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Revision > Principles Revision Night 1 > Flashcards

Principles Revision Night 1 Flashcards

Biochem, immunology, Microbiology, Genetics

1
Q

what is a Condensation reaction?

A

water is removed

polymerisation in order to from a bigger product

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2
Q

what are the differences in terms of energy release of monosaccharides and polysaccharides?

A

monosaccharides are short term

polysaccharides are long term

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3
Q

what direction do polypeptides run in?

A

from Amino group to Carboxyl group

from N terminus to C terminus

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4
Q

what enzyme catalyses the formation of Peptide bonds?

A

peptidyl transferase

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5
Q

what are zwitterions?

A

molecules with 2 titratable groups that have a combined neutral charge

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6
Q

what are the 3 types of type 2 protein formation?

A

alpha helix
beta pleated sheets
triple helix

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7
Q

what is an example of a triple helix protein structure?

A

collagen

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8
Q

give an example of tertiary protein structure?

A

myoglobin

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9
Q

give an example of quaternary protein structure?

A

haemoglobin

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10
Q

what is the DNA backbone composed of?

A

phosphodiester bonds between 5’ triophosphate group and the 3’ Hydroxyl group

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11
Q

what enzyme is responsible for RNA synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase

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12
Q

what does RNA polymerase bind to initiating RNA synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase binds to a promoter (on nucleotide 0)

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13
Q

where is the TATA box located ?

A

the 25th nucleotide before the promoter

-25

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14
Q

what enzyme binds amino acids to the tRNA?

A

aminoacyl- tRNA synthetase

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15
Q

what is an Apoenzyme?

A

an enzyme without a cofactor

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16
Q

what is a Holoenzyme?

A

an enzyme with a cofactor

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17
Q

does M-M kinetics work for allosteric enzymes?

A

NO, the reaction route follows a sigmoid

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18
Q

what is the lineweaver burk plot?

A

M-M kinetics turned into y=mx+c
Y intersection= Vmax
X intersection= Km

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19
Q

what are the irreversible steps in Glycolysis?

A

1st, 3rd and final steps

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20
Q

what enzymes in glycolysis are irreversible?

A

Hexokinase, PFK, Pyruvate kinase

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21
Q

what enzyme involved in the TCA cycle is not present in the mitochondrial matrix?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase located in the Cristae

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22
Q

what is to overall production of ATP per Glucose molecule?

A

30-32 ATP

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23
Q

what do the electrons running down the respiratory protein chains do?

A

they provide energy to pump the H+ against its concentration gradient into the intermembrane space

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24
Q

what causes ATP synthase to produce lots of ATP in Electron Transport chain?

A

the passive flow of Hydrogen ions back into the matrix

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25
Q

where are PRR located?

A

on the surface of macrophages

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26
Q

what causes skin to be natural defensive?

A

it is tighly packed keratinised cells that are constantly renewed (limits colonisation)
low pH 5.5
low oxygen
sebaceous glands which secrete lysozymes

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27
Q

what causes mucous to be a natural defence?

A

contains enzymes like lysozymes and contains IgA

present at endothelial surface which come into contact with outer atmosphere

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28
Q

what are PAMPs?

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns

like antigens but worse

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29
Q

what shape is the Macrophage nucleus’ shape?

A

Kidney bean

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30
Q

what are the macrophages of the liver?

A

Kupffer cells in the sinusoids of hepatocytes

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31
Q

how do NK cells kill?

A

degranulation, release perforins which perforate cells

thus it is a granular cell

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32
Q

how do neutrophils get from the blood to the site of infection/ inflammation?

A

transendothelial migration
they adhere to selectins (low affinity bond), and then ICAM 1 which then allows them to roll along the endothelium, then as the blood vessels dilate they open small gaps these neutrophils can crawl through

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33
Q

what do neutrophils look like?

A

multi lobed nucleus

purple granules

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34
Q

what things do neutrophils?

A

degranulation releasing heparin and histamine
Phagocytosis
NETs (stopping the spread and faciliating phagocytosis)

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35
Q

what do eosinophils look like?

A

bi-lobed nucleus

red granules

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36
Q

what do basophils look like?

A

blue granules

bi-lobed nucleus

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37
Q

what do eosinophils mainly do?

A

allergic responses

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38
Q

what do Dendtritic cells do?

A

phagocytosis and present antigens on their surface

MHC II for CD4 helper T cells

39
Q

what are the main purposes of the complement system?

A

opsoninsation, chemotaxis and MAC (membrane attack complex)

40
Q

what is opsonisation?

A

the process whereby a pathogen is coated with soluble factors (opsin) to enable easier phagocytosis

41
Q

name examples of Opsins?

A

C3b, IgG, CRP, IgM

42
Q

what are the 3 pathways of Complement system activation?

A

classical pathway, alternative pathway and MBL

43
Q

what is the classical pathway?

A

antigen-antibody complex activates C1, then C4 then C2 and finally C3 which then becomes

44
Q

what is the complement pathway?

A

C1, C4, C2, C3 then becomes C3b which then activates C5 Convertase, converting C5 to C5b , which then goes down all Cs till C9 which activates MAC

45
Q

what are the main signs of Acute Inflammation?

A

Pain, Redness, Swelling, Loss of Function, Heat

46
Q

difference to Innate Response and Adaptive Response?

A

innate is very quick but no specific

adaptive is slow but very specific

47
Q

where do B cells and T cells mature?

A

B cells= Bone Marrow

T cells= Thymus

48
Q

what immunity do B cells provide?

A

Humoral Immunity eg body fluids

49
Q

what immunity do T cells provide?

A

cellular immunity

50
Q

what type of receptors do Antibodies bind to?

A

Fc receptors eg IgE binds to FcE on mast cells

51
Q

facts about IgG?

A

provides foetal immunity (small enough to pass through placenta)
in the body in the GREATEST amount

52
Q

facts about IgM?

A

pentameric structure
first antibody produced in acute infections
short lived

53
Q

facts about IgA?

A 
present in breast milk, present in mucosal immunity
Neonatal immunity (newborn)
54
Q

facts about IgE?

A

allergy

55
Q

what are the 3 broad types of T cells?

A

cytotoxic (killer)
Helper
Memory

56
Q

what is MHC I?

A

a protein displayed on all nucleated cells to CD8 killer T cells

57
Q

what interleukin do Th 1 cells release?

A

IL-2 which is important in T cell differentiation

58
Q

what are the different types of Hypersensitivity?

A

type 1- quick, allergy, antibody, IgE
type 2- antibody, IgM, IgG (eg goodpastures syndrome)
type 3- immune complex, IgG, Neutrophils (eg acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis)
type 4- Delayed, T cells (eg sarcoidosis and TB)

59
Q

what is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

22q11

low or absent T cells

60
Q

what is Kostmanns syndome?

A

Neutropenia (no neutrophils)

61
Q

what is X- linked agammaglobulinaemia?

A

no B cells (no immunoglobulins)

62
Q

what is SCID?

A

combination of problems with T cells and B cells

presents after 3 months

63
Q

what is Pavementing?

A

When the white blood cells attach to the endothelial lining (selectins and ICAM-1)

64
Q

what process do bacteria replicate by?

A

Binary fission (splitting into 2/ dividing into 2)

65
Q

what are endotoxins?

A

they are toxins on the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria

66
Q

what is the use of a coagulase test?

A

a test to differentiate between staph aureus and other staphylococcus

67
Q

what is a Haemolysis test?

A

differentiates between different types of streptococcus

68
Q

what is alpha hemolysis?

A

partial hemolysis looks green

eg strep viridans

69
Q

what is beta hemolysis?

A

full hemolysis
looks yellow
eg strep pyrogenes

70
Q

what is gamma hemolysis?

A 
no hemolysis (no colour)
eg Enterococcus
71
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat Coliform infections?

A

Gentamicin

72
Q

what is an example of a Coliform infection?

A

E.coli

73
Q

what are the 3 methods of action by antibiotics?

A

work on bacterial cell wall (inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis)
inhibit protein synthesis
works on DNA (can inhibit DNA replication)

74
Q

what type of antibiotics work on the cell wall?

A

Penicillins (flucloxacillin), Cephlasporins (ceftriaxone), Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)

75
Q

what type of antibiotics work on Protein Synthesis?

A

Macrolides (erythmycin), Aminoglycosides (gentamicin) and Tetracyclines (doxycyclin)

76
Q

what antibiotics work on DNA?

A

Metronidazole (strand breakage)

Fluroquinolones

77
Q

what are the 4 Cs of C diff?

A

co-amoxiclav, cephlasporins, ciprofloxacin, clindamycin

78
Q

what are the 3 main methods of DNA mutation in bacteria?

A

Transformation, Conjugation, Transduction

79
Q

what is Transformation in bacteria?

A

when a bacteria incorptares dead bacteria DNA into its own

80
Q

what is Conjugation?

A

when 2 bacteria form a sex pilus allowing mutual exchange of DNA

81
Q

what is Transduction?

A

when a virus spreads bacterial DNA to other bacteria

82
Q

what are the 2 things in Meiosis which increase genetic variation?

A

Independent assortment and Crossing over

83
Q

is it more likely to 2 genes close to each other cross over or 2 geneses further away cross over?

A

the genes that are further away from each other are more likely to cross over

84
Q

are SNPs bigger than CNVs?

A

no CNVs are multiple polymorphisms

85
Q

what does SNP stand for?

A

single nucleotide polymorphism

86
Q

what is a somatic mutation?

A

mutation that is post zygotic (not due to meiosis )

87
Q

what is Mosaicism?

A

when a person has different genetically madeup cells in the body (everyone is a somatic mosaic)

88
Q

what is an acrocentric chromosome?

A

a chromosome without a p arm (short arm)

89
Q

what is a Robertsonian translocation?

A

when 2 acrocentric chromosomes join together end to end

90
Q

what causes Turners syndrome?

A

when women only have 1 X

91
Q

what is Edwards syndrome?

A

when person has an extra Ch 18

92
Q

when is array CGH useful?

A

when looking at chromosome numbers eg Trisomy 21

93
Q

when is FISH useful?

A

when looking for something extra or removed on a chromosome

Revision (3 decks)

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