princlpls Flashcards

1
Q
  • Which Ig is found in mucosa/Provides localized protection on mucous membranes
A

– IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  • Which Ig is found in breast milk
A

IgA, particularly protective against polio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • Which Ig is associated with hypersensitivity
A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • What receptors does IgE bind to to bring about a response
A

Fc receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • What is the most common type of Ig/antibody –
A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • What is the first antibody/Ig to appear in response to an antigen/infection
A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • What produces endotoxin
A

gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • What antibiotic is used for gram positive cover
A

vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  • What are the mycin antibiotics used for (clarithromycin etc)
A

streptococcal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

o Inheritance pattern of CF

A

autosomal recessive – 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Schwann cells

A

Produce myelin in the PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

Produce myelin in the CNS

Affected in multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • Stains blue/purple
A

Gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  • stains pink/red
A

Gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

change from one mature cell type to another mature cell type – high risk of cancerous growth

A
  • metaplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

new growth which is not in response to stimulus – can be benign, premalignant or malignant – malignant if it goes beyond the basement membrane

A

neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

disordered growth without stimulus – rarely invaded the basement membrane however  often graded, higher the grade, the lower the prognosis

A

dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

organised cell death

A

apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Most common type of white blood cell
Multi-lobed nucleus

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Releases histamine during allergic response
Granules contain histamine and heparin
Expresses IgE receptors on the cell surface
Bi-lobed nucleus

A

basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils but derived from different cell lines
Releases histamine during allergic response
Granules contain histamine and heparin
Expresses IgE receptors on the cell surface

A

mast cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections

Bi-lobed nucleus

A

Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Differentiates into macrophages

Kidney shaped nucleus

A

monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Major source of IL-1

A

macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells

A

natural killer cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Acts as an antigen presenting cell

A

dendritic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Expresses CD3, CD4, TCR & CD28
Major source of IL-2
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection

A

Helper T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Expresses CD8
Also expresses CD3, TCR
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection

A

cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Major cell of the humoral immune response
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Mediates hyperacute organ rejection

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Differentiated from B cells

Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen

A

plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Main source: Th2 cells
Inhibits Th1 cytokine production
Also known as human cytokine synthesis inhibitory factor and is an
‘anti-inflammatory’ cytokine

A

IL-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

main source: Th1 cells

Stimulates growth and differentiation of T cell response

A

IL-2

33
Q

Neisseria meningitidis + Neisseria gonorrhoeae, also Moraxella catarrhalis

A

Gram-negative cocci

34
Q

staphylococci + streptococci (including enterococci)

A

gram-positive cocci

35
Q
all bacteria - mnemonic = ABCD L
Actinomyces
Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
Clostridium
Diphtheria: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Listeria monocytogenes
A

Gram positive rods (bacilli)

36
Q
Escherichia coli
Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Salmonella sp.
Shigella sp.
Campylobacter jejuni
A

gram-negative rods

37
Q

Incubation period

1-6 hrs:

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*

38
Q

incubation period 12-48 hrs:

A

Salmonella, Escherichia coli

39
Q

incubation period 48-72 hrs:

A

Shigella, Campylobacter

40
Q

> 7 days:

A

Giardiasis, Amoebiasis

41
Q

Inhibits RNA synthesis

A

rifampicin

42
Q

Inhibits folic acid formation

A

sulphonamides

trimethoprim

43
Q

Damages DNA

A

metronidazole

44
Q

Inhibits DNA synthesis

A

quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin)

45
Q

50S subunit: macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins
30S subunit: aminoglycosides, tetracyclines

A

Inhibits protein synthesis (by acting on the ribosome)

46
Q

peptidoglycan cross-linking: penicillins, cephalosporins, carbopenems
peptidoglycan synthesis: glycopeptides (e.g. vancomycin)

A

Inhibits cell wall formation

47
Q

p53

A

Common to many cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome

48
Q

APC

A

colorectal cancer

49
Q

BRCA1/BRCA2

A

Breast and ovarian cancer

50
Q

NF1

A

Neurofibromatosis

51
Q

Modifies, sorts, and packages these molecules that are destined for cell secretion
The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome

A

Golgi apparatus

52
Q

Aerobic respiration. Contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA

A

mitochondrion

53
Q

DNA maintenance
RNA transcription
RNA splicing
the process that removes the intervening, non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons)

A

nucleus

54
Q

Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides

A

Lysosome

55
Q

Ribosome production

A

nucleolus

56
Q

Translation of RNA into proteins/protein synthesis

A

ribosome

57
Q

translation and folding of new proteins
manufacture of lysosomal enzymes
site of N-linked glycosylation
examples of cells with extensive RER include pancreatic cells, goblet cells, plasma cells

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

58
Q

steroid, lipid synthesis

examples of cells with extensive SER include those of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, testes, ovaries

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

59
Q

synthesis of steroid hormones

A

Smooth ER

60
Q

synthesises polypeptides

A

Rough ER

61
Q

powerhouse of cell can multiply independently

A

Mitochondria

62
Q

receives materials from ER and distributes, can also modify proteins.

A

Golgi Apparatus

63
Q

where RNA is translated into protein

A

Ribosomes

64
Q

microscopic single cell organism that does not have a defined nucleus

A

Prokaryote

65
Q

just a normal cell with nucleus

A

Eukaryote

66
Q

= maximal rate of reaction at unlimited substrate concentration

A

Vmax - o Vmax is the intersection of the straight line with the Y axis

67
Q

possess a co-factor, which is an associated substance essential for that enzyme’s function

A

holoenzyme

68
Q

has no cofactor

A

apoenzyme

69
Q

they catalyse the same reaction but have different structures and chemical properties

A

isozyme

70
Q

an inert substance which can be chemically converted into an enzyme.

A

zymogen

71
Q

glucose → pyruvate
free energy released forms ATP
anaerobic process
the rate-determining enzyme is phosphofructosekinase-1

A

Glycolysis

72
Q

non-carbohydrate substrates (e.g. pyruvate, lactate) → glucose.

occurs mainly in the liver. Other sites are the kidney and intestinal epithelium

the rate-determining enzyme is fructose-1,6-biphosphatase

A

Gluconeogenesis

73
Q

‘non-reversible’ enzymes that are key to gluconeogenesis

action: Pyruvate → oxaloacetate

Location: Mitochondria

notes:
Activator: acetyl-CoA
Inhibitor: ADP

A

Pyruvate carboxylase

74
Q

‘non-reversible’ enzymes that are key to gluconeogenesis

action: Oxaloacetate → phosphoenolpyruvate
location: Cytosol

A

PEP carboyxlase

75
Q

‘non-reversible’ enzymes that are key to gluconeogenesis

action: Fructose-1,6-biphosphate → fructose-6-phosphate

Location: Cytosol

A

Fructose-1,6-biphosphatase

76
Q

‘non-reversible’ enzymes that are key to gluconeogenesis

action: Glucose-6-phosphate → glucose

Location: Endoplasmic reticulum

Notes: Deficient in von Gierke’s disease
Not present in muscle (why muscles cannot generate glucose)

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase

77
Q

Key points
glycogen → glucose-1-phosphate / glucose

the key enzyme is glycogen phosphorylase. Following the action of glycogen phosphorylase α-1,6-glucosidase removes the final glucose residue of the branch as a molecule of glucose

A

Glycogenolysis

78
Q

glucose →> glycogen

A

glycogenesis

79
Q

what subtypes of human papilloma virus are particularly carinogenic>

A

Subtypes 16,18 & 33