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Hem/Onc > Principles of Oncology- Exam 2 > Flashcards

Principles of Oncology- Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How does cancer develop?

A

when the body’s normal control mechanism stops working, abnormal mutations accelerate cell division rates or inhibit normal controls on the system

aka unregulated cell division, avoidance of cell death, tissue invasion, ability to metastsize

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2
Q

Describe a cancer cell when compared to a normal cell

A

normal: small uniformly shaped nuclei with relatively large cytoplasmic volume, conformity in cell size and shape, lower levels of dividing cells, cell tissue clearly demarcated

Cancer: large, variable shaped nuclei, small cytoplasmic volume, lots of variation in cell size and shape, disorganized, loss of normal specialized features, elevated expression of certain cell markers, large number of dividing cells, poorly defined tumor boundaries

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3
Q

_____ of deaths in the US is caused by cancer

A

1 in 4

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4
Q

Cancer is the ____ leading cause of death in the United States

A

second

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5
Q

_____ is the most significant risk factor for cancer

A

age

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6
Q

**What are the top 4 types of cancer among all races and genders? (in order)

A
  1. female breast
  2. prostate
  3. lung
  4. colon and rectum
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7
Q

**What are the top 4 cancer DEATHS

A
  1. Lung
  2. Female breast
  3. Prostate
  4. Colon and rectum
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8
Q

_____ is the most common type of cancer in men. ____ in female

A

prostate

breast

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9
Q

The individual chance that someone will develop cancer in response to a particular, single environmental exposure depends on ________ and _____ that person was exposed.

A

how long

how often

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10
Q

Name some additional things that can influences your chances for cancer.

A

Exposure to certain environmental factors (including diet, hormones)
Genetic makeup
Age and gender

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11
Q

Healthy lifestyle is what kind of prevention?

A

primary prevention

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12
Q

Mammograms are an example of _____ prevention

A

secondary prevention

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13
Q

Treating prostate cancer is an example of ______ prevention

A

tertiary prevention

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14
Q

What is the primary focus of primary prevention?

A

is to prevent a cancer from ever developing or to delay the development of a malignancy

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15
Q

primary prevention may include the use of _____ or ______ to prevent or significantly reduce the risk of developing a malignancy.

A

chemopreventive agents

prophylactic surgery

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16
Q

_____ is the most common preventable cause of cancer death;

A

Tobacco

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17
Q

Smokeless tobacco also represents a substantial health risk. Linked to ????

A

dental caries, gingivitis, oral leukoplakia, and oral cancer

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18
Q

_____ is linked to carcinogens in tobacco dissolved in saliva and swallowed

A

Esophageal cancer

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19
Q

_____ is associated with reduced risk of colon and breast cancers

A

physical activity

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20
Q

In observational studies, _____ is associated with a reduced risk of colonic polyps and invasive cancer of the colon

A

dietary fiber

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21
Q

**Heavy drinkers have an increased risk of cancers of the ???

A

*head, *liver, *neck *esophagus

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22
Q

**Epstein-Barr virus is linked to ____

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasal T cell lymphoma

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23
Q

**H. pylori is associated with ____

A

Gastric cancer, gastric MALT lymphoma

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24
Q

**Hepatitis B or C is associated with ____

A

Liver cancer

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25
Q

**HIV is associated with ____

A

non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, squamous cell carcinomas (especially of the urogenital tract)

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26
Q

**HPV is associated with _____

A

Cervix cancer, head and neck cancer

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27
Q

**Sunlight is associated with ____

A

skin cancer

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28
Q

**Tobacco including smokeless tobacco is associated with _____

A

Cancer of the upper aerodigestive tract, bladder

29
Q

Secondary prevention refers to the ??? of subclinical, asymptomatic, or early disease in individuals without obvious signs or symptoms of cancer

A

early detection and treatment

30
Q

Secondary cancer prevention includes ???? for developing malignancy and implementing ????? based on the risk assessment

A

identifying people who are at risk

appropriate screening recommendations

31
Q

____ proportion of persons with the disease who test positive in the screen

A

sensitivity

32
Q

____ proportion of persons who do not have the disease that test negative in the screening test

A

specificity

33
Q

_____ proportion of persons who test positive that actually have the disease

A

positive predictive value

34
Q

_____ proportion testing negative that do not have the disease

A

negative predictive value

35
Q

Ages ____ have the option to start screening with a mammogram every year.

Women ____ should get mammograms every year

A

40-44

45 to 54

36
Q

Women _____ can switch to a mammogram every other year, or they can choose to continue yearly mammograms. Screening should continue as long as a woman is in good health and is expected to live at least _____

A

55 and older

10 more years.

37
Q

Women who are at high risk for breast cancer based on certain factors should get a ????? typically starting at age 30.

A

breast MRI and a mammogram every year,

38
Q

Define what ACS considers women at high risk for breast cancer

A

Have a lifetime risk of breast cancer of about 20% to 25% or greater, according to risk assessment tools that are based mainly on family history.

Have a known BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutation (based on having had genetic testing)

Have a first-degree relative (parent, brother, sister, or child) with a BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutation, and have not had genetic testing themselves

Had radiation therapy to the chest before they were 30 years old

Have Li-Fraumeni syndrome, Cowden syndrome, or Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba syndrome, or have first-degree relatives with one of these syndromes

39
Q

What is the age recommendations for colorectal cancer screenings

A

Beginning at age 45 (through age 75)

Colonoscopy every 10 years

40
Q

What is the cervical screening recommendations?

A

age 21 to 29 get a pap smear every three years as long as they are normal

41
Q

What are the detection signs of cancer?

A

Change in bowel or bladder habits

A sore that does not heal

Unusual bleeding or discharge

Thickening or lump in the breasts, testicles or elsewhere

Indigestion or difficulty swallowing

Obvious change in the size, color, shape or thickness of a wart, mole, or mouth sore

Nagging cough or hoarseness

42
Q

What are some classic signs of cancer?

A

Classic symptoms: Nightsweats, Unexplained weight loss or loss of appetite, Persistent low-grade fever

Chronic pain, especially in the bones

Persistent fatigue

43
Q

**The diagnosis of cancer relies most heavily on ??? and should never be made without obtaining ____

A

invasive tissue biopsy

tissue

44
Q

Staging determines the ???; helps determine ____ and best _____

A

extent of disease

prognosis

treatment plan

45
Q

The first priority in patient management is to ???? of disease.

A

determine the extent

46
Q

_____ is the first major determinant of treatment outcome/prognosis

A

Tumor burden

47
Q

For most cancers, the extent of disease is evaluated by a variety of noninvasive and invasive diagnostic tests and procedures, called ____

A

staging

48
Q

What kind of staging is based on physical examination, radiographs, isotopic scans, CT scans, and other imaging procedures?

A

Clinical staging

49
Q

_____ takes into account information obtained during a surgical procedure, which might include intraoperative palpation, resection of regional lymph nodes and/or tissue adjacent to the tumor, and inspection and biopsy of organs commonly involved in disease spread.

A

Pathologic staging

50
Q

What is the most widely used system of staging?

A

TNM (tumor, node, metastasis) system

codified by the International Union Against Cancer and the American Joint Committee on Cancer

51
Q

Which type of cancer cannot be grouped on the basis of anatomic considerations?

A

leukemia, myeloma, and lymphoma

52
Q

_____ is a determinant of how a patient is likely to cope with the physiologic stresses imposed by the cancer and its treatment

A

Physiologic reserve

53
Q

**What does a high Karnofsky performance index indicate? What number is considered high?

A

100-High: able to do normal ADLs by themselves

0-Low: death, very sick

54
Q

**What is the ECOG performance scale?

A

0= full active and functional

5= dead

55
Q

Treatment recommendations depend upon _____, _____, and _____

A

extent of disease

prognosis

patient wishes

56
Q

**_______ treatment has successfully eradicated all traces of a person’s cancer, and the cancer will never recur

A

Cure

57
Q

**______ signs and symptoms of a person’s cancer are reduced. Remissions can be partial or complete. In a complete remission, all signs and symptoms of cancer have disappeared.

A

remission

58
Q

**_____ return of signs and symptoms of a person’s cancer - treatment of a relapse is known as “salvage” therapy

A

relapse

59
Q

**_____ provided to improve a patient’s quality of life; to prevent or treat the symptoms and side effects of the disease and its treatment, in addition to the related psychological, social, and spiritual problems. The goal is not to cure.

A

Palliative care

60
Q

Tumor markers (are/are not) specific enough to permit a diagnosis of malignancy to be made.

A

are not

The marker is best used to assess response to treatment.

61
Q

____ is the MC of cancer overall

A

lung cancer

62
Q

**Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is associated with ____

A

Gestational trophoblastic disease, gonadal germ cell tumor

pregnancy

63
Q

**Calcitonin is associated with ____

A

Medullary cancer of the thyroid

64
Q

**α Fetoprotein is associated with ____

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma, gonadal germ cell tumor

Cirrhosis, hepatitis

65
Q

**Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is associated with ____

A

Adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, breast, ovary

Pancreatitis, hepatitis, inflammatory bowel disease, smoking

66
Q

**Lactate dehydrogenase is associated with ____

A

Lymphoma, Ewing’s sarcoma

Hepatitis, hemolytic anemia, many others

67
Q

**Prostate-specific antigen is associated with ____

A

prostate cancer

Prostatitis, prostatic hypertrophy

68
Q

**CA-125 is associated with ____

A

Ovarian cancer, some lymphomas

Menstruation, peritonitis, pregnancy

69
Q

**CA 19-9 is associated with ____

A

Colon, pancreatic, breast cancer

Pancreatitis, ulcerative colitis

Hem/Onc (14 decks)

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