Principle Revision Night 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what does VINDICATE stand for? and whats it used for?

A
Vascular
Infection/ Inflamation
Neoplasia
Drugs/ Toxins
Iatrogenic
Congenital
Autoimmune
Trauma
Endocrine
used for different mechanisms of Disease
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2
Q

what are the 4 main outcomes of acute inflammation?

A

Resolution
Supparation
Organisation
Chronic Inflammation

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3
Q

what is Resolution?

A

when the body fully recovers, occurs when there area of damage has good regenerative ability and good blood supply

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4
Q

what is Supparation?

A

formation of Pus (collection of inflammatory cells)

necrotic cells

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5
Q

what is Organisation?

A

occurs when area has poor blood supply and lack of regenerative ability, there is extensive cell death and necrosis, SCARRING

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6
Q

what causes Chronic Inflammation?

A

when virus or immune system cannot identify infective organism
can be autoimmune
produces Granulomas
example is TB

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7
Q

what are Granulomas?

A

they are areas of many living inflammatory cells with lots of fibrin in them
due to chronic inflammation

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8
Q

what is the difference between Necrosis and Apoptosis?

A

Necrosis is always pathological and requires no energy

Apoptosis can be physiological and pathological and requires energy

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9
Q

what are the 3 types of Necrosis?

A

Coagulative (preserved cell outline but filled with fibrosis)
Liquefactive (no structure remains occurs in brain)
Caseous (necrosis surrounded by granulomas typically seen in TB)

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10
Q

what are the extrinsic receptors on cells that cause Apoptosis?

A

FAS receptors and TNFR1 receptors

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11
Q

what is the intrinsic mechanism for Apoptosis?

A

loss of growth signals

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12
Q

what is the main thing to define a tumour as malignant?

A

if it spreads past the cells basement membrane

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13
Q

what is the main relevance to the term Carcinoma In Situ?

A

it is the LAST stage before Malignancy

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14
Q

what is the generic term for Neoplasia?

A

New growth (can be benign or malignant)

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15
Q

when looking down a microscope what things help identify malignancy?

A

mass is asymmetrical, has irregular edges, poorly defined, poorly differentiated, hyperchromasia (stains darker purple- due to being more acidic due to DNA), high nucleus cytoplasmic ratio, can see mitotic figures

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16
Q

what is a benign squamous tumour?

A

Papilloma

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17
Q

what is a malignant squamous cell tumour?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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18
Q

what is a benign glandular cell tumour?

A

Adenoma

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19
Q

what is a malignant glandular cell tumour?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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20
Q

what is a Mesenchymal/ Connective tissue benign growth called?

A

————oma

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21
Q

what is a Mesenchymal/ Connective tissue malignant growth called?

A

———————sarcoma

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22
Q

what does a low grade tumour mean?

A

it is well differentiated

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23
Q

what does a high grade tumour mean?

A

it is poorly differentiated and thus more malignant

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24
Q

what are the Hallmarks of Cancer?

A

sustaining growth signalling, evading growth suppression, avoiding immune detection, replicative immoratality, inducing angiogenesis, resisting cell death, genomic instability, activated invasion and metastasis

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25
Q

what is Virchows Triad?

A
hypercoaguability (eg contraceptive pill)
Immobility of blood flow (sitting on long flights)
Endothelial damage (due to toxins etc)
26
Q

what does Efficacy mean?

A

the ability of a drug to cause a response at the receptor

27
Q

what does affinity mean?

A

the molecule attraction to the receptor

28
Q

what are the main receptor types?

A

Ligand Gated Ion Channels
G protein coupled receptors
Kinase associated receptors
Nuclear receptors

29
Q

what is a ligand gated ion channel?

A

a ligand needs to bind to allow the channel to open and allow ion movement across

30
Q

what is the structure of a G protein coupled receptor?

A

protein loops in the membrane , this Amine group is extracellular and the Carboxyl group is intracellular.
The receptor is extracellular.
The alpha subunit has a guanine binding site and connects to the cell membrane.
The beta-gamma complex attaches to the cell membrane via the gamma subunit

31
Q

how do G protein coupled receptors work?

A

a ligand binds to receptor, this causes G protein to undergo conformational change so alpha subunit releases GDP and dissociated from the beta-gamma subunit.
GTP then binds to the alpha subunit and then this goes to intacellular components and regulates them.

32
Q

what is a common example of the intracellular components the active alpha subunit goes to?

A

the alpha subunit activated by GTP, travels to adenlyl cyclase, activating it and causing ATP to become cAMP which then regulates many body functions

33
Q

how do Nuclear Receptors work?

A

steroid hormones are lipophilic so diffuse across cell membrane, they then bind to an intracellular receptor in cytoplasm, this steroid receptor complex then enters nucleus and forms a dimer with another. these then bind to Hormone Response Elements in the DNA, regulating transcription.

34
Q

what is the resting membrane potential?

A

-70mV

35
Q

what is the membrane K+ potential?

A

-90mV

36
Q

what is the membrane Na+ potential?

A

+60mV

37
Q

How do Action Potentials work?

Depolarisation step?

A

Resting potential is slightly depolarised due to some Na+ influx, this increases the membrane potential triggering a threshold for voltage gater Na+ channels, this causes rapid influx of alot of Na+ causing Depolarisation

38
Q

How do Action Potentials work?

Hyperpolarisation step?

A

voltage gated ion channels close, and voltage gated K+ channels open, causing lots of K+ to efflux, the cell membrane becomes slightly hyperpolarised, and then it comes back up to the resting potential (-70mV)

39
Q

where to Sympathetic fibres originate?

A

Thoracicolumbar (T1-L2)

40
Q

where do Parasympathetic fibres originate?

A

Craniosacral

41
Q

what cells produce the myelin sheeth in Sympathetic neurones?

A

Oligodendocytes

42
Q

what cells produce the myelin sheeth in Parasympathetic neurones?

A

Schwann cells

43
Q

what are the lengths and neurotransmitters of the Sympathetic pre ganglionic and post ganglionic fibres?

A

pre ganglionic= short fibre and ACh

Post ganglionic= long and NA

44
Q

what are the lengths and neurotransmitters of the Parasympathetic pre ganglionic and post ganglionic fibres?

A

pre ganglionic= long fibre and ACh

Post ganglionic= short and ACh

45
Q

what does Clearance mean?

A

the volume of drug that is cleared from plasma per time

46
Q

what does Volume of Distrubution mean?

A

(mass or volume of does given)/ concentration blood plasma

47
Q

what time frame is an embryo?

A

0-8 weeks

48
Q

what time frame is a foetus?

A

9 weeks to birth

49
Q

where does fertilisation occur?

A

Ampulla

50
Q

what happens to the egg once the sperms membrane fuses with it?

A

it triggers Meiosis II in the egg, and the egg release cortical granules preventing other sperm from entering

51
Q

where do embryos tend to implant?

A

Posterior Endometrium wall

52
Q

what important thing occurs day 7.5 in embryology?

A

embryo turns into BILAMINAR embryo (has hypoblast and epiblast)

53
Q

what is Gastrulation?

A

epiblasts move through the primitive streak and form 3 primary germ layers

54
Q

what is the purpose of the Na/K ATPase pump?

A

help maintain resting potential

55
Q

what happens in Na/KATPase pump?

A

3Na+ binds to carrier protein intracellularly, carrier protein then is phosphorylsed by ATP, it then changes conformation facing outwards and 3Na is released out, 2K then binds and protein is dephosphyrlated and 2K is released inside cell

56
Q

quick way to remember direction of ion movement in Sodium Potassium pump?

A

Banana (K+)= good

Salt (Na)= Bad

57
Q

what is Buccal administration of a drug? and why is it beneficial?

A

it is when you place the drug between your gums and cheek

it avoids first pass metabolism and has rapid action

58
Q

what interleukin released from Th2 cells causes B cell activation?

A

IL-4

59
Q

what interleukin causes T cell activation?

A

IL-2

60
Q

what interluekin causes IgA secretion from Antibodies?

A

IL-5