when the aircraft is in unaccelerated flight?
A
They are in equilibrium. Thrust is equal to drag, and lift is equal to weight.
4
Q
What is Bernoulli’s Law?
A
An increase in the speed of air occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure.
5
Q
What is a chord line?
A
A line drawn from the trailing edge of the wing to the leading edge of the wing.
6
Q
What is relative wind?
A
The wind in relation to the wing itself.
7
Q
What is the angle of attack?
A
The acute angle between the chord line of the wing, and the relative wind.
8
Q
Why does increasing the angle of attack cause a stall?
A
The air flowing over the top of the wing can no longer conform to the shape of the wing. So, instead of flowing smoothly over the wing, it backfills and burbles and eddies over the wing.
9
Q
Does gross weight of the airplane alter the angle of attack at which the airplane stalls?
A
No. The airplane stalls at the same angle of attack, regardless of the gross weight of the airplane.
10
Q
Does the indicated airspeed at which an aircraft stalls change due to altitude? Why or why not?
A
No, it does not change. The thinner air at higher altitude affects the airspeed indicator in exactly the same way that it affects the wing.
11
Q
When an airplane is spinning, which wing is stalled? Why is it spinning in one particular direction?
A
Both wings are stalled. It’s spinning in one direction because one wing is more stalled than the other.
12
Q
Why is frost on a wing harmful?
A
Because it can interrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing. It can prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed, and can cause the airplane to stall at a higher airspeed, or at an unpredictable airspeed.
13
Q
Why does an airplane have a left turning tendency?
A
The descending propeller blade produces more thrust than the ascending propeller blade.
14
Q
What are two other names for P-factor?
A
Asymmetric propeller loading and torque.
15
Q
When is P-factor the greatest? High power or low power?
A
High power.
16
Q
When is P-factor the greatest? High airspeed or low airspeed?
A
Low airspeed.
17
Q
When is P-factor the greatest? High angle of attack or low angle of attack.
A
High angle of attack.
18
Q
Why doesn’t an aircraft want to turn to the left at cruise speed?
A
The manufacturer has built some aerodynamic compensation into the aircraft, so that it doesn’t turn at cruise speed. Specifically, there is a slightly larger angle of attack built into the left wing, and the tail is canted slightly to the right.
19
Q
What is another name for the attitude indicator?
A
Artificial horizon.
20
Q
How do you determine the direction of bank from the attitude indicator?
A
Note the relationship of the miniature airplane to the deflecting horizon bar.
21
Q
If you are in straight and level flight, and you want to adjust the attitude indicator, how do you do so?
A
Align the miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
22
Q
What is another name for the heading indicator?
A
Directional gyro.
23
Q
What do you have to do to receive accurate indications from a heading indicator?
A
Periodically align the heading indicator with the magnetic compass, because it wanders off due to gyroscopic precession.
24
Q
What axes does the turn coordinator give you an indication of movement about?
A
The yaw and roll axes.
25
Which instruments are the pitot/static instruments?
Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator (rate of climb indicator), and altimeter.
26
What does the altimeter actually measure?
Air pressure.
27
How does the rate of climb indicator work?
It's basically a container with a hole in it. It measure the speed at which the air rushes in and out of the hole, and uses that to determine rate of ascent and descent.
28
How does the airspeed indicator work?
It's connected to the static vents, and the ram air from the pitot tube. It measures the difference in air pressure between the two. The difference is the indicated airspeed.
29
If the pitot tube becomes clogged, which instrument is affected?
The airspeed indicator.
30
If the static system vents become clogged, which instruments are affected?
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator (rate of climb indicator).
31
If both the pitot tube AND the static system vents become clogged, which instruments are affected?
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator (rate of climb indicator).
32
What's the difference between true altitude and absolute altitude?
True altitude is altitude above sea level. Absolute altitude is altitude above ground level.
33
What's pressure altitude?
The altitude indicated when you put 29.92 into the setting window of the altimeter.
34
For each 1,000 feet of altitude that you descend, about how much does the pressure change?
The air pressure drops about 1".
35
If you fly from an area of high pressure, to an area of low pressure, without adjusting your altimeter, what would it indicate?
It would indicate a higher than actual altitude. So, your airplane would be too low. "From high to low, look out below!"
36
If you fly from an area of low pressure, to an area of high pressure, without adjusting your altimeter, what would it indicate?
It would indicate a lower than actual altitude. "Low to high, clear the sky!"
37
What happens to the altimeter when you adjust the pressure setting window to a larger number? How much does it change?
The indicated altitude increases. 1000 feet of indicated altitude for each inch of pressure.
38
How do you use your altimeter to find pressure altitude?
Put 29.92 in the setting window of your altimeter.
39
How do warm days affect pressure levels and indicated altitude?
On warm days, pressure levels are raised, and indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
40
If you fly into cold temperatures, how is the indicated altitude affected?
In cold weather, the true altitude is lower than the indicated altitude.
41
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so that the altimeter indicates...
...true altitude at field elevation.
42
When is a magnetic compass accurate?
In straight, level, and unaccelerated flight.
43
In the Northern Hemisphere, when do acceleration errors occur for a magnetic compass?
Only on easterly or westerly headings.
44
How will the magnetic compass be affected by acceleration or deceleration?
ANDS:
Accelerate
North
Decelerate
South
When you accelerate, the compass will momentarily indicate a turn northward. When you decelerate, the compass will momentarily indicate a turn southward.
45
If you're on a North heading, and you start a turn in one direction, what does the compass do?
The compass momentarily indicates a turn in the opposite direction.
NO:
North
Opposite
46
Describe how and when the compass overshoots and undershoots turns.
When heading south, and turning, the compass overshoots. When heading north, and turning, it undershoots.
COSUN:
```
Compass
Overshoots
South
Undershoots
North
```
47
How many degrees of latitude are between the equator and the north pole?
90°.
48
How are the degrees of latitude broken down?
Each degree is broken down into 60 minutes, and each minute is broken down into 60 seconds.
49
What distance is each minute of latitude?
One nautical mile.
50
How many degrees of longitude are on the earth?
360°. 180° on each side of the prime meridian.
51
When speaking of longitude and latitude, which do you speak of first?
Latitude.
52
Which cross the equator at right angles? Lines of latitude or longitude?
Longitude.
53
On a chart, what do the tick marks on the lines of longitude or latitude represent?
One minute (1 60th of a degree).
54
On a chart, what's the basic symbol for an airport?
A red circle.
55
On a chart, what does an R inside a red circle mean?
A restricted airport.
56
On a chart, what does a filled-in red circle, with a line inside it mean?
An airport with a hard surface runway of at least 1,500 feet in length.
57
On a chart, what does a red circle surrounded by tick marks mean?
An airport that is supposed to have fuel.
58
On a chart, what does a blue filled-in circle mean?
A controlled airport.
59
On a chart, what does "CT" mean?
Control tower frequency.
60
On a chart, what does a star following a control tower frequency mean?
That it's not a 24-hour control tower.
61
On a chart, what does a star at the top of an airport circle mean?
That the airport has a rotating beacon.
62
What does a rotating beacon that's alternating one white and one green mean?
It's a civilian airport.
63
What does a rotating beacon that's alternating two white and one green mean?
Military airport.
64
What does a heliport rotating beacon look like?
White and green, with yellow in between.
65
On a chart, what do the numbers accompanying a symbol for an obstruction mean?
The bold number on top is the altitude above sea level (MSL), and the number in parentheses on the bottom is the height (AGL).
66
What's a group obstruction?
When obstructions on the ground are very close together, they are represented on charts as symbols that look like two obstructions welded together.
67
On a chart, what is the Eiffel Tower like symbol used for?
To represent an obstruction that is at least 1,000 feet AGL.
68
On a chart, what does a group obstruction symbol with a starburst symbol on top of it used for?
To represent an obstruction with high intensity lights.
69
On a chart, what does the flag on a pole symbol represent?
A visual reporting point.
70
On a chart, what is a visual reporting point?
A predetermined position that ATC is aware of, and that the pilot should be aware of.
71
What is the contour line interval on charts?
500 feet.
72
In a congested area, how far above an obstacle must you fly?
1,000 feet.
73
What's a basic mnemonic for airspace classes?
```
Altitude
Big
Crowded
Dialog
Elsewhere
Go for it
```
74
Which classes of airspace are controlled? Which are uncontrolled?
Class G is uncontrolled. All of the rest are controlled.
75
All airspace is class __, unless it's otherwise specified.
Class G.
76
How is Class G airspace shown on a chart?
By the absence of any other class of airspace.
77
At and above what altitude is all airspace in the contiguous US and Alaska controlled?
14,500 MSL.
78
Do IFR aircraft have separation service in Class E airspace?
Yes.
79
What is the default floor for Class E airspace?
1,200 feet AGL.
80
How are Class E airspace floors of 1,200 feet, 700 feet, other than 1,200 feet, and all the way to the ground represented?
1,200 feet: fuzzy side of the blue vignette
700 feet: fuzzy side of the magenta vignette
Other than 1,200 feet: fuzzy side of the blue vignette, with a number in it
To the ground: magenta dashed lines
81
How high up does Class E airspace go?
Up to, but not including, 18,000 MSL.
82
How is Class D airspace shown on a chart?
With a blue segmented line.
83
At a controlled airport, how far down does Class D airspace extend?
All the way down to the ground.
84
When is Class D airspace in effect for an airport? When it's not Class D, what does it become?
Any time the associated control tower is in operation. After that, it turns into Class E airspace IF there is any automated weather reporting. If there is no weather reporting of any kind, it becomes Class G airspace.
85
What kind of separation service is always provided in Class D airspace?
Only separation service on the runway.
86
What is the standard shape of Class D airspace around an airport?
A circle of 5 statute miles in diameter, called the "core area".
87
What is the ceiling of Class D airspace above an airport?
2,500 feet AGL.
88
How is the ceiling for Class D airspace above an airport shown on a chart?
Inside a blue segmented box.
89
What does a minus sign before the Class D ceiling mean?
It means that the airspace extends up to, but not including, that number.
90
If the extensions to Class D airspace extend beyond 2 nautical miles from the core area, what airspace class are they, and how are they represented on the chart?
Class E. Magenta dashed lines.
91
How are takeoffs and landings from a secondary, non-tower airport inside Class D airspace handled?
When landing, you must call the primary airport first, before entering the Class D airspace. When taking off, if you can't reach the primary airport from the runway, call them as soon as possible.
92
When passing through Class D airspace, what must you do?
Notify the primary airport.
93
What are the lateral dimensions of Class D airspace based upon?
The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
94
What do you need to enter Class C airspace?
You need to establish two way radio communications with approach control. This only means that they only need to repeat back your callsign to you.
You also need to have a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter, both in the Class C airspace, and above it to 10,000 feet.
95
What is the standard shape of Class C airspace?
An inner circle with a radius of 5 nautical miles from the primary airport, and up to 4,000 feet AGL. Outside of that is what's known as the "outer circle", from 1,200 feet AGL, to 4,000 feet AGL, with a 10 nautical mile radius. Though not charted, there is also an "outer area", for another 10 nautical miles, within which you should call in before reaching Class C airspace.
96
How is Class B airspace identified on a chart?
Blue solid line.
97
What 5 requirements are necessary for entering Class B airspace?
- A specific clearance.
- Must be a private pilot, or a student pilot with the correct endorsement within the past 90 days.
- Must have communications radio.
- If VFR, no navigation equipment required.
- Transponder with Mode C.
98
What is the standard size and shape for Class B airspace?
There isn't one. Each one is different; you have to look at it on a chart.
99
What happens to Class B airspace as you get away from the airport?
The floor rises.
100
What is the Mode C veil?
Within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airport, up to 10,000 MSL, you must have a Mode C transponder.
101
What is necessary for flying in Class A airspace?
- IFR rated.
- IFR equipped.
- IFR clearance, at altitude assigned by ATC.
- Transponder with Mode C.
102
Where is Class A airspace?
18,000 MSL to 60,000 MSL.
103
What is a restricted area? How is restricted area airspace shown on a chart?
An area with unusual, often invisible hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. It's shown with an R followed by a dash and a number, and hash marks going around the sides.
104
What do you need to fly through a restricted area?
Permission from the controlling agency.
105
What is a warning area?
It's exactly like a restricted area, but a warning area is out to sea, in international territory. Extremely dangerous, but there are no restrictions in flying through one.
106
What is an MOA?
A military operations area. They do military training, such as acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
107
What do you need to do to fly through an MOA?
Exercise extreme caution.
108
What is an alert area? How is it shown on a chart?
An area of concentrated student training, or "unusual aeronautical activity". It's shown by an area surrounded by a blue dotted line, and an A followed by a dash, followed by a number.
109
What is necessary to fly in an alert area?
Exercise extreme caution. Look outside the window, and maintain collision avoidance.
110
What's a military training route? How are they marked?
A route where the military can fly at any speed, and close to the ground. They are marked with an IR (can be conducted in Instrument Conditions) or VR (can be conducted only in Visual Conditions), followed by a 3 or 4 digit number. If it's a 4-digit number, the training activity is at 1,500 AGL or below. If it's a 3-digit number, then the activity will generally be above 1,500 AGL. Speeds are often in excess of 250 knots.
111
What is the requested altitude for flying over a wildlife refuge?
2,000 AGL.
112
What does the distinct (non-fuzzy) side of a blue line mean?
Uncontrolled airspace (class G) from the surface to 14,500 feet.
113
What does the fuzzy side of a blue line mean?
Floor of Class E airspace 1,200 feet.
114
What does the distinct (non-fuzzy) side of a magenta line mean?
Floor of Class E airspace 1,200 feet.
115
What does the fuzzy side of a magenta line mean?
Floor of Class E airspace 700 feet.
116
What does a dashed magenta line mean?
Class E airspace all the way down to the surface.
117
Generally, how wide are airways?
8 nautical miles wide.
118
How are airways indicated on a chart?
Blue lines.
119
What are the altitudes for airways?
1,200 AGL to 17,999 MSL.
120
Why do they call it a 4096 code transponder?
Because there are 4 digits, and each can display 8 values (0-7). 8 to the 4th power is 4096.
121
What is a Mode S transponder?
An improved type of 4096 transponder.
122
What are the VFR weather minimums for Class C and D airspace?
- 3 statute miles visibility.
- 500 feet below clouds.
- 1,000 feet above clouds.
- 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
Regardless of altitude.
123
What are the VFR weather minimums for Class B airspace?
- 3 statute miles visibility.
- Clear of clouds.
The controller is separating all traffic.
124
What are the VFR weather minimums for Class E airspace?
Below 10,000:
- 3 statute miles visibility.
- 500 feet below clouds.
- 1,000 feet above clouds.
- 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
10,000 and above:
- 5 statute miles visibility.
- 1,000 feet below clouds.
- 1,000 feet above clouds.
- 1 statute mile horizontally from clouds.
125
What are the day and night VFR weather minimums for Class G airspace?
1,200 AGL OR BELOW:
Day:
-1 statute mile visibility.
-Clear of clouds.
Night:
- 3 statute miles visibility.
- 500 feet below clouds.
- 1,000 feet above clouds.
- 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
```
MORE THAN 1,200 AGL, LESS THAN 10,000 MSL:
Day:
-1 statute mile visibility.
-500 feet below clouds.
-1,000 feet above clouds.
-2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
```
Night
- 3 statute miles visibility.
- 500 feet below clouds.
- 1,000 feet above clouds.
- 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
10,000 MSL OR HIGHER:
- 5 statute miles visibility.
- 1,000 feet below clouds.
- 1,000 feet above clouds.
- 1 statute mile horizontally from clouds.
126
What are the VFR weather minimums for Class E airspace?
LESS THAN 10,000 MSL
- 3 statute miles visibility.
- 500 feet below clouds.
- 1,000 feet above clouds.
- 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
10,000 MSL OR HIGHER
- 5 statute miles visibility.
- 1,000 feet below clouds.
- 1,000 feet above clouds.
- 1 statute mile horizontally from clouds.
127
What are the exceptions for night flying in Class G airspace?
If the visibility is less than 3 statute miles, but at least 1 statute mile, and you are clear of clouds, you may operate in the pattern within 1/2 mile of the airport.
128
What are the major aviation speed limits?
- No speed limit at and above 10,000 MSL.
- 250 KIAS below 10,000 MSL.
- In Class C or Class D airspace, within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport, within 2,500 feet AGL, it's 200 KIAS.
129
What class airspace is an airway?
Class E.
130
When the rotating beacon is on at an airport, during the day, what does it signify?
That the weather is below basic VFR minimums.
131
What is special VFR?
It allows operation in controlled airspace, in weather conditions that are less than basic VFR minimums. It provides IFR separation.
132
How can you get special VFR?
It must be requested by the pilot, and approved by ATC.
133
Where is special VFR allowed?
Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace, up to 10,000 MSL.
134
What are the requirements for special VFR?
- Clearance from appropriate ATC.
- 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds.
- If night, pilot and plane must be IFR.
135
If you're unable to contact ATC yourself to request special VFR clearance, what can you do?
Contact the nearest FSS, and ask them to relay the request.
136
What will a chart indicate if special VFR is not allowed at an airport?
"No SVFR".
137
What 3 documents do you need while operating as PIC or as a required crew member?
- Pilot certificate.
- Photo ID.
- Medical certificate.
138
What is an acceptable photo ID for identification purposes?
- Valid driver's license.
- Federal or State issued ID card.
- US Armed Forces ID.
- Passport.
- Airport access ID.
139
Who has the right to inspect your required flight documents?
- FAA administrator.
- NTSB.
- Federal, state, or local law enforcement officers.
- TSA.
140
How many classes of medical certificates are there?
-3 classes: first, second, and third.
141
What is the difference between third class, and first and second class of medical certificates?
First and second have higher standards, and are required for various commercial operations.
142
What's the minimum level of medical certificate required for private pilots?
Third class.
143
Which medical certificate is required to be captain of a commercial airliner?
First class.
144
When do third class medical certificates expire?
If you are less than 40 years old when it's issued, it expires 60 months from the end of the month in which it was issued. If you are 40 or older, 24 months.
145
What is meant by "category", "class", and "type" of aircraft?
"Category" is a subdivision of aircraft:
- Airplane
- Rotorcraft
- Gliders
- Lighter than air
"Class" is a subdivision of category. For example, the four classes under airplane:
- Single-engine land.
- Single-engine sea.
- Multi-engine land.
- Multi-engine sea.
"Type" is a subdivision of class. Type refers to the exact make and model.
146
What's a type rating? When is it required?
A type rating is a permission to fly a specific type of aircraft. If acting as PIC of an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds, or any turbo-jet powered aircraft, a type rating is required.
147
What are the main certification categories of aircraft?
ARENU
```
Acrobatic
Restricted
Experimental
Normal
Utility
```
148
What are the certification classes of aircraft?
```
Airplane
Helicopter
Glider
Hot air balloon
Powered lift
```
149
What is an airworthiness certificate?
It's like a birth certificate for an aircraft. It stays valid for as long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by regulations. It has no expiration date.
150
What is a registration certificate?
It shows the registered owner of the aircraft.
151
Where can you find the operating limitations?
- FAA approved flight manual.
- Approved manual material.
- Markings or placards on the instrument panel.
152
What does AROW stand for?
- Airworthiness certificate.
- Registration certificate.
- Operating limitations.
- Weight and balance information.
153
What is a "Restricted" category aircraft?
One that does some kind of work operation, like a crop duster or fire bomber. They are restricted to "where" they can fly. Normally, they cannot fly over a densely-populated area.
154
What's a main limitation for operation of experimental aircraft?
They cannot be operated along a congested airway unless specifically authorized.
155
For an aircraft with an experimental airworthiness certificate, or a special light-sport aircraft, where are the operating limitations found?
Attached to the airworthiness certificate, as a separate document.
156
What are the requirements for towing gliders?
- At least 100 logged hours of flight time in the same category, class, and type (if required) of aircraft that you will use to tow a glider.
- Within last 12 months, made 3 actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
157
What is a "high-performance" airplane?
One with more than 200 HP.
158
What is a "complex" airplane?
One with retractable landing gear, adjustable flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller.
159
What do you need to act as PIC of either a high-performance or complex airplane?
- Ground and flight training from an authorized instructor, in either the high-performance or complex airplane. This can be done in an approved flight simulator.
- Separate endorsement for high-performance or complex airplane.
- These are not required if you have logged PIC time in either the high-performance or complex airplane before August 4, 1997.
160
Which expenses can a private pilot share with passengers?
- Fuel.
- Oil.
- Airport costs.
- Rental fees.
The pilot cannot pay less than an equal share.
161
Under what circumstances can a private pilot carry passengers who are paying for the flight?
If it's a "charitable airlift". The passengers are making a donation to a charitable organization for the flight, and the pilot is not being paid for the flight.
162
What do you need as a pilot, to be legally current?
- A logbook endorsement indicating that you have satisfactorily completed a flight review or a pilot proficiency check within the preceding 24 calendar months.
- If you want to carry passengers, you need at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in the same category, class, and type (if required) in the preceding 90 days.
- To carry passengers in a tailwheel airplane, the 3 takeoffs and landings must be to a full stop.
163
What are the currency requirements for carrying passengers at night?
3 takeoffs and landings at night, to a full stop, within the preceding 90 days. This *also* counts for day currency.
164
For currency regulations, and for the purpose of carrying passengers, what is the definition of night? What is the *other* definition of night time?
For currency: 1 hour after sunset, to 1 hour before sunrise. Otherwise: the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
165
Who is the final authority as the operation of an aircraft?
The pilot in command.
166
As pilot in command, what can you do in an emergency?
You can deviate from the FAR's to handle the emergency. No written report is required unless requested.
167
What 4 preflight actions are required by regulations?
Familiarity with flight information, runway lengths, alternate airport, adequate fuel.
168
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that the aircraft is maintained in airworthy condition?
The owner/operator.
169
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in aircraft records (logbooks)?
The owner/operator.
170
How often do aircraft have to be inspected?
Every 12 calendar months. This is called the "annual inspection". It's good until the end of the 12th calendar month.
171
If an annual inspection was done on July 12th, when is the next annual inspection due?
July 31st of the following year.
172
What must the aircraft maintenance records show?
- Completion of the annual inspection.
- The date of the inspection.
- That the aircraft was returned to service by whoever it was that did the inspection.
173
What additional maintenance inspections are required?
100-hour inspections for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction, based on tach readings.
174
By how many hours can you exceed the 100-hour inspection limit?
By 10 hours, but only if it's necessary to reach a place where the inspection can be done. This extra time gets deducted from when the next 100-hour inspection is due. The inspections are still considered "due" at 100 hours from the last inspection, not 110.
175
What is an airworthiness directive?
Mandatory orders issued by the FAA to correct safety issues with aircraft. They must be recorded in the aircraft maintenance records (logbook).
176
Can a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive?
Yes, if it's specifically allowed by the airworthiness directive.
177
What needs to be done to an aircraft after an alteration that might substantially affect an aircraft's operation in flight?
It needs to be test-flown by an appropriately-rated pilot (at least a private pilot), and approved for return to service, before passengers are carried.
178
What's the FAA definition of preventive maintenance?
Simple or preservation operations, and the replacement of small standard parts that do not involve any complex assembly operations. Pilots can perform these on their own aircraft.
179
If you do preventive maintenance on an aircraft, what paperwork do you have to fill out?
In the aircraft maintenance records, you must enter:
- signature
- certificate number
- kind of certificate held by person approving the work
- description of the work
180
Where is an operable 4096-code transponder with encoding altimeter required?
- Class A airspace
- Class B airspace (and within 30 miles of primary Class B airport)
- Class C airspace
181
What are the inspection and testing requirements for transponders?
A transponder cannot be used unless it has been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months.
182
If a transponder inspection was performed on September 1st, 2006, when is the next inspection due?
September 30th, 2008.
183
Who has the right-of-way over all other traffic?
An aircraft in distress.
184
If two aircraft are approaching each other head on, how should they avoid each other?
Turn right ("give way" to the right). Aircraft category/class/type does not matter.
185
If two aircraft of the same category are converging (not head on), which one gives way?
The one on the left. So, the aircraft on the right has the right of way.
186
If two aircraft of different categories are converging, who has the right of way?
The least maneuverable category.
187
If an airplane and a helicopter are converging, who has the right of way?
The one on the right. Airplanes and helicopters are considered equally maneuverable.
188
What is the right of way of aircraft refueling or towing another aircraft?
They have the right of way over all other engine-driven aircraft.
189
If an aircraft is refueling another aircraft, and a glider is converging, who has the right of way?
The glider, because it's not engine-driven.
190
If a glider and an airship are converging, who has the right of way?
The glider, because an airship is engine-driven, and a glider is not.
191
What are the lighting requirements for aircraft operated at night?
They must display lighted position lights from sunset to sunrise, except in Alaska.
192
What are the colors of night lights on an aircraft?
Right wing is steady green, left wing is steady red, tail is steady white, top or bottom is flashing red light (anti-collision light).
193
From where are the wingtip lights on aircraft visible?
The front or the side. You can't see them from behind the aircraft.
194
If you see a flashing red light and a white light on an aircraft at night, how is it positioned?
It's flying away from you, because you can't see the wingtip lights.
195
If you see a steady red light, a steady green light, and a steady white light on an aircraft at night, how is it positioned?
It's coming right at you.
196
How is right of way handled when aircraft are approaching to land?
The aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way. However, you can't take advantage of this rule to overtake someone.
197
You are in a seaplane, and you have landed, and you and a motorboat are converging. Who has the right of way?
The vehicle on the right has the right of way.
198
When departing an uncontrolled airport, with what must you comply?
You must comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
199
What should you do prior to starting any maneuver?
Scan the area for collision avoidance.
200
What should you do when climbing or descending on an airway?
Execute gentle banks to the left or right, to scan for traffic.
201
Under what circumstances is formation flight allowed?
Under prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
202
What exactly does an ATC clearance provide?
An authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
203
What are two specific things that ATC clearances do NOT provide?
- Separation.
| - Priority over other traffic.
204
When given a clearance to taxi to a runway, what will you need to read back?
- The route, and the number of the assigned runway.
- If crossing another runway enroute, you must read back the instructions to cross or hold short, and *that* runway number.
205
When landing at a controlled airport, when do you contact ground control?
Only when the tower tells you to do so. Do not automatically contact ground control when you turn off the runway. The tower may need to get you across an active runway before handing you off to ground.
206
Under what circumstances can you deviate from a clearance?
- You get an amended clearance.
- You have an emergency.
- You're responding to a TCAS resolution advisory.
207
What is TCAS?
- Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System.
- Comes in two flavors: TCAS I and TCAS II.
- They give you traffic advisories when an aircraft is perceived as a traffic thread.
208
How is TCAS I different from TCAS II?
TCAS I gives you an audible traffic advisory, whereas TCAS II tells you whether to climb or descend, and how much (a resolution advisory).
209
What happens when two converging aircraft have TCAS II units?
The two separate units will coordinate the resolution maneuvers.
210
If you deviate from an ATC clearance because of a resolution advisory, what do you communicate to ATC?
Advise ATC of your deviation ASAP, and return to your assigned altitude after the traffic has passed.
211
If, during an emergency, you deviate from an ATC instruction, AND are given priority, what must you do?
You must file a detailed written report within 48 hours, to the chief of the ATC facility, IF THEY ASK FOR THE REPORT, even if no regulation has been violated.
212
If ATC gives you a clearance to a runway, can you cross an intersecting runway to get there?
No. You must receive specific instructions to cross or hold short of the intersecting runway.
213
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When departing from a runway intersection.
214
What procedures do you follow if you are landing at a controlled airport, and you either don't have a radio, or your radio is inoperable?
- Observe the traffic flow.
- Enter the pattern.
- Look for a light signal; a signal from the light gun in the control tower.
215
What does a flashing white light from a light gun mean, while you are on the ground?
Return to the starting point on the airport.
216
While on the ground and taxiing, what does a flashing green light from a light gun mean?
Cleared to taxi.
217
While in the air, approaching to land, you see a steady green light from the light gun. What does it mean?
Cleared to land.
218
While in the air, approaching to land, you see a steady red light from the light gun. What does it mean?
Give way to other aircraft, and continue circling. Do not land.
219
While in the air, approaching to land, you see a flashing red light from the light gun. What does it mean?
The airport is unsafe for landing. Abandon the approach.
220
While in the air, you see an alternating red and green light from the light gun. What does it mean?
Exercise extreme caution. Do what ever you were going to do, but very carefully.
221
While in the air, approaching to land, you see an alternating red and green light, followed by a flashing red light from the light gun. What does it mean?
- Exercise extreme caution.
| - The airport is unsafe for landing; abandon the approach.
222
Describe the procedures for flying at a specific altitude depending on heading.
While flying VFR in level flight, more than 3,000 feet AGL:
- Magnetic course of 0° through 179° (north or eastbound), fly an odd altitude plus 500 feet.
- Magnetic course of 180° through 359° (south or westbound), fly an even altitude plus 500 feet.
ONE: Odd North East.
223
How do you set your altimeter if you don't have a current local altimeter setting?
Enter the departing airport elevation on your altimeter, and use the resulting setting.
224
When flying at 18,000 MSL or above, what do you set your altimeter setting to?
29.92.
225
What is the maximum airspeed in Class B airspace, if you are within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport and within 2,500 feet AGL?
250 KIAS.
226
What is the maximum speed UNDER Class B airspace?
200 KIAS.
227
When flying in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace, what is the maximum airspeed?
200 KIAS.
228
When do flight crew members have to be at their station?
Takeoff, landing, and enroute, unless attending to their duties or physiological needs.
229
When do flight crew members have to have their seatbelts fastened?
Whenever they are at their station: takeoff, landing, and enroute.
230
When must flight crew members have their shoulder harnesses fastened?
During takeoff and landing.
231
Do flight crew members have to have their seat belts or shoulder harnesses on during taxiing?
No.
232
When must passengers wear both their seat belt and shoulder harness?
During taxi, takeoff, and landing.
233
When do passengers NOT have to wear seat belts or shoulder harnesses?
Enroute.
234
To whom do the seat belt and shoulder harness rules NOT apply?
Children under 2 years old, who are being held by an adult, and skydivers.
235
What must the PIC brief the passengers about?
- How to use the seat belts and shoulder harnesses.
| - The requirement to wear seat belts and shoulder harnesses during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
236
What are the rules concerning the usage of supplemental oxygen?
These only apply to unpressurized aircraft:
- Above 12,500 MSL, up to and including 14,000 MSL, for more than 30 minutes, the crew must use supplemental oxygen.
- At and below 12,500 MSL, the crew does not have to use oxygen at all.
- Above 14,000 MSL, the crew must use oxygen.
- Above 15,000 MSL, passengers have to be *provided* with supplemental oxygen; they don't have to use it.
237
Under what circumstances can you make an emergency landing?
Without undue hazards to persons or property.
238
What is the minimum altitude for flying over a non-congested area?
500 feet AGL.
239
What is the minimum altitude for flying over open water or a sparsely populated area?
500 feet away from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
240
What is the minimum altitude for flying over a congested area?
1,000 feet of clearance above the highest obstacle that is within a 2,000 foot radius of your aircraft.
241
On what frequency do older analog ELTs transmit, and who monitors them?
121.5 and 243.0. Monitored by ATC and other aircraft.
242
What sets off older analog ELTs?
G-forces.
243
What frequency do newer digital ELTs transmit, and who monitors them?
121.5 and 406. 406 is monitored by satellite.
244
What information do newer digital ELTs transmit, that older analog ones do not?
Information about the aircraft and its location.
245
When must ELT batteries be replaced or recharged?
When 50% of their useful life has expired, or the transmitter has been used for more than 1 cumulative hour.
246
What can you do to ensure that your ELT has not been accidentally activated?
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown. You'll hear a very distinctive alarm tone.
247
Who can test ELTs? How?
Digital 406 ELTs can only be tested by an approved technician. Analog ELTs can be tested by you, but only during the first five minutes after the hour (ELT signals during this time period will be assumed to be a test, and will be ignored). Just turn on the ELT, and listen for the tone on 121.5.
248
Where is acrobatic flight prohibited?
- Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, and E airspace designated for an airport.
- On Class E airspace designated as a federal airway.
- Below 1,500' AGL.
- With less than 3 miles visibility.
- Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
- Over an open air assembly of persons.
249
How are low-altitude acrobatic air shows legally done?
With waivers from the air show location and the air show performers.
250
What are the parachute requirements for acrobatic air shows?
- Each occupant of an aircraft must wear an approved parachute when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down at least 30°.
- If the type of parachute being used is a chair-type parachute, it has to be packed by a certified parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days.
251
For which incidents must you notify the NTSB immediately?
- Accident.
- Overdue aircraft believed to be involved in an accident.
- Inability of any required crewmember to perform normal duties due to an in-flight injury or illness.
- Flight control system malfunction or failure.
- In-flight fire.
- Separation or release of all or a portion of propeller blade in flight.
- Loss of information from more than 50% of glass cockpit displays.
- Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in escape of debris other than out the exhaust.
252
What are the reporting requirements for incidents and accidents?
You must submit a written report to the NTSB within 10 days of an accident, but you only need to submit a report of an incident if it's specifically requested.
253
If you crash a plane, can you move the wreckage before the NTSB takes custody of it?
Only to prevent the wreckage or the cargo from further damage.
254
What are the requirements surrounding alcohol consumption?
- Must be more than 8 hours after drinking.
| - Must be less than .04% blood alcohol content.
255
What is one drink of alcohol?
1 beer, 1 ounce of liquor, or 4 ounces of wine.
256
Can you carry a drunk or high passenger?
Yes, but only if they're a medical patient under proper care, or if it's an emergency.
257
In what circumstances must you report alcohol/drug legal situations, to whom, and when.
If convicted of driving a motor vehicle while intoxicated or under the influence of alcohol or drugs, or convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs, you must inform the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division, no later than 60 days after conviction.
258
What can happen if you are convicted of violating any laws relating to the manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs, or if you are convicted of operating an aircraft under the influence of alcohol or drugs?
Your certificates, ratings, or applications for same can be suspended, revoked, or denied.
259
If you move, and change your permanent mailing address, what are the FAA limitations?
You can exercise your pilot privileges for only 30 days after the move.
260
Can you legally drop objects from an aircraft?
Yes, but you must take precautions to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
261
What is the standard temperature at sea level? What is the standard air pressure at sea level?
15°C, or 59°F. 29.92 inches of mercury.
262
What is the starting point for every process of weather?
Heat exchange.
263
What causes variations in altimeter settings?
Uneven heating of the Earth's surface.
264
What causes the differences in direction between winds aloft and on the ground?
Friction between the wind and the surface.
265
What is the boundary between two different air masses called?
A front.
266
What always happens when you cross a front?
The wind direction shifts.
267
Is there a temperature difference across a front?
Yes.
268
How are clouds classified?
Into four families, by their height range.
269
What does the word "nimbus" indicate when naming a cloud?
It means that it's a rain cloud.
270
What is it called when water vapor goes to the liquid state? What about liquid water going to the vapor state?
Condensation.
| Evaporation.
271
What is it called when water goes directly from the vapor state to a frozen state? Or vice-versa?
Both are called sublimation.
272
How can moisture be added to unsaturated air?
Either by evaporation or by sublimation.
273
What is dew point?
The temperature down to which the air must be cooled in order to become saturated.
274
What is formed when water vapor condenses?
Clouds, fog, or dew.
275
Under what circumstances will you *not* get clouds, fog, or dew, when the relative humidity is 100%?
The water vapor sublimates, and skips the liquid state.
276
If the spread between the temperature and the dew point is small and decreasing, what is likely to develop?
Fog or low clouds.
277
If the surface temperature is 82°, and the dewpoint is 38°, at what altitude will the base of the cumulus clouds form?
10,000' AGL.
1. 82° - 38° = 44°
2. 44° / 4.4 = 10
3. 10 * 1,000 = 10,000
278
Temperature and dew point get closer together _____.
With altitude.
279
What exactly is dew point?
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
280
What is lapse rate?
The decrease of temperature with altitude.
281
How do you measure the stability of the atmosphere?
You measure the actual lapse rate against the standard lapse rate. If the temperature gets colder with altitude more quickly than standard, you have an unstable air condition. If it gets warmer, or gets colder more slowly, you have a stable atmosphere.
282
Does stable air resist or encourage rising.
Resists.
283
What kind of clouds, precipitation, turbulence, and visibility do you get in stable air?
Stratiform clouds, steady precipitation, smooth air, and poor surface visibility.
284
If the air is being warmed from below (like in a desert), what does it do to the weather?
It decreases the stability of an air mass, because it creates thermals.
285
What kind of weather do you get in unstable air?
Turbulence, but good surface visibility, because the rising air carries away pollution and haze in the lower atmosphere.
286
If you get clouds forming in a moist unstable air mass, what kind will they be?
Cumuliform clouds, and showery precipitation.
287
What happens when an unstable air mass is forced up some kind of slope?
It will want to keep on rising, and it will produce cumulus clouds with a lot of vertical development.
288
What do towering cumulus clouds indicate?
Convective turbulence.
289
What is convection?
Rising air.
290
What can rising cumulus clouds grow into?
Thunderstorm clouds.
291
What type of clouds are produced by moist, stable air flowing upslope?
Stratus clouds.
292
What is necessary for structural icing to form?
Visible moisture.
293
Under what conditions does freezing rain form?
Warm front with moisture in it, and rain falling down into a colder air mass.
294
What is the most dangerous condition for structural ice to form?
Freezing rain.
295
What do ice pellets at the surface indicate?
Freezing rain at a higher altitude.
296
How does frost form on an airplane?
From the temperature of the collecting surface being at or below the dewpoint, AND the dewpoint has to be below freezing.
297
When does a temperature inversion occur?
When the air above is warmer than the air below.
298
What kind of weather conditions do you get with a low-altitude temperature inversion?
- If you have high relative humidity, you'll get smooth air, poor visibility, and fog, haze, or low clouds.
- If windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 AGL is at least 25 knots, you can expect wind shear.
299
What is wind shear?
Rapid change in wind direction and/or velocity.
300
How is a ground or surface based temperature inversion most frequently formed?
By terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. The clouds won't trap the heat, and the heat radiates into space. This cools down the ground, which cools down the air next to the ground, resulting in radiation or ground fog forming.
301
When does radiation fog (ground fog) form?
In warm, moist air over low flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
302
When does advection fog form?
When moist air passes over a cool surface. It's common in the winter in coastal areas, where the ocean is warmer than the land. Air moving inland from the coast collects moisture, which is then cooled off by the cooler land.
303
When does upslope fog form?
When air is forced to rise up a mountain slope. When it cools off, the moisture condenses off and forms fog.
304
Which types of fog require a wind to form?
Advection fog and upslope fog.
305
What is steam fog?
Fog formed by cold air moving over an ocean. This can cause icing conditions, and low level turbulence.
306
Are temperature inversions generally found in stable or unstable air?
Stable.
307
What is another name for thunderstorm clouds?
Cumulonimbus clouds.
308
Which clouds have the greatest amount of turbulence?
Cumulonimbus clouds.
309
What is a hazardous atmospheric phenomenon that often accompanies thunderstorms?
Wind shear turbulence.
310
What condition defines a thunderstorm cloud?
Lightning.
311
What are the most dangerous types of thunderstorms?
Squall line thunderstorms. They are a non-frontal, fast-moving, narrow band of very active thunderstorms. They typically develop in front of a cold front.
312
What is needed for a cumulonimbus cloud to form?
- Lifting force.
- Unstable air.
- Moist air.
313
What are the three stages that a thunderstorm goes through?
1. Cumulus stage: continuous updrafts.
2. Mature stage: strong updrafts and strong downdrafts. Precipitation begins to fall. This is the most intense stage.
3. Dissipating stage: mostly downdrafts. Storm has run out of energy, and is dying out.
314
What are inflight aviation weather advisories?
A collective title for AIRMETs, SIGMETs, and convective SIGMETs.
315
What are AIRMETs?
Airmen's Meteorological Information. Advisories of weather conditions that are particularly hazardous to small single-engine aircraft. They are intended for all pilots. They warn you about freezing levels, and areas of moderate icing.
316
What are SIGMETs?
Significant Meteorological Information. Warnings of weather conditions hazardous to *all* aircraft. They warn you about areas of severe icing that is not associated with thunderstorms.
317
What are convective SIGMETs?
They contain warnings about things like tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail that is 3/4" or greater in diameter.
318
What two meteorological conditions will be found in the inflight aviation weather advisories?
Freezing levels and areas of probable icing.
319
What are embedded thunderstorms?
Thunderstorms that are obscured by massive cloud layers, and cannot be seen.
320
At which altitudes, and in which directions, can wind shear occur?
Any altitude, and in any direction.
321
Where is the most hazardous wind shear?
Low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, clear air turbulence, and in the vicinity of thunderstorm activity.
322
What is a standing lenticular cloud?
A lens-shaped cloud that typically forms over a mountain ridge. It indicates a standing wave. It's caused by stable air blowing across a mountain ridge. They can have winds of 50 knots or more, and lots of turbulence.
323
When are standing lenticular clouds most likely to form?
When you have strong winds of 40 knots or greater, blowing across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
324
What is the ceiling?
The height above the earth's surface of the lowest layer of clouds (or obscuring phenomena such as smoke or fog) that is either broken or overcast.
325
Does a scattered cloud layer count as a ceiling?
No.
326
Does a partial or thin obscuration or cloud count as a ceiling?
No.
327
What are the two kinds of surface observation weather reports?
METARs and SPECIs.
328
What is a SPECI?
A special aviation weather report.
329
What does the "K" in front of a 3-letter airport indicator indicate?
That it is a US airport.
330
What is the order of the weather information in a METAR?
- Wind
- Visibility
- Significant weather (precipitation or obstructions to visibility)
- Cloud cover
- Temperature/dewpoint in °C
- Altimeter setting (preceded by the letter "A")
- Remarks
331
How is the wind displayed in a METAR?
5 digits. First three digits are wind direction relative to true north. Last two are wind speed. After that is an optional wind gust indication.
332
What is needed for VFR weather conditions?
At least 3 statute miles visibility, and at least a 1,000 foot ceiling.
333
What does BR stand for in a METAR?
Mist (baby rain).
334
How do you determine the cloud height in a METAR?
Add two zeroes to the given number.
335
What does RMK RAB35 mean in a METAR?
Remark: rain began at 35 minutes past the hour.
336
What does TAF stand for?
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
337
How often are TAFs issued?
4 times a day.
338
How long are TAFs valid for?
24 hours. Some last for 30 hours (the ones serving long-range aircraft).
339
KBJC 191340Z 1914/2012 25008KT P6SM FEW090 SCT120 BKN200.
For airport KBJC. Issued on the 19th day of the month, at 1340Z. Good from 14Z on the 19th, to 12Z on the 20th. Wind from 250° @ 8 knots. Visibility is 6 statute miles. Few clouds at 9000, scattered at 12,000, broken at 20,000.
340
Describe the parts of a TAF.
Airport, time issued, time valid, wind, visibility, significant weather, cloud cover.
341
What is the only cloud type that is forecast in a TAF?
Cumulonimbus.
342
In this part of a TAF: P6SM, what does the P stand for?
Plus.
343
What does this mean in a TAF: FM191800?
From 1800Z on the 19th day of the month.
344
What does this mean in a TAF: PROB40 0205?
40% probability, from 0200Z to 0500Z.
345
What does this mean in a TAF: BECMG 0608?
Gradual change from 0600Z to 0800Z.
346
What does this mean in a TAF: TEMPO 1214?
Temporarily, from 1200Z to 1400Z.
347
What does FG mean in a TAF?
Fog.
348
In a winds and temperatures aloft forecast, how is the wind direction given? Windspeed? Temp?
Relative to true north, knots, celsius.
349
In a winds and temperatures aloft forecast, what does this mean: 2006+03?
Wind is from 200° relative to true north. Velocity is 06 knots. Temperature is plus 3°C.
350
When is the only time you get a magnetic wind report?
For takeoff and landing, from the tower or ATIS.
351
What does this mean in a winds and temperatures aloft forecast: 9900?
It means that the winds are light and variable, at less than 5 knots.
352
If your destination does not have a terminal forecast, what's your primary source of destination weather?
An Aviation Area Forecast.
353
What are the sections of an area forecast?
- Communications and product header: summary of fronts, pressure systems, and other circulation features.
- Precautionary statement:
- Synopsis.
- VFR clouds/WX: clouds and weather significant to VFR, that cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles.
354
What is found in the VFR clouds and weather section of an area forecast?
- Sky condition.
- Cloud heights.
- Visibility (6SM or less).
- Precipitation.
- Surface winds (sustained winds of 20 kts or greater).
355
What is the valid time in the VFR clouds and weather section of an area forecast?
- 12 hour specific forecast.
| - 6 hour categorical outlook (VFR, MVFR, IFR).
356
What does MVFR stand for?
Marginal VFR.
357
What does this mean, in an area forecast: CHIC FA 241945?
Chicago area forecast, issued on the 24th of the month, at 1945Z.
358
When is the valid time for this forecast?
CHIC FA 241945
SYNOPSIS AND VFR CLDS/WX
SYNOPSIS VALID UNTIL 251400
CLDS/WX VALID UNTIL 250800
It's valid until 0800Z on the 25th of the month. This refers to the clouds and weather forecast, not the synopsis.
359
In area forecasts, how are heights given?
In MSL, unless they specifically tell you otherwise (via "AGL" or "CIG" for ceiling). This is because the area forecasts cover such a large area, and the ground levels change.
360
On a weather depiction chart, how do you determine areas of VFR, MVFR, and IFR conditions?
- VFR: no contour lines around them. Ceiling > 3,000. Visibility > 5 miles.
- MVFR: contour lines, but no shading. Ceiling from 1,000, up to and including 3,000 feet. Visibility 3 miles, up to and including 5 miles.
- IFR: ceiling less than 1,000 feet, or visibility of less than 3 miles.
361
On a weather depiction chart, how do you determine sky conditions, ceiling altitude, and visibility?
- Circles used to indicate how much of the sky is covered by clouds in a specific area. A solid circle indicates overcast clouds.
- The height of the ceiling can be listed alongside the circle (add two zeroes to the listed number).
- Visibility is given to the left of the circle. If it's greater than 5 miles, it's not shown.
362
# Define the following symbols on a weather depiction chart:
- rain (light, moderate, heavy)
- snow (light, moderate, heavy)
- thunder (with rain, with snow, no precipitation)
- shower (rain, snow)
- drizzle
- freezing rain, freezing drizzle
- ice pellets, sleet
- fog (shallow, deep)
- haze
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Weather_symbolsNEW2.png
363
On a weather depiction chart, how is a cold front indicated? Warm front? Stationary front?
Cold: triangular symbols along a front line.
Warm: half circles along a front line.
Stationary: triangles on one side, half circles on the other.
364
On a weather depiction chart, how can you tell which direction a cold front is moving?
By the direction that the triangles are pointing.
365
What are low-level prognostic charts?
They show the weather forecast over the next two days.
366
What are the four panels on a low-level prognostic chart?
- The top two panels show significant weather prognostic charts; they show forecast areas of IFR and MVFR weather, plus turbulence, and freezing levels.
- The bottom two panels are the surface prognostic charts; they show forecast positions of pressure systems, the highs and lows, plus fronts and precipitation.
- The two left-hand charts are 12-hour forecasts, and the two right-hand charts are 24-hour forecasts.
367
What are the IFR and MVFR requirements for low-level prognostic charts?
Same as weather depiction charts.
368
How do low-level prognostic charts depict IFR and MVFR weather conditions?
- IFR is shown by a smooth line around it.
| - MVFR is shown by a scalloped line around it.
369
How do low-level prognostic charts show areas of moderate or greater turbulence?
A dashed line with long dashes.
370
How is the freezing level at the surface shown on a low-level prognostic chart?
A zigzag line.
371
How is the freezing level above MSL shown on a low-level prognostic chart?
A dashed line with short dashes.
372
On a surface prognostic charts, what does a shaded area mean?
An area of widespread precipitation.
373
On a low-level prognostic chart, what does one or two asterisks mean? Asterisks on top of each other? Asterisk with triangle under it?
- Snow, and continuous snow.
- Intermittent snow.
- Snow showers.
374
Fill in the states on a blank US map.
http: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Map_of_USA_without_state_names.svg
http: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Map_of_USA_with_state_names_2.svg
375
What does the little mountain peak symbol mean on a low-level prognostic chart?
Turbulence.
376
How is severe turbulence indicate on a low-level prognostic chart?
A little mountain peak symbol, with a cap on it.
377
What do the numbers under a turbulence symbol indicate on a low-level prognostic chart?
The first number is the top altitude of the turbulence. Add two zeroes to it. Then a slash, then the lower altitude. If no number follows the slash, then the turbulence goes down to the surface.
378
How do determine the freezing level on a low-level prognostic chart?
Add two zeroes to the number accompanying a line with short dashes.
379
Decode the following pilot report:
UA/OV KOKC-KTUL/TM 1800/FL120/TP BE90/SK BKN018-TOP055/OVC072-TOP089/CLR ABV/TA M7/WV 08021/TB LGT 055-072/IC LGT-MOD RIME 072-089
- Routine pilot report
- Over KOKC to KTUL airports
- 1800Z time
- Flight level 120 (12,000 feet)
- Aircraft type is King Air 90
- Sky conditions broken 1800 to top 5500, and overcast 7200 to top 8900, MSL
- Clear above 8900 MSL
- Minus 7°C
- Wind from 080° at 21 knots
- Light turbulence from 5500 to 7200 feet MSL.
- Light to moderate icing, of type rime, from 7200 to 8900 MSL.
380
Are PIREPs in AGL or MSL?
MSL.
381
What information is contained in radar reports and radar summary charts?
- Location of precipitation
- Type
- Intensity
- Cell movement
382
What does the radar summary chart show that other charts do not?
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
383
How do radar reports and summary charts determine the tops of weather? How are these tops displayed?
The radar bounces off the top of the precipitation, not the tops of the clouds. The tops are given in hundreds of feet (add two zeroes), MSL.
384
How are rain showers and continuous rain displayed on a radar chart?
```
R = continuous rain.
RW = rain showers.
```
385
How is cell movement shown on a radar summary chart?
An arrow shows the direction, and the number at the head of the arrow shows the velocity of the cell movement. Displayed in knots.
386
How are severe weather watch areas shown on a radar summary chart? What are they issued for?
Heavy dashed lines forming a rectangle.
Issued for either tornadoes or severe thunderstorms.
387
What is the identification box for a weather watch area, on a radar summary chart?
It shows details about the weather watch. It starts with a W, then has either a T for tornadoes, or an S for severe thunderstorms.
388
What information do you need to give an FSS weather briefer, to get a weather briefing?
- Say that you're a pilot.
- Aircraft ID or pilot's name.
- VFR only, or IFR?
- Route.
- Destination.
- Type of aircraft.
389
What are the three different types of briefings you can get from FSS?
- Standard briefing: complete briefing.
- Abbreviated briefing: used to supplement mass-disseminated data, or update a previous briefing.
- Outlook briefing: for if your flight is 6 or more hours in the future.
390
How do you get a weather briefing en-route?
Below FL180, from FSS, on 122.0.
391
What is EFAS?
Enroute Flight Advisory Service. Also called Flight Watch. It provides actual weather and thunderstorm information along route. 122.0.
392
What are Transcribed Weather Broadcasts?
Also known as a TWEB (pronounced "tweeb"). It's a continuous recording of a weather briefing and winds aloft for specific routes of flight. Available on VOR and NDB frequencies.
393
How do you know when a TWEB is available? How do you listen to it?
Look for a white "T" in a blue circle, on a chart, in an info box. Tune your VOR receiver to the frequency listed.
394
What's a HIWAS?
Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service. Transmitted over VOR or VORTAC. Continuous broadcast of hazardous or potentially hazardous weather.
395
How do you know where HIWAS's are available?
Look for a blue circle with a white "H" inside it, in the navigation identification box.
396
What is ATIS?
Automatic Terminal Information Service. A continuous recorded weather briefing from a tower, containing non-control information. Identified by a letter.
397
What does it mean when an ATIS does not include the ceiling, sky conditions, or visibility?
It means that the ceiling is at least 5,000', and visibility is at least 5 miles or more.
398
How do you address FSS? EFAS?
"Radio". "Flight Watch". Then, aircraft type, and tail number (without the "N").
399
How do you pronounce 10,500' MSL to FSS?
One zero thousand five hundred.
400
What does CTAF stand for? How is it shown on a chart?
Common Traffic Advisory Frequencies. White "C" inside a shaded circle.
401
When do you use CTAF when arriving at an airport?
- 10 miles out.
- On downwind leg.
- On base leg.
- On final.
- Clear of runway.
402
When do you use CTAF when departing an airport?
- Before taxiing.
- Before taxiing onto runway.
- Monitor until 10 miles out.
403
What is an airport advisory area? What should you do prior to entering one?
An area within 10 miles of an airport with a FSS on field but no control tower.
Before entering, contact FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
404
What does an asterisk in an airport information box on a chart indicate?
That there are some kind of limitation to the lights.
405
What does "L74" in an airport information box on a chart indicate?
The length of the longest hard surface runway is 7400 feet.
406
What does the number preceding a white C in a shaded circle indicate, on a chart?
The CTAF frequency.
407
What frequency is used to order fuel?
UNICOM.
408
Where is the CTAF frequency found on a chart?
It's the number preceding the white C in a shaded circle.
409
If an airport has both a daytime control tower and an FSS, what happens when the tower closes?
The FSS provides Airport Advisory Service.
410
What is a squawk code?
A four-digit code entered into your transponder.
411
What is squawk code 1200?
The code for VFR.
412
If you're flying below 18,000 feet, and you're not talking to a controller, what would you squawk?
Mode 3/A code 1200.
413
If a tower says: "squawk VFR", what do squawk?
1200.
414
What is the emergency squawk code?
7700.
415
What is the lost communications squawk?
7600.
416
What is the hijack squawk?
7500.
417
When ATC indicates air traffic on your "1 o'clock", what is that in reference to?
Ground track.
418
What is Terminal Radar Service?
Pronounced "TERSA". It provides radar and separation services around an airport area.
419
At a minimum, what can you expect to receive from Terminal Radar Service?
Basic radar service to VFR aircraft: safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
420
Is TRSA service mandatory?
No. It's voluntary.
421
What does TRSA generally provide?
- Basic radar service.
- Sequencing of all IFR and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport.
- Separation between all IFR and participating VFR aircraft in TRSA. This is only 500' of vertical separation, not the standard 1,000'.
422
If you're departing an airport, and you would like to have radar service, who would you request that service from?
Ground control, on initial contact.
423
What is the difference between Class C airspace and TRSA airspace?
Class C is mandatory, TRSA is not.
424
What does ADF stand for?
Automatic Direction Finder.
425
How is a non-directional beacon shown on a chart?
- If it's NOT located on an airport: a circle with a dot, with dots all around it. A nearby box shows the frequency and morse code identifier.
- If it IS located on an airport: the airport runway circle is surrounded by a bunch of dots. A nearby box shows the frequency and morse code identifier.
426
What is relative bearing?
The number of degrees you turn to the *right* to have the nose of the aircraft point to a station.
427
What is magnetic bearing?
The magnetic direction you would fly to the station.
428
How do you determine your magnetic bearing to a station?
Take the current magnetic heading of the aircraft, and add the relative bearing.
429
If your magnetic heading is 320°, and your relative bearing is 225°, what is your magnetic bearing?
185°.
(320+225) - 360 = 185.
430
If your magnetic heading is 180°, and your relative bearing is 45°, what is your magnetic bearing?
225°.
431
How do you determine magnetic heading from magnetic bearing and relative bearing?
Subtract relative bearing from magnetic bearing.
432
If the magnetic bearing is 30°, and the relative bearing is 270°, what is the magnetic heading?
120°.
(30+360) - 270 = 120.
433
How do you express a heading of true north?
360° (NOT 0°)
434
What does an ADF display?
Magnetic heading at the top of the dial, and magnetic bearing to the ADF station via the arrow.
435
What does VOR stand for?
VHF Omnidirectional Range
436
How do you use a VOR?
- Tune frequency on navigation receiver.
- Set radial on OBS.
- Observe TO-FROM indicator.
- Observe CDI needle.
437
Draw the VOR drawing.
Make this drawing.
438
To what do you always set the OBS?
The direction you are flying.
439
What is another name for OBS?
VOR receiver.
440
What does OBS stand for?
Omnidirectional Bearing Selector.
441
What does VOT stand for? What is it?
VHF Omni Test. A VOR tester, that radiates a 360° FROM radial, or a 180° TO signal.
442
How many GPS satellites does your aircraft receiver need to determine a 3-dimensional position and time solution?
4
443
How many satellites make up the GPS system?
24
444
What is the minimum number of GPS satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?
5
445
When filling out a flight plan, and entering your cruising altitude, do you enter the altitude assigned by FSS?
No, because FSS does not assign altitudes to VFR aircraft.
446
When filling out a flight plan, should you enter the initial altitude assigned by ATC?
No, because ATC generally does not assign altitudes to VFR aircraft.
447
If you are remaining on the ground for 30 minutes at a specific stop, do you put it as your destination in block 9 of the flight plan?
No. Only if you are there for at least an hour does it count as your destination. Then, you file separate flight plans.
448
When entering your destination in block 9 of the flight plan, what do you enter?
The 3-digit airport identifier code, AND the city name.
449
In block 12 of a flight plan, it asks for fuel on board. Exactly what do you enter here?
The USABLE fuel on board.
450
With whom do you close your flight plan?
The nearest FSS, or other FAA facility.
451
If there is glider activity or parachute jumping at an airport, where do you find out where and when it occurs?
In the airport facility directory.
452
What does the abbreviation "VHF/DF" mean in the AFD?
"Direction Finding", and "VHF" radio frequency. It means that the FSS there has equipment to help determine your position.
453
What kind of equipment is necessary to do a VHF/DF steer?
A VHF transmitter and receiver.
454
What radar services are available in Class C airspace?
- Sequencing.
- Traffic advisories.
- Conflict resolution.
- Safety alerts.
455
How is 12:30am expressed in Zulu time?
0030
456
At a towered airport, when the tower is closed, what is the normal CTAF?
The tower frequency.
457
In the AFD, if neither right nor left traffic is specified for a runway, what kind if traffic is it?
Left. "Standard" traffic is always left.
458
In the AFD, what immediately follows the airport name?
The 3- or 4-letter airport identifier in parentheses, and then where the airport is located relative to the town.
459
What is the NTAP?
The Notices to Airmen Publication. It's published every 28 days, and contains all current NOTAMs and FDC NOTAMs, that are expected to last at least 7 days.
460
What is an advisory circular?
A letter to airmen, with advice from the FAA.
461
How do you get advisory circulars?
Order the ones you want from the government printing office. Some are free, some are not free.
462
What is the numbering system that the FAA uses for advisory circulars?
They start with the following numbers:
Airmen - 60
Airspace - 70
Air Traffic, Control, and General Operations - 90
463
What are NOTAMs?
Notices to Airmen, for when something is abnormal at an airport or in the airspace system. There are two types:
- FDC (Flight Data Center): regulatory changes, or changes in instrument approach procedures or aeronautical charts.
- NOTAM-Ds: airports and airport facilities.
464
Which NOTAMs are included with a weather briefing?
NOTAMs that have a short effective period.
465
What are NOTAM-Ls?
Low-priority NOTAMs that no longer exist; they've been re-classified as NOTAM-Ds.
466
During the preflight inspection, who is responsible for determining if the aircraft is airworthy and safe for flight?
The pilot in command.
467
What are the mechanic's responsibilities surrounding airworthiness of an aircraft?
The mechanic is responsible for determining that an aircraft is airworthy at completion of work.
468
Who has the overall responsibility of maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
The owner/operator.
469
What should you do after the last flight of the day? Why?
Fill the fuel tanks. To prevent moisture condensation, by eliminating any airspaces.
470
How do you purge your fuel system of water?
Drain fuel from all the sources available, including the fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
471
What do you do if the recommended octane fuel for your airplane is not available?
Use the next highest octane aviation gas.
472
Which preflight inspection list is best?
The manufacturer's.
473
If you are hand-starting a propeller, who should be at the controls?
A competent pilot.
474
What's the first thing you should do after starting an aircraft engine?
Adjust to the correct RPM, and check for the desired readings on the engine gauges.
475
Why are there dual ignition systems?
Backup, and improved engine performance.
476
What is the auxiliary engine fuel pump primarily used for?
Backup, if the engine-driven pump fails. Also: as an aid in starting the aircraft. Also used sometimes for takeoff and landing.
477
If you have a complete electrical system failure, will your engine fail?
No. You have an engine-driven fuel pump, and an independent magneto system. You will lose your installed avionics equipment.
478
If you have an engine failure, what's the most important thing to do first?
Establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
479
If an emergency requires a downwind landing, what should you expect?
- Faster groundspeed.
- Longer ground roll.
- Higher likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
480
Why should you keep a consistent glide speed after an engine failure.
Because variations in glide speed make it hard to accurately judge gliding distance and landing spot.
481
If the ground wire between the magneto and the engine switch becomes disconnected, what will the most noticeable result be?
The engine cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
482
What is the advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
It permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
483
What does the governor for a constant-speed propeller do?
It opens and closes the angle of the propeller blades as it needs to, in order to keep the RPM constant.
484
What's the one thing you do not want to do when using a constant-speed propeller?
Run with high manifold pressures and low RPMs. This can overstress the engine with high cylinder pressures.
485
What is the basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude?
To decrease the fuel flow, in order to compensate for decreased air density.
486
During runup at a high elevation airport, you notice a slight engine roughness. It's not affected by the magneto check, but gets worse during the carburetor heat check. What should you do?
See what happens if you slightly lean the mixture. Testing the carburetor heat forced hotter, less dense air into the engine, richening the mix.
487
On descent, how should you adjust the mixture?
Enrich it.
488
What happens to air when it enters a carburetor?
It accelerates, expands, and drops in temperature as much as 50°F.
489
What conditions are favorable to carburetor icing?
20°F to 70°F, and high humidity.
490
Where will carburetor ice form?
Right around the venturi throat, and on the throttle valve?
491
What is the first indication of carburetor ice?
Loss of RPM in a fixed-pitch propeller aircraft.
492
How do you treat carburetor ice? What will happen as a result?
Apply carburetor heat. You'll notice an immediate decrease in RPM (from hotter heated air entering the carburetor), then a gradual increase in RPM as the ice melts away.
493
What does applying carburetor heat cause?
Decreased engine performance, and richer mixture.
494
Are float-type carburetor systems more or less susceptible to icing than fuel injection?
More.
495
What is the operating principle of float-type carburetors based on?
Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and air inlet.
496
What can excessively high engine temperatures cause?
- Loss of power.
- Excessive oil consumption.
- Possible permanent internal engine damage.
497
What can cause engine high temperatures?
- Using fuel with lower-than-specified octane rating.
- Operating with too much power.
- Operating with mixture set too lean.
498
What can cause an abnormally high engine oil temperature indication?
The engine oil level being too low.
499
What can you do to aid in cooling an overheating engine?
- Enrich the mixture.
- Reduce rate of climb.
- Increase airspeed.
500
When does detonation occur in a reciprocating engine?
When the unburned charge in the cylinder does not burn smoothly, and instead explodes.
501
What can cause detonation?
Using a grade of fuel lower than specified for the engine.
502
If you suspect detonation during climbout after takeoff, what should you do?
Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed. This cools off the engine.
503
What is pre-ignition?
It's when the fuel/air charge in the cylinder fires in advance of normal spark ignition (caused by hot spots in the cylinder).
504
What are the four fundamentals of maneuvering?
- Straight and level flight.
- Turns.
- Climbs.
- Descents.
505
Why do you want the longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of motion during a landing?
It minimizes side loads on the landing gear.
506
What is the best way to scan for other aircraft during daylight hours, to avoid a midair collision?
Use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector of the horizon.
507
How should you scan for traffic to the right and left, in straight and level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
508
How can you determine an aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
It provides no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
509
How does haze affect the appearance of traffic and terrain features?
It makes them appear farther away than they really are.
510
How should you scan for traffic at night?
Use your peripheral vision (off-center viewing), and scan small segments.
511
What should you avoid for at least 30 minutes before a flight, to help your vision?
Bright white lights, because it destroys the nighttime adaptation of your eyes.
512
When do most midair collision accidents occur?
On clear days. There are more aircraft, and pilots get complacent in good weather conditions.
513
When taking off from a runway intersection, what should you do?
Always state your position on the airport to the controller, regardless of the weather conditions.
514
What is hypoxia? When can you get it while flying?
A state of oxygen deficiency.
At high altitudes, because there is less pressure to force oxygen into your lungs.
515
What is hyperventilation?
When you're breathing too hard, from tension, anxiety, or fear. You don't have enough CO2 in the body.
516
How do you overcome or avoid hyperventilation?
Slow your breathing down, or breathe into a bag.
517
What do large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the body cause?
The loss of muscular power.
518
What causes carbon monoxide poisoning in an aircraft?
A leak in the cabin heater.
519
When does susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increase?
When altitude increases.
520
What is spatial disorientation?
A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by the various sensory organs.
521
What makes a pilot more susceptible to spatial disorientation?
Using the body signals to interpret flight attitude.
522
How do you overcome spatial disorientation?
Believing the flight instruments.
523
Where is spatial disorientation most likely?
In limited visibility.
524
What is VASI?
Visual Approach Slope Indicator. Red and white lights that show a visual glideslope for landing.
525
What is the VASI indication for correct glideslope?
Red over white (red over white, you're alright).
526
What is a tricolor VASI?
A VASI with one box, but three different lights: red, green, and amber. Amber = too high. Red = too low. Green = correct.
527
What is a PAPI?
Precision Approach Path Indicator. Four lights side-by-side. Two white and two red indicate the correct glideslope.
528
What is a PLASI?
Pulsating Approach Slope Indicator. A single light off to the side of a runway. Pulsating white light if you're too high, pulsating red light if you're too low. If you're right on glidepath, you'll see a steady white light.
529
How do you set high-intensity runway lights to medium intensity with your microphone?
Click the microphone seven times, then click it five times.
530
What are the blue lights on the ground for?
They're taxiway edge lights. Do not land between them.
531
What is the recommended method for entering the pattern at a non-controlled airport?
Enter the downwind, at the midpoint, on a 45° angle, at the traffic pattern altitude.
532
What does a taxiway direction or destination sign look like?
Yellow with black lettering and black arrow.
533
What does a location sign look like?
Black with yellow letters.
534
What does a mandatory instruction sign look like?
Red with white letters. Think "stop".
535
What does a no entry sign look like?
Red, with a white circle with a horizontal slash in its center.
536
Where would you most likely see a no entry sign?
Paved areas where aircraft entry is prohibited.
537
What does a runway boundary look like?
Yellow, with four black lines: two solid, and two dashed.
538
What exactly constitutes "clear of the runway"?
The tail of your aircraft is clear of the solid lines on a runway boundary.
539
What is an "enhanced taxiway centerline"?
A maximum of 150 feet before a hold line, some airports have parallel lines of yellow dashes on either side of the taxiway centerline.
540
Where are you most likely to find an enhanced taxiway centerline?
Larger commercial airports.
541
What is a taxiway ending marker?
A sign or surface marking with yellow diagonal lines on a black background, indicating that the taxiway does not continue.
542
What is a displaced threshold area? How is it indicated?
It's when you've got an obstruction or noise-sensitive area on the approach end of the runway. It's indicated by arrows before the threshold and threshold numbers. You can taxi there, and takeoff, but you can't land there.
543
What do Xs on a runway mean?
It's a closed runway. You can't land there.
544
What do yellow chevrons on a runway mean?
It's an emergency overrun area. You cannot do any normal operations there. It's only for an emergency. You can crash there.
545
What is a traffic pattern indicator?
An L-shaped marking, often around a segmented circle, indicating the direction of the traffic pattern for a runway.
546
What is a tetrahedron wind direction indicator?
A triangular shaped framework that always points *into* the wind.
547
When taxiing in a wind, what part of the plane do you want to expose to the wind?
The tops of the ailerons and elevator.
548
When taxiing in a strong quartering headwind, how should you position the controls?
Aileron up on wind side, elevator neutral for tricycle, up for tailwheel.
549
When taxiing in a strong quartering tailwind, how should you position the controls?
Aileron down on the wind side, elevator down for tricycle and tailwheel.
550
For a nosewheel high-wing airplane, what is the most critical taxiing wind?
Quartering tailwind.
551
What is LAHSO?
Land and Hold Short Operations. It's when a pilot lands and holds short of a taxiway or other designated point, to reduce ground delays for other aircraft.
552
Are LAHSO clearances mandatory?
No. The pilot in command can decline them.
553
Who cannot accept a LAHSO clearance?
Student pilots, recreational pilots, and unfamiliar pilots.
554
Where can the LAHSO data be found for a particular airport?
In the AFD.
555
What is the minimum weather requirement for ATC to offer a LAHSO clearance?
Basic VFR weather conditions. At least 1,000' ceiling, and 3 *statute* miles visibility.
556
What is a runway-to-runway hold position sign?
It's at an intersection of two runways. Red with white lettering.
557
What are the four fundamental categories of aviation risk?
PAVE:
Pilot
Aircraft
enVironment
External pressure (mission)
558
What is the common factor that affects most preventable aviation accidents?
Human error.
559
Whose responsibility is it to determine if the pilot is medically fit for a flight?
The pilot in command.
560
What are the three major methods for reducing the risk associated with a flight?
- Situational awareness
- Problem recognition
- Good judgement
561
What are the five hazardous aviation attitudes?
- Antiauthority
- Impulsivity
- Invulnerability
- Macho
- Resignation
562
What is scud running?
Trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low ceilings and visibilities.
563
What is the leading cause of accidents in general aviation flying?
Continuing VFR flight into instrument conditions.
564
What is a pilot's primary job?
Risk management.
565
On an E6B, what does the outer circle represent? The first inner circle? The innermost circle?
Distance, time, time. Miles, minutes, hours.
566
When using a flight computer, what always goes first?
How fast.
567
What are four common mistakes with plotters?
- Zero not at end.
- Sectional vs. WAC chart scale.
- Nautical vs. statute scale.
- Shrunk or warped plotter.
568
What's the standard center of gravity formula?
Center of gravity = total moment / total weight.
569
How do you solve CG for moment? Arm? Weight?
```
Moment = weight x arm.
Arm = moment / weight.
Weight = moment / arm.
```
570
What is course?
The path you fly over the ground.
571
What is true north?
Your course referenced to true north.
572
What is magnetic variation?
The difference between true and magnetic direction.
573
What is a magnetic course?
Your course referenced to magnetic north.
574
What is the heading?
The direction that the nose of the aircraft is pointed, relative to either true or magnetic direction.
575
What is the wind correction angle?
The difference between course and heading.
576
Is wind direction given in reference to true or magnetic direction?
True. Unless you're given a wind direction for landing, because the runways are in magnetic directions.
577
What is the magnetic heading?
The direction that the nose is pointed, referenced to magnetic north.
578
What is magnetic deviation?
An error in the magnetic compass, due to magnetic fields generated by the aircraft itself.
579
What is a compass correction card?
A card in the airplane that tells you the adjustments to make for magnetic deviation.
580
What is compass heading?
The number you want to actually see in the compass, in order to fly where you want to go.
581
What is the difference between magnetic heading and compass heading?
Magnetic deviation.
582
What is true airspeed?
The actual speed of the aircraft through the air.
583
What is groundspeed?
The speed of the aircraft over the ground.
584
Are VORs true or magnetic?
Magnetic.
585
For easterly magnetic variation, do you add or subtract?
Subtract. East is least.
586
How do you arrive at compass heading?
True Course +/- Wind Correction Angle = True Heading.
True Heading +/- Magnetic Variation = Magnetic Heading.
Magnetic Heading +/- Magnetic Deviation = Compass Heading.
587
Do you subtract a left or right wind correction angle?
Subtract left.
588
What does GT stand for?
Ground track.
589
What is another name for true course?
Ground track.
590
You have a true heading of 135°, and a ground track of 130°. You have a true airspeed of 135 knots, and a groundspeed of 140 knots. What is the wind?
First, find the wind correction angle. True course (ground track) +/- WCA = true heading. So, 130 +/- x = 135. It's plus 5°. So, your WCA is 5° right.
Your groundspeed is faster than your airspeed, so there must be a tailwind, of 5 knots.
Now, on the wind side of the flight computer:
- Set the true index, 130°, at the top of the dial.
- Place the center grommet over the groundspeed of 140 knots.
- Find the line that's 5° to the right. Mark that line AT THE 135 KNOT ARC.
- Rotate the disc so that the X is on the centered vertical line. This will give you wind direction (about 246°).
- Count up from the center grommet to the X. This will tell you wind velocity (13 knots).
Wind is from 246°, at 13 knots.
Confirm with test of reasonableness, by drawing it out.
591
Given the time enroute, distance, forecast wind, pressure altitude, temperature, and true course, find the indicated airspeed.
First, find the groundspeed required. Then, find the true airspeed required. Then, find the indicated airspeed required.
Use the E6B to find the groundspeed, using the distance and time enroute.
Set the wind side of the E6B to the forecast wind, and mark the wind speed up from that, on the center line. Rotate the disc to put the true course at the top. Then, put the groundspeed under the grommet. The X will be sitting on the TAS arc.
In the airspeed correction window of the front side of the E6B, find your air temperature. Then rotate the inner dial until the temperature is set opposite the pressure altitude. Read the true airspeed on the outer dial, and the calibrated airspeed on the inner dial.
592
What is pressure altitude?
The indicated altitude when an altimeter is set to 29.92.
593
When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude?
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
594
What is density altitude?
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
595
When are pressure altitude and density altitude equal to each other?
At standard temperature.
596
What happens to density altitude when you increase the ambient temperature?
It increases the density altitude.
597
If the outside air temperature is warmer than standard, what happens to the density altitude?
It's higher than the pressure altitude.
598
How does relative humidity affect density altitude?
High relative humidity increases density altitude.
599
What three weather factors decrease aircraft performance?
High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude. Triple H's: hot, high, and humid.
600
What effect does high density altitude have on propeller efficiency, and why?
Efficiency is reduced, because the propeller exerts less force.
601
How do you determine density altitude?
First, find the field elevation, and correct for nonstandard pressure. Then, with the pressure altitude, correct for nonstandard temp. That gives you the density altitude.
602
What is another name for density altitude?
Performance altitude.
603
What is standard outside air temperature at sea level?
15°C.
604
What does ISA stand for?
International standard atmosphere. It's the standard temp at various altitudes. Watch for it on takeoff and landing distance charts.
605
What does empty weight generally include?
Unusable fuel, and undrainable oil.
606
How much does aviation fuel weigh?
6 lbs per gallon.
607
What is the utility category?
An aircraft certification level that allows you to do things such as stalls, spins, and steep banks.
608
What do all of the light signals mean?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aviation_light_signals
