Open Wound Management (12) Flashcards

Dr. Thompson

1
Q

What are some fundamentals of wound management?

A
  • temporarily cover the wound to prevent further trauma or contamination
  • assess animal and stabilize
  • clip and aseptically prepare the area around the wound
  • culture wound before antibiotics
  • decried dead tissue and remove foreign debris from the wound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How should you manage the wound?

A
  • lavage the wound
  • provide wound drainage
  • promote healing by stabilizing and protecting the cleaned wound
  • perform appropriate wound closure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Golden Period?

A

first 6-8 hours between wound contamination at injury and bacterial multiplication to greater than 10^5 CFU per gram of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is a wound considered infected and not contaminated?

A

infectedL when bacterial numbers exceed 10^5 CFU per gram of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does contamination mean?

A

presence of microbes on an surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does colonization mean?

A

surface microorganisms are replicating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does infection mean?

A

invasion and replication of microbes within the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is microbial burden?

A

(number of microorganisms x virulence) / host resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Class 1 - wound classification?

A
  • 0-6 hours old
  • minimal contamination and tissue trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Class 2 - wound classification?

A
  • 6-12 hours old
  • microbial levels may not have reached critical level consistent with development of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Class 3 - wound classification?

A
  • older than 12 hours
  • microbial levels may have reached critical level consistent with development of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are abrasions?

A

superficial and involve destruction of varying depths of skin by friction from blunt trauma or shearing forces
- sensitive to pressure or touch and bleed minimally
- heal rapidly by repithelialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of wound?

A

abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are puncture wounds?

A

characterized by small skin openings with deep tissue contamination and damage

wound depth and width vary depending on the velocity and mass of the object creating the wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should you be careful of with puncture wounds?

A
  • pieces of hair, skin, and debris can be embedded in wounds
  • be careful - don’t know depth or velocity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some types of puncture wounds?

A
  • penetrating foreign objects (stick, wire, bone)
  • gunshot injuries
  • bite wounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Type of wound?

A

puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a laceration?

A

created by tearing, which damages skin and underlying tissue (muscle, tendons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What defines something as a laceration?

A

may be superficial or deep and have irregular edges

  • typically, minimal peripheral trauma to the wound edges (unless concurrent avulsion injury)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Type of wound?

A

laceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are avulsions or degloving injuries?

A

characterized by the tearing of tissues from their attachments and the creation of skin flaps
- exposed wound bed
- common on distal limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are degloving injuries?

A

avulsion injuries on limbs with extensive skin loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is anatomic degloving?

A

skin and various levels of underlying tissue are torn off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is physiologic degloving?

A

skin surface is intact but separated or avulsed from underlying subcutaneous tissue and blood supply
- results in delayed necrosis of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are thermal burns?

A

caused by heat or chemicals like fire, cage dryers, heating pads, heat lamps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens with deep and extensive burn injuries?

A

may cause systemic compromise due to
- severe fluid loss
- electrolyte loss
- protein loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is increased with thermal burns?

A

risk of infection and sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are crush injuries?

A

can be a combination of other types of wounds with extensive damage and contusions to skin and deeper tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are decubital ulcers?

A

result of compression of the skin and soft tissues between a bony prominence and a hard surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What can decubital ulcers result in?

A

skin loss over a bony prominence, may extend into deeper soft tissue and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are common sites for decubital ulcers? **

A
  • greater trochanter
  • lateral elbow
  • lateral hock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is primary wound closure?

A

wound edges are apposed and allowed to heal by first intention
- occurs in most surgical wounds
- class I and some class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are delayed primary closures?

A

appositional closure within 3-5 days

before granulation tissue has been produced in wound bed

class 2 - mildly contaminated, minimal trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is healing by contraction and epithelialization?

A

wound left open to heal by contraction and epithelialization
- eventually produces a continuous epithelial surface
- may be inefficient and fail to produce a functional outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When is healing by second intention indicated?

A
  • dirty wounds
  • contaminated wounds
  • traumatized wounds
36
Q

What is secondary closure - third intention healing?

A

appositional closure more than 3-5 days after wounding

granulation tissue has formed in the wound bed

37
Q

When is secondary closure indicated?

A

severely contaminated, severely traumatized, infected wounds

38
Q

What happens with secondary closure?

A

development of granulation tissue in the wound provides a microbial resistant, vascular substrate that facilitates healing

  • closure is performed over the granulation tissue
39
Q

What does immediate wound care involve?

A
  • reduce microbial burden
  • prevent further contamination

large volume irrigation - the solution to solution is dilution

40
Q

What is often required for initial wound inspection and care?

A

anesthesia

41
Q

How should you prepare to clip and prep the wound?

A

applying a sterile, water-soluble lubricant

placing saline-soaked sponges in the wound and covering with a sterile pad or towel

hair may be clipped from the wound margin

42
Q

After you clip the wound, how should you prep the wound?

A

use povidone-iodine or chlorhexidine gluconate skin scrubs

43
Q

What should you not use on open wounds?

A

alcohol - very damaging to exposed tissue and should be used only on intact skin

44
Q

What is the preferred lavage solution for initial wound management?

A

sterile isotonic saline or a balanced electrolyte solution (Lactated Ringer’s)

45
Q

Why do we do wound lavage?

A

it reduces bacterial numbers mechanically by loosening and flushing away bacteria and associated necrotic debris

46
Q

What do noncytotoxic wound cleansers do?

A

applied to loosen debris and soften necrotic tissue during bandage changes
- surfactant and disrupts the ionic bonding of particles and organisms other than the wound

47
Q

What in the lavage solution reduces bacterial numbers? What are the drawbacks?

A

antibiotics or antiseptics - may damage tissue, have little effect on bacteria in established infections

48
Q

What is the most consistent delivery method to generate 7 or 8 psi for wound lavage?

A

a 1 liter bag of fluid within a cuff pressurized to 300 mmHg

49
Q

What are the drawbacks to higher pressure wound irrigation systems?

A
  • drive bacteria and debris into loos tissue planes
  • damage underlying tissue
  • reduce resistance to infection
50
Q

How should you lavage this?

A

1 L of 0.9% saline , maintained at 300 mmHg with extension tubing and an 18-gauge needle

51
Q

What is debridement?

A

involves removal of dead or damaged tissue, foreign bodies, and microorganisms that compromise local defense mechanisms and delay healing

52
Q

What is the goal of debridement?

A

to obtain fresh clean wound margins and wound bed for primary or delayed closure

53
Q

The extent of devitalized tissue is usually obvious within ______ of injury

A

2 days (48 hours)

54
Q

How do you surgically debride a wound?

A

excised in layers beginning at the surface and progressing to the depths of the wound

  • sharp dissection
  • electrosurgery
  • laser
55
Q

How should you debride muscle?

A

until it bleeds and contracts with appropriate stimuli

56
Q

How should you debride subcutaneous tissue?

A

should be avoided as it may delay wound healing

57
Q

How should you debride fat?

A

should be liberally excised - easily devascularized and harbors bacteria

58
Q

How should you deride cutaneous vessels?

A

must be spared to maintain the viability of overlying skin

59
Q

When can the entire wound be excised en bloc?

A

if sufficient healthy tissue surrounds the wound and vital structures can be preserved

60
Q

What should you do when debriding penetrating wounds or punctures?

A

it may be necessary to enlarge the wound to asses the extent of injury and allow debridement

61
Q

When should wounds be closed after surgical debridement?

A

when it appears healthy or when a bed of healthy granulation tissue has formed

62
Q

What is autolytic debridement?

A

accomplished through creation of a moist wound environment to allow endogenous enzymes to dissolve nonviable tissue

63
Q

How is autolytic debridement accomplished?

A

hydrophilic, occlusive, or semi occlusive bandages

64
Q

What is bandage (mechanical) debridement?

A

dressings that are allowed to dry on the wound, such as wet-to-dry bandages or dry-to-dry bandages

adhere to the wound surface and pull the debris and strip the superficial layers off the wound bed when removed

65
Q

What do wet-to-dry bandages do?

A

provide adequate wound protection and coverage, maintain a moist wound environment and absorb moderate amounts of wound exudates

66
Q

What are mechanical debridement bandage most used?

A

early stages or in management of wound infection

painful and nonselective

67
Q

What is enzymatic debridement?

A

used as an adjunct to wound lavage and surgical debridement

68
Q

What does enzymatic debridement do?

A

break down necrotic tissue and liquefy coagulum and bacterial biofilm

69
Q

What is bio surgical debridement?

A

maggot therapy

for chronic, non healing wounds

70
Q

What is maggot therapy best used for?

A

necrotic, infected, or chronic non healing wounds

71
Q

What do maggots do?

A
  • remove necrotic tissue
  • disinfect the wound
  • promote granulation tissue formation
72
Q

When are antibiotics not normally used with wounds?

A

if less than 6-8 hours old

73
Q

When are antibiotics used regarding wounds?

A

severely contaminated, crushed, or infected wounds

wounds older than 6-8 hours

ultimately based on culture and susceptibility testing

74
Q

Which kinds of antimicrobials/antibiotics not be used?

A

powders

75
Q

When is triple antibiotic ointment effective?

A

effective against a broad spectrum of pathogenic bacteria commonly infecting superficial skin wounds

not good against pseudomonas

76
Q

Triple antibiotic ointment is more effective for _____

A

prevent infections rather than treating them

77
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat burn wounds?

A

silver sulfadiazine

78
Q

What is silver sulfadiazine effective for?

A

effective against most gram+ and gram- bacteria and most fungi

serves as an antimicrobial barrier and can penetrate necrotic tissue

79
Q

What is nitrofurazone?

A

broad-spectrum antibacterial and hydrophilic properties

80
Q

What is gentamicin sulfate>

A

especially effective in controlling gram-negative bacterial growth like pseudomonas

81
Q

What is cefazolin?

A

effective antimicrobial against gram+ and gram- organisms

82
Q

What is mafenide?

A

topical sulfa compound
- broad spectrum against many gram+ and gram- bacteria

83
Q

What are the benefits of honey?

A
  • enhancing wound debridement
  • reducing edema and inflammation
  • promoting granulation tissue formation and epithelialization
  • improving wound nutrition
84
Q

What should honey be used then discontinued?

A

used: early in the course of wound healing

discontinued: once a healthy granulation bed is present

85
Q

What are the benefits in using sugar for wounds?

A
86
Q

What is the purpose of vacuum-assisted closure?

A

removes atmospheric pressure

87
Q

What are the benefits of vacuum-assisted closure?

A
  • increased rate of granulation
  • accelerated healing times
  • wound cleaning
  • improved blood flow
  • reduced edema