Private Pilot Final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Required documents

A

airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, operating limitations, and weight and balance information. A current airworthiness certificate is required (by FAR 91.203) to be displayed in an airplane where it can be read by everyone aboard.

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2
Q

Aircraft category

A

As used concerning the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a broad classification of aircraft
Examples include: airplane; rotorcraft; glider; and lighter-than-air

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3
Q

Aircraft category part II

A

As used concerning the certification of aircraft, it means a grouping of aircraft based upon intended use or operating limitations
Examples include: transport, normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, restricted, and provisional

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4
Q

Aircraft Classes

A

As used concerning the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics
Examples include: single engine; multiengine; land; water; gyroplane, helicopter, airship, and free balloon

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5
Q

Aircraft Classes Part II

A

As used concerning the certification of aircraft, it means a broad grouping of aircraft having similar characteristics of propulsion, flight, or landing
Examples include: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon, landplane, and seaplane

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6
Q

Daytime currency

A

3 takeoffs and landing in preceding 90 days

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7
Q

Nighttime currency

A

3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop in preceding 90 days

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8
Q

Complex aircraft

A

means an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller

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9
Q

High performance Aircraft

A

The definition of high performance is now “an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

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10
Q

Alcohol regulations

A

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft—

(1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;

(2) While under the influence of alcohol;

(3) While using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety; or

(4) While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen

5) Unless in emergency

6) BG requires 12 hours

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11
Q

Age requirement for Private Pilot

A

17

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12
Q

Collision avoidance

A

When head on both pilots turn right

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13
Q

Required equipment daytime

A

Compass
Anti-collision Lights
Airspeed indicator
Fuel quantity gauges
Floatation devices
Oil temperature gauges
Oil pressure gauges
Tachometer
Manifold Pressure gauges
Emergency Locator transmitter
Gear Position Indicator
Safety Belts

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14
Q

Required equipment Nighttime

A

Fuses
Landing lights
Anti-collision lights
Position lights
Source of Power

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15
Q

ELT

A

ELTs of various types were developed as a means of locating downed aircraft.
Tested 5 minutes after the hour
Frequency is 121.5/243MHz
Should be replace after 1 hour of use, or half battery life has been used, or used in an emergency situation

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16
Q

Porpoise

A

A landing where you are bouncing on the runway. If this happens execute a go around

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17
Q

Oxygen requirements

A

At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;

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18
Q

Transponder

A

A transponder is a simple means for an aircraft to communicate its position with air traffic control. ADS-B Out and transponders with altitude reporting mode turned ON (Mode C or S) substantially increase the capability of surveillance systems to see an aircraft

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18
Q

Oxygen Requirements Part II

A

At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes;
At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

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19
Q

Aerobatic flight

A

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight—

(a) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement;

(b) Over an open air assembly of persons;

(c) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport;

(d) Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway;

(e) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or

(f) When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

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20
Q

Annual

A

most thorough inspection. The plane could be down for a while. Done 12 calendar months due a year the day the end of the month. Must be performed by A&P w Inspector authorization. Found in engine, airframe, and propeller. VFR and IFR

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21
Q

VOR

A

Every 30 days, date, degree of bearing error, place you did it, and signature of pilots. Only required for IFR operations. Private Pilots or greater can do a VOR check. In Class B airspace it is required for VFR. Find in orange box

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22
Q

100 Hour

A

Maintenance time. starts when the wheels leave the ground. Only have to be done for operations for hire. Can exceed this to up to 10 hours flying to a place where an inspection can be done. The time exceeded will count towards the next 100 hour. Has to be done by A&P mechanic. Paired with annual

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23
Q

GPS

A

Required after every 56 days or 28 days if used for nav purposes. Can be done by anybody. Can’t be found in any sections of the binder

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24
Q

Altimeter/pitot static

A

due every 24 calendar months. Must be done by a certified avionics shop. IFR only. Find it in avionics section

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25
Q

Transponder

A

24 calendar months. Must be done by a certified avionics station. IFR only Found in avionics section

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26
Q

ELT(Emergency Locator Transmitter)

A

Every 12 calendar months. Battery must be replaced after an hour of use or half of usable battery life. Hour of use can come from testing. Test it five minutes after the hour. If in a legitimate emergency it has to be replaced. Must be done by an A&P mechanic. Airframe

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27
Q

Progressive inspection

A

Minimize downtime, used by flight schools. Divide it into four sections. Every 50 hours of maintenance use it goes down. 4 inspections of 50 hours (200 hours). Has to be done within 12 calendar months. Can’t overfly that. Once a maintenance plane hits 50 hours the aircraft has to go down for maintenance.

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28
Q

NTSB 830.5

A

Immediate notification. Must notify NTSB if any accident occurs. Flight control system of failure.
(a) Type, nationality, and registration marks of the aircraft; (b) Name of owner, and operator of the aircraft; (c) Name of the pilot-in-command; (d) Date and time of the accident; (e) Last point of departure and point of intended landing of the aircraft;

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29
Q

NTSB 830.10

A

NOTIFICATION AND REPORTING OF AIRCRAFT ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENTS AND OVERDUE AIRCRAFT, AND PRESERVATION OF AIRCRAFT WRECKAGE, MAIL, CARGO, AND RECORDS Subpart C - Preservation of Aircraft Wreckage, Mail, Cargo, and Records § 830.10 Preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records.

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30
Q

NTSB 830.15

A

Reports must be made 10 days after the accident. Crew member statements must be submitted if physically able.

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31
Q

Steady green

A

Ground: Cleared to takeoff
Air: Cleared to Land

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32
Q

Flashing Green

A

Ground: Cleared to Taxi
Air: Return to landing followed by a steady green

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33
Q

Steady Red

A

Ground: Stop
Air: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

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34
Q

Flashing white

A

Ground: Return to starting point on airport

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35
Q

Alternating red and green

A

Exercise extreme caution

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36
Q

Class A Part 1

A

IFR only, No speed limit, Two-way communication, 18,000-60,000 feet, Pilot Certification, Private pilot w/ instrument rating, IFR rate airplane, mode C transponder, IFR Plane, DME, ADS-B (Automatic Dependence surveillance Broadcast)

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37
Q

Class B Part I

A

3sm and clear of clouds, ATC Clearance, Private or student certificate location dependent, two-way Radio Communication, special VFR allowed, VFR Aircraft separation, Traffic advisories, Terminal control area (TCA)

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38
Q

Class B part II

A

Surround the nations busiest airports, Towered and controlled, tailored to each individual airport, vertical limits extends from surface to 10,000 MSL, Mode C veil You need transponder, VFR corridor pathway through the Class B airspace where an aircraft may operate without ATC clearance and communication speed restriction, pilot certification private pilot, you can if your a student with an endorsement to that specific airport, Equipment requirements two-way communication, mode C transponder, ADS-B out, 3 SM

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39
Q

Class C part I

A

3sm and 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 ft Horizontal, Prior two-way communications, Student certificate, Two-way Radio Communications, special VFR allowed, IFR Aircraft separation, Traffic advisories, Airport radar service area (ARSA)

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40
Q

Class C part II

A

Solid Magenta, towered and controlled, establish comm with ATC, They have to read your tail number, speed limit is 200 knots, dimensions inner ring 5nm radius outer ring 10 NM radius, Vertical limits 4,000 AGL above the airport field elevation inner surface- 4,000 AGL Outer Ring 1200 AGL- 4,000, Pilot certification, student pilot

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41
Q

Class D part I

A

3sm and 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 ft Horizontal, Prior two-way communications, Student certificate, Two way radio communication, special VFR, Runway operations, Traffic Advisories= workload permitting, Airport traffic area and control zone

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42
Q

Class D part II

A

speed limit 200 knots if your within 4 NM of the airport 2500, prior communication, can be full-time times will be published, if not full time at the time of non-control it will be Echo or Gulf. Dimensions lateral specific 4.4NM on all side, vertical surface up to 2500 AGL, Pilot certification student, Equipment two-way radio communication,

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43
Q

Class E part I

A

3sm and 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 ft Horizontal, No entry requirements, student certificate, radio communication not required, special VFR allowed, no VFR Aircraft separation, Traffic advisories= workload permitting, Former Airspace Equivalent= General controlled airspace

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44
Q

Class E part II

A

Controlled non-towered, starts at the ground if magenta dashed, magenta vignette starts at 700 AGL within the Vinnette accommodate Instrument approaches, speed limit 250 knots below 10,000 MSL, Pilot certification none needed, ADS-B out above 10,000 MSL,

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45
Q

Class E part III

A

(above 10,000)- 5 sm and 1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1 mile horizontal

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46
Q

Class G part I

A

ATC expected to abide by regulation, no ATC traffic updates, speed limit 250 knots below 10,000 MSL, Covers majority of U.S, Vertical limit below 1200 AGL up to 14,500, no certificate requires, comply with VFR and IFR regulations with equipment.

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47
Q

Class G part II

A

(Below 1200 AGL)- day 1sm and clear of clouds, Night 3sm and 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 ft Horizontal
(above 1200 below 10,000 MSL)- day 1 sm and 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 ft Horizontal. Night 3sm and 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 ft Horizontal
above 10,000- 5 sm and 1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1 mile horizontal

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48
Q

Fuel requirements

A

1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or

(2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

3) BG: and 1 hour for both night and day

49
Q

Primary flight controls

A

Ailerons, Elevator, and Rudder

50
Q

Secondary flight controls

A

flaps, Trim, Spoilers

51
Q

Airfoil

A

Shape of an object when moving a force. Helps to produce lift. A structure with curved surfaces designed to give the most favorable ratio of lift to drag in flight, used as the basic form of the wings, fins, and horizontal stabilizer of most aircraft.

52
Q

Lift

A

Upward force created by airflow as it passes over an airfoil. (Opposing force)

53
Q

Bernoulli principle

A

As the velocity of a fluid increases its pressure decreases. (Better performance closer to the ground)

54
Q

Newton’s third law

A

For every action there is an equal opposite reaction

55
Q

Pilot control of lift

A

Air density is constant, Only can control where we fly and not the density. Coefficient of lift and velocity are constant can be changed. Velocity can be changed as well

56
Q

AOA (Area of Attack)

A

Angle between the chord line and the relative wind (opposite direction of the flight path).
Note: Increasing AOA increases lift
Airplane stalls at the same AOA

57
Q

Stall strips

A

create a controlled stall across the wing, At the root and not the wing tip. (If there is not stall strip the airflow will stay attached longer.

58
Q

Low AOA

A

stagnation point is at the leading edge

59
Q

High AOA

A

stagnant point is under the wing, increases velocity and angle of attack. Causes the air flow to separate before the wing reaches the critical AOA

60
Q

Turbulent flow

A

separates from the wing sooner, along the area of the wing

61
Q

Laminar flow

A

stay close to the wings and adheres

62
Q

Critical AOA

A

Greatest amount of lift the plane can produce without stalling.

63
Q

Stall

A

There is not enough air flow to produce that AOA. Increasing AOA the air flow can go over the wing. No longer follows the curvature of the wing (Turbulent airflow)

64
Q

Boundary layer

A

sticks to the upper surface of the wing

65
Q

Lift note:

A

Faster we go the more lift that is produced. Double airspeed we are going to quadruple lift

66
Q

Weight

A

combined load of the plane. (opposes lift, always points down to the center of the earth due to gravity)

67
Q

Aerodynamic note

A

Straight and level flight Weight should be equal to lift (equilibrium)

68
Q

Thrust

A

forward acting force (opposes drag)

69
Q

Left turning tendency Part I: Torque

A

This clockwise movement generates an equal force in the opposite direction. This causes the aircraft to move left during flight. On the ground, the left-turning tendency generated by torque increases friction on the left side of the landing gear. It also causes the plane to yaw left.

70
Q

Left turning tendency Part 2: P Factor

A

Asymmetric propeller loading, downward moving blade generates more thrust and has higher AOA. Takes a bigger bite of air than the ascending blade. Occurs during high AOA. Shift thrust to the right causing a yaw to the left.

71
Q

Left turning tendency part 3: Gyroscopic procession

A

Feel force 90 degrees from where the force is happening

72
Q

Left turning tendency part 4: Spiraling slipstream

A

at high speeds of rotation that go all the way back to the left rudder causing the plane to yaw to the left

73
Q

Wing tip vortices

A

occurs whenever wings produce lift, strength of the force is determined by the shape of the wing. Greatest when plane is heavy, clean, and slow.

74
Q

Aspect ratio

A

ratio of the wing length to its chord. Wing tips have less area to cover, less downwash and less induced drag. More of AOA. Not enough maneuverability.

75
Q

Drag

A

Rearward acting force, disrupted airflow, drag goes back. Acts rearward

76
Q

Parasite Drag

A

created by an aircraft surface which interferes with the smooth airflow over the plane. Drag increases as airspeed increases.

77
Q

Form drag (parasite drag)

A

Results from a object general shape

78
Q

Interference drag (Parasite)

A

Generated by the mixing of different airflows. An airflow hitting different spots of the aircraft and mixing together. Very pronounced at sharp angles. At the sharp angles it breaks the laminar air flow.

79
Q

Skin friction drag (Parasite)

A

Generated by aircrafts rough surface creating drag

80
Q

Induced Drag

A

byproduct of lift, wingtip vortices. Occurs whenever lift is produced. Decreases when airspeed increases. Area low of low pressure above the wing. High pressure below the wing

81
Q

Downwash

A

Source of induced drag, vortices increase the drag due to the energy spent and producing the turbulence. Point relative downward. Lift is perpendicular to the wind

82
Q

Ground Effect

A

Area reduced, induced drag. Ground limiting the downwash and flattening it out. Pushes lift vector up causing us to float down the runway. Causes induced drag to reduce

83
Q

Axis of flight

A

Lateral, longitudinal, vertical

84
Q

Lateral

A
  • Wingtip to Wingtip. Controlled by pitching (elevator Stabilizer
85
Q

Longitudinal

A

Nose to tail. Roll (ailerons)

86
Q

Vertical

A

passes through the center of gravity. Yaw (Rudder)

87
Q

REAP

A

Rudder: Opposite
Elevator: forward
Ailerons: Neutral
Power: Idle

88
Q

Rods

A

Don’t detect color but detect movement. Detects movement in dim light. Take longer to adapt to darkness after being exposed to light

89
Q

Cones

A

responsible for color vision. Concentrated towards the center of vision. In the back of the retina

90
Q

Fovea

A

Small pit almost all of the light sensing cells are cones. Color sensitivity, detail all the highest.

91
Q

Photopic

A

Good for resolving fine detail. How you see color. Functions with good lighting High light levels. Uses central technique of viewing. Cones are the receptors. Blind spot is during the day

92
Q

Scotopic

A

Experienced under low light levels. Cones are ineffective. Scanning is a technique of viewing. Doesn’t detect color. Rods are receptors. Day and Night blind spot

93
Q

Mesopic

A

Rods and Cones. Experience during dawn, dusk, night. Visual acuity decreases as the light decreases because the cones are less effective during this period.

94
Q

Central blind Spot

A

This is an area where the optic nerve connects to the area in the back of the eye. Absence of rods and cones. Center of vision

95
Q

Night Blind Spot

A

Rods are 10,000 times more sensitive to light than cones. Since cones are the primary receptor for night. Can create a blindspot in the center vision.

96
Q

Empty field myopia

A

Flying above the clouds or haze. When eyes have nothing to lock on. Allows eyes to relax. Looking without seeing.

97
Q

Night vision illusion: Autokinesis

A

Happens when you stare at a single point for long. When a stationary object appears as if it is moving

98
Q

Night Vision Illusion: False Horizon

A

When the natural horizon can be obscured. Bright lights, stars, other aircrafts

99
Q

Size distance illusion

A

When lights increase and decrease intensity and illumination. May seem that another plane is flying head on or aways.

100
Q

Flicker Vertigo

A

Lights are flickering between 4 and 20 cycles per second.

101
Q

Night Landing

A

Lower-than-normal approaches are common. Can lose sight of you if you are too high or too low. PAPI can help get on the right glide slope

102
Q

Black Hole approach

A

When there isn’t enough light around something.

103
Q

Fin strobe

A

Tail and white

104
Q

Position lights (NAV lights)

A

have to be on sunset to sunrise( on right wingtip green)

105
Q

Landing lights

A

Pilots turn it on 10 miles before getting to the airport. Helps taxiing.

106
Q

Anti-collision lights (Strobe Lights)

A

Red left wing tip

107
Q

Civilian airport

A

White and green alternate

108
Q

Water airport

A

white and yellow alternate

109
Q

Heliports

A

green white and red

110
Q

Military

A

Green with two white flashes

111
Q

Logging night currency

A

(Logging night landing 1 hour after or before sunset) Logging night flight 30 minutes before and after sunset or sunrise

112
Q

REIL (Runway End Identifier Lights)

A

Runway End Identifier Lights are installed to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a runway

113
Q

Runway Edge Light Systems

A

Runway edge lights are used to outline runway edges during darkness or restricted visibility

114
Q

Taxiway centerline

A

(green)

115
Q

Edge lights

A

blue

116
Q

Runway lights

A

white until last 2,000 feet Amber

117
Q

Runway edge lights

A

white until last 2,000 feet or halfway down the runway Amber

118
Q

VASI

A

Two Bars (Red and White) red over white you’re alright, red on red you dead, white over white you’re out of sight

119
Q

PVASI

A

Pulsating red too low, Pulsating white too high, steady white you’re alright

120
Q

PAPI

A

Two or four lights in a row, Four white your too high, 3 white 1 red a bit high, Two and Two proper glide path, 1 white 3 red your a bite low, 4 red your very low (level off and and ride glide path)

121
Q

Inadvertent flight into IMC

A

Situation where pilots lose visual contact with the ground due to deteriorating meteorological conditions.