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Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Where are ribosomes produced?

A

Nucleolus

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2
Q

What do the ribosomes associate with in the cell?

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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3
Q

what are ribosomes made up of?

A

proteins and rRNA

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4
Q

What do gap junctions do?

A

allow the spread of electrical excitation directly from cell to cell
(also allow nutrients and signal molecules to be directly transferred between adjacent cells)

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5
Q

What are Tight/ Occluding junctions?

A

they are sites of membrane contact but provide no direct communication between cells

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6
Q

what is the function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

main site for synthesis of proteins (for secretion, incorporation into membranes and organelles)

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7
Q

what is the function of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

site of lipid synthesis (phospholipids)

they are abundant in cells that produce steroid hormones

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8
Q

what is the definition of the Epithelium?

A

avascular, typically polarised tissue that forms cohesive sheets
lines cavities and covers surfaces

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9
Q

what is skeletal muscle composed of?

A

long elongated cells with each cell having multiple nuclei and tube-like structures

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10
Q

what do extracellular bundles of collagen fibres make up?

A

Connective tissue

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11
Q

what are the 2 types of striated cells?

A

cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle cells

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12
Q

what produces myelin in the neurons of the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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13
Q

what produces myelin in the neurons of the PNS?

A

Scwhann cells

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14
Q

what receptor is on the surface of cells and causes apoptosis in the cell?

A

FAS receptors

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15
Q

where is the tricuspid valve located in the heart?

A

between the right atrium and the right ventricle

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16
Q

where is the mitral valve located in the heart?

A

between the left arium and the left ventricle

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17
Q

where is the pulmonary valve located?

A

between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

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18
Q

where is the aortic valve located?

A

between the left ventricle and the aorta

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19
Q

what are the layers of the heart from external to internal?

A

epicardium/ pericardium
myocardium
endocardium

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20
Q

where is most of the cardiac muscle in the heart located?

A

within the myocardium

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21
Q

what are the 2 major classes of white blood cells?

A

agranulocytes

granulocytes

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22
Q

what are the white blood cells that are granulocytes?

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

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23
Q

what are the white blood cells that are agranulocytes?

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

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24
Q

what are the key identifiable features of a neutrophil?

A

lobar nucleus
3-5 lobes
fine blue granules

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25
Q

what are the identifiable features of a monocyte?

A

non-segmented nucleus

horse shoe shaped nucleus

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26
Q

what are the identifiable features of eosinophils?

A

red granules

bi-lobar nucleus

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27
Q

what are the identifiable features of a basophil?

A

purple granules
segmented nucleus
(very low number in the body)

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28
Q

what are the identifiable features of a lymphocyte?

A

little cytoplasm

nucleus round shape

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29
Q

what is a zygote?

A

a single celled organism

called a fertilised ovum

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30
Q

what is a morula?

A

ball of cells 3-4 days after fertilisation

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31
Q

what is a blastocyst

A

a spherical ball of cells with a cavity (with an inner mass)

4-5 days after fertilisation

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32
Q

what time period is it called an embryo?

A

from fertilisation to 8 weeks

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33
Q

what time period is it called a foetus?

A

8 weeks to birth

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34
Q

what are the 4 sections of the fallopian tubes?

A

1-Infundibulum
2- Ampulla- widest part of the tube
3- Isthmus- part which enters the uterine part
4- Uterine part

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35
Q

what is it called when implantation occurs outside of the uterus?

A

ectopic pregnancy

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36
Q

where does fertilisation generally occur?

A

ampulla

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37
Q

what are the 3 main functional types of antibiotics?

A

Cell wall microbials
Antibiotics that affect nucleic acids
Antibiotics that target protein synthesis

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38
Q

what are the different types of Cell Wall Microbials and examples?

A

1- Penicillins eg Amoxicillan
2- Glycopeptides- eg Vancomycin
3- Cephlasporins- eg Ceftriaxone

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39
Q

what are the different types of Antibiotics that affect nucleic acids?

A

Metronidazole

Ciprofloxacin

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40
Q

what are the different antibiotics that target protein synthesis?

A

1- Aminoglycosides- eg Gentamicin
2- Tetracyclines- eg Doxycycline
3- Macrolides- eg erythromycin

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41
Q

what is a desmosome?

A

a structure that holds 2 cells together in the extracellular space

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42
Q

what colour are gram positive bacteria and why?

A

purple, due to the thick peptidoglycan

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43
Q

what toxins do tgram +ve bacteria have?

A

exotoxins

- toxins are secreted out

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44
Q

what colour are gram negative bacteria and why?

A

pink, thinner peptidoglycan layer

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45
Q

structure of gram negative bacteria?

A

thick cell wall, has outer membrane made up of liposaccharides and porins
periplasmic space is smaller

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46
Q

structure of gram positive bacteria?

A

thin cell wall, cell wall structure consists of periplasmic space enclosed between the plasma membrane and the thick peptidoglycan

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47
Q

what is a community of microorganisms found in or on the body called?

A

microbiome

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48
Q

what is used to classify streptococcus?

A

haemolysis

  • Alpha haemolysis (partial)
  • Beta haemolysis (full)
  • Gamma haemolysis (none)
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49
Q

what are endotoxins?

A

toxins inside the bacterial cell that are release when it disintegrates

50
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat staph aureus?

A

flucloxacillin

51
Q

what type of bacteria is bordetella pertussis and what does it cause?

A

gram negative, aerobic bacteria

whooping cough

52
Q

what is used to treat coliform infections?

A

Gentamicin

53
Q

what is used to treat anaerobic infections?

A

Metronidazole

54
Q

what is the vagus nerve and what does it do to the heart?

A

10th cranial nerve,

supplies the heart parasympathetically, stimulation causes heart rate to decrease

55
Q

what does body temperature above 40 mean?

A

hyperthermia

56
Q

what part of the hypothalamus is simulated by warmth?

A

anterior hypothalamic centre

57
Q

what part of the hypothalamus is stimulated by cold?

A

posterior hypothalamic centre

58
Q

what are PRR’s and what do they do?

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors,

expressed on macrophages and mediate the recognition of bacteria

59
Q

what are PAMP’s and what do they do?

A

Pathogen Associate Molecular Pattern,

presented on pathogens and are recognised by PRR’s

60
Q

what is the membrane attack complex?

A

MAC, bind directly to extracellular bacteria to cause cell death by osmotic lysis and membrane insertion

61
Q

what are C-reactive proteins?

A

they are important mediators of opsonisation of bacteria by phagocytes

62
Q

name 3 types of opsins

A

C-reactive proteins
IgG antibodies
C3b

63
Q

what is the initial response in acute inflammation?

A

pre-capillary dilation of arterioles followed by capillary dilation and then venule dilation

64
Q

what is opsonisation?

A

the coating of a pathogen by opsins to facilitate phagocytosis
C3b

65
Q

what is pinocytosis?

A

the internalisation of fluids into cells

66
Q

Receptor mediated Endocytosis?

A

internalisation of molecules bound to the membrane receptors

67
Q

what is chemotaxis?

A

movement of cells along a concentration gradient

68
Q

why is measuring IgM useful to diagnose viral infections?

A

it increases in the primary humoral immune response

secondary is IgG

69
Q

where is coagulative necrosis found?

A

often found in cardiac muscle

70
Q

where does liquefactive necrosis occur?

A

Central Nervous System

71
Q

what is an Adenoma?

A

benign tumour of the colon

72
Q

what is papilloma?

A

benign tumour of squamous cells

73
Q

what is transitional cell carcinoma?

A

malignant tumour of the urinary tract

74
Q

what is an adenocarcinoma?

A

malignant cancer of glandular tissue

75
Q

what is melanoma?

A

malignant cancer of the melanocytes of the skin

76
Q

what is chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

malignant cancer of white blood cells

77
Q

what is Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

malignant lymphoma of lymph nodes

78
Q

what is the TATA box in transcription?

A

promoter, initiates where on the DNA transcription occurs

79
Q

what binds to the DNA at the TATA box to unzip the DNA?

A

RNA polymerase

80
Q

where in the Ribosome does tRNA bind to in order to add an amino acid?

A

the A site, then when another comes along, the ribosome moves along one, so the tRNA is now at the P site

81
Q

what binds to the stop codon?

A

specific termination protein

not tRNA as no amino acid for stop codon

82
Q

what direction does DNA replication occur?

A

5’ end to 3’ end on both strands (leading and lagging)

83
Q

what enzyme joins the fragments of DNA on the lagging strand together? and what are these strands called?

A

Ligase

Okazaki fragments

84
Q

what bond does ligase create in order to join the fragments together?

A

phophodiester bond

85
Q

what do B1 receptors do? and what kind of nerves are involved?

A

mediate the increase in rate and force of the heart, by stimulation of sympathetic nerves

86
Q

what do B2 receptors do?

A

mediate the relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

87
Q

what are the 2 types of phosphorylation?

A

oxidative an substrate phosphorylation

88
Q

what represents the Michaelis constant?

A

Km

89
Q

what is the Michaelis constant?

A

the concentration of a substrate at 1/2 Vmax

90
Q

in the conversion of pyruvate to lactate, what enzyme causes the regeneration of NADH?

A

glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate dhydrogenase

91
Q

what is phase 1 and 2 of drug metabolism?

A

Phase 1- Modification

Phase 2- Conjugation

92
Q

what happens in phase 1 drug metabolism?

A

reactions occure making the substrate more toxic, eg oxidation, reduction etc
producing active metabolites

93
Q

what happens in phase 2 drug metabolism?

A

the active metabolite is reacted with another substrate in the liver

94
Q

how many half life’s does it take for a drug to reach a steady state plasma concentration?

A

5 half lifes

95
Q

what is the main organ of drug elimination?

A

kidneys

96
Q

what is a ganglia?

A

the site where 2 neurons meet in the autonomic system,

they are a cluster of neuron cell bodies with millions of synapses

97
Q

which autonomic nervous system is related to stress situations?

A

Sympathetic

98
Q

where do sympathetic fibres originate from?

A

they are thoracolumbar

originate betwwen your thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

99
Q

Axon length of sympathetic fibres

A

pre-ganglionic fibres axons are short and post ganglionic fibres are longer

100
Q

Sympathetic pre-ganglionic fibres release what?

A

Acetylcholine

101
Q

Sympathetic post-ganglionic fibres release what?

A

Norepinephrine

102
Q

Parasympathetic pre-ganglionic fibres release what?

A

Acetylcholine

103
Q

Parasympathetic post-ganglionic fibres release what?

A

acetylcholine and nitric oxide

104
Q

in sympathetic fibres what causes the response in the effector?

A

Norepinephrine

105
Q

what is the effector for sympathetic fibres?

A

smooth muscle

106
Q

what kind of fibres are Parasympathetic fibres?

A

Craniosacral

originate from the base of the brain and just superior to the tailbone

107
Q

what G protein receptor is B2 coupled with?

A

Gi proteins

108
Q

what G protein receptor is B1 coupled with?

A

Gs proteins

109
Q

what does alpha receptor stimulation due to norepinephrine cause?

A

vasoconstriction (due to smooth muscle contraction)

110
Q

what happens when norepinephrine stimulates Beta receptors?

A

smooth muscle relaxation

111
Q

what can stimulation of B2 receptors cause?

A

smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

112
Q

parasympathetic fibres axon lengths

A

pre-ganglia axons are long

post-ganglionic fibres are short

113
Q

what is an aneuploidy?

A

when there is an abnormal number of chromosomes

114
Q

what causes turners syndrome?

A

absence of an X chromosome

115
Q

what causes Patau syndrome?

A

extra genetic material on chromosome 13

116
Q

what karyotype is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

47XXY

117
Q

What features are on a chromosome?

A

short arm- p
long arm- q
kinetochore (where spindle fibres attach to pull apart sister chromatids)
telomere (at the end of the chromosome)

118
Q

what causes Down Syndrome?

A

an extra chromosome 21

trisomy 21

119
Q

what is the atlas bone?

A

C1 vertebrae

120
Q

what is the long bone in the forearm?

A

Ulna

121
Q

what is Human Factors described as?

A

Non-technical skills

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