Principles of Orthopedic Surgery (25) Flashcards

Dr. Gilley

1
Q

What is an allograft?

A

bone transplanted from one animal to another of the same species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are apophyseal osteotomies?

A

procedures to enhance surgical exposure of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an autograft?

A

bone transplanted from one site to another in the same animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

insertion point of a tendon or ligament is fractured and distracted from the rest of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are bridging plates?

A

span comminuted fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is cerclage wire?

A

orthopedic wire placed around circumference of bone to compress an oblique fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a closed reduction?

A

fractured bone alignment performed without surgical exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are compression plates?

A

plates that act to compress the fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are corrective osteotomies?

A

diaphysis or metaphysis of a bone is cut, realigned, and stabilized until union occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a cranial drawer?

A

abnormal movement of stifle joint elicited during physical examination
- caused by tibia sliding cranially in relationship to femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is crepitation?

A

“grating feel” or sound with manipulating a fractured bone or arthritic joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are delayed unions?

A

fractures that heal more slowly than anticipated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a direct bone union?

A

bone formed without evidence of callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is endochondral bone formation?

A

bone formed on cartilaginous precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is external coaptation?

A

fracture fixation with casts or splints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is external fixation?

A

fracture fixation in which pins penetrate bone and skin connected externally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

incomplete fracture where portion of cortex is intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is hemicerclage wire or inter fragmentary wire?

A

wire placed through predrilled holes in bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is indirect reduction?

A

process of restoring fragment and limb alignment by distracting major bone segments using animal’s weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is internal fixation?

A

fracture fixation using internal implants to secure bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are intramedullary pins?

A

implants positioned in the medullary canal of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is intramembranous bone formation?

A

direct differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into osteoblasts
- bone forms without a cartilaginous precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is luxation?

A

complete dislocation of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are malunions?

A

healed fractures where anatomic bone alignment not achieved or maintained during healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are neutralization plates?

A

support a reconstructed fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is nonunion?

A

fracture with an arrested repair process
- requires surgical intervention to create environment conducive to bone healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is normograde placement?

A

pin started at one end of bone driven to fracture area, then seated at other end of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an open fracture?

A

fracture is exposed to external atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is open (direct) reduction?

A

fracture repair performed after surgical approach to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is ortolani maneuver?

A

manipulation used to subluxate a dysplastic hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are ostectomies?

A

removal of a segment of bone

32
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

inflammatory condition of bone and medullary canal

33
Q

What are osteotomies?

A

procedures where bone is cut into two segments

34
Q

What is procurvatum?

A

cranial bowing of bone

35
Q

What is subluxation?

A

partial dislocation of a joint

36
Q

What is a valgus deformity?

A

angulation of distal portion of limb laterally

37
Q

What is varus deformity?

A

angulation of distal portion of limb medially

38
Q

What are the objectives in treating fractures, nonunions, or bone deformities?

A
  • bone union
  • patient’s return to normal function
39
Q

What is important when preparing for an orthopedic procedure?

40
Q

Describe this fracture

A

closed, laterally displaced tibial-fibular fracture, long oblique proximal mid-diaphysial

41
Q

Describe the fracture

A

open, complete, displaced, severely comminuted, non reducible fracture of the diaphysis of the femur

41
Q

How do you classify fractures?

A
  1. Closed or open
  2. Degree of damage and displacement of fragments
  3. Type of fracture
  4. Reducible or non reducible
  5. Location
42
Q

What does reducible or non reducible mean?

A

if fracture fragments can be reconstructed to provide load bearing

43
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

occurs in immature animals

incomplete fracture where portion of cortex is intact

partially stabilizes bone

44
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

occur when insertion point of tendon or ligament is fractures & distracted from rest of bone

may be non displaced or displaced

45
Q

What is a transverse fracture?

A

fracture line perpendicular to long axis of bone

46
Q

What is an oblique fracture?

A

lines run at an angle to line perpendicular to long axis of bone

47
Q

What is a short oblique fracture?

A

<45 degrees oblique fracture

48
Q

What is a long oblique fracture?

A

> 45 degrees to perpendicular to long axis of bone

49
Q

What are spiral fractures?

A

similar to long oblique fractures - but wrap around long axis of bone

50
Q

What are single fractures?

A

have one fracture line

51
Q

What are comminuted fractures?

A

have multiple fracture lines, range from
- 3-piece fragments with butterfly fragment (fragment with 2 oblique fracture lines resembling butterfly’s silhouette)
- to highly comminuted fractures with 5 or more pieces

52
Q

Look at this

53
Q

What is a reducible fracture?

A

single fracture line or fractures with no more than 2 large fragments

54
Q

What is a non reducible fracture?

A

fractures with multiple small fragments

55
Q

What do the velocity of forces dictate in a fracture?

A
  • number of fragments
  • damage to surrounding soft tissues
56
Q

What do low-velocity forces create in a fracture?

A

create single fractures with little energy dissipated into soft tissue

57
Q

What do high-velocity forces create in a fracture?

A

create comminuted fractures with high energy dissipated through fracture propagation and surrounding soft tissue injury

58
Q

How are open fractures classified?

A
  • mechanism of puncture
  • severity of soft tissue injury
59
Q

What is a grade I open fracture?

A

small puncture hole located in the skin in proximity of fracture caused by bone penetrating to outside
- typically ~1cm

bone may or may not be visible in wound

60
Q

Classification?

61
Q

What is a grade II open fracture?

A

variably sized skin wound associated with fracture that resulted from external trauma

more damage to soft tissue

fracture is minimally (or not) comminuted

62
Q

Fracture type?

A

grade II open fracture

63
Q

What is a grade III open fracture?

A

severe bone fragmentation with extensive soft tissue injury - with or without skin loss
- usually high-velocity comminuted fractures

gunshot injuries
shearing type of injuries of distal extremities

64
Q

Fracture type?

A

grade III open fracture

65
Q

Recall Salter-Harris fractures

66
Q

Define salter-harris types

67
Q

What are the forces acting on fractured bones?

A

bending forces
torsional forces
axial loading

68
Q

What is included in a Fracture Assessment Score (FAS)?

A
  • patient information
  • radiographs
  • client information
69
Q

What do you summarize in a fracture assessment score?

A
  • mechanical factors
  • biologic factors
  • clinical factors

guides the type of implants chosen

70
Q

What causes a non reducible and multiple limb injury?

A

maximum stress on implant system

requires careful implant choice and application

71
Q

Look at FAS score with biologic factors

72
Q

Look at clinical factors for FAS score?

73
Q

If you have a high FAS score, what does that mean?

A

high success of healing with few complications

74
Q

What does FAS range from?